Mental dental quiz q's

One of the primary etiologic agents of aphthous
stomatitis is proposed to be:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Human leukocyte antigen
E. Candidiasis
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Which of the following odontogenic cysts occurs as a result of stimulation and proliferation of the reduced enamel epithelium? A. Dentigerous cyst B. Lateral root cyst C. Radicular cyst D. Odontogenic keratocyst E. Gingival cystATwo cystic radiolucencies in the mandible of a 16- year-old boy were lined by thin, parakeratinized epithelium showing palisading of basal cells. All teeth were vital, and the patient had no symptoms. This patient most likely has which of the following? A. Odontogenic keratocysts B. Periapical granulomas C. Periapical cysts D. Traumatic bone cysts E. Ossifying fibromasAWhen a diagnosis of odontogenic keratocyst is made, the patient should be advised regarding the ___________. A. Need for full-mouth extractions B. Association with colonic polyps C. Associated recurrence rate D. Likelihood of malignant transformation E. Need for additional lab studiesCA 15-year-old patient has a numb lower lip and pain in her right posterior mandible. A radiograph shows uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane space of tooth #30. The tooth shows abnormally increased mobility. Which one the following diagnoses should be seriously considered? A. Periapical cyst B. Periapical granuloma C. traumatic bone cyst D. ameloblastoma E. MalignancyEThis patient presents with the following lesion on their ventral tongue clinically. What is your diagnosis? A. Aphthous ulcer B. Herpes simplex virus C. herpangina D. papilloma E. peripheral ossifying fibromaDAn 8-year old patient presents with an Ellis class II fracture of tooth #8. In an effort to attain a pulpal diagnosis, which of the following tests is least reliable? A. Cold test B. Electric pulp test C. Percussion D. PalpationBRadiographic examination shows a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root. The best treatment is which of the following? A. Root canal treatment B. Splint and re-evaluate the tooth for pulpal vitality at a later time C. Apexification D. Apicoectomy to remove the fractured apical section of the root followed by root canal treatment E. ExtractionBPulpal anatomy dictates which of the following access openings for a maxillary first molar? A. Circular B. Ovoid C. Blunted triangle D. TrapezoidalCSymptomatic irreversible pulpitis pain in which of the following sites is most likely to radiate to the ear? A. Maxillary premolar B. Maxillary molar C. Mandibular premolar D. Mandibular molarDWhich of the following statements most likely applies to a cracked tooth? A. The direction of the crack usually extends mesiodistally B. The direction of the crack usually extends faciolingually C. Radiographic examination is the best way to detect a cracked tooth D. A and C E. B and CAWhat is the clinical hallmark of a chronic periradicular abscess? A. Large periradicular lesion B. Sinus tract drainage C. Granulation tissue in the periapex D. Cyst formationBWhich of the following tissues will not regenerate after a root canal treatment? A. Dentin B. Cementum C. PDL D. BoneAWhile performing nonsurgical endodontic therapy, you detect a ledge. What should you do? A. Use a smaller instrument and get by the ledge B. Fill as far as you have reamed C. Use a small round bur and remove the ledge D. Continue working gently to remove the ledgeAThe ideal treatment option for a vertical root fracture (most commonly happens due to excessive condensation forces of an over prepared canal; will see J-shaped radiolucency) is: A. Pulpotomy B. Root canal treatment C. Apicoectomy D. ExtractionDWhich of the following conditions indicates a periodontal problem rather than an endodontic problem exists? A. Acute pain to percussion with no swelling B. Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket C. A deep narrow sulcular pocket to the apex with exudate D. Pain to palpation of the buccal mucosa near the tooth apexBif perio and endo lesion, what do you do first?treat endo first, then perio problem secondEndodontic infection usually is polymicrobial. What is the predominant type of microorganism found in a tooth that requires endodontic therapy? A. Aerobic bacteria B. Facultative bacteria C. Obligate anaerobic bacteria D. Yeast microorganismsCThe "danger zone" of mandibular molars for perforations during canal instrumentation is: A. Mesial area of mesial root B. Distal area of mesial root C. Mesial area of distal root D. Distal area of distal rootBWhat constitutes the largest portion of gutta-percha obturation material? A. Gutta-percha B. Zinc oxide C. Waxes and resins D. Heavy metal saltsBWhich of the following statements most accurately describes the manufacturing process for a K-type hand instrument? A. Grinding a stainless steel wire to a tapered square or rhomboid cross section B. Twisting a square or rhomboid non-tapered silver metal blank C. Grinding a nickel titanium wire to a triangular