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AT BOC Prep Domain I - Injury and Illness Prevention and Wellness Promotion

Terms in this set (240)

A: Intrinsic factors are directly related to the athlete
and include factors such as age, gender, and physical
stature. Extrinsic factors relate to the environment,
equipment, type of activity, and amount of exposure to
injury.
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic risk
factor?
A. Being a female high school athlete
B. Practicing when the temperature is 85°F and the
humidity is 85%
C. Running on a cross country wooded trail
D. Using an inflatable bladder football helmet
E. Participating in a contact sport
B: Increased weight bearing and increased calcium
intake enhance bone strength, therefore decreasing the
risk of developing osteoporosis and bone weakness.
Weight-bearing activities apply stresses to the bones,
resulting in an increase in compressive load tolerance.
Osteoporosis is a condition that predominantly affects
older women. Which of the following prevention
strategies would provide the most signifi cant impact?
A. Moderate swimming and increased vitamin C intake
B. Weight-bearing activities and increased calcium
intake
C. Maintaining 10% body fat and using a minimal resistance
stationary bike
D. Increased electrolytes and use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication
E. Avoidance of physical activity and dairy products
D: Passive motion is used to assess noncontractile
structures and flexibility of contractile tissues being
put on stretch. When the ankle joint is passively
dorsiflexed, the ankle joint plantar flexors are put on
stretch.
An athlete demonstrates limited passive dorsiflexion at
the preparticipation screening. Which of the following
factors is most likely restricting this motion?
A. Strength of the posterior tibialis muscle
B. Strength of the peroneal muscles
C. Flexibility of the toe extensor muscles
D. Flexibility of the Achilles tendon complex
E. Strength of the anterior tibialis muscle
A: This method of examination scheduling would
allow for the highest quality and most individualized
up-to-date information for each athlete.
You are the athletic trainer at a high school that
sponsors 22 sports. There are approximately 500
athletes. For this high school, which preparticipation
examination format is the most effective and effi cient?
A. Provide a station-based examination with the
assistance of multiple medical and health-care
professionals before the start of each sport season
(i.e., fall, winter, spring).
B. Provide individual examinations with the assistance
of fi ve family practice physicians stationed in
individual examination rooms.
C. Provide a station-based examination with the
assistance of multiple medical and health-care
professionals in the summer before the start of the
school year.
D. During the summer months, schedule individual
appointments for each athlete with the team
physician.
E. Require each athlete to obtain on his or her own a
physical examination through a licensed health-care
provider.
A: While the research does not conclusively indicate
synthetic surfaces are more likely to cause injuries
compared with natural surfaces, both abrasions and
turf toe (hyperextension of fi rst metatarsophalangeal
joint) seem to occur more frequently in athletes using
synthetic surfaces.
A soccer team will be playing on synthetic turf during
an upcoming 2-day tournament. What injuries should
you be most prepared to treat during this tournament?
A. Abrasions and turf toe
B. Concussions and arch sprains
C. Contusions and ankle sprains
D. Tibial fractures and concussions
E. Blisters and hamstring strains
D: An ergonomic assessment is an evaluation of the
employee ' s interaction with a workstation environment.
In addition to adjusting workstation settings and
making recommendations to the employee, this
assessment may include recommended work breaks
as well as stretching and strengthening exercises. The
most qualifi ed workplace employees should conduct
this assessment, make recommendations, and construct
the report.
Which of the following people should be included in
a worksite ergonomic risk assessment?
A. Worker ' s direct supervisor, stockholders in the
company, and risk management coordinator
B. Worker, director of human resources, and athletic
trainer
C. Facility nurse, director of human resources, and
athletic trainer
D. Worker, athletic trainer, and occupational therapist
E. Safety engineer, risk management coordinator, and
director of facility security
E: An estimated 8,700 health-care workers contract
hepatitis B virus (HBV) each year. However, healthcare
workers who have received the hepatitis B vaccine
and subsequently developed immunity to the virus are
at very little risk for developing the infection when
exposed.
Which of the following bloodborne pathogens is most
commonly contracted by health-care workers?
A. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C. Human immunodefi ciency virus (HIV)
D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
E. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
A: Absence of a paired organ disqualifi es athletes from
participation in contact/collision sports.
Which of the following conditions would disqualify a
student athlete from participation in football?
A. Absence of one kidney
B. Mild hypertension
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Controlled epilepsy
E. Sickle cell trait
C: Extrinsic risk factors are risk factors that occur
external to the body and result in injury, such as the
blunt force sustained in commotio cordis
Which of the following potential causes of sudden
cardiac death is caused by an extrinsic risk factor?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Long QT syndrome
C. Commotio cordis
D. Myocarditis
D: SCAT (Sport Concussion Assessment Tool) is
a standardized method for establishing baseline
concussion data.
Which of the following could you incorporate into
your preparticipation examination to gather baseline
concussion data?
A. Vital sign assessment
B. Upper quarter screening
C. Glasgow Coma Scale
D. SCAT5 (Sport Concussion Assessment Tool)
B: Wellness screening includes questions about diet,
rest, exercise, stress management, and weight control
as well as alcohol, drug, and tobacco use.
What is the purpose of including a wellness screening
as part of the preparticipation examination?
A. To disqualify the athlete from participation
B. To determine if the athlete is engaging in healthy
or unhealthy behaviors and lifestyle habits that
pose a threat to wellness
C. To screen for health maintenance, personal
hygiene, and potential for infectious diseases
D. To assess physical maturity in order to protect
young, physically undeveloped athletes
C: Intrinsic risk factors originate within the individual,
such as lean-to-fat mass ratio.
Which of the following would be an intrinsic risk
factor for exertional heatstroke?
A. High ambient temperature and humidity
B. Minimal access to fl uids before and during
participation
C. High muscle mass-to-body fat ratio
D. Inappropriate work-to-rest ratios
A: Based on recommendations from the American
Heart Association, a history of symptoms during
exertion warrants referral to a physician.
A positive response to which of the following
questions on a preparticipation examination medical
history would result in referral to a physician for
additional screening?
A. Does your heart race or skip beats during exercise?
B. Have you ever spent the night in a hospital?
C. Is there anyone in your family who has asthma?
D. Have you ever fractured a bone?
B: Due to repetitive throwing motion, upper
extremity athletes maintain a normal arc of motion by
exchanging excessive external rotation for a decrease
in internal rotation.
When conducting a preparticipation examination,
which of the following fi ndings would be considered a
normal physiological adaptation to exercise and sport
participation?
A. Resting heart rate above normal range
B. Increased external rotation and decreased internal
rotation in the dominant arm of a baseball pitcher
C. Resting blood pressure below normal values
D. Quadriceps-to-hamstring ratio closer to 1
C: Injury prevalence assesses the number of injuries
sustained in a specifi c population.
Which of the following is an examination of injury
prevalence data you might gather when analyzing
your injury rates?
A. Number of injuries sustained during practice
sessions
B. Number of new ankle injuries sustained by the
soccer team during the fall season
C. Total number of injuries sustained by the basketball
team
D. Average number of injuries per athlete per practice
session
D: Meta-analyses are the most rigorous type of
research study and introduce the least amount of bias
and risk of error.
16. When evaluating the strength of the evidence found
in the research literature, which type of research study
would be considered the most rigorous and provide
the least amount of bias?
A. Case study
B. Clinical practice guidelines
C. Cohort study
D. Meta-analysis
A: Due to increased research on concussion
management, more than 40 states have youth sports
safety laws related to concussion management.
An athletic trainer working at the secondary school
level may elect to send concussion awareness
information and return-to-play requirements home
with each athlete before the start of each sports
season. What legislative actions over the past decade
have prompted this educational effort?
A. The majority of states have enacted sports safety
laws related to removal from participation,
evaluation, and return-to-play requirements after
concussion.
B. Parent organizations and booster clubs have
lobbied for educational efforts.
C. State athletic training practice acts require patient
education following concussion.
D. National high school athletics governing bodies
require patient and family education related to
concussions.
B: Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC)
measures cognitive function by assessing orientation,
immediate memory, concentration, and delayed
recall.
You elect to utilize the SCAT5 (Sport Concussion
Assessment Tool) to establish baseline data. Which
portion of the SCAT5 assesses cognitive function?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
B. Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC)
C. Maddocks score
D. Balance Error Scoring System (BESS)
C: The deltoid muscle acts to abduct the shoulder, and
its strength can be tested through manual resistance of
abduction
19. When performing the quick orthopedic screening as
part of the preparticipation examination, the athlete
is asked to abduct the shoulders to 90° and hold that
position against downward pressure by the examiner.
What is being tested during this part of the screening?
A. Trapezius strength
B. Shoulder range of motion
C. Deltoid strength
D. Shoulder symmetry
C: Snellen eye charts assess distance visual acuity,
which is normally 20/20. The numerator represents
the distance the patient is standing from chart (20
feet), and the denominator represents the distance at
which a normal person can read the same-size letters
on that line. The higher the denominator, the poorer
the patient ' s distance vision. Athletes with suboptimal
visual acuity should be referred for evaluation and
possible correction
You are using a Snellen eye chart to assess baseline
visual acuity. An athlete is able to comfortably read
the line associated with 20/40 vision in the right eye
and 20/50 vision in the left eye. What action would
you take?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Retest the athlete serially for 2 to 3 weeks to see if
you get the same results.
C. Refer the athlete to an optometrist for evaluation.
D. Hold the athlete from all participation pending
referral results.
D: Dimension-specifi c instruments assess one specifi c
aspect of a patient ' s health and relate closely to
psychological well-being
You elect to have a patient complete a McGill
Pain Questionnaire before his or her rehabilitation
appointment. Which type of patient-reported outcome
(PRO) scale is being used?
A. Generic instrument
B. Disease-specific instrument
C. Site-specific instrument
D. Dimension-specific instrument
A: Athletes with poorly controlled seizure disorders
can safely participate in moderately strenuous
noncontact sports that pose no life-threatening risk
to self or others should a seizure occur
In which of the following sports activities could
an athlete with poorly controlled epilepsy safely
participate?
A. Ballet
B. Swimming
C. Archery
D. Volleyball
B: Assessment data can be used to decrease injuries
by implementing proactive measures to address
defi ciencies.
During your preparticipation screening, you determine
that 75% of the athletes on the baseball team have
sit and reach scores below normal limits. How would
you best use this information?
A. Instruct the athletes to work on improving their
fl exibility.
B. Work with the coaches to incorporate fl exibility
exercises into the team warm-up and cool-down.
C. Meet with the strength and conditioning coach to
revise the weight training program.
D. Ask the team nutritionist to conduct a special
seminar on hydration and electrolytes.
A: Strength Of Evidence Taxonomy (SORT) and
Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM) scales
provide means to evaluate the level of evidence and
confi dence of the evidence-based recommendation
being made
A recently released position statement
recommendation carries a Centre for Evidence-Based
Medicine (CEBM) and a Strength Of Evidence
Taxonomy (SORT) rating of "A." How would a
clinician best apply this recommendation?
A. The clinician should attempt to apply this
recommendation into clinical practice, as it carries
a high degree of evidence.
B. The clinician should evaluate how the
recommendation might fi t in with current clinical
practice, as it carries a moderate level of evidence.
C. The clinician should carefully consider how this
recommendation might fi t in with current clinical
practice, as it carries weak or confl icting evidence.
D. The clinician would not want to immediately apply
this to clinical practice, as it carries insuffi cient
evidence to make a recommendation.
C: Because of the Americans With Disabilities Act
of 1990, the athlete has the power to make the fi nal
decision regarding his participation
Sports medicine physicians and health-care
professionals may recommend an athlete with certain
medical conditions or injuries discontinue or not
commence participation in certain sports or physical
activity. What person can make the fi nal decision
regarding disqualifi cation of an athlete?
A. Team physician
B. Athletic director
C. Athlete
D. Athletic trainer
A: The Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulates how medical,
healthcare, and allied health professionals share
private health information about patients
What regulation guarantees that intercollegiate
athletes have access to all of their medical records,
while giving them more control over how their
protected health information is used and disclosed?
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
B. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
C. Americans With Disabilities Act
D. Medical Records Retention Act
B: The Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7) is
a standardized measure that can be used as a brief
assessment tool for assessing generalized anxiety
disorder
A screening tool asks the patient to indicate how
frequently over the past 2 weeks he has been bothered
by the following: (1) feeling nervous, anxious, or on
edge; (2) not being able to stop or control worry; (3)
worrying too much about different things; (4) trouble
relaxing; (5) being so restless that it is hard to sit still;
(6) becoming easily annoyed or irritable; (7) feeling
afraid as if something awful might happen. Which
mental health condition is this tool assessing?
A. Attention defi cit-hyperactivity disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Depression
C: A medical history form should be completed before
the physical examination in order to identify any past
medical problems and any need for referral to medical
professionals, counselors, and other health-care
professionals
A negative ("no") response to which of the following
questions on a preparticipation examination medical
history form would warrant referral to a health-care
professional for additional screening?
A. Do you limit or carefully control what you eat?
B. Has anyone recommended you change your weight
or eating habits?
C. Are you happy with your weight?
D. Are you trying to gain or lose weight?
E. Are you taking any medications or supplements for
weight loss or weight gain?
D: Sickle cell trait (SCT) is common in people
who descend from areas where malaria is common,
such as parts of Africa, so SCT should be thought
of as malarial, not racial. SCT occurs most
commonly in African Americans but also occurs in
persons of Hispanic ethnicity and persons from the
Mediterranean, the Middle East, and parts of India.
