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Env. Eng. Final Exam

Terms in this set (109)

What are the general units (mass, length, time, etc.) of "k" for a first order reaction?
a. mass
b. mass / concentration
c. concentration
d. volume / time
c. time^-1
e. time^-1
Pollution entering a river is best stimulated using which type of reactor?
a. completely mixed batch reactor
b. completely stirred tank reactor
c. plug flow reactor
d. batch reactor
e. completely mixed flow reactor
c. plug flow reactor
The two fundamental topics which govern the movement of pollutants within an environmental system are:
a. the law of conservation of pollutants and environmental regulations
b. the law of conversation of mass and the law of conservation of energy
c. environmental regulations and economics
d. the law of conservation of mass and the periodic table of elements
e. the law of conservation of energy and gravity
b. the law of conservation of mass and the law of conservation of energy
the first step in a mass balance analysis is to
a. define any reactions occurring within the system
b. physically separate the are with construction fencing
c. calculate the system outputs
d. calculate the system inputs
e. define the control volume
e. define the control volume
which of the following properties is NOT included in a materials balance diagram?
a. accumulation
b. temperature
c. outputs
d. inputs
e. control volume boundary
b. temperature
By assuming steady state conditions, the materials balance equation can be simplified by:
a. removing the generation rate term
b. removing the decay rate term
c. removing the system outputs term
d. removing the accumulation rate term
e. removing the system inputs
d. removing the accumulation rate term
By assuming that a substance is conservative, the materials balance can be simplified by:
a. removing the decay / generation rate terms
b. removing the control volume
c. removing the system outputs term
d. removing the system inputs term
e. removing the accumulation rate term
a. removing the decay / generation rate terms
Which of the following should not be modeled using a continuously stirred tank reactor (CSTR)?
a. A lake fed by a polluted stream with a sewage outfall
b. the air within a well-ventilated classroom
c. a pollutant being carried in the jet stream in the Earth's upper atmosphere
d. the water in a shallow pond with an inlet and outlet
e. a nightclub with smoking allowed indoors
A pollutant being carried in the jet stream in the Earth's upper atmosphere
Which of the following should not be modeled using a plug flow reactor (PFR)?
a. a conveyer belt carrying a single-file line of bottles with no mixing of the contents of one bottle with another
b. salmon migrating downstream to the sea
c. a nightclub with smoking allowed indoors
d. a pollutant being carried in a river
e. a pollutant being carried in the jet stream in the Earth's upper atmosphere
c. a nightclub with smoking allowed indoors
the residence time of the fluid within a control volume is given by
a. the PFR control volume (V) divided by the fluid flow rate (Q)
b. the fluid flow rate (Q) divided by the fluid velocity (v)
c. the PFR control volume (V) divided by the fluid velocity (v)
d. the fluid velocity (v) divided by the length of the PFR (l)
e. the fluid flow rate (Q) divided by the PFR control volume (V)
a. the PFR control volume (V) divided by the fluid flow rate (Q)
The balancing of equations so that the same number of each kind of atom appears on each side of the equation and the subsequent calculations, which can be used to determine amounts of each compound involved, is known as
a. stoichiometry
b. ionization
c. chemical equilibria
d. enthalpy
e. reaction kinetics
a. stoichiometry
which of the following is not true regarding combustion reactions of hydrocarbons such as butane (C4H10)?
a. the butane is oxidized
b. a hydrocarbon reacts with carbon dioxide
c. a product of the reaction is water
d. a product of the reaction is carbon dioxide
e. a hydrocarbon reacts with oxygen
b. a hydrocarbon reacts with carbon dioxide
when bacteria oxidize a substance by using it for food, the amount of oxygen required is known as
a. oxidation constant
b. biochemical oxygen demand
c. molecular weight
d. dissolved oxygen
e. theoretical oxygen demand
b. biochemical oxygen demand
the pH of a solution is calculated directly using:
a. the square root of the hydrogen ion concentration
b. the molecular weight of hydroxide
c. the negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration
d. the molecular weight of hydrogen
e. the negative log of the hydroxide ion concentration
c. the negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration
Ksp is known as the
a. special K value
b. precipitation coefficient
c. henry's law constant
d. dissolution constant
e. solubility product
e. solubility product
which acid base system controls pH in natural waters?