cross section D. B and C E. All of the aboveAThis emergency patient presents with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis and symptomatic apical periodontitis of tooth #12. Which of the following is the best treatment protocol for this patient? A. Anesthesia followed by incision and drainage B. Anesthesia followed by extraction C. Anesthesia followed by pulpectomy D. Prescribe antibiotics for 1 week and follow with nonsurgical endodontic treatmentCWhen you follow-up with this patient to perform the RCT, you use EDTA to lubricate the canal. What is this material best categorized as? A. Emulsifying agent B. Intracanal medicament C. Irrigant D. Chelating agentDDiazepam and _____ (ab) are DDI that increases sedation b/c of reduced metabolism of benzosclarithromycinTetracylcines and ______ are DDI that reduces absorption of tetracyclinesantacids (tums)Aspirin and _____ are DDI since it increases bleeding tendencyanticoagulantsAcetaminophen and ______ are DDI since it increases the risk of liver toxicityalcoholLocal anesthetics and ________ inhibitors (Alzheimer's drugs) are DDI since it reduces the effectiveness of _______ inhibitorsacetylcholinesteraseWhich of the following is a local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? A. Procaine B. Lidocaine C. Prilocaine D. Mepivicaine E. BupivicaineATardive dyskinesia is a neurological side-effect of which of the following classes of drugs? A. Alcohols B. Tricyclic antidepressants C. Barbiturate antiepileptics D. Phenothiazine antipsychotics E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitorsDA dentist administers 1.8 mL of a 2% solution of lidocaine. How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive? A. 3.6 mg B. 9 mg C. 18 mg D. 36 mg E. 180 mgDWhich of the following penicillins is administered ONLY by deep intramuscular injection? A. Ampicillin B. Dicloxacillin C. Penicillin G D. Penicillin VCAccording to AHA guidelines, the maximum # of carpules of local anesthetic containing 1:200,000 epinephrine that can be used in a patient with cardiovascular disease is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 11DWhich of the following antibiotics may be cross-allergenic with penicillin? A. Neomycin B. Cephalexin C. Erythromycin D. Clindamycin E. All of the aboveBUse of prilocaine carries the risk of which of the following adverse effects? A. Porphyria B. Renal toxicity C. Gastric bleeding D. MethemoglobinemiaDQuinidine is principally used to treat A. Hypertension B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive hear failure D. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmiaDAn analgesic compound #3 contains how many mg of codeine? A. 7.5 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60CThiazides, which are used in the treatment of hypertension, may require supplemental administration of A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Calcium D. PotassiumDWhich of the following is an example of an enteral route of administration? A. Oral B. Submucosal C. Inhalation D. Subcutaneous E. IntramuscularANeostigmine (treats glaucoma, myasthenia gravis) produces its effect by A. depressing acetylcholinesterase release B. inhibiting acetylcholinesterase activity C. increasing the rate of acetylcholine synthesis D. acting like acetylcholine at ganglionic sites E. increasing the amount of acetylcholine released from nerve terminalsBTetracycline reduces the effectiveness of concomitantly administered penicillin by A. Reducing absorption of penicillin B. Increasing metabolism of penicillin C. Increasing renal excretion of penicillin D. Increasing binding of penicillin to serum proteins E. None of the aboveEYou are performing a root canal treatment on a patient who suffers from dental anxiety. You decide to prescribe Valium pre-operatively. Benzodiazepines produce their anti-anxiety effects by modulating which of the following neurohumors? A. GABA B. Glycine C. Dopamine D. Acetylcholine E. NorepinephrineAYou check the medical history for this same patient and notice he is taking Aspirin. Anti-inflammatory agents, such as aspirin, interfere with hemostasis by A. Activating antithrombin B. Preventing vasoconstriction C. Inhibiting thrombin generation D. Inhibiting platelet aggregation E. Inhibiting polymerization of fibrinDWhat is the nerve most damaged in TMJ surgery? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Auriculotemporal nerve E. Inferior alveolar nerveBWhere is the maxillary third molar most likely to be displaced during an extraction? A. Maxillary sinus B. Masseteric space C. Retropharyngeal space D. Infratemporal fossa E. Submandibular spaceDA patient has a skeletal deformity with a Class III malocclusion. This deformity is the result of a maxillary deficiency. The ideal treatment is A. Orthodontics B. Surgical repositioning of the maxilla C. Anterior maxillary osteotomy D. Posterior maxillary osteotomy E. Surgical repositioning of the mandibleBWhich of the following statements about the flap for the removal of a palatal torus is correct? A. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision which courses from the papilla between teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of the hard and soft palates. B. The most optimal flap is a reflection of the entire hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a line between the two first molar teeth. C. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal incision that courses from the palatal aspect of tooth #3 across to the palatal aspect of tooth #14. D. The most optimal flap is shaped like a "double-Y", with a midline incision and anterior and posterior side arms extending bilaterally from the ends of the midline incision.DWhat is the most frequently impacted tooth? A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine C. Maxillary third molar D. Mandibular third molar E. Mandibular second premolarDWhat is the best diagnostic tool for evaluating the TMJ? A. MRI B. Panoramic C. Periapical D. CBCT E. CephalometricAWhat is the luxator of choice for extraction of a single retained root of a mandibular molar? A. Cryer elevator B. Crane pick C. Root tip pick D. Straight elevator E. Molt periosteal elevatorAWhat is the minimum labiolingual dimension of bone required to place an implant diameter of 3.5 mm? A. 3.5 mm B. 4.5 mm C. 5.5 mm D. 6.5 mmCWhich of the following is the MOST common postoperative problem associated with mandibular sagittal-split osteotomies? A. Infection B. TMJ pain C. Periodontal defects D. Devitalization of teeth E. Neurosensory disturbancesEWhich of the following is the least likely congenitally missing tooth? A. Maxillary lateral incisor B. Maxillary canine C. Mandibular second premolar D. Mandibular third molarBFor surgical extraction of #30, which direction do you section the tooth to facilitate removal of the roots? A. Mesio-distal B. Bucco-lingual C. Mesio-distal and bucco-lingual D. PeripherallyBWhich of the following is considered the highest and most severe classification of maxillary fracture? A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. Le Fort IVCMyofascial pain dysfunction is best described as A. Masticatory pain and limited function B. Clicking and popping of the joint C. An infectious process D. Dislocation of the discAYou are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year-old patient with an implant. When comparing radiographs, you estimate that there has been almost 0.1mm loss of bone height around the implant since it was placed. Which of the following is indicated? A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a larger size implant B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before another one can be placed 4 months later C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of tangential forces on the implant D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone loss is considered acceptableDThis same patient is undergoing a simple extraction and discloses that he has a needle anxiety. Shortly after the local anesthetic injection, the patient experiences an episode of vasovagal syncope. which do you not do? A. Administer oxygen B. Place in Trendelenburg position C. Reassure patient D. Administer epinephrine E. Maintain airflowDThe distance from the CEJ to the base of the pocket is a measure of _________. A. Clinical attachment level B. Gingival recession C. Probing pocket depth D. Alveolar bone lossAWhich type of periodontal disease most often requires antibiotic therapy? A. Gingivitis B. Localized aggressive periodontitis C. Localized chronic periodontitis D. Generalized chronic periodontitisBWhat is the primary treatment objective of guided tissue regeneration? A. Formation of long junctional epithelium B. Promoting growth of epithelial cells C. Coronal movement of the PDL D. Reducing inflammationCWhich type of bacteria is routinely involved in cases of chronic periodontitis? A. P. gingivalis B. T. forsythia C. P. intermedia D. C. rectus E. A. actinomycetemcomitansAWhich of the following is NOT a feature of the modified Widman flap? A. Full thickness flap B. Reduction of osseous defect C. Precise horizontal incisions D. Provides improved visual access to periodontally involved tissuesBWhat is the most important factor in determining prognosis of a tooth affected by periodontal disease? A. Bleeding on probing B. Clinical attachment loss C. Probing pocket depth D. Alveolar bone lossBA patient's compliance with schedule maintenance visits has no effect on the long-term retention of periodontally treated teeth. Frequency of maintenance visits has no correlation with the development of periodontal pockets and gingivitis. A. Both statements are true. B. First statement is true, second statement is false. C. First statement is false, second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.DDistal wedge surgery does NOT involve which of the following techniques? A. Full thickness flap B. Partial thickness flap C. V-shaped incisions in mandible D. Parallel incisions in maxillaBWhat is the mechanism of action of Doxycycline as used in host modulation therapy? A. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit B. Inhibits the formation of peptidoglycan cross- links in the bacterial cell wall C. Prevents nucleic acid synthesis by disrupting the DNA of microbial cells D. Prevents further breakdown of periodontal tissues by blocking collagenaseDFor most patients affected with periodontitis, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments? A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 yearBWhich bony defect responds best to regenerative therapy? A. Trough B. Hemiseptal C. Shallow crater D. 1-walledAThe predominant inflammatory cells in the periodontal pocket are which of the following? A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Neutrophils D. MacrophagesCWhat are the characteristics of the primary bacterial colonizers of the tooth in dental plaque formation? A. Gram-negative facultative B. Gram-positive facultative C. Gram-negative anaerobic D. Gram-positive anaerobicBOrder the following types of cells by their ability to populate a wound area during the healing process from fastest to slowest. 1. PDL cells 2. Epithelial cells 3. Gingival connective tissue cells 4. Bone marrow cells A. 1, 2, 4, 3 B. 2, 3, 1, 4 C. 3, 2, 1, 4 D. 1, 3, 4, 2BWhich of the following American dental association principles of ethics states that a dentist has a duty to respect the patient's right to self-determination and confidentiality? A. Patient autonomy B. Nonmaleficence C. Privacy D. Justice E. VeracityADuring an informal session of motivational interviewing, your patient says "I dont have time to quit smoking." what stage of behavior change is he/she in? A. Precontemplation B. contemplation C. Preparation D. Action E. MaintenanceAThe _____ section of a scientific article provides the reader with detailed info regarding the study design A. Abstract B. Background C. Introduction D. Methods E. DiscussionDWhich of the following is an effective community prevention program? A. Brushing twice a day B. Flossing once a day C. Regular dental checkups D. School sealant program E. low-sugar dietDWhich method of sterilization is least likely to dull and corrode carbide instruments? A. Glutaraldehyde B. Steam heat C. Dry heat D. Ethylene oxideCwhat is an example of a conditioned stimulus for a dental patient that had a previous bad experience? A. dental chair B. high bP C. intrinsic fear D. anxiety of parentAwhich of the following is not included in the ADA code of conduct? A. licensure by credentials B. advertising C. slander D. fees E. patient careAwhich technique is typically not useful in treating an anxious patient? A. Using less structure in establishing rapport B. reassuring the patient by telling the patient not to worry C. providing reasons before asking for sensitive info D. using empathy E. making expectations clearBthe variance for data set A is 21 and for data set B is 7. We can conclude that A. there are more items in data A than data set B B. the mean of data set B is smaller than the mean of data set B C. the items in data set A are more widely spread about the mean value than the items in data set B D. The standard deviation for data set B is larger than the standard deviation for data set A E. none of the aboveCwhich of the following is an arrangement between a plan and a group of dentists whereby the providers agree to accept certain payments (usually less than their usual fees) in anticipation of a higher volume of patients? A. PPO B. Capitation C. HMO D. Medicare E. None of the aboveAwhich of the following is a component of the OARS model? A. assertions B. appraisals C. affirmations D. absolutesCfluoride supplementation for a 2 y/o child who lives in a nonfluoridated community can best be accomplished by initially prescribing _______. A. fluoride tablets B. fluoride lozenges C. fluoride drops D. fluoride mouth rinse E. fluoride toothpasteCan amalgam restoration is considered ______. A. primary prevention B. secondary prevention C. tertiary prevention D. unsafeBRyan is a young child who consistently presents as an anxious, hypervigilant, and upset during dental visits. Ryan is often accompanied by his parent, who appears to very concerned about the child and wants to be involved at all times in her evaluation and tx. during this visit, Ryan's tx requires an injection and rubber dam application, which you anticipate may lead to increased anxiety. which strategy would be least effective in completing the rubber dam application? A. Tell-show-do B. distraction C. ask child to be a helper D. structure time E. rehearsalsBRyan has a strong gag reflex during X-ray procedures. you suggest he take several X-ray packets home and practice holding the packets in his mouth for increasingly longer periods of time. which of the following techniques does this best exemplify? A. social reinforcement B. systematic desensitization C. modeling D. guided imagery E. behavioral learningBCongenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development? A. Initiation B. Morphodifferentiation C. Apposition D. CalcificationAThe enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth. the