Sickle cell trait (SCT) is a condition that comes from
inheriting one gene for normal hemoglobin and one
gene for sickle hemoglobin and can be present in
persons of any ethnicity. In which population group is
the incidence of SCT most common?
A. Eastern European
B. Middle Eastern
C. Hispanic
D. African American
B: Sensitivity is the value used to describe a test ' s
ability to detect the disorder when it is present and
is also known as the "true positive rate.
To determine the diagnostic accuracy of a newly
designed physical examination test, researchers
calculate the test ' s sensitivity. Which statement
regarding test sensitivity is correct?
A. Sensitivity is also known as the "true negative
rate."
B. Sensitivity is calculated as true positives/(true
positives + false negatives).
C. Sensitivity describes the test ' s ability to detect
patients who do not have the disorder.
D. Sensitivity is calculated as true negatives/(true
negatives + false positives).
E. Sensitivity is also known as the "diagnostic gold
standard."
C: Athlete exposure is calculated by multiplying
the number of athletes at each practice/game by
the number of practices/games. Exposure rate is
determined by looking at the number of injuries during
a set period of time.
What should you calculate if you want to determine
the incidence of injuries for last season ' s men ' s soccer
team, per the number of individual athlete exposures?
A. Incidence of injury
B. Injury prevalence
C. Injury exposure rate
D. Injury likelihood ratio
C: Education on proper inhaler use is an important
component of an asthma care plan. Improper inhaler
use is common and can result in patients receiving
incorrect and ineffective dosages.
While reviewing a preparticipation examination
medical history, you note an athlete has indicated a
previous diagnosis of exercise-induced bronchospasm.
He has been using an inhaled beta-2 agonist from a
metered-dose inhaler taken 15 to 30 minutes before
the onset of each exercise and sport activity session.
After speaking with this athlete, you think he needs
education on properly using his inhaler. Which of the
following should be included in the instructions you
provide?
A. Shake inhaler for at least 45 seconds before use.
B. Exhale through nose for 1 to 3 seconds before
placing mouthpiece of inhaler in mouth.
C. While pressing down on the metal cartridge,
breathe in slowly as far as you can and then hold
your breath as long as possible.
D. Avoid drinking water or eating food for at least 15
minutes after inhalations.
D: The types of errors recorded during the balance
examination component of the SCAT5 (Sport
Concussion Assessment Tool) are based on the
modifi ed Balance Error Scoring System (BESS). The
modifi ed BESS score is calculated by adding 1 error
point for each error during the three 20-second tests
You elect to utilize the SCAT5 (Sport Concussion
Assessment Tool) to establish baseline data. Which
type of error should be counted when conducting
the double leg stance component of the balance
examination?
A. Hands lifted off of shoulders
B. Flexing knees greater than 20°
C. Moving hips into greater than 5° abduction
D. Remaining out of test position greater than
5 seconds
B: A peak fl ow meter assesses forced expiratory ability
by measuring how air comes out of the lungs when
exhaling forcefully after inhaling fully
A peak fl ow meter is an asthma screening tool that
can be used to help quickly assess asthma severity
and determine the effectiveness of medications. What
instructions should be provided to the patient using a
peak fl ow meter?
A. Slide the indicator to the base of the meter, place
the peak fl ow meter mouthpiece in your mouth,
and after sealing your lips tightly around the
mouthpiece inhale completely until the indicator
rises within the meter.
B. After placing the peak fl ow meter mouthpiece
in your mouth, seal your lips tightly around the
mouthpiece, then blow out as hard and as fast as
you can one time.
C. Stand or sit up straight, exhale completely, then
with your lips tightly around the mouthpiece inhale
as fast as you can one time.
D. While standing, slide the indicator to the base
of the meter and then wrap your lips tightly
around the mouthpiece, take in a deep breath, and
maximally exhale as slowly as possible.
E: A dipstick urinalysis is considered a reliable method
for determining the presence of a urinary
tract infection, as the presence of nitrates or
leukocyte esterase confi rms the diagnosis.
A routine dipstick urinalysis is often part of a
preparticipation physical examination. The following
are the results of a urinalysis:
- Appearance = light yellow and cloudy
- Leukocyte esterase (LE) = moderate
- Nitrite = positive
- Blood = nonhemolyzed moderate
What condition do these urinalysis results suggest?
A. Dehydration
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Disordered eating
D. Blocked bile duct
E. Urinary tract infection
B: This test requires participants to run a distance of
1.5 miles (2.4 km) as quickly as possible. The total
time to cover this distance is recorded as the outcome
measure. Classifi cations of cardiovascular fi tness
(based on normative values in particular age groups)
have been established and can be used in interpreting
outcome data. Predicted Vo 2 max can be calculated
from the 1.5-mile run time.
. The Cooper 1.5 mile run test is commonly used
to assess aerobic fi tness. What outcome data are
produced from this assessment?
A. Maximal heart rate
B. Minutes run
C. Distance (miles or kilometers) run
D. Sweat rate
E: The National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) and the National Association of State High
School Associations have established participation
regulations for wrestlers with bacterial, viral, and
fungal infections.
Preparticipation skin checks for wrestlers determine
participation eligibility. With which of the following
dermatological conditions may a wrestler compete,
provided that the active lesions are adequately
covered?
A. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA)
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Impetigo
D. Furuncles
E. Tinea corporis
B: The National High School Sports-Related Injury
Surveillance Study is an Internet-based data collection
tool similar to the National Collegiate Athletic
Association (NCAA) Injury Surveillance System. This
reporting system collects data from a national sample
of high schools, allowing for comparisons between
individual school injury rates and providing a national
perspective.
During a preparticipation examination, the parent of
a high school freshman asks if the risk of injury is
higher if his daughter plays soccer or volleyball. On
what should you base your answer?
A. Data in your school ' s annual sports medicine
report specifi c to the number of soccer players and
volleyball players treated by your athletic training
staff during the previous two seasons.
B. Data from the National High School Sports-Related
Injury Surveillance Study specifi c to athlete
injury exposure rates for the sports of soccer and
volleyball.
C. Data from the National Center for Catastrophic
Sports Injury Research specifi c to the number of
catastrophic injuries in high school soccer and
volleyball.
D. Data from the National Safety Council specifi c to
high school volleyball and soccer injury rates in
your state.
E: A comprehensive medical and family history
should be obtained, which can guide the physical
examination. A limited general physical examination
is recommended, and the use of routine laboratory
and other screening tests is not supported by the
literature.
Based on recommendations in the National
Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) Position
Statement: Preparticipation Physical Examinations
and Disqualifying Conditions, the inclusion of
which routine laboratory or screening tests in the
preparticipation examination for all participants is
supported by current research studies?
A. Electrocardiography
B. Urinalysis
C. Complete blood count
D. Lipid profi le
E. Heart auscultation
C: Cultural sensitivity is being aware of the existence
of cultural similarities and differences between people.
Cultural sensitivity is important, as it can reduce
cultural barriers between health-care professionals and
patients
Which of the following demonstrates culturally
sensitive communication during a preparticipation
examination?
A. Reading medical history questions aloud for
persons with limited English proficiency
B. Understanding that a person ' s limitations in
English proficiency strongly correlate with his or
her level of intellectual functioning
C. Writing all notices and communications in the
patient ' s language of origin
D. Teaching individuals and families who speak
languages other than English key words so that
they can better communicate with you
A: According to the National Athletic Trainers'
Association (NATA) position statement, trauma,
even in persons without diabetes, often causes a
hyperglycemic state, which can impair wound healing.
Blood glucose should be frequently monitored
following trauma.
You receive a call from your team physician alerting
you that the female equestrian athlete you had referred
to him has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. You decide it is important to counsel the
athlete on the impact of the injury on her disease.
Which statement is an accurate representation of the
effect that injury may have on glycemic control?
A. Athletes with type 1 diabetes appear to have an
exaggerated glycemic response to trauma.
B. Injury does not affect an athlete with type 1
diabetes any differently than an athlete without
type 1 diabetes.
C. Athletes with type 1 diabetes are at an increased
risk for infection.
D. Athletes with type 1 diabetes, even those with
poorly controlled blood glucose, will demonstrate
fracture healing at a similar rate to athletes without
diabetes.
A: The National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) guidelines state that an athlete at any division
level should complete a preparticipation medical
evaluation on entrance to the institution
According to National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) guidelines, which of the following
collegiate athletes must complete a comprehensive
preparticipation medical evaluation?
A. A baseball player transferring from a similardivision
NCAA institution who reports no injuries
or health concerns on his medical history form
B. A junior basketball player who has not completed
a comprehensive examination since his freshman
year
C. A junior football player who has not completed
a cardiovascular screening as part of the
preparticipation examination since his freshman
year
D. A senior sprinter who had only history and blood
pressure measurements taken as part of the
cardiovascular screening each season since the
initial preparticipation physical examination
E. A senior fi eld hockey player who tore her anterior
cruciate ligament in her sophomore season and
participated during her junior year
B: The pathology combined with the level of
contact inherent in the sport is consistent with the
recommendation from the American Academy of
Pediatrics
According to the American Academy of Pediatrics
Guidelines for Sports Participation, which of the
following athletes should be recommended for
clearance to participate?
A. An athlete recently diagnosed with carditis wishing
to participate in lacrosse
B. An athlete with atlantoaxial instability wishing to
participate in cross country
C. An offensive lineman with one kidney
D. An athlete with an enlarged spleen wishing to
participate in swimming
E. An athlete with an enlarged liver wishing to
participate in basketball
E: This response is consistent with the description of
the condition
A swimmer at a high school for which you are the
athletic trainer has been diagnosed with Wolff-
Parkinson-White syndrome. Which statement best
characterizes this condition?
A. Currently the leading cause of sudden death in
athletes
B. Characterized by a prolonged P-R interval and a
shortened QRS complex
C. Results in atrial pre-excitation and bradycardia due
to accessory pathway electrical activity
D. Results in delayed atrial excitation and tachycardia
due to an electrical accessory pathway
E. Characterized by ventricular pre-excitation and
tachycardia due to electrical conduction over
accessory pathways
A: Even though it is a long accepted practice that
prophylactic taping is important for injury prevention
and treatment, this is not supported by current
research.
Which of the following statements most accurately
describes the effectiveness of tape in supporting
a joint?
A. Current research is inconclusive regarding the
effectiveness of taping.
B. Support is most effective after 15 minutes of
warm-up.
C. Support is more effective in adolescent athletes
compared with senior athletes.
D. Taping is a key component in an injury prevention
program.
E. Effectiveness is attributed solely to its ability to
limit range of motion.
A: Whenever hands or any skin surfaces come in
contact with blood or bodily fl uids, they should
immediately be washed with soap and water or
antigermicidal agents.
An athletic trainer is exposed to a patient ' s blood
before applying gloves. After providing medical
assistance to the patient, what should be this athletic
trainer ' s fi rst step in minimizing her occupational
exposure to a bloodborne pathogen?
A. Cleanse the exposed body area with soap and water
or other antigermicidal agents.
B. Inform a supervisor about the exposure incident.
C. Seek medical care within 2 hours as designated in
the exposure control plan.
D. Request medical information or testing from the
treated patient.
E. Complete an exposure report.
A: Federal performance standards for ultrasound are
regulated and mandated by the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration (FDA).
Which is the only therapeutic modality for which
federal performance standards currently exist?
A. Ultrasound
B. Electrical stimulation
C. Phoresor
D. Paraffi n bath
E. Mechanical cervical traction
A: Laws and policies surrounding the use of
therapeutic modalities by athletic trainers are
established and regulated at the state governmental
level
At what governmental level are the laws and policies
regarding the use of therapeutic modalities by athletic
trainers established and regulated?
A. State
B. National
C. Regional
D. Local
E. International
E: Overtraining, or training too hard for too long
without proper rest, can lead to staleness and
eventual burnout. Staleness can manifest itself in
both physiological and psychological symptoms,
including elevated resting heart rate and blood
pressure, sleeping disorders, loss of appetite,
perceived body pains, and mood disorders
You suspect that a swimmer may be experiencing
symptoms of overtraining. Which of the following
situations is a signifi cant indicator of overtraining?
A. The athlete demonstrates increased whole-body
muscle tone.
B. The athlete complains of being easily agitated.
C. The athlete reports increased urinary output.
D. The athlete ' s blood pressure is below
preparticipation baseline.
E. The athlete ' s resting heart rate is elevated above
preparticipation baseline.
C: Patients should be encouraged to emphasize
exhalation during exertion and avoid holding the
breath to prevent the Valsalva maneuver from
occurring
How should you instruct an athlete to breathe while
performing a bench press?
A. Inhale as the bar is thrust upward and exhale as the
bar is lowered.
B. Hold the breath as the bar is lowered and inhale as
the bar is thrust upward.
C. Inhale as the bar is lowered and exhale as the bar
is thrust upward.
D. Hold the breath until one repetition is complete.
E. Inhale as the bar is lowered and hold the breath as
the bar is thrust upward.
A: Severe muscle cramping, heat intolerance, level
breathing, tachycardia, and hypotension can be
associated with exertional sickling. Sickle cell trait
is more common in certain ethnic groups, including
African Americans
An African American athlete reports for her
preparticipation examination and notes she has
experienced heat intolerance, severe muscle cramping,
hyperventilation, tachycardia, and symptoms of
hypotension during the past 6 months. Based on this
information, what action should you take?
A. Screen for sickle cell trait
B. Screen for hypertension
C. Screen for Marfan ' s syndrome
D. Screen for type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Assess her overall fi tness level
C: Exercising at 70% of maximum heart rate is
necessary to see minimal improvement, and most
trained individuals can comfortably sustain work at
85% of their maximum heart rate
What is the recommended intensity for cardiovascular
training during a continuous workout?