a. phosphorus
b. ammonia striping
c. the hydrogen cycle
d. the carbonate system
e. the nitrogen cycle
d. the carbonate system
which of the following chemical species is not included in the carbonate system
a. CO3^2-
b. HCO3-
c. H2CO3
d. CO2 (aq)
e. NH3
e. NH3
which of the following is not a naturally occurring substance in the atmosphere which can impact the pH of rainwater?
a. chlorofluorocarbons
b. alkaline dust
c. ammonia
d. sulfer dioxide
e. carbon dioxide
a. chlorofluorcarbons
which of the following the statements is not true about nitrogen?
a. when organic matter decomposes, nitrogen is first released in the form of ammonia or ammonium ion
b. nitrogen can be removed during wastewater treatment using a process known as ammonia stripping
c. nitrogen is a nutrient that can degrade water quality by stimulating excessive algal growth in receiving bodies of water
d. nitrogen in the form of nitrate can cause a potentially lethal condition known as methmoglobinemia
e. nitrogen is not a chemical of concern when discussing water quality
e. nitrogen is not a chemical of concern when discussing water quality
KH is known as the:
a. special K value
b. Henry's Law constant
c. precipitation coefficient
d. solubility product
e. dissolution constant
b. henry's law constant
this type of growth occurs in any situation where the increase in some quantity is proportional to the amount currently present
a. disaggregated growth
b. half life
c. exponential growth
d. Gaussian Growth
e. logistic growth
c. exponential growth
in the equation for exponential growth with continuous compounding the units for the proportionality constant r are
a. concentration
b. mass
c. time^2
d. time
e. time^-1
e. time^-1
the doubling time td is calculate by
a. doubling the growth rate r
b. dividing 70 by the growth rate r
c. dividing 0.693 by the growth rate r
d. dividing the growth rate r by 70
e. taking the natural log of the growth rate r
b. dividing 70 by the growth rate r
the half life t1/2 is calculated by
a. doubling the reaction rate coefficient k
b. dividing the reaction rate coefficient k by 0.693
c. taking the natural log of the reaction rate coefficient k
d. dividing 0.693 by the reaction rate coefficient k
e. dividing 70 by the reaction rate coefficient k
d. dividing 0.693 by the reaction rate coefficient k
the amount of time required for the quantity of a substance to decay from 100 mg/L to 50 mg/L is known as
a. decay life
b. half-life
c. second life
d. reaction rate coefficient
e. doubling time
b. half-life
the three simple factors that drive the environmental impacts of human activity are
a. weather, affluence, technology
b. population, weather, technology
c. temperature, affluence, technology
d. population, affluence, temperature
e. population, affluence, technology
e. population, affluence, technology
in the equation for exponential decay, the units for the reaction rate coefficient k are:
a. concentration
b. mass
c. time
d. time^-1
e. time^2
d. time^-1
the chapter presents a method to estimate future carbon emissions by disaggregating demand into 3 factors. according to that simplified model, which is not a way to reduce carbon emissions?
a. increasing the amount of energy consumed per person
b. increasing global population
c. decreasing global population
d. increasing renewable energy capacity such as wind and solar
e. investing in energy efficient technology such as LED lightbulbs
a. increasing the amount of energy consumed per person
b. increasing global population
which factor is indicated by per capita energy demand?
a. half-life
b. affluence
c. population
d. doubling time
e. technology
b. affluence
which factor is indicated by the carbon emissions per unit of energy?
a. half-life
b. doubling time
c. affluence
d. population
c. technology
e. technology
How does the Clean Water Act of 1972 (CWA) differ from the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974 (SDWA)?
a. SDWA has jurisdiction over water quality in rivers, lakes, estuaries, and wetlands, while WA regulates tap water quality
b. CWA regulates flow rates of plumbing fixtures in public facilities, while SDWA regulates tap water quality
C. SDWA regulates flow rates of plumbing fixtures in public facilities, while CWA regulates water quality in surface waters
d. CWA regulates water quality while SDWA regulates water quantity
e. CWA has jurisdiction over water quality in rivers, lakes, estuaries, and wetlands, while SDWA regulates tap water quality
e. CWA has jurisdiction over water quality in rivers, lakes, estuaries, and wetlands, while SDWA regulates tap water quality
What are the units of hydraulic conductivity?