roots of primary teeth tend to be more divergent than those of permanent teeth. A. Both statements are true B. The first statement is true, the second statement is false C. The first statement is false, the second statement is true D. Both statements are falseAThe mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child's thumb sucking habit. on examination 6 mo ago, the pt had a 5mm overate and 3mm anterior open bite. today, the patient has a 3mm overate and 10% overbite. the mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. which of the following is the best advice? A. refer to a speech pathologist B. recommend tongue thrust therapy C. recommend a thumb sucking appliance D. counsel the parent regarding thumb sucking and recall the patent in 3 months.DA 20kg child can be safely administered up to how many carpules of 2% lido? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5BA 6 yo pt. comes to their first ever dental visit, but is quite fearful. whats the most likely explanation? A. what they saw on tv B. what they heard from their parents C. what they heard from their peers D. based on their own imaginationBA parent comes in with a 1 yo child. how should the dentist perform the exam? A. baby is sitting in parents lap facing the dentist B. baby is held in parents arm w/ head facing over their shoulder toward dentist C. parent and dentist are knee to knee with baby's head in parent's lap D. parent and dentist are knee to knee with baby's head in dentists lapDA pediatric patient is taking amphetamine. what can be observed in pt. health history A. asthma B. COPD C. ADHD D. anxietyCin a 4 yo pt., tooth E was traumatically intruded, and approx. 50% of the crown is visible clinically. what is the treatment of choice? A. reposition and splint B. reposition, splint, primary endo C. reposition, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy D. none of the aboveDwhat is the most common medication used for pulpotomy procedures in children? A. CaOH B. formocresol C. GI D. composite resinB (Buckley's formocresol)a 6.5 yo child lost J early. tooth 14 has not yet emerged into the oral cavity. what space maintainer is ideal for this situation? A. band and loop B. distal shoe C. nance D. lower lingual holding archBWhat is the tx of choice for a primary 1st molar with furcation involvement? A. no tx B. Pulpotomy C. pulpectomy D. ExtDWhat is the proper sequence to close a midline diastema in a child w/ a heavy maxillary labial frenum? 1. perform a frenectomy 2. wait for the upper permanent canines to erupt 3. close the diastema w/ ortho A. 1,2,3 B. 2,1,3 C. 2,3,1 D. 1,3,2CA child with which malocclusion is most susceptible to a traumatic dental injury? A. increased overbite B. increased overjet C. anterior open bite D. midline asymmetryBwhat does a radiolucency at the furcation of primary mandibular first molar in a 5 yo usually indicate? A. erupting permanent first premolar B. pulp necrosis C. normal anatomy D. dentigerous cystBthis tooth is to be ext due to pulpal pathology, but the 5 yo pt is uncooperative and becomes physically combative. the parents are unable to calm the child. what should the dentist do? A. discuss the situation with the parents B. force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child's mouth and nose C. use the hand over mouth exercise D. use firm voice controlAAccording to GV black, the outline form of a cavity preparation is the shape of the cavity preparation A. after resistance form B. after caries removal C. along the pulpal floor D. along the cavosurface marginDTriturating a dental amalgam A. reduces the size of the alloy particles B. coats the alloy particles w/ mercury C. irreversibly converts mercury to silver D. dissolves the alloy particles in mercuryBWhich of the following describes the best way to safely remove carious dentin near the pulp in a class I prep? A. a spoon excavator by hand B. a bur with a high speed handpick C. a very slow rotating large bur D. An explorer tipCFor a dental hand instrument w/ a formula of 10-85-7-14, the number 10 refers to what? A. width of the blade in tenths of a mm B. primary cutting edge in centigrades C. blade length in mm D. blade angle in centigradesAEach of the following design features of a MO amalgam preparation will prevent the restoration from falling out into an adjacent edentulous space except? A. convergent proximal walls B. pin the proximal box C. occlusal dovetails D. beveled palpal-axial line angleDPlace the following steps in the correct order for the application of a 4th gen bonding system after tooth preparation is complete. I. apply adhesive II. rinse and leave surface moist III. apply primer IV. etch with phosphoric acid for 15 secs V. light-cure A. IV>III>II>V>I B. II>IV>III>I>V C. IV>II>III>I>V D. II>IV>III>V>ICwhat is the photo initiator found in light-cure composites? A. Benzoyl peroxide B. camphoquinone C. tertiary amine D. silane E. visible blue lightB ("like to take photos when u camp outside")Leakage of the margins of an amalgam restoration... A. is high compared to macro fill composites