A. 30%-45% of maximum heart rate
B. 45%-60% of maximum heart rate
C. 70%-85% of maximum heart rate
D. 90%-100% of maximum heart rate
D: Spread most commonly through contact with the
blood of an infected person, hepatitis C virus (HCV)
has extremely high risks of chronic infection, with
80% of persons infected not demonstrating any signs
or symptoms
What is the most common chronic bloodborne
pathogen infection in the United States?
A. Human immunodefi ciency virus (HIV)
B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)
C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
A: Due to the chemical makeup of vomitus,
bloodborne pathogen viruses are not carried in this
bodily fl uid
Exposure to which of the following body fl uids does
not require the use of universal precautions?
A. Vomitus
B. Cerebrospinal fl uid
C. Vaginal secretions
D. Synovial fl uid
B: Modality equipment should be inspected and
calibrated annually to make sure that it meets
national electrical code guidelines
How often should therapeutic modality equipment be
inspected and calibrated to ensure patient safety?
A. Every 6 months
B. Annually
C. Every other year
D. Every 5 years
C: Transference refers to moving all or a portion of
well-defi ned risks of either high fi nancial risk but low
frequency or high frequency but low fi nancial risk to
an outside entity
After evaluating data for the past 5 years on injury
rates and medical expenses incurred by the athletic
department, the institution elects to purchase a
secondary insurance policy to cover those expenses.
What type of risk management strategy is being
utilized?
A. Avoidance
B. Retention
C. Transference
D. Reduction
D: Current research is inconclusive and is limited by
a variety of factors, such as small sample size, limited
sport exposure, climate, and player position.
Which of the following statements correctly describes
the relationship between injury rates and synthetic
turf playing surfaces compared with natural grass
surfaces?
A. Injury rates are higher during the fi rst 1 to 2 years
of a new synthetic turf fi eld.
B. Injury rates are higher on natural grass surfaces
because they are more diffi cult to maintain.
C. Injury rates are signifi cantly higher on synthetic
turf fi elds due to the higher speeds the players are
able to generate.
D. Evidence in the literature is inconclusive, and
additional research needs to be conducted.
A: An ergonomic risk assessment (ERA) focuses
on identifying specifi c factors about a job that
increase the likelihood that someone will be injured.
The ERA is compared with injury rates to establish
priorities for modifying tasks to create a safer and
more effi cient work environment.
What is the purpose of conducting an ergonomic
risk assessment (ERA) and comparing it with injury
statistics?
A. To identify the primary physical factors of a job
that might be changed to minimize the risk of
injury
B. To provide feedback to an employee about work
performance
C. To modify current workers' compensation
standards
D. To improve effi ciency and productivity
B: Assumption of risk statements demonstrates that
the athlete understands participation may lead to injury
and provides some protection from legal action if the
athletic training staff is not negligent in their actions.
What is the purpose of having an athlete sign an
assumption of risk statement?
A. To excuse the athletic trainer and coaches from
responsibility when injury occurs
B. To acknowledge that participation in sports carries
some inherent risk of injury and reinforce that the
athlete is willing to take on that risk
C. To absolve the athletic department from any
liability if the athlete is injured
D. To indicate understanding on the part of the athlete
that equipment manufacturers cannot be held
responsible in the event of an injury
C: Mumps is highly contagious for persons who
have not been vaccinated. The infected person
should be isolated and treated symptomatically, and
others should be made aware of the symptoms of the
disease.
An athlete on your women ' s basketball team is
diagnosed with the mumps. How would you best
manage this condition to reduce the risk for other
members of her team?
A. Send the athlete home for a minimum of 25 days
and educate the other members of the team about
the symptoms of the disease.
B. Provide antiviral medication for everyone who has
been exposed and isolate the sick athlete so that no
additional exposure will occur.
C. Isolate the sick athlete until parotid swelling
returns to normal, verify immunization records and
vaccinate other team members if necessary, and
educate anyone who has been exposed about the
symptoms.
D. Treat the athlete symptomatically with analgesics
and rest, verify the immunization record of
anyone else who has been exposed, and provide
vaccinations for those who have not been
vaccinated.
C: Athletic trainers should comply with all state
and federal laws specifi c to medication storage
and management. All medications should be stored
securely to prevent unauthorized use.
What are the recommendations for storage of
prescription and over-the-counter (OTC) medications
in the athletic training room?
A. Prescription medications should not be stored in an
athletic training room, but OTC medications can be
safely stored in a storage closet or cabinet.
B. Prescription and OTC medications must be stored
in a locked closet that is accessible only to the
team physician.
C. Prescription and OTC medications should be stored
in a climate-controlled locked cabinet with tamperproof
locks accessible only to authorized personnel,
including the team physician and certifi ed athletic
trainer.
D. Prescription medication must be stored in a locked
cabinet that is accessible only to the certifi ed
athletic trainer and team physician, whereas OTC
medications can be freely accessible to staff and
athletes.
D: It is recommended that educational sessions
occur twice during the season with the fi rst session
including parents for high school students.
How often should formal educational sessions
regarding the risk of head-down contact in football be
conducted?
A. Once before the fall season and once before the
spring season
B. Each time the team is assessed with a spearing
penalty during the season
C. Once a year before the start of the season
D. Once before the start of the season and once
midway through the season
A: Purity and safety of ingredients in dietary
supplements are not regulated by any agency and
should never be assumed to be safe.
An athlete approaches you for guidance regarding
a dietary supplement he wishes to take to improve
performance. What information would it be important
for you to share with the athlete?
A. Dietary supplements are not regulated by the U.S.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA), so the
product may contain substances that could result in
a positive drug test.
B. The ingredient list should be carefully evaluated
for banned substances.
C. The team physician is required to approve all
supplements before use.
D. The student should consult with his coach who
has a list of all products that are approved for use
by the National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA).
B: It is important that coaches and athletic trainers
demonstrate mutual respect for one another. Early
notifi cations of possible changes to a practice allow
the coach to better prepare and ensure that athlete
safety takes priority.
You are concerned that severe thunderstorms may
pass through your area during the afternoon practice
sessions. What actions should you take to maximize
athlete safety and minimize communication problems
with the coaching staff?
A. Notify all the coaches as soon as inclement
weather is sighted.
B. Discuss with the coaches early in the day that
weather may impact practice, review procedures,
and provide updates as the weather system
approaches.
C. Send the coaches an e-mail that weather may
impact practices later in the day.
D. Speak to each of the coaches as they are beginning
their practice and let them know you will be
monitoring the weather and will tell them if they
need to leave the fi eld.
A: There are a number of conditioning principles
aimed at minimizing risk of exercise-related injury.
Progression is related to the controlled and systematic
increase in intensity and overload of workouts over
time.
Which principle of conditioning is a coach following
when he increases the team ' s off-season conditioning
program gradually and within each team member ' s
abilities to adapt to the overload in order to minimize
risk of injury?
A. Progression
B. Intensity
C. Specifi city
D. Consistency
D: The likelihood of developing myocarditis is rare,
but there are many potential causes, including viral,
bacterial, and fungal infections as well as parasite
infestations.
Which cardiac condition places ill athletes,
particularly those who are febrile, at risk of sudden
cardiac death?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Commotio cordis
C. Marfan ' s syndrome
D. Myocarditis
B: Nosocomial infections are infections a patient gets
while seeking care at a medical facility for a different
condition. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterial
infection transmitted through direct contact, either
person to person or person to surface, and can be
contracted at a medical or athletic training facility.
Washing with soap and water is a proper hygiene
practice effective in minimizing a patient ' s risk
of acquiring a nosocomial infection. Which of the
following infectious diseases is a patient at risk of
acquiring in a medical or athletic training facility?
A. Zika virus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mononucleosis
D. Chlamydi
A: The National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA)
position statement on skin diseases recommends
selecting a disinfectant or detergent that is registered
by the Environmental Protection Agency and to
use the product by following the manufacturer ' s
instructions regarding amount, dilution, and contact
time. Failure to follow manufacturer ' s instructions,
rather than the type of cleaning agent, has been
cited as the primary reason for facility pathogen
accumulations.
To minimize disease transmission, equipment and
surfaces in sport venues and health-care facilities
should be frequently and routinely cleaned. What
should be the primary consideration when selecting
and using a disinfectant or detergent for routine
cleaning and disinfecting?
A. All the manufacturer ' s recommendations for
amount, dilution, and contact time are followed
B. The product is endorsed by the U.S. Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention
C. The product contains trimethoprim with
sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), clindamycin, or
linezolid
D. The manufacturer ' s published cost/benefi t ratio
D: The four types of credentialing laws that regulate
the practice of athletic training are certifi cation,
registration, exemption, and licensure. Licensure laws
limit the practice of athletic training to persons who
have met the requirement of a licensing board, usually
by passing a licensing examination administered by
the board.
Most states regulate the practice of athletic trainers
for the protection of the public as well as for the
advancement of the profession. Which form of
governmental credentialing law is considered the most
restrictive?
A. Certifi cation
B. Registration
C. Exemption
D. Licensure
A: The repetitive nature of using a keyboard at a
computer workstation can lead to overuse injuries.
Proper worksite ergonomics can aid in minimizing the
strain from performing repetitive tasks. Workers seated
at computer stations should select a chair that allows
for a 2-in. space between the posterior knee and the
chair when seated at the back of the chair. The chair
armrests should be situated such that relaxed arms fall
on them without abducting the shoulder, and the back
of the chair should be no lower than the inferior angle
of the scapulas.
To minimize musculoskeletal overuse conditions in
the workplace, what is the proper position to assume
when working at a computer?
A. Adjust chair seat height so that when seated all the
way back in the chair the worker ' s feet are fl at on
the fl oor with the hips and knees each fl exed
to 90°.
B. Chair size should allow the worker to sit in the
chair with hips all the way to the back, creating no
space between the chair and the posterior knee.
C. While seated the worker ' s relaxed arms should be
abducted approximately 45° to rest on the chair
arm rests.
D. The back of the chair should be no higher than the
inferior angle of the scapulas.
B: In most cases, both intrinsic and extrinsic risk
factors for exertional heatstroke can be addressed
to reduce episodes of exertional heatstroke. Other
intrinsic risk factors include sleep loss, dehydration,
overzealousness, high muscle mass-to-body fat ratio,
presence of a fever, use of certain medications, and
some skin disorders.
Recognizing and addressing intrinsic risk factors
for exertional heatstroke is an important prevention
strategy. Which of the following is an intrinsic risk
factor for exertional heat stroke?
A. Athletic equipment
B. Inadequate heat acclimatization
C. Lack of education and awareness of heat illnesses
by coaches, athletes, and medical staff
D. High ambient temperature, solar radiation, and
humidity
C: Risk of injury is determined by the type of sport,
with collision/contact sports, such as lacrosse,
presenting the most risk; limited contact sports,
such as softball, presenting less risk of injury; and
noncontact sports, such as tennis, presenting the
lowest risk of injury.
As a result of rained out games earlier in the week,
your high school is scheduled to host a boy ' s
lacrosse match, a softball game, and a boy ' s tennis
match simultaneously this afternoon. As the sole
athletic trainer at your high school, what should you
communicate to the coaches of these three teams?
A. Based on the inherent risk of injury in these sports,
you will be splitting your time equally between all
three events.
B. Based on the inherent risk of injury in these sports,
you will be splitting time between the lacrosse
match and the softball game.
C. Based on the inherent risk of injury in these sports,
you will be at the lacrosse match during the entire
match.
D. Based on the inherent risk of injury in these sports,
you will be at the softball game for the entire
game.
C: The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention makes recommendations regarding
immunizations for children and adults. Vaccines
for meningitis, human papillomavirus (HPV), and
varicella have been added more recently to the list of
available vaccinations.
Which of the following infectious conditions is
preventable through vaccination?
A. Mononucleosis
B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)
C. Varicella
D. Zika virus (ZIKV)
C: While there are currently six vaccines available to
prevent meningococcal conditions, athletes may still
contract (and spread) meningitis. To minimize the risk
of this infectious disease spreading, it is recommended
that anyone who has had face-to-face contact with a
person diagnosed with meningitis begin an appropriate
prophylactic medication.
Last night a member of your school ' s softball team
was hospitalized with the diagnosis of bacterial
meningitis. What action should be taken to minimize
the risk of this illness spreading?
A. Quarantine all softball players for at least 36 hours.
B. Refer all softball players and persons who had
face-to-face contact with the sick athlete for a
cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) examination, obtained
through a lumbar puncture.
C. Ensure that all persons who had face-to-face
contact with the sick athlete begin prophylactic
medication, such as ciprofl oxacin.
D. Refer all softball players and persons who had
face-to-face contact with the sick athlete for a
complete blood count (CBC) and urinalysis.
D: Athletes participating in sports with risk for
orofacial injury should be encouraged to wear properly
fi tted mouth guards.
A soccer coach is seeking support for his decision to
require all his players to wear mouth guards during
both practice sessions and matches. Based on the
National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA)
position statement on preventing and managing
sports-related dental and oral injuries, which statement
regarding mouth guard use in sports is accurate?
A. Mouth guards are effective in preventing mild
traumatic brain injury.
B. Mouth guards negatively affect ventilation and
aerobic performance.
C. Mouth guards have been shown to improve
strength and balance.
D. Mouth guards are effective in protecting against
orofacial injuries.
B: Sharps containers are for razor blades, scalpels,
and needles that create a cutting risk. Scissors and
tweezers should be sterilized using a disinfecting
agent. Uniforms containing blood should be evaluated
for infectivity, and contaminated towels and other
linens should be washed in hot water (71°C [159.8°F])
for 25 minutes.