a. Gallons/minute
b. Gallons/ft^2
c. Meters^2
d. Meters/day
e. Gallons/day-ft
d. Meters/day
How many days does a BOD test require?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 3
d. 10
e. 30
b. 5
In 2006, the EPA estimated that 40% of the waters in the US did not meet the water quality standards set for them and that over 2/3 of the population live within 10 miles of these impaired waters. Which is the most significant factor influencing surface water quality to the point that it still does not meet the Clean Water Act's goals of "fishable and swimmable" waters?
a. Discharge from industrial manufacturing
b. Discharge from wastewater treatment plants
c. Runoff from agricultural lands and urban streets
d. Flushing of household chemicals and pharmaceuticals by consumers
e. Drought
c. Runoff from agricultural lands and urban streets
As temperature increases, the solubility of oxygen
a. Increases linearly
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same - no impact
d. Increases exponentially
e. Increase logarithmically
b. Decreases
Eutrophication is accelerated through human activities including runoff from fertilized agricultural lands which stimulates algal growth and degrades water quality. Which two nutrients most often limit algal growth?
a. Phosphorus and nitrogen
b. Phosphorus and potassium
c. Calcium and magnesium
d. Carbon and nitrogen
e. Nitrogen and potassium
a. Phosphorus and nitrogen
7. The slope of the water table in an unconfined aquifer, measured in the direction of the steepest rate of changes, is called the
a. Unsaturated zone
b. Capillary fringe
c. Hydraulic gradient
d. Piezometric surface
e. Specific yield
c. Hydraulic gradient
Describe the critical point with regards to the oxygen sag curve.
a. The highest concentration of dissolved oxygen
b. Equivalent to the BODs level
c. Equivalent to the initial deficit Do
d. The worst conditions with respect to dissolved oxygen
e. Equivalent to the saturated level of dissolved oxygen DOsat
d. The worst conditions with respect to dissolved oxygen
Give an example of a nonpoint source of pollution.
a. Discharge pipes from wastewater treatment plants
b. Discharge pipes from industries
c. Runoff from urban areas
d. Discharges from animal feedlots where the polluted water is collected in networks of pipes or channels and taken to a central point before discharge
e. Discharges from mines where the polluted water is collected in networks of pipes or channels and taken to a central point before discharge
c. Runoff from urban areas
Which aquifer material has the highest porosity?
a. Gravel
b. Clay
c. Sand
d. Limestone
e. Granite
b. Clay
Which of the following attributes is not used by the EPA to define a substance as hazardous?
a. Ignitable
b. Corrosive
c. Reactive
d. Toxic
e. Temperature
e. Temperature
Equivalent weight (EW) is calculated as
a. Ionic charge multiplied by atomic or molecular weight
b. Equivalent to the atomic or molecular weight
c. Concentration of a substance multiplied by molecular weight
d. Atomic or molecular weight divided by ionic charge
e. Equivalent to the ionic charge
d. Atomic or molecular weight divided by ionic charge
Which of the following attributes is not treated in accordance with secondary drinking water standards?
a. Taste
b. Lead
c. Odor
d. Color
e. Hardness
b. Lead
Why must older cities post warnings along shorelines after almost every rain storm?
a. The excess rain causes flash floods along the shoreline
b. Runoff from streets carries a heavy load of organics, metals, and sediment
c. Raw sewage is diverted around combined wastewater treatment plants for direct release
d. Excess nutrients leads to eutrophication along the shoreline
e. The excess rain causes tidal waves along the shoreline
c. Raw sewage is diverted around combined wastewater treatment plants for direct release
Which environmental law requires manufacturers to be responsible for the waste they produce from "cradle to grave" (i.e. from generation to disposal)?
a. Safe Drinking Water Act
b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
c. Clean Water Act
d. Comprehensive Environmental Response and Compensation Liability Act
e. National Environmental Policy Act
b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
How do we measure the concentration of microorganisms in a wastewater treatment plant?
a. Volatile suspended solids
b. Total suspended solids
c. Fixed suspended solids
d. Dissolved oxygen
e. Turbidity
a. Volatile suspended solids
The equation used to model microbial population growth is known as what?