B. is least at the time of restoration placement C. is related to the ratio of gamma versus beta phases of amalgam D. decreases as the restoration gets olderDwhich one of the following acids is most commonly included in GI formulations? A. tartaric acid B. phosphoric acid C. maleic acid D. polyacrylic acid E. Ethylenediaminetetracetic acidDsmooth surface caries refers to which of the following? A. Occlusal pits and grooves B. facial and lingual surfaces C. Mesial and distal surfaces D. B & CDWhich of the following is not a reason why fluoride prevents tooth decay? A. interference of bacterial metabolic activity B. prevention of bacterial aggregation C. remineralization of tooth structure D. decreased enamel solubilityBHow many blades does a finishing bur have compared with a cutting bur? A. fewer blades B. same number of blades C. More blades D. number of blades is unrelated to the bur typeCWhich of the following carbs found in the human diet is responsible for caries? A. cellulose B. glucose C. sucrose D. lactose E. glycogenCA patient reports sharp "notches" near the gums of her upper teeth. all of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical lesion except? A. patient age B. tooth is symptomatic C. esthetic concern D. deep notched axially E. cariousADuring the radiographic exam, you notice thick radiopaque lines underneath some of the patient's posterior amalgam restorations. what are they most likely? A. liner B. metal artifact C. excess amalgam D. retentive pinsDincreased radiographic density is caused by which of the following? A. decreased kVp B. decreased mA C. decreased target-object distance D. Increased object-image distanceC (inverse square law; like a flashlight pointed at a wall)if an unwrapped X-ray film is exposed to ambient light for a second and then processed, it________ A. will be a little darker than usual B. will be a little lighter than usual C. will be completely black D. Will be completely whiteCin radiography, maximum resolution and minimum magnification are achieved by A. minimum source-object distance and minimum object-image distance B. minimum source-object distance and maximum object-image distance C. maximum source-object distance and minimum object-image distance D. maximum source-object distance and maximum object-image distanceCwhich dental tissue is most likely to interact with X-rays via photoelectric absorption? A. enamel B. dentin C. pulp D. cementumA (the densest tissue)Which of the following modifications is recommended when taking radiographs on a 10yo compared to an adult? A. increase the mA B. reduce the exposure time C. increase the kVp D. use a lower speed receptorB (easiest thing to change in office)all of the following are deterministic effects except one. which one? A. xerostomia B. sterility C. cataract formation D. oral mucositis E. thyroid tumorEwhen taking radiographs, the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by which of the following measures? A. round collimation B. rectangular collimation C. using a thyroid collar D. decreased target-object distance E. low kVp and high milliamperageBwhich of the following is the most radiosensitive type of cell? A. skeletal muscle fiber B. endothelial cell C. neuron D. macrophage E. basal epithelial cellEwhich of the following influences the mean energy of the X-ray beam? A. milliamperage B. exposure time C. amount of filtration D. collimationCall of the following are features of perio disease that can be assessed in a radio examination of periodical and bitewing images except one. which one? A. crown-to-root ratio B. bone loss in the furcation area C. amount of walls of perio defect D. alveolar crest heightCwhat is the function of the anode in the xray tube? A. convert electrons into photons B. convert photons into electrons C. release photons D. release electrons E. none of the aboveAcone-cutting results from which of the following operator errors? A. not enough exposure time B. not selecting the proper kVp C. too great a target-film distance D. the xray machine being improperly aimedDif a patient has a lesion in the maxillary sinus, which of the following is the best diagnostic radiograph? A. waters' view B. Townes view C. submentovertex D. panoAAn 18yo male comes to your clinic for a routine cleaning and examination including a fmx. you are unsure of the location of an impacted lower right canine. a second view of the same region, made with the xray machine oriented more from the mesial, reveals that the canine has moved distally with respect to the adjacent teeth. what is the location of the impacted canine? A. buccal to the other teeth B. lingual to the other teeth C. in the same plane as the other teeth D. unknown bc info is insufficientAyou notice that the radio images are fuzzier and have less contrast than usual. you postulate that the penumbra is affecting the image quality. which of the following could be causing this? A. xray tube was moving B. film packet was moving C. decreased film-object distance D. decreased film-target distance E. smaller focal spot sizeD