Universal precautions aid medical and allied
health-care professionals in minimizing exposure
to bloodborne pathogens. Which of the following
demonstrates appropriate application of universal
precautions in the athletic training setting?
A. Blood-covered scissors should be disposed of in a
sharps container, not sterilized.
B. Contaminated surfaces should be cleaned with a
solution consisting of 1 part bleach to 10 parts
water or with a disinfectant approved by the
Environmental Protection Agency.
C. Uniforms containing blood should be removed and
changed before returning the athlete to competition.
D. Blood-soaked towels and other linens should be
washed in cold water to prevent the blood from
setting into the material.
A: In most cases, intrinsic risk factors can be
controlled, whereas extrinsic factors are generally
outside the control of the athlete.
To avoid catastrophic cervical spine injury in sports,
athletic trainers should attempt to control for both
extrinsic and intrinsic predisposing risk factors. Which
of the following is an intrinsic risk factor for cervical
spine injury in sports?
A. Improper technique, such as leading with the head
into contact
B. Offi cials not calling penalties for illegal play
known to cause cervical spine injury
C. Lack of education and awareness of causes
of cervical spine injury among coaches when
instructing athletes
D. Faulty athletic equipment
B: Research suggests that standard chest protectors
are ineffective in preventing commotio cordis and that
safety baseballs may be more effective in reducing
ventricular fi brillation resulting from a ball impacting
the chest.
Based on laboratory studies, what safety measure
appears to be the most effective method for reducing
the risk of commotio cordis in youth sports?
A. Use of standard lacrosse chest protectors
B. Use of safety baseballs
C. Use of coach for pitching in baseball and softball
D. Use of age-, height-, and weight-appropriate bats in
baseball and softball
B: Cultural sensitivity and professionalism is exhibited
when an athletic trainer is willing to listen to an
athlete, research the information discussed, and then
provide recommendations.
Which response demonstrates an athletic trainer
responding with cultural awareness and sensitivity to
an athlete who asks that refl exology be incorporated
into his sports injury treatment plan?
A. "The current sports medicine literature doesn ' t
support the effectiveness of refl exology in treating
musculoskeletal injuries such as yours."
B. "I don ' t know much about refl exology, but tell me
why you feel it may be helpful."
C. "As a health-care professional I practice evidencebased
medicine and avoid grasping at treatment
techniques just because they are new or exciting
sounding."
D. "Since you are from another country you may
not understand all aspects of the treatment we are
providing you, so feel free to ask questions."
A: Wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) is calculated
from the dry bulb temperature (DBT), which measures
the ambient air temperature; the wet bulb temperature
(WBT), which measures the humidity; and the globe
temperature (GT), which measures the sun ' s radiation.
The following formula is used to calculate WBGT:
WBGT = (0.1 degree X DBT) + (0.7 degree X WBT) + (GT X 0.2).
The universal wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT)
index provides objective information athletic trainers
can use in making recommendations regarding
exercise in hot and humid environments. WBGT
is calculated from three different thermometers
providing three environmental variables. Which
thermometer provides a measure of the sun ' s radiant
energy?
A. Globe temperature (GT)
B. Wet bulb temperature (WBT)
C. Dry bulb temperature (DBT)
D. Sol bulb temperature (SBT)
B: This response is consistent with recommendations
for industry standards regarding helmet recertifi cation
and reconditioning
Ultimately the frequency of helmet recertifi cation
and reconditioning is up the discretion of the athletic
trainer. However, if no warranty exists or after
the warranty expires, how often must helmets be
recertifi ed and reconditioned using a vendor approved
by the National Operating Committee on Standards
for Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE)?
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. At the end of the playing season
D. Every 4 years
E. Recertifi cation/reconditioning not recommended
after warranty expires
B: The seal indicates to consumers that the helmet
met industry standards at the time of manufacture or
reconditioning
A football helmet bears the National Operating
Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
(NOCSAE) seal. What does this seal imply about the
helmet?
A. It is a warranty that the helmet will protect the
athlete from potential head injuries.
B. This helmet met the requirements of NOCSAE
performance testing when it was manufactured or
reconditioned.
C. The helmet will minimize the severity of a head
injury such as a concussion.
D. It states that there is risk inherent in playing
football and that a serious injury can occur as a
result of participation in the sport.
E. The helmet can be safely removed during an
on-fi eld emergency care situation.
D: This response is consistent with the rules of the
game to protect participants
Which of the following persons is/are required to
wear a helmet during a baseball game?
A. The batter only
B. The on-deck batter and the batter only
C. The batter, the on-deck batter, and the base coaches
only
D. The batter, the on-deck batter, the base coaches,
and the base runners only
E. The batter, the on-deck batter, the base coaches, the
base runners, and all the umpires
A: Polycarbonate lenses are the best material for
corrective lenses because the polycarbonate has great
strength, and the lenses are almost unbreakable.
Your athlete is unable to wear contact lenses.
Corrective eyeglass lenses made of which of the
following materials would you recommend for
participation?
A. Polycarbonate lenses
B. Plastic lenses
C. Polyethylene lenses
D. Fiberglass lenses
E. Ethyl vinyl acetate lenses
D: Cantilevered shoulder pads have a strap that
extends from front to back, causing the pads to
arch above the tip of the shoulder. Because of the
mechanics of this brace, the athlete who would benefi t
most would be one who participates in a great deal of
tackling or blocking due to the ability of the pads to
dissipate the force effectively
Which football player would be most likely to wear a
cantilevered shoulder pad?
A. Quarterback
B. Punter/kicker
C. Youth football player
D. Linebacker
E. Wide receiver
E: The purpose of the brace is to limit tensile forces
placed on the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
and lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Valgus and
varus forces are minimized by the medial and lateral
supports, respectively
An athlete reports to the athletic training room
wearing a neoprene knee brace with medial and lateral
supports. What is the intended purpose of this brace?
A. To provide support for a patellofemoral condition
and enhance proprioception
B. To allow for controlled progressive immobilization
C. To provide enhanced proprioception to minimize
risk of initial injury
D. To provide restriction against rotational forces
E. To provide additional support subsequent to a
collateral ligament injury
C: Closed-cell foam is heavier in weight allowing
it to dissipate higher forces and rebound quickly
What type of material is capable of absorbing
force through deforming its shape and then quickly
returning to its original form?
A. Open-cell foam
B. Moleskin
C. Closed-cell foam
D. Felt
E. Thermo-moldable plastic
D: The closed-cell foam would conform to the
humerus to allow for force distribution, whereas the
thermo-moldable plastic allows for a hard barrier to
outside forces.
Which of the following is the best material for
constructing a functional protective device to protect a
humeral exostosis?
A. Plaster cast material and orthopedic felt
B. Thermo-moldable plastic and adhesive moleskin
C. Fiberglass roll and orthopedic felt
D. Thermo-moldable plastic and closed-cell foam
E. Adhesive Sorbothane and adhesive felt
B: An athletic trainer must consider the tape ' s qualities
in order to interpret the tape ' s utility. Grade of backing
is another way to describe the number of fi bers that
make up the tape, whereas quality of the adhesive
mass can be tested with moisture. Quality of adhesive
mass also dictates the tape ' s ease of removal. The
winding tension determines the amount of force
required during tape application
Which of the following statements is true regarding
selection of tape size and type?
A. Elastic adhesive tape is used for bodily areas
requiring high tensile strength.
B. Tape is qualifi ed based on the grade of backing, the
quality of adhesive mass, and the winding tension.
C. Large-width tape is used for bodily areas requiring
high tensile strengths.
D. The more acute the angles required, the wider the
tape must be to fi t the contours.
E. Elastic tape is used for joints that do not expand
with motion.
B: Custom orthotics are most effective in patients
with symptomatic conditions associated with a
biomechanical deformity
Which of the following athletes would most benefi t
from using custom foot orthotics during sports
participation?
A. A fi eld hockey player with weak anterior tibialis
muscle
B. A softball player with pes planus and posterior
medial tibial stress syndrome
C. A runner with asymptomatic Sever ' s disease
D. A soccer player with weak evertors
E. A gymnast with pes cavus and a plantar-fl exed
fi rst ray
A: Sorbothane is very dense and is designed to absorb
high amounts of energy. It is a specifi c class of foams
composed of viscoelastic polymers
Which type of soft orthotic material has a high
energy-absorbing quality with a high density,
making it effective for preventing blisters and
absorbing ground reaction forces in multiple
directions?
A. Sorbothane
B. Orthopedic felt
C. Sponge rubber
D. Gauze padding
E. Closed-cell foam
E: This is the most appropriate selection based on
the size of the treatment area and the shoulder spica
application procedure
Which of the following wraps should you select to
most effectively apply a shoulder spica to a female
collegiate volleyball player?
A. 6-in. Å~ 10-yd elastic bandage
B. 6-in. Å~ 6-yd elastic bandage
C. 4-in. adhesive elastic tape
D. 6-in. adhesive elastic tape
E. 4-in. Å~ 10-yd elastic bandage
A: An equipment manufacturer is liable for any injury
resulting from defective equipment or equipment
inadequate for its intended purpose. However, when
any piece of protective sports equipment is modifi ed in
any way, the manufacturer ' s liability is voided, and the
individual who modifi ed the equipment becomes liable
for any damages and injuries sustained
You are preparing your college football team for
the upcoming season. A football player is having
diffi culty fi nding a pair of shoulder pads that fi t him
correctly. As his athletic trainer, you decide to modify
a pair of shoulder pads to fi t this athlete. Which
modifi cations are least likely to result in you or your
institution being involved in a lawsuit should the
athlete become injured?
A. Limit your modifi cations to only those
recommended by the shoulder pad manufacturer.
B. Limit your modifi cations to only those that you
have made in the past that did not result in any
injuries.
C. Limit your modifi cations to those that your athletic
director agrees in writing to take responsibility for
should a player get injured.
D. Limit your modifi cations to only those you have
seen colleagues make that did not result in any
injuries.
E. Limit your modifi cations to only those specifi c to
the player ' s position.
B: It is the responsibility of the athletic trainer to
make sure that an athlete is using protective equipment
in the right way and that the athlete is legally
protected in the event that the equipment fails
You have been informed that one of your lacrosse
players has modifi ed his shoulder pads to make them
more comfortable. What action should you take?
A. No action is necessary as long as the athlete is
comfortable.
B. Meet with the athlete and explain that modifying
equipment in any way may limit its protective
ability and will invalidate the manufacturer ' s
warranty.
C. Notify the coach that the player should be withheld
from activity until the equipment modifi cation is
addressed.
D. Inspect the equipment in question and as long
as the athlete is protected no additional action is
necessary.
B: This is in compliance with the rules for mandatory
equipment as outlined by the National Collegiate
Athletic Association (NCAA) Rules Committee
According to National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) guidelines, what organization must certify
shin guards worn by soccer players?
A. American Society for Testing and Materials
(ASTM)
B. NCAA Committee on Competitive Safeguards
C. National Operating Committee on Standards for
Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE)
D. Soccer Equipment Certifi cation Center (SECC)
C: The feet increase slightly in size over the course
of the day, so fi tting late in the day will ensure better
fi t.
What is the best time of day to fi t an athlete for
shoes?
A. First thing in the morning
B. After a workout
C. Late in the day
D. After completion of a warm-up and stretching
session
D: Due to playing surface and sport motions, tennis
shoes should have a fi rmer sole than running shoes
Which type of activity is best supported by athletic
shoes with a rigid sole?
A. Running
B. Cross training
C. Volleyball
D. Tennis
A: Assigning each helmet a code and noting date
of purchase and subsequent actions taken will
allow recertifi cation and reconditioning within
the recommended time frame.
How might helmets be tracked to ensure appropriate
inspections, reconditioning, recertifi cation, and
disposal occur?
A. Each helmet should be assigned a code number at
the time of purchase and then tracked.
B. All helmets must be inspected, reconditioned, and
recertifi ed each year.
C. Only helmets that were used during the season
need to be inspected and recertifi ed.
D. All helmets should be inspected annually, and any
helmet that is damaged must be disposed of by
following manufacturer ' s guidelines.
B: Use and time break down the ethyl vinyl acetate
(EVA) used to construct the sole and midsole
resulting in decreased shock absorption
Why is it recommended that running shoes be
replaced every 350 to 500 miles?
A. They are no longer clean enough to meet
minimum hygiene standards.
B. They lose their shock-absorbing properties.
C. The material covering the toe box is likely to be
damaged.
D. The sole is typically worn through.
C: Off-the-shelf orthotics are easily implemented
and offer a chance to determine if addressing the
biomechanical issues will provide therapeutic
benefi ts.
A cross country runner has been complaining
of symptoms consistent with tibialis posterior
tendonitis. Evaluation reveals some very mild
increased pronation with ambulation. The team
physician recommends symptomatic treatment and
an off-the-shelf arch support before fabrication
of custom orthotics. What is the basis for this
recommendation?
A. Custom orthotics are not very effective with
minor biomechanical abnormalities.
B. Custom orthotics do not provide enough
cushioning for a cross country runner.
C. Off-the-shelf orthotics are a more-cost effective
way to determine if custom orthotics would be
helpful.
D. Off-the shelf orthotics are easier to replace, as
this athlete will be participating in daily rigorous
workouts.
D: The efficacy of taping versus bracing is inconclusive, but bracing may provide more
consistent support because tape loosens over time.
Bracing long-term is more cost-effective in the long
term, and the athlete can apply it himself
You are counseling an athlete with a history of multiple ankle sprains. The athlete's father is
insistent that his son be taped every day before activity, but you think that the athlete would benefit
from a commercial lace-up brace. What rationale would you provide for your recommendation?