a. Streeter-Phelps Equation
b. Bournoulli's Equation
c. Monod Equation
d. Biochemical Oxygen Demand
e. Plug Flow Reactor
c. Monod Equation
What do we use as a measure of substrate in a wastewater treatment system?
a. Dissolved oxygen
b. Volatile suspended solids
c. Turbidity
d. BOD
e. pH
d. BOD
The difference between temporary and permanent hardness is that temporary hardness can be removed by
a. Sedimentation
b. Coagulation
c. Heating
d. Flocculation
e. Fluoridation
c. Heating
What does secondary treatment remove from the wastewater?
a. Suspended solids and greases
b. Soluble BOD and additional removal of suspended solids
c. Debris (sticks, rags, sand, gravel, toys, etc.)
d. Specific pollutants (nutrients)
e. Fluoride
b. Soluble BOD and additional removal of suspended solids
One of the most common strategies to reduce environmental impact within buildings is to install low-flow plumbing fixtures to reduce water consumption. Using what you've learned from reading Chapter 5, what do you think would happen to a wastewater treatment plant (WWTP) in terms of BOD when a community switches to low flow plumbing fixtures?
a. No impact on BOD
b. BOD loading will increase
c. BOD loading will decrease
a. No impact on BOD
A municipality has increasing water demand and this demand is nearing the maximum capacity of the water supply. Water use in the municipality is 95% residential. The municipality is evaluating various water conservation approaches. Which of the following approaches would not likely reduce water use in residences?
a. Utilizing a tiered water billing rate, where high users pay more.
b. Utilizing water metering in all residences.
c. Providing a tax rebate to offset the purchase of residential water saving technologies, such as high efficiency appliances or automatic faucets.
d. Utilizing a flat billing rate structure for users, where all users pay the same for water regardless of use.
d. Utilizing a flat billing rate structure for users, where all users pay the same for water regardless of use.
A community of 250 residences is planned to be built 7 miles from an existing centralized wastewater infrastructure. The cost to install piping from the community to the centralized wastewater tie-in is $1.5M per mile. One alternative is to have each residence construct an on-site sand mound which requires a capital cost of $25,000 per residence. Another alternative is to utilize a decentralized treatment system that can handle up to 100,000 gallons per day is proposed for $1.75M. Which following outcome is likely for this new community?
a. Tie into the centralized wastewater infrastructure
b. Construct an on-site sand mound for each residence
c. Install the decentralized treatment system to serve the community
d. None of the options provided adequately protect the environment.
c. Install the decentralized treatment system to serve the community
Which attribute lowers the perception of risk for a health concern?
a. Chronic
b. Permanent effect
c. Controlled by others
d. Involuntary
e. Catastrophic
a. Chronic
The EPA attempts to control our exposure to toxics (carcinogens) that will pose incremental lifetime cancer risks to the most exposed members of the public of roughly
a. Any amount of additional deaths above zero
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1,000,000
d. 1 in 5,000,000
e. 1 in 1,000,000,000
c. 1 in 1,000,000
What is the leading cause of death in the United States?
a. Heart disease
b. Cancer
c. Strokes, bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma
d. Homicide
e. Motor vehicle accidents
a. Heart disease
Statistically, smokers shorten their life expectancy by roughly how much time for each cigarette smoked?
a. 5 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 5 hours
d. 5 days
e. 1 month
a. 5 minutes
Which activity poses the highest annual risk of death?
a. Farming
b. Hang gliding
c. Motorcycling
d. Smoking
e. Coal mining
c. Motorcycling
The hazard index is the sum of the hazard quotients. Which total hazard index could represent a potential risk?
a. 2
b. 0.2
c. 0.02
d. 0.002
e. 0.0002
a. 2
At low doses, where the dose-response curve is assumed to be linear, the slope of the dose-response curve is called the
a. Reference dose
b. Toxicity threshold
c. Incremental lifetime cancer risk
d. Chronic daily intake
e. Potency factor
e. Potency factor
The chronic daily intake (CDI) is, by definition,
a. Average daily dose divided by potency factor
b. Potency factor divided by body weight
c. Average daily dose divided by body weight
d. Average daily dose multiplied by body weight
e. Body weight divided by average daily dose
c. Average daily dose divided by body weight
This is the process of determining whether or not a particular chemical is causally linked to particular health effects, such as cancer or birth defects.
a. Risk management
b. Dose-response assessment
c. Exposure assessment
d. Hazard identification
e. Risk characterization
d. Hazard identification
Which attribute increases the perception of risk for a health concern?
a. Equitable
b. Involuntary
c. Natural
d. Familiar
e. Chronic
b. Involuntary
When performing the feasibility study for site remediation, the EPA risk assessment guidelines set forth a preliminary remediation goal based on risk-based calculations. Chemical concentrations for carcinogens are equivalent to a lifetime cancer risk of what value?
a. zero
b. 1x10^-9
c. 1x10^-6
d. 1 in 100
c. 1x10^-6
When evaluating the hazard quotients for all chemicals for which an individual is exposed to, a total hazard index can be quantified. Which of the following total hazard index values represent a value at which no adverse human health effects would be expected to occur?
a. 4.5
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 0.5
d. 0.5
Which of the following is not an exposure route considered for toxicology?
a. Auditory
b. Inhalation
c. Dermal
d. Ingestion
a. Auditory
The minimum dissolved oxygen level in rivers to support most fish is generally accepted to be what range?
a. 0-2 mg/L
b. 2-4 mg/L
c. 4-6 mg/L
d. 8-10 mg/L
b. 2-4 mg/L
What is most nearly the impact on the incremental annual BOD mass loading rate to a wastewater treatment plant if conventional plumbing fixtures and appliances are replaced with water conservation plumbing fixtures and appliances?
a. No change because the concentration will increase
b. Increases because the concentration will increase
c. Decreases because the volume will decrease
d. Decreases because the volume and concentration will decrease
a. No change because the concentration will increase
Eutrophication has been identified as degrading the water quality in a river. What contaminants should be prevented from entering the river, from both point and non-point sources, to stop eutrophication?
A. BOD and COD
B. BOD and TSS
C. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
D. Bacteria and Algae
C. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
An artesian well with the potentiometric surface greater than the land surface refers to what type of scenario?
A. A carefully drilled well, named after Artisanal well drillers
B. A well where water flows above the ground surface due to confined water pressure
C. A well that pulls water from the surface into a confined aquifer
D. A well that has the potential to utilize all water in a confined aquifer
B. A well where water flows above the ground surface due to confined water pressure
Which type of soil would you expect to have the lowest hydraulic conductivity?
A. Clean Gravel
B. Course Sand
C. Fine Sand
D. Clay
D. Clay
What type of permit is required for any point source that discharges water with "pollutants" into a water body of the United States?
A. United States Clean Water Act Permit (UW CWA Permit)
B. Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL)
C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
D. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
D. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
What best defines how maximum contaminant level goals (MCLG) are established as non-enforceable public health goals in drinking water?
A. The highest level of a contaminant in drinking water at which no known or anticipated adverse effect on the health of persons would occur.
B. This is the highest level of disinfectant or disinfection by-product allowed in public water, other compounds are not considered governed by MCLGs.
C. The MCLG is set by using a specified treatment technique that will achieve 99.9% removal of a specified compound, and this is how all MCLGs are established.
D. The MCLG of a compound is established based on public consensus
A. The highest level of a contaminant in drinking water at which no known or anticipated adverse effect on the health of persons would occur.
Which is the most appropriate order of unit processes for a municipal water treatment plant?
A. Disinfection, screening, grit removal, primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation
B. Grit removal, screening, disinfection, primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation
C. Primary sedimentation, screening, grit removal, secondary sedimentation, disinfection
D. Screening, grit removal, primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation, disinfection
D. Screening, grit removal, primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation, disinfection
What concentration of BODs would be typical for untreated domestic wastewater?
A. 25 mg/L
B. 250 mg/L
C. 2,500 mg/L
D. 25,000 mg/L
B. 250 mg/L
Which is the most appropriate order of unit processes for a municipal wastewater treatment plant?