A. Bracing has been shown to increase performance
compared with taping.
B. Taping takes too much time and uses too many
supplies.
C. Research has shown that taping provides
signifi cantly less protection against injury than
bracing.
D. Bracing will provide more consistent support over
the course of the practice and over time is more
cost and time effi cient.
A: If the athlete can fully raise the arms overhead
without the pads sliding, the neck opening is the
correct size
You are educating your new volunteer equipment
manager about appropriate football shoulder pad
fi tting. Which of the following statements indicates
the shoulder pads are fi tted correctly?
A. The athlete can raise his arms overhead without
the pads sliding.
B. The epaulets cover the acromioclavicular joint.
C. The underarm straps are snug enough that it is
diffi cult to slide a fi nger underneath.
D. The pads shift slightly when the jersey is put on,
but the jersey holds them in position.
B: This is in compliance with the rules for mandatory
equipment as outlined by the National Collegiate
Athletic Association (NCAA) Rules Committee
Your volleyball setter is returning to participation
following a distal radius fracture. The team
physician has requested that she wear a hard splint
for the fi rst 2 weeks. What steps must be taken so
that she can play?
A. The head referee must approve the hard splint
before the match.
B. The splint must be covered on every surface in
1⁄2-in.-thick slow rebounding foam.
C. The splint can be worn in practice but may not be
worn in matches.
D. The athlete will be unable to participate until the
splint is removed.
C: Student athletes are responsible for making
sure their equipment fi ts properly and can provide
full protection as designed
What is the role of the student athlete in regard to
protective equipment?
A. The student athlete must wear and use the
equipment properly.
B. The student athlete must make sure his or
her equipment is reconditioned based on
recommended time frames.
C. The student athlete must not modify the
equipment in any way and should notify coaches,
athletic trainers, or equipment managers if the
equipment needs maintenance.
D. The student athlete should follow the directions
given by coaches and equipment managers.
D: Elastic wraps are used to effectively support
soft tissue or joints and to hold dressings or pads in
place
You have created a hard shell pad to protect an
athlete returning to play following a hip pointer
injury. How might this pad best be held in place?
A. Secured directly to the skin with nonelastic
adhesive tape
B. Secured under compression shorts
C. Secured with prewrap and elastic tape wrapped
around both hips
D. Secured with a hip spica using an elastic bandage
and tape
A: Noncantilevered pads allow more shoulder
mobility and are recommended for quarterbacks,
wide receivers, and youth football players
Which type of shoulder pad is recommended for
quarterbacks and wide receivers?
A. Noncantilevered
B. Cantilevered
C. Flatpad
D. Streamlined
D: The maintenance and fi tting of protective
equipment is critical to minimizing risk of sports
injuries, particularly in collision sports such as
football. Less skilled players with a lower fi tness
level are at increased risk for injury, and providing
these players with worn-out equipment that may
not fi t properly compounds their risk for injury
This fall your high school has a record number
of boys wanting to play football. The returning
varsity players and almost all of the junior varsity
players have received properly fi tted new or
reconditioned equipment. The equipment supply
has been exhausted, but the coaches want to
give all the remaining boys without equipment a
chance to play, so they inquire about using the old,
worn-out equipment in the storage room, even if
it just "almost fi ts." What is the most important
information that should be communicated to the
coaching staff regarding this stored equipment?
A. The school emblem on these old worn-out
helmets is not current and so will not match the
other helmets.
B. The screws holding the face masks on the old
helmets are mostly rusted and stripped, not
allowing for changing of face masks to ensure
position-specifi c face masks.
C. These helmets were stored in a moist and dark
storage room, so they will likely have mold and
other fungi on the inner surface and padding.
D. Junior varsity players are less skilled and
experienced, so wearing worn-out and improperly
fi tted equipment increases their risk of injury.
C: The cycling helmet should be fi t so that the helmet
is level with the head, the "Y" of the front and rear
straps sitting just below the ears, and the chin strap
comfortably snug to the chin. Once fi t, shaking
the head should not create any helmet movement.
Additionally, pushing up on the underside of the
helmet should not create more movement than an
inch or so from level
Cycling helmets are designed to protect the head
against a single traumatic impact. Which of the
following is a recommended guideline for selecting
and fi tting a cycling helmet?
A. Place the helmet on the head so that the top of the
helmet creates a 15° to 20° angle of incline from
front to back.
B. Adjust front straps and rear straps to position
the "y" created by the straps just above the ears,
evenly on each side.
C. To check a fi tted helmet, push up under the front
edge trying to move the helmet backward and
upward, and if it moves more than 1 in. from
level, readjust straps.
D. Adjust the chin strap so that it sits 2 fi nger widths
below the inferior chin.
C: A commercial shoulder arm sling can be used
for forearm support when the shoulder complex,
elbow, forearm, or wrist is injured. The sling should
be applied with the elbow flexed such that the wrist
and hand are superior to the elbow joint
When fitting a patient with a commercial shoulder
arm sling, in approximately what degree angle
should the elbow be positioned?
A. 20°
B. 45°
C. 70°
D. 140°
C: When fi tting a football helmet, ensure cheek pads
are snug to cheeks, helmet covers base of skull, ear
holes align with ears, helmet does not shift around
when forces are applied, chin strap is centered, and
you can measure two fi nger widths above eyes and
three fi nger widths from athlete ' s face to face mask
When initially fitting or checking the fitting of an
issued football helmet, the manufacturer ' s directions
for proper fi t should be followed carefully. Which
of the following represents a correct step in fitting a
football helmet?
A. Helmet ear holes should align with the inferior
aspect of the athlete ' s ear lobes.
B. Two finger widths should be available between
the helmet cheek pads and the athlete ' s cheeks.
C. The back of the helmet covers the base of the
athlete ' s skull.
D. The forehead pad of the helmet is at least three
finger widths above the eyes.
B: To properly maintain sports equipment and
avoid potential litigation, the manufacturer ' s
guidelines for assembling, using, and maintaining
sports equipment, including personal protective
equipment, should be followed exactly
Which of the following is correct regarding
maintenance of sports equipment?
A. Repair all defective equipment within a
reasonable period of time.
B. Strictly follow manufacturer ' s guidelines for
equipment maintenance.
C. Delegate equipment maintenance to coaches and
players using equipment.
D. Clean equipment using only Environmental
Protection Agency-approved cleaning solutions
and disinfectants.
A: Athletes participating in National Collegiate
Athletic Association (NCAA) and National
Federation of High School Sports (NFHS) sanctioned
practices and competitions in the sports of fencing,
fi eld hockey, ice hockey, and boys/men ' s lacrosse
must use protective padding for the elbow and/or
forearm
For which of the following sports does the National
Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) and the
National Federation of High School Sports (NFHS)
require athletes use protective padding for the
elbow and/or forearm during all practices and
competitions?
A. Ice hockey
B. Soccer
C. Wrestling
D. Basketball
C: Helmet testing to meet National Operating
Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
(NOCSAE) standards is based on the protective roles
of the helmet. Whereas baseball batters ' helmets must
undergo a projectile impact test to meet NOCSAE
standards, baseball catchers ' helmets with face guards
must undergo the drop test and the projectile impact
test; lacrosse helmets must undergo a helmet stability
and retention test, a drop method test, and a projectile
impact test
What type of testing must a new baseball batter ' s
helmet undergo to meet the National Operating
Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment
(NOCSAE) standard?
A. Stability and retention test
B. Drop method test
C. Projectile impact test
D. Force dispersion test
D: PECC, the Protective Eyewear Certifi cation
Council, works to reduce eye injuries through
certifi cation of protective eyewear.
A seal from this organization appears on eye
protection, such as eye guards, manufactured in
compliance with American Society for Testing and
Materials (ASTM) International Standards.
A. NOCSAE
B. HECC
C. CSA
D. PECC
A: The air/gel bladder brace design consists of two
stirrups made of a thermoplastic outer shell lined
with either air or gel bladders to contour to the lower
leg and ankle. The two stirrups are connected by an
adjustable nylon strap at the plantar surface of the
heel
Which of the following commercially available
ankle braces are designed to limit only inversion
and eversion and are most often used to provide
compression and moderate support to an ankle
during the acute phase of an ankle injury?
A. Air/gel bladder braces
B. Wrap braces
C. Lace-up braces
D. Semirigid braces
B: Trauma to any exposed lower leg bone or soft
tissue can result in signifi cant damage and pain.
The regular use of properly fi tted shin guards
(from malleoli to just below tibial tuberosity) in all
practice and games should be encouraged
Your school ' s annual injury summary indicates your
men ' s soccer team sustained a higher number of
anterior lower leg injuries this past year compared
with the previous fi ve seasons. An e-mail to
the coaching staff explaining the importance of
appropriate shin guard sizing and usage is indicated.
What should be included in this communication?
A. For maximum protection, shin guards should
cover the anterior lower leg from the tibial
tuberosity to midtibia.
B. For maximum protection, shin guards should
cover the anterior lower leg from just above
the malleoli of the ankle to just below the tibial
tuberosity.
C. For maximum protection, shin guards should
cover the anterior and lateral lower leg from the
distal third of the tibia to the superior tip of the
gastrocnemius muscle.
D. For maximum protection, the largest shin guard
size available should be worn by all players.
B: the mandatory equipment for all athletes participating in girls' or women ' s lacrosse is (1)
eye guard, American Society for Testing and
Materials (ASTM) Lacrosse Standards (National
Collegiate Athletic Association [NCAA] and National
Federation of High School Sports [NFHS]), and (2)
mouth guard (NCAA and NFHS), intraoral design
covering all upper teeth (NCAA and NFHS), of any
highly visible color (NFHS).
You are an athletic trainer for a medical clinic that
provides athletic training community outreach. One
of your responsibilities is to assist the director of the
city recreation department by providing educational
information to sports program participants and
parents. You must write an informational letter
regarding protective equipment for participants
in an introductory girls' lacrosse program. What
equipment is mandatory for all athletes participating
in high school girls' lacrosse that can be required in
a city recreation program?
A. Gloves
B. Eye guard
C. Clear mouth guard
D. Elbow pads
D: Ear guards with a hard shell constructed of
various nylon materials and with an inner padding
are held onto the head using adjustable straps. Some
designs are available with chin straps. Ear guards
are the only wrestling equipment mandated by the
National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) and
National Federation of High School Sports (NFHS).
What mandatory equipment is required by both the
National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)
and the National Federation of High School Sports
(NFHS) for any athlete participating in the sport of
wrestling?
A. Elbow pads
B. Knee pads
C. Mouth guard
D. Ear guard
C: A thumb spica semirigid cast limits fi rst
metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and wrist range of
motion. The distal end of the cast is applied proximal
to the MCP joints of the second through fi fth digits
and proximal to the interphalangeal joint of the
thumb.
For which of the following injuries is a thumb spica
semirigid cast indicated?
A. Fifth distal interphalangeal joint sprain
B. Third proximal interphalangeal joint sprain
C. First metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint sprain
D. Second metacarphophalangeal (MCP) joint
sprain
B: When fi tting a mouth guard, submerge the guard
in boiling water until pliable, approximately 20 to
30 seconds, and avoid biting the guard; instead,
just close the mouth and suck the guard against the
upper arch of the mouth. Cutting or trimming the
mouth guard may minimize the protection provided
Mouth-formed mouth guards are one category of
mouth guards. What action should be followed when
fi tting a mouth-formed mouth guard?
A. Submerge the mouth guard in boiling water for at
least 5 minutes.
B. Place the heated guard into the mouth, press the
lips together to create a seal, and suck the guard
against the upper arch.
C. With the heated guard in the mouth, bring the
upper and lower jaw together to gently bite into
the guard to imprint teeth pattern.
D. After the mouth guard is formed, cut the posterior
ends and trim the edges next to the gums as much
as needed for comfort.
C: Intrinsic and extrinsic risk factors for hypothermia
have been identifi ed through case studies and
controlled cold water immersion studies. Extrinsic
factors include environmental, cold water immersion,
wet clothing, body type, age, gender, illness, and
injury. Intrinsic factors include substance abuse,
exercise intensity, physical fi tness, hypoglycemia, and
time and place.
Hypothermia, which can result in long-term
morbidity or death, can occur in organized sports
and in physically active people. Athletic trainers
should monitor both extrinsic and intrinsic factors
that can predispose a person to hypothermia. Which
of the following is an extrinsic risk factor for
developing hypothermia?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Exercising at a low intensity
C. Exercising with whole or partial body immersed
in cold water
D. Fitness level falls below physical demands of
exercise
A: The National Weather Service sets standard
defi nitions for weather conditions and is considered a
viable resource
Your softball team is preparing to practice when you
notice the sky darkening. You remember that the
weather forecast mentioned possible thunderstorms
for today. You consult the National Weather Service
and discover that a severe thunderstorm watch
has been declared for your area. What does this
declaration mean?
A. Conditions are favorable for the development of
severe weather.
B. Severe weather has been detected in your area.
C. Steps should be taken to remove athletes from the
fi eld.
D. All persons should take necessary precautions to
preserve their own safety
A: A fl ared heel is essential to absorb the heelstrike
shock, and a curved last is for persons with
abnormally high arch and who supinate (run on
outside of foot) because a curved last has a larger
curve on the medial side of the shoe and a wider
outside portion. Cross country runners typically run
a high number of miles each week, with an average
of 1,500 heel strikes per mile. Thus, a shoe with
a moderate-to-high degree of shock absorption is
essential
An evaluation of a cross country runner reveals that
she has excessive supination bilaterally. Her coach
would like to purchase shoes that most effectively
address her biomechanical alignment. Which type of
shoe would you recommend for this athlete?