A. Screening, primary sedimentation, biological processes, secondary sedimentation, disinfection
B. Screening, disinfection, biological processes, primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation
C. Primary sedimentation, disinfection, biological processes, screening, secondary sedimentation
D. Primary sedimentation, secondary sedimentation, biological processes, screening disinfection
A. Screening, primary sedimentation, biological processes, secondary sedimentation, disinfection
Which best describes the key difference between a primary pollutant and a secondary pollutant?
a. A primary pollutant is derived from materials and a secondary pollutant is formed during combustion.
b. A primary pollutant is emitted in higher volumes from factories, whereas a secondary pollutant is emitted in low volumes from factories.
c. A primary pollutant is from stationary sources, whereas a secondary pollutant is emitted from mobile sources.
d. A primary pollutant impacts human health and a secondary pollutant impacts environmental damage.
e. A primary pollutant is emitted directly from a source whereas a secondary pollutant is formed via atmospheric reactions.
e. A primary pollutant is emitted directly from a source whereas a secondary pollutant is formed via atmospheric reactions.
What is radon gas?
a. A fuel type gas
b. A gas from combustion
c. A very rare, but very safe gas
d. A common radioactive noble gas
e. A secondary air pollutant
d. A common radioactive noble gas
When air cools more rapidly with altitude than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the ambient air temperature is set to be
a. Subadiabatic
b. An inversion
c. Neutral
d. Superadiabatic
e. Stable
d. Superadiabatic
When air cools less rapidly with altitude than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the ambient air temperature is set to be
a. Superadiabatic
b. Absolutely unstable
c. Subadiabatic
d. Neutral
e. Unstable
c. Subadiabatic
Which is not true about unstable atmospheric conditions?
a. Unstable atmospheric conditions cause temperature inversions, creating a virtual lid on the upward movement of pollution
b. Unstable atmospheric conditions allow for vertical mixing of air pollution
c. Unstable atmospheric conditions represent a superadiabatic ambient lapse rate
d. Unstable atmospheric conditions allow air to cool more rapidly with altitude than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
e. Unstable atmospheric conditions use buoyancy forces to encourage a parcel of air to keep moving upward
a. Unstable atmospheric conditions cause temperature inversions, creating a virtual lid on the upward movement of pollution
For removing relatively large particles, the most commonly used gas-cleaning device used in power plant post-combustion control is the
a. Electrostatic precipitator
b. Cyclone collector
c. Baghouse
d. MERV13 filter within an air handling unit
e. Ultraviolet radiation system
b. Cyclone collector
Which indoor air pollutant is of particular concern in basements?
a. Radon
b. Particulate matter
c. Ozone
d. Lead
e. Sulfur dioxide
a. Radon
8. What is the value of the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
a. 9.76 °C/ m
b. 9.76°C /100 m
c. 1°C/ km
d. 1°C/m
e. 9.76°C/ km
e. 9.76°C/ km
Which is an example of a secondary air pollutant?
a. Nitrogen Oxides
b. Ozone
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Volatile Organic Compounds
e. Carbon Dioxide
b. Ozone
Considering air quality regulations, what best describes an area that is in non-attainment with regard to NAAQS?
a. A region has one or more area sources that are not in compliance with their current permit.
b. A region which possesses one or more point locations that are emitting air pollution without a permit.
c. An area which has increased ambient concentrations of carbon dioxide.
d. A region that exceeds the regulated concentrations for one or more of the criteria pollutants.
e. An area which has increased ambient concentrations of CFCs.
d. A region that exceeds the regulated concentrations for one or more of the criteria pollutants
Which concept from CE 3400 can we use to understand the science behind the greenhouse effect and global temperature rise?
a. Stoichiometry
b. Chemical equilibrium
c. Chemical kinetics
d. Monod equation
e. Energy balance
e. Energy balance
The layer of the atmosphere in which we spend most of our time (at Earth's surface) is known as the
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Stratopause
d. Mesosphere
e. Thermosphere
b. Troposphere
Which is the single most important attribute of climate change?
a. Precipitation
b. Winds
c. Glaciation
d. Frequency of extreme events such as typhoons and hurricanes
e. Long-term variations in average temperature
e. Long-term variations in average temperature
Ice cores taken in which locations have been used for isotopic analysis to determine the historical temperature record?
a. Greenland and Canada
b. Alaska and Antarctica
c. Greenland and Alaska
d. Greenland and Antarctica
e. Alaska and Mount Everest
d. Greenland and Antarctica
The simple global temperature model predicts an average surface temperature on Earth of -19 °C. The actual surface of Earth is 34 °C higher than this prediction. Which phenomenon is responsible for this discrepancy?
a Greenhouse effect
b. Photosynthesis
c. Temperature inversion
d. Unstable atmospheric conditions
e. Stable atmospheric conditions
a Greenhouse effect
In 2006, the global average concentration of carbon dioxide was 380 ppm and rising at about 2 ppm/year. What is the closest value to the global average concentration of carbon dioxide in 2021?
a. 400 ppm
b. 315 ppm
c. 450 ppm
d. 500 ppm
e. 410 ppm
e. 410 ppm
Which of the following chemical species has the highest global warming potential (GWP)?
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Sulfur hexafluoride
c. Methane
d. CFC-11
e. HCFC-22
b. Sulfur hexafluoride
Which of the following is not a consequence of ocean acidification?
a. Stronger shells formed on small marine snails
b. Less carbonate available for calcifying organisms to grow and maintain calcium carbonate shells
c. Destruction of coral reefs
d. Shifting of the saturation horizon closer to the ocean's surface
e. Less food available for fish and marine mammals
a. Stronger shells formed on small marine snails
Scientists are able to collect temperature data over hundreds of thousands of years using which method?
a. Weather balloons
b. Satellite measurements
c. Ice cores
d. Groundwater samples
e. Infrared cameras
c. Ice cores
What is the most important greenhouse gas in terms of warming the planet?
a. Sulfur hexafluoride
b. Methane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Carbon monoxide
d. Carbon dioxide
Which federal statue governs solid waste generation, storage, transportation, treatment, and disposal?
a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
B. Hazardous Materials Transportation Act
c. Clean Air Act
d. Toxic Substances Control Act
e. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
e. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Which factor is not an element of a lifecycle analysis of GHG emissions?
a. Extraction and processing of raw materials
b. Manufacturing of products
c. Price of goods
d. Recycling or composting
e. Waste collection
c. Price of goods
Which material saves the most energy when recycled or composted versus landfilled?
a. Corrugated cardboard
b. Fly ash
c. Glass
d. Paper
e. Aluminum cans
e. Aluminum cans
A small facility close to town which acts as a temporary repository for wastes dropped off by local garbage trucks is known as a
a. Transfer station
b. Landfill
c. Recycling center
d. Composting center
e. Dumpster
a. Transfer station
Which classification of landfill is designed to handle hazardous wastes?
a. Monofills
b. Class III
c. Class II
d. Class I
e. Sanitary Landfills
d. Class I
Which classification of landfill is designed to handle sewage sludge wastes?
a. Secure Landfills
b. Class I
c. Class II
d. Class III
e. Sanitary Landfills
c. Class Il
Which classification of landfill is designed to handle municipal solid waste?
a. Secure Landfills
b. Class III
c. Class II
d. Class I
e. Monofill
b. Class III
What are the "3Rs" which impact MSW disposal?
a. Refuse, reuse, recycle
b. Reduction, refuse, recycling
c. Reduction, reuse, recycling
d. Reduction, reuse, refuse
e. Reduction, reformulate, reuse
c. Reduction, reuse, recycling
Which type of soil is used below a flexible membrane liner in landfills?
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Sand
d. Loam
e. Peat
a. Clay
A reasonable average estimate for the density in a MSW landfill is most nearly
a. 2,000 lb/yd^3
b. 1,000 1b/yd^3
c. 100 lb/yd^3
d. 500 1b/yd^3
e. 5,0001b/yd^3
b. 1,000 1b/yd^3
Which of the following items is not often a critical factor when evaluating site conditions for building a new landfill?
A. Proximity to population centers
B. Public acceptance
C. Nearby bridge capacities
D. Distance from a military base
D. Distance from a military base
Which of the following type of landfill requires a double liner?
A. Construction and Demolition Debris Landfill
B. Municipal Solid Waste Landfill
C. Hazardous Waste Secure Landfill
D. Recycling Facility Storage
C. Hazardous Waste Secure Landfill
An industrial company generates a solid waste that is a consistent quality product and is uniform in chemical composition. What might be the most economically beneficial waste management strategy for the company?
A. Perform additional on-site waste audits
B. Change landfill vendors, to a less expensive vendor
C. Perform material blending on-site to dispose of this waste simultaneously with other wastes
D. Perform an on-site recycling program
D. Perform an on-site recycling program
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