A. Shoe with a fl ared heel, curved last, and
moderate-to-high degree of shock absorption
B. Shoe with little to no fl are, straight last, and
moderate-to-high degree of shock absorption
C. Shoe with a fl ared heel, straight last, and low-tomoderate
degree of shock absorption
D. Shoe with no heel fl are, curved last, and
moderate-to-high degree of shock absorption
E. Shoe with a fl ared heel, board last, and low-tomoderate
degree of shock absorption
A: The National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) Women ' s Lacrosse 2018 and 2019 rules
manual states: "Section 27. All fi eld players must
wear eye protection properly. Eye protection must
meet the most current ASTM Specifi cation Standard
for eye protectors for women ' s lacrosse and must be
listed on the US Lacrosse website
Which of the following pieces of equipment are
mandated by the National Collegiate Athletic
Association (NCAA)?
A. Protective eyewear for female lacrosse players
B. Rib protection for baseball catchers
C. Protective cups for wrestlers
D. Intraoral mouthpiece for male basketball players
E. Helmet with face mask for softball batters
B: Both abrasions and turf toe (hyperextension of
fi rst metatarsophalangeal joint) seem to occur more
frequently in athletes using synthetic surfaces. To
minimize the risk and severity of skin abrasions,
athletes practicing and competing on synthetic turf
should wear padding on elbows and knees and cover
exposed skin surfaces
Which of the following actions would be most
helpful in minimizing injuries common to
participation on artifi cial turf?
A. Encourage athletes to wear longer cleats.
B. Apply extra padding and taping to athletes'
exposed skin.
C. Encourage athletes to wear heel cups inside their
cleats.
D. Tape longitudinal arches of each athlete.
E. Encourage athletes to wear two pairs of socks
with the outside pair inside out.
B: When used according to manufacturer ' s
guidelines, a football player ' s required protective
equipment is not designed to prevent, or cause, a
catastrophic spinal cord injury. This injury occurs
with structural distortion of the cervical spinal
column, which may result from improper tackling
methods or poor blocking techniques
Which of the following statements best characterizes
prevention of catastrophic cervical spine injuries?
A. A football helmet is designed to reduce the risk of
axial loading.
B. Catastrophic cervical spine injury resulting from
axial loading is neither caused nor prevented by
players' standard equipment.
C. Proper training in tackling and blocking
techniques is not as effective as protective
equipment in minimizing the risk of a
catastrophic cervical spine injury.
D. Players who initiate contact with their head
down are less at risk for sustaining a catastrophic
cervical spine injury if a cowboy collar is added
to the shoulder pads.
E. Players who are on the receiving end of headdown,
helmet-to-helmet contact are not at risk for
a catastrophic cervical spine injury.
E: The mission of the National Collegiate Athletic
Association (NCAA) Committee on Competitive
Safeguards Medical Aspects of Sports is to provide
expertise and leadership to the membership to
promote a healthy and safe environment for student
athletes through research, education, collaboration,
and policy development. This committee makes
recommendations to modify safety guidelines,
equipment standards, or sports rules of play. This
committee also assists in development of the NCAA
Sports Medicine Handbook content
Which National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) committee is responsible for establishing
policies and recommendations on safe sport
participation?
A. Committee on the Medical Aspects of Sports
B. Committee on Sport Safety
C. Committee on Risk Management in
Intercollegiate Athletics
D. Committee on Injury Surveillance and Prevention
E. Committee on Competitive Safeguards and
Medical Aspects of Sports
E. Risk of participating in a sport is assumed when
the athlete knows of and understands the dangers of
that sport but voluntarily chooses to be exposed to
those potential dangers. Assumption of risk can be
verifi ed via a signed waiver or simply implied from
the athlete ' s conduct while participating in the sport
When an adult chooses to participate in a sport, the
knowledge of potential risks is in most cases clearly
understood. Should an injury situation arise, when
would the injured adult athlete assume none of
the risk?
A. When the athlete does not fully comprehend the
assumption of risk policy
B. When the athlete has never played the sport
before the season in which the injury occurs
C. When the athlete makes no effort to determine
hazards associated with the sport
D. When the athlete chooses not to sign the
assumption of risk statement
E. When the athlete is not warned of the dangers
associated with participation
A: When designing an athletic training facility, at
least nine design elements should be considered
so that the facility is accessible by all, safe for
clients and employees, and effi cient. These elements
include size, location, ergonomics, electrical system,
plumbing system, ventilation, lighting, specialized
function areas, and accessibility
When designing a hydrotherapy area, which design
elements are recommended to reduce the risk of
patient injury?
A. Electrical outlets must be at least 3 ft off the
fl oor and equipped with ground fault circuit
interruptors (GFCIs), and hydrotherapy tanks
should be connected directly to a fl oor drain.
B. Electrical outlets must be at least 2 ft off the
fl oor, hydrotherapy tanks should be connected
directly to a fl oor drain, and fl oors should be
carpeted to reduce slippage.
C. Electrical outlets must be equipped with GFCIs,
fl oors should be sloped toward the drains to
minimize puddling, and lighting should be a
minimum of 140 W.
D. The area should be a minimum of 60 sq ft
per athlete being serviced, walls should be
constructed from cinderblock, and fl oors should
be carpeted to reduce slippage.
E. The area should use only natural lighting and
should be a minimum of 10 sq ft per athlete being
serviced, and plumbing fi xtures should include
mixing valves and foot pedal activators.
E: The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Center
for Devices and Radiological Health has approved
low-level laser therapy for the treatment of carpal
tunnel syndrome and shoulder and neck pain.
This center also classifi es lasers by the accessible
emission limit, which ranges from 1 to 4
Which government agency has developed national
guidelines for the safety and effi cacy of low-level
lasers?
A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration
B. Department of Health and Environmental Control
C. American Medical Association Committee on
Medical Safeguards
D. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
E. U.S. Food and Drug Administration
D: Exercise-induced bronchospasm results from
hyperreactivity of the athlete ' s airway. Moist and
temperate air passing through the airway may elicit
less of an airway reaction compared with other
environments.
A middle-distance runner has exercise-induced
asthma. Which of the following environments is
most likely to limit the intensity and number of
wheezing episodes during activity?
A. Cold and dry
B. Temperate and dry
C. Cold and moist
D. Temperate and moist
E. Hot and dry
B: Spearing is the action of intentionally making a
tackle with the head down so that the helmet strikes
fi rst. This places an axial load on the cervical spine
leaving the athlete at risk for cervical fracture, spinal
cord injury, or death. It also increases the risk of
concussion and other head injury. This rule was
implemented to attempt to reduce these injuries.
Rules have been instituted in some sports to
minimize the risk of injury to participants. In 1976
the practice of spearing was deemed illegal. What
action constitutes spearing?
A. During a tackle, two football players collide and,
just before they hit the ground, their face masks
make contact.
B. A defensive back tackles a receiver, making initial
contact with his helmet.
C. A defensive lineman sacks the quarterback and,
as they hit the ground, the top of the lineman ' s
helmet contacts the face mask of the quarterback.
D. A running back jumps over two downed players
on the goal line and lands on the top of his head
in the end zone.
E. A running back running down the sideline gets
wrapped up by a linebacker, and as he turns away
to escape the tackle, the top of his helmet hits the
face mask of the defensive back.
A: The wet bulb globe temperature device uses three
different tools to assess outdoor conditions. First, the
dry bulb temperature is taken with a normal mercury
thermometer. Next, the wet bulb temperature is taken
by putting a wet piece of gauze around the end of a
thermometer and swinging the thermometer around
in the air to detect humidity. Finally, the globe
temperature is taken with black metal casing around
the end of a thermometer to assess radiation from the
sun in the environment
When using a wet bulb globe temperature device,
what factors are assessed to determine relative heat
stress?
A. Air temperature, humidity, and radiant heat in the
local environment
B. Air temperature and humidity
C. Air temperature, humidity, and wind speed
D. Air temperature, dew point, and radiant heat in
the local environment
E. Humidity and radiant heat in the local
environment
A: Medical history questions are used as initial
screening tools, but a true evaluation must be
conducted before referral is made for treatment or
monitoring
The medical history portion of your preparticipation
physical examination (PPE) asks several screening
questions related to risk factors for mental health
concerns. What actions should be taken for an
athlete who answers "yes" to any of these questions?
A. The physician should have a private conversation
with the athlete and determine if referral is
indicated.
B. The student athlete ' s parents should be notifi ed of
your concerns.
C. The student athlete should be referred to the
school counselor.
D. The student athlete should be monitored during
the season and questioned periodically by the
athletic trainer for warning signs.
B: Athletes often fail to record everything on their
health history because they may not think it is
pertinent information. Screening medications may
help fi ll in some gaps
In addition to appropriate management and
monitoring of medical conditions, why is it
important that the examiner review all medications
listed on the health history with the athlete during
the preparticipation examination?
A. The athlete may not be receiving appropriate
medical care.
B. The review of medications may provide
information about underlying medical conditions
that were not disclosed on the health history.
C. The reviewer can screen for substance abuse
issues.
D. The medications must be documented for drug
testing purposes.
C: Warm-up, stretching, and cool down are not
shown to prevent injury but are commonly accepted
methods of minimizing soreness associated with
strenuous activity
Which of the following recommendations would be
made to an athlete to decrease the risk and intensity
of soreness following exercise?
A. Warm up and perform static stretching for a
minimum of 20 to 30 minutes before exercise.
B. Stop every 20 to 30 minutes during the exercise
session.
C. Complete a short, dynamic warm-up before
exercise and an active cool-down afterward.
D. Consume 24 oz of an electrolyte beverage before
and after activity.
D: Uniforms need to be changed only if saturated
with blood
An athlete sustains a laceration during a game that
results in blood saturating the uniform. How would
you properly manage this situation in order to return
the athlete to the game?
A. The athlete may be returned to the game
immediately as long as the wound is no longer
actively bleeding.
B. The athlete must be removed from competition
for the remainder of the game.
C. The uniform must be cleaned with an approved
disinfectant for fabrics before returning to the
game.
D. The athlete must change the portion of the
uniform that is saturated before returning to the
game.
A: Ergonomic risk assessments provide information
that can be used to change policies or make changes
to individual job responsibilities
Which of the following would be an appropriate
result of an ergonomic risk assessment?
A. A policy is instituted that all workers on the
loading dock will be provided with a lumbar
stabilization belt and instructions on when and
how to use it.
B. Customer service specialists are required to sit
during their shift to minimize stress on their
lower bodies.
C. Cameras are installed to monitor workfl ow
patterns and identify potential problems.
D. Absentee rates are calculated for different
departments.
B: This condition is contagious. Fungicide
followed by wound coverage minimizes the risk of
transmission
A basketball player has recently been diagnosed with
tinea corporis and started on a topical fungicide.
Under what conditions will the athlete be allowed to
return to play?
A. The athlete can play as long as the area is
covered.
B. The athlete can return to play after using the
fungicide for 72 hours if the lesion is covered by
a gas-permeable membrane and tape.
C. The athlete can return to play if symptoms of the
virus, such as fever and fatigue, have disappeared
and no new lesions have been observed for the
past 72 hours.
D. The athlete can return to play after being on
antibiotics for 24 hours and covering the lesion
with a gas-permeable membrane and tape
C: Lying directly on the heat pack could result in the
silicate gel being pushed out between the seams or
weak area of the heat pack
Which of the following recommendations regarding
moist heat pack use is designed to protect the patient
and extend the life of the equipment?
A. Heat packs should be removed and washed with
soap and water weekly to prevent mold from
developing.
B. Heat packs should be allowed to cool to room
temperature before replacing them in the water
bath.
C. Heat packs should be placed on a patient rather
than allowing the patient to lie directly on the
heat pack.
D. Heat packs should be used only with a
commercial cover as the barrier between the
patient and the heat pack.
D: Deeper grooves allow for grip on uneven
surfaces
What type of running shoe tread is recommended by
shoe manufacturers?
A. Flat with herringbone pattern
B. Pivot dot pattern
C. Slip resistant
D. Deep groove
A: Urine color charts typically range from 1 to 8 with
the extreme ends of the range indicating possible
dangerous hydration issues
During preseason soccer training, you post urine
color charts in the restrooms with specimen
collection cups and request athletes to report their
urine color after practice. An athlete reports a urine
color of 4 based on the chart pictured. Based on
these fi ndings, how would you educate your athlete?
A. You are slightly dehydrated and should
consciously consume a few extra cups of water
in the next few hours after practice and over the
next 24 hours.
B. You are very well hydrated and should follow
your normal hydration plan, but be sure you are
also getting enough sodium and electrolytes.
C. You are very dehydrated, and we need to review
your current hydration plan to determine where
additional fl uids can be added.
D. You are extremely dehydrated and need to be
referred for further evaluation.
B: A solution of bleach and water or a disinfectant
approved by the Environmental Protection Agency
are recommended cleaning solutions for surfaces
Which of the following is the most effective
and cost-effi cient cleaning solution to safely
decontaminate soiled surfaces such as treatment
tables and fl oors?
A. Ammonia:water (1:20)
B. Bleach:water (1:10)
C. White vinegar:water (1:10)
D. Hydrogen peroxide:water (1:20)
C: Ground fault circuit interruptors (GFCIs) are
designed to shut off power to an outlet immediately
when the electrical current is not fl owing normally to
decrease the risk of shock
You are attempting to use your ultrasound machine,
but it seems that there is no power to the device.
You check the outlet and note that the ground fault
current interrupter (GFCI) has been tripped. This is
the fi rst time this has occurred. What action should
you take?
A. Call in an electrician to evaluate the outlet.
B. Connect an extension cord from the outlet to the
ultrasound machine to distribute the voltage.
C. Check to see that there are not multiple devices
plugged into the outlet, press the reset switch, and
continue with your treatment.
D. Unplug all devices until the facility can be
inspected by your fi re safety offi ce.
D: Sound electrical safety parameters include not
touching electrical devices while in contact with
water.
What important instruction should be posted over the
whirlpool and given to the patient verbally before
initiating treatment to reduce the risk of electrical
shock?
A. No horseplay in the treatment area
B. No jewelry may be worn in whirlpool
C. Wash the treatment area with soap and water
before immersion to remove sweat and other
electrolyte particles
D. Do not turn the machine on or off while
immersed in the water
A: An aching sensation is an indicator of overheating.
While sweating may result in a burn, that is a normal
sensation for this treatment, as is warmth. Motor
fi bers are not stimulated to contract the muscle.
You have selected shortwave diathermy to increase
tissue temperature in a patient ' s hamstring. Before
treatment, you communicate to the patient expected
sensations. Which of the following statements made
by the patient during the treatment might indicate
that the tissue is being overheated?
A. "I feel a really deep ache in my hamstring."
B. "I feel like the muscle is contracting."
C. "It feels really, really hot, but not burning."
D. "I feel like I am starting to sweat."
D: Consensus statements and position statements are
available to provide evidence-based recommendations
for clinical practice and are based on the work of
experts in the fi eld.
A hospital has hired you to provide outreach
coverage by directing the healthcare for a local
recreation department that organizes youth sports
leagues for 10 different sports. What resource
might provide you with recommendations for
implementation of care based on evidence-based
principles?
A. Meeting with the hospital ' s legal team
B. Gathering together pediatricians in the area to
discuss required care
C. National Recreation and Parks Administration
D. Inter-Association Consensus Statement on Best-
Practice Recommendations for Youth Sports
Leagues
A: The reference range for urine specifi c gravity is
1.005-1.030. Specifi c gravity results above 1.010 can
indicate mild dehydration. The higher the number,
the more dehydrated the athlete may be
Assessing urine specifi c gravity may aid in
identifying dehydration, which can increase risk for
exertional heat illness. Which urine specifi c gravity
value is above the reference range for urine specifi c
gravity and may indicate dehydration?
A. 1.040
B. 1.010
C. 1.005
D. 1.000
B: Athletes who are forced to sit out for any reason
during the initial heat-acclimatization period resume
the protocol where they left off even if it is different
from the rest of the team.
A secondary school athlete is forced to sit out for days 5 and 6 of the preseason initial 14-day heat acclimatization period due to injury. What day of the protocol will this athlete be on when he returns to
practice?
A. Day 7
B. Day 5
C. Day 4
D. Day 1
C: If symptoms have resolved and liver function
and spleen size are normal, a return-to-activity
progression can begin
A female cross country runner has been recently
diagnosed with mononucleosis. How long must
the athlete be withheld from activity before being
reevaluated to determine if it is safe to begin a return
to activity progression?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
C: Research supports the use of functional
performance testing as a component of the returnto-
play decision-making for an athlete who has
sustained an ankle sprain. Performance of the
previously injured limb should be within 80% of
the performance of the contralateral side
To determine an athlete ' s readiness to return to
participation following a 3-week rehabilitation
program for a lateral ankle sprain, you use the Star
Excursion Balance Test and a single-legged hop for
distance test. To minimize this athlete ' s risk of injury
on return to sport-specifi c tasks, what percentage
of the uninjured limb ' s performance should be
demonstrated by the injured limb?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%
C: Neoprene sleeve braces should be washed in cold
water with mild detergent, rinsed, and then air dried
Your patient has been provided a neoprene sleeve brace for support for her patellofemoral joint condition. Which of the following is a manufacturer brace care recommendation for this type of brace?
A. Wash in hot water using a mild detergent.
B. Dry using a hot air laundry dryer.
C. Air dry.
D. Wash in hot water using a 10:1 bleach solution.
A: Open-cell foam allows air to transfer from cell
to cell and deforms quickly to stress, making it a
minimal shock absorber
Foam is commonly used for constructing padding.
One type of foam, open-cell foam, can be used as
a liner for custom-made pads. What statement is
correct regarding open-cell foam?
A. Deforms quickly when stressed, providing
minimal shock absorption
B. Deforms slowly when stressed, providing minimal
shock absorption
C. Deforms quickly when stressed, providing a high
level of shock absorption
D. Deforms slowly when stressed, providing a high
level of shock absorption
D: Replacing lost fl uid with appropriately formulated
sports drinks has been shown to be more effective
than using only water.
Dehydration in an exercising person can increase
risk for exertional heatstroke. Athletes who are
dehydrated need to replace fl uids. Based on current
research, how should fl uid lost during exercise be
replaced?
A. The athlete should replace fl uid lost by drinking
primarily water and avoiding sports drinks.
B. The athlete should replace fl uid lost by drinking
water until athlete is no longer feeling thirsty.
C. The athlete should replace fl uid by drinking more
fl uid than fl uid lost.
D. The athlete should replace fl uid lost by drinking
appropriately formulated sports drinks.
B: Cold temperatures, wind, and dampness can
predispose athletes to hypothermia
To prevent hypothermia, coaches and athletes should
be educated on assessing environmental conditions.
In addition to air temperature, what environmental
factor should coaches and athletes consider when
determining athletes' risk for hypothermia?
A. Pollen count
B. Wind speed
C. Dew point
D. Radiant energy of sun
D: To maintain a safe environment, electrical
equipment should comply to National Electrical Code
guidelines
Practicing electrical safety in an athletic training
facility is important to prevent injuries to patients
and therapists. Which action provides the best legal
protection from a potential lawsuit?
A. To ensure grounding, use only three-pronged wall
outlets.
B. Defective equipment should be labeled and used
only intermittently.
C. Remove plugs by pulling cord at an angle
perpendicular to the outlet.
D. Evaluate electrical equipment yearly, ensuring
compliance to National Electrical Code
guidelines.
A: The spotter has three functions: to protect the
lifter from injury, to make recommendations on
proper lifting technique, and to help motivate the
lifter
One function of a spotter for a person lifting free
weights is to protect the lifter from injury. Before
each exercise, what should the lifter communicate to
the spotter to best protect himself from injury?
A. The number of repetitions the lifter plans to
complete
B. Where the spotter should stand
C. The weight achieved during the most recent
1-RM (repetition maximum) test
D. The amount of desired verbal motivation
B: Reporting certain infectious diseases is aimed
at (1) isolating the disease and retarding its spread
and (2) generating data to be used for future disease
prevention programs. For most infectious diseases the
disease, not the person, is reported. However, with
a sexually transmitted infection (STI) the infected
person and all partners are identifi ed so that they can
be contacted
An athlete diagnosed with a sexually transmitted
infection (STI) tells you she is upset because the
physician told her that her infection must be reported
to the public health authorities. What should be
communicated to this athlete?
A. Certain infectious diseases are reported so that
pharmaceutical companies can target distribution
efforts to geographical areas.
B. Some infectious conditions are reported to protect
the public from an outbreak of the disease.
C. Certain infectious diseases are reported to
encourage patients to improve personal hygiene
and incorporate safe-sex practices.
D. Some infectious conditions are reported so that
hospitals can make decisions for allocating
funding for health-care personnel.
C: The National Athletic Trainers' Association
(NATA) offi cial statement on automated external
defi brillators (AEDs) states that an AED program
should be part of an athletic trainer ' s emergency
action plan and an AED should be standard
emergency equipment.
You believe your school ' s athletic department should
purchase an automated external defi brillator (AED).
What document should be used to encourage your
school to include an AED as part of your emergency
equipment?
A. National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA)
Heat Stroke Treatment Authorization Form
B. NATA Position Statement: Management of Sport
Concussion
C. NATA Offi cial Statement: Automated External
Defi brillators
D. NATA Heads up video
A: When new to a high-altitude environment, athletes
with known sickle cell trait (SCT) should have access
to supplemental oxygen for training sessions and
competitions.
A sports team travels to a city located at a higher
altitude for an end-of-season tournament. An athlete
with which of the following conditions should be
closely monitored for effects resulting from the
change in altitude?
A. Sickle cell trait
B. Urticaria
C. Celiac disease
D. Mittelschmerz
B: Each of these answers are a recommended
component of a comprehensive proactive emergency
action plan (EAP) specifi c to lightning safety.
Reliable means of monitoring the weather should be
identifi ed and used, a person should be appointed
to have the authority to suspend activity, and
safe locations should be identifi ed ahead of time.
However, the component that is most useful in
deciding if play will be suspended is having in place
specifi c criteria for suspending and resuming play.
Your baseball team is playing a doubleheader and
you are only one inning into the second game.
Dark clouds are moving into the area, and you have
heard some rumbles of thunder in the distance. The
baseball team ' s coach also notes the weather changes
and asks you if play will be suspended. Which
component of your venue-specifi c comprehensive
proactive emergency action plan (EAP) specifi c to
lightning safety is the most helpful for answering the
coach ' s question?
A. The plan identifi es safe locations from the
lightning hazard.
B. The plan identifi es specifi c criteria for suspending
and resuming activity.
C. The plan identifi es a specifi c person (by name or
job title) who makes the decision to suspend and
resume sport participation
D. The plan identifi es a reliable means of monitoring
the weather.
A: Sports are classifi ed according to the risk of
injuries occurring; these classifi cations include
collision, limited contact, or noncontact. The
American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) classifi es
the following sports as contact or collision sports:
basketball, boxing, diving, fi eld hockey, tackle
football, ice hockey, lacrosse, martial arts, rodeo,
rugby, ski jumping, soccer, team handball, water
polo, and wrestling
Sports can be classifi ed based on their comparative
risk of injury. According to the American Academy
of Pediatrics (AAP), in which of the following
categories would soccer be classifi ed?
A. Contact/collision
B. Noncontact
C. Intermittent contact
D. Noncollision
E. Limited contact
A: The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) established standards
that govern employee occupational exposure
to bloodborne pathogens. These standards and
guidelines were developed to protect all employees
in health-care settings, health-care providers, and
patients
According to the Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogen
Standard, which statement best describes the persons
required to receive training through their employer
in regard to occupational exposure to bloodborne
pathogens?
A. Any employee who has the potential for
occupational exposure to blood or other
potentially infectious materials
B. Only employees involved in direct patient
care who might be exposed to blood or other
potentially infectious materials
C. All federal and state employees
D. Only health-care providers dealing with high-risk
patient populations
E. Persons completing a fi rst-aid and
cardiopulmonary resuscitation course
D: The football players are most at risk due to the
amount of protective equipment they wear and the
strenuous nature of their physical activity
As a high school athletic trainer, you have multiple
practice sessions occurring simultaneously. Which
group of athletes is most at risk for developing a
heat-related illness?
A. Cross country team completing speed drills
B. Field hockey team preparing for tomorrow ' s game
C. Soccer team working on corner kicks
D. Football team running through offensive plays
E. Volleyball team completing conditioning drills
B: According to the National Athletic Trainers'
Association (NATA) position statement, the internal
layer should allow for sweat evaporation with
minimal sweat absorption, the middle layer should
provide insulation, and the external layer should
be wind and water resistant, while allowing for
evaporation of moisture
According to the National Athletic Trainers'
Association (NATA) position statement on
environmental cold injuries, three layers of clothing
are recommended to minimize risk of hypothermia.
Which of the following is correct regarding these
layers?
A. The external layer allows evaporation of sweat
with minimal absorption.
B. The internal layer allows evaporation of sweat
with minimal absorption.
C. The middle layer provides resistance against
wind.
D. The external layer provides insulation.
E. The internal layer provides insulation.
C: Well-acclimatized athletes sweat earlier in an
exercise session compared with nonacclimatized
athletes. Although sweat rates vary, well-acclimatized
athletes tend to sweat more than nonacclimatized
athletes.
Which of the following athletes is demonstrating
that he or she is acclimatized to a hot and humid
environment?
A. The athlete who produces the least amount of
sweat after 1 hour of participation
B. The athlete who consumes the least amount of
water during the practice session
C. The athlete who is the fi rst team member to begin
sweating during an outdoor practice session
D. The athlete who has the highest heart rate during
the exercise session
E. The athlete who demonstrates the highest
percentage of sodium loss on the team
A: According to the National Athletic Trainers'
Association (NATA) position statement on
lightning safety, if a thunderstorm appears
imminent, activity should be suspended. If thunder
can be heard, lightning is close enough to be a
hazard, and all persons at the athletic event should
seek a safe location immediately.
In the fi nal 5 minutes of a high school girls' lacrosse
game the wind picks up, the skies darken slightly,
and you hear thunder. Based on recommendations
from the National Athletic Trainers' Association
(NATA) position statement on lightning safety for
athletics and recreation, what action should be
taken?
A. All individuals, including coaches, offi cials,
players, and spectators, should immediately go to
a safe location.
B. The coaching staffs and offi cials should be
informed of the possibility of lightning and
instructed to begin making plans for eventual
evacuation if lightning is spotted.
C. The designated "weather watcher" should, based
on the sound of the thunder, estimate the arrival
time of the storm ' s lightning and inform all
individuals, including coaches, offi cials, players,
and spectators, of this estimated arrival time.
D. The school ' s director of athletics or highestranking
administrator in attendance should inform
the coaching staffs and offi cials if the game must
be completed, regardless of weather, if needed in
determining seeding for postseason competition
A: SPF stands for sun protection factor. The number
after SPF, such as 15, means the athlete with SPF
15 protection can stay in the sun 15 times longer
than without protection before he or she starts to get
sunburnt
The volleyball team is participating in a beach
volleyball tournament. The coach has given the
players sunscreen with SPF 15. What does an SPF of
15 imply?
A. The athletes can be exposed to ultraviolet (UV)
light 15 times longer than they could without any
sunscreen before their skin turns red.
B. The athletes can safely stay in the sun for 150
minutes before their skin turns red.
C. The athletes have 15 microlayers of skin
protection against harmful UV rays.
D. The athletes will have protection against 15
different types of UV rays.
E. The athletes can safely stay in the sun for 15
hours before their skin turns red
B: Particulate matter in the air, such as pollen,
will result in increased airway irritation for persons
with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease, emphysema, and bronchitis
Which of the following conditions would be
exacerbated by a high pollen count?
A. Hypertension
B. Bronchitis
C. Diabetes
D. Tonsillitis
C: Increased sensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) rays is
a side effect of the antibiotic tetracycline. Sunblock
is ineffective in preventing this reaction.
A soccer player reports that his physician has
recently started him on a prescription for tetracycline
to manage acne. Which of the following is
an important consideration based on the new
medication?
A. The athlete is now at a higher risk for heat illness.
B. The athlete should increase fl uid intake to combat
the diuretic effect of the medication.
C. The athlete is at risk for photosensitivity to sun
exposure.
D. The athlete should have liver function tests
completed every 3 months.
D: Fully acclimatized individuals can exercise
outdoors until wet bulb globe temperature (WGBT)
levels reach red (86.1°F-89.9°F), whereas
nonacclimatized individuals may be susceptible to
heat illness at very low levels (<78.0°F).
In what way does level of acclimatization impact
recommendations for activity as the wet bulb globe
temperature (WBGT) index increases?
A. Activity recommendations remain the same
regardless of levels of acclimatization.
B. As the WGBT index increases the recommended
work/rest ratio decreases, but water intake
remains static for acclimatized individuals.
C. Water intake recommendations increase for
unacclimatized individuals, but the work/rest ratio
remains the same for both groups.
D. Nonacclimatized individuals are at risk of heat
illness with extreme exertion even at low WGBT
levels (<78.0°F).
A: Jet lag symptoms are accentuated when traveling
from west to east
Which type of travel is most likely to result in
circadian dysrhythmia?
A. Travel from California to Massachusetts
B. Travel from Louisiana to Colorado
C. Travel from Wisconsin to Florida
D. Travel from Indiana to Oregon
B: Turf toe or a hyperextension sprain of the
great toe commonly occurs due to the fl exibility
of turf shoes that athletes wear when practicing
or competing on synthetic turf
An athlete complains of pain and swelling that is
isolated to the metatarsophalangeal joint of the
great toe. Pain is greatest when pushing off during
walking and running and began after the athlete
started wearing new turf shoes to practice on the
synthetic turf fi eld. What injury would you suspect?
A. Sesamoiditis
B. Turf toe
C. Morton ' s neurom
D. Jones Fracture
D: High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
typically occurs at altitudes from 9,000 to 10,000 ft
when fl uid accumulates in the alveolar walls. The
condition rapidly resolves with lower altitude and
sometimes oxygen implementation
An athlete returns from a family vacation in
Breckenridge, Colorado, and reports that she was
sick while on vacation. She noted shortness of
breath, cough, headache, and general body weakness
that was signifi cantly better as soon as they returned
home. What condition do you suspect the athlete
was experiencing while on vacation?
A. Viral infection
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Acute mountain sickness
D. High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
A: Fluid consumption that exceeds urine output and
results in increased body weight after an exercise
session more than 1 hour in duration increases the
risk of hyponatremia
How can physically active individuals exercising
for more than an hour in duration easily monitor
adherence to proper hydration protocols to decrease
risk of hyponatremia?
A. Monitor weight before and after activity
B. Assess urine color using standard urine color
chart
C. Assess body temperature before and after activity
and if any symptoms occur
D. Monitor urine output compared with water intake
over a 24-hour period
B: An ergonomic assessment seeks to identify risk
factors for injury so these can be addressed before
injury occurs
Which of the following actions might be taken
following the completion of a workplace ergonomic
assessment?
A. A list of employee requests for new equipment
will be provided to the administrator.
B. Recommendations for strengthening exercises,
stretches. and rest breaks will be provided to the
employee.
C. A comprehensive intensive therapy program is
conducted for a week during the employee ' s
normal work hours.
D. An injury-specifi c rehabilitation program is
provided 3 or 4 days a week for 3 weeks
C: One of the primary responsibilities of the athletic
trainer is to prevent injuries through maximizing a
safe playing environment. Administrators should be
notifi ed any time a possibly unsafe environment is
identifi ed
Before basketball practice, you notice that the
padding surrounding the backboard is beginning to
come off. What action should be taken?
A. No action needs to be taken until the environment
becomes unsafe for participants.
B. The loose padding should be removed so it does
not come off during practice.
C. The administration should be notifi ed so the
backboard can be repaired before it becomes
unsafe.
D. The coach should be notifi ed that the backboard
cannot be used for practice until it is repaired
C: When sweat or moisture on the skin evaporates
and is converted to a gaseous state, the heat is
transferred and removed
When exercising in an environment where ambient
temperature is greater than skin temperature and
relative humidity is low, what form of heat transfer
is the body ' s most effi cient and most relied on
means of heat loss?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Evaporation
D. Conduction
B: While there is no perfect choice for clothing,
research supports selecting clothing that is breathable,
will not hold moisture, is loose fi tting, and dries
easily. The National Athletic Trainers' Association
(NATA) position statement on environmental cold
injuries recommends using three layers of clothing
whereby the inner layer against the skin can wick
away sweat from skin; the middle layer provides
warmth and insulation; and the outer layer is
breathable, allowing moisture to evaporate while
protecting against cold air, wind, and rain
On a cold spring afternoon, you assess the weather
conditions. Based on air temperature and wind speed
you determine the lacrosse players practicing on the
turf fi eld are at risk for hypothermia. What clothing
guidelines should you recommend the players follow
to minimize their risk of hypothermia?
A. Wear snug, tight-fi tting clothing next to the skin.
B. Wear clothing next to skin that does not hold
moisture.
C. Wear nonbreathable clothing as outermost layer.
D. Wear tight-fi tting, moisture-absorbing socks and
gloves.
A: Administrative control measures include changes
to work schedules and establishment of work
policies
As an athletic trainer working for a large
manufacturing company, you have been tasked with
conducting an ergonomic risk assessment (ERA) for
the workers who move the boxed product from the
assembly line to the shelves in the storage room.
From your ERA, you have identifi ed risk factors to
be controlled to minimize risk of workplace-related
injury. You have recommended a maximum box size
for moving by a single person. What type of control
measure have you recommended?
A. Administrative changes
B. Physical changes
C. Personal protective equipment changes
D. Wellness changes
D: The National Athletic Trainers' Association
(NATA) position statement on lightning safety for
athletics and recreation recommends activity be
postponed or suspended if a thunderstorm appears
imminent
A comprehensive lightning emergency action plan
includes identifying specifi c criteria for suspending
and resuming activity. Which of the following is
a recommendation for suspending or resuming
activity?
A. Resume activities once skies brighten and the
sound of thunder lessens.
B. Postpone or suspend activities once thunderstorms
are producing lightning.
C. Resume activities 30 minutes after all persons are
completely within the designated safe location.
D. Postpone or suspend activities if a thunderstorm
appears imminent before or during activity
B: The athlete in this scenario has lost more than
2% of his body weight, indicating he is severely
dehydrated and at increased risk for injury as well as
heat illness
During preseason football a sophomore records a
third day prepractice weight of 193 lbs. His fi rst
session prepractice weight was 200 lb. What actions
should be taken in managing this athlete?
A. The athlete should be encouraged to drink fl uids
before and while participating fully in the practice
session.
B. The athlete should be encouraged to drink fl uids
and be held out of practice until he returns to his
normal body weight.
C. The athlete should be encouraged to drink fl uids
and should be restricted from full-contact drills
during practice.
D. The athlete should be encouraged to drink fl uids
and be allowed to practice until he demonstrates
or experiences signs and symptoms of exertional
heat illness.
C: Exertional heat exhaustion is caused by an
inability of the body to sustain adequate cardiac
output secondary to exercise-induced dehydration.
Athletes with exertional heat exhaustion present
with excessive thirst, fatigue, weight loss, low urine
volume, weakness, incoordination, mental dullness,
low urine volume, and slightly elevated body
temperature
Which heat illness typically manifests with fatigue,
excessive thirst, incoordination, mental dullness, and
slightly elevated body temperature?
A. Heat syncope
B. Exercise-associated heat cramps
C. Exertional heat exhaustion
D. Exertional heatstroke
D: The signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may
be present when blood glucose concentration drops
below 60 mg/dL. Hypoglycemia may be due to
inadequate glucose (caloric) intake in relation to
activity and caloric expenditure
While exercising, a person with type 1 diabetes
mellitus begins to experience symptoms of
hypoglycemia. Using a glucometer, he assesses
his blood glucose level. What reading indicates
hypoglycemia?
A. 125 mg/dL
B. 100 mg/dL
C. 75 mg/dL
D. 55 mg/dL
C: A functional capacity evaluation is part of a pre-
work hardening program assessment. It is used to
determine skill defi cits as measured against physical
job requirements
Which of the following skills may be evaluated in
a functional capacity evaluation completed before
developing a work hardening or conditioning
program?
A. 40 yard sprint time
B. Vertical jump height
C. Hand grip strength
D. 1 minute sit-up maximum
D: First morning urine void is the most accurate, as
checks throughout the day may be impacted by food
and fl uid intake or exercise
When using a urine specifi c gravity measurement
to determine hydration status, which urine void will
give the most accurate information?
A. First void following breakfast
B. Void immediately after exercise
C. Void immediately before exercise
D. First void of the morning after waking up
A: Chilblains are the mildest and most superfi cial
form of frostbite associated with vasoconstriction of
peripheral vessels
Which condition is characterized by redness,
tingling, swelling, and pain in the fi ngers or toes
during exposure to cold, wet conditions over an
extended period of time of 1 to 5 hours?
A. Chilblains
B. Frost nip
C. Superfi cial frostbite
D. Deep frostbite
B: Lyme disease is a tick-borne disease characterized
by erythema chronicum migrans—an enlarging
red ring that may or may not have a center raised
papule
A few days after returning from a trail run one
of your cross country runners complains of
headache, fatigue, and fever followed by a red
ringlike rash with a red center. What condition do
you suspect?
A. Ringworm
B. Lyme disease
C. Spider bite
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C: Assuming local time on arrival promotes easier
adaptation to minimize negative impacts of jet lag.
Your tennis team will be traveling from the east
coast to the west coast for a tournament. What
guidance might you give the coach to minimize the
negative impacts of jet lag on the players?
A. Do not allow the players to drink caffeine while
traveling west.
B. Ask the players to stay up late before you leave
so they will sleep on the plane.
C. On arrival, immediately assume the local time
schedule for eating, practicing, and sleeping.
D. Have the players keep their watches set on the
time at home to improve the ability to adjust on
return.
D: Defi nitions of hypohydration and strategies for
avoiding hyponatremia and dehydration should be
provided so that participants can prepare
You are coordinating medical care for a large road
race that includes 5K, 10K, and half-marathon
events. What key educational information should
be included in participant guidelines regarding fl uid
replacement?
A. Participants should be encouraged to drink as
much as possible in the 48 hours leading up to
the race.
B. Participants should be encouraged to drink fl uids
at every water station on the course.
C. Participants should be provided with a copy of
the event safety plan and locations of every water
station.
D. Participants should be provided with strategies to
avoid overconsumption of water and dehydration
A: Acute onset of urticaria may indicate anaphylactic
shock. The signs and symptoms in this question
also suggest anaphylactic shock. Other signs and
symptoms include facial edema, stridor, diffi culty
talking, diffi culty swallowing, hoarseness,
hypotension, and syncope
At the start of soccer practice as the players are
stretching on the fi eld, one player reports that her
throat and chest skin suddenly feel very itchy. She
also reports her eyes and mouth feeling itchy, her
eyes watering, and her tongue feeling thick and
swollen. As she is talking you note a change in
her breathing indicating respiratory distress. What
condition should be in your initial differential
diagnosis?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Acute infl uenza
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute sinusitis
B: The literature supports wearing a shoe that does
not "stick" to the synthetic turf to signifi cantly reduce
the likelihood of injury
A school that has recently built a new football
practice and game facility has decided to have their
lacrosse team use the old synthetic turf football
fi eld. Which of the following policies can aid in
minimizing the lacrosse players' injury risk?
A. All training sessions should occur on the synthetic
turf fi eld.
B. Players should wear shoes that provide solid
footing without "sticking" to the surface.
C. Players should wear shoes with a soft, fl exible
sole.
D. Practice sessions should be conducted at 50% to
75% of maximal intensity and speed.
B: A sunscreen with SPF 15 indicates the athlete
can be exposed to the sun ' s ultraviolet (UV) light
15 times longer than without any sunscreen before
the skin begins to turn red. It also means it must be
applied twice as often as would be necessary with a
sunscreen with SPF 30
Some members of a track team residing in one of the
northern states have expressed concern with getting
sunburn on their upcoming southern spring break
training trip. What information should be provided
to these athletes regarding the use of sunscreen to
prevent sunburn?
A. Sunscreen is not needed by athletes with dark
complexions.
B. Sunscreen with a higher number SPF provides
a longer period of protection against the sun ' s
ultraviolet (UV) rays.
C. Sunscreen needs to be used only for practice
sessions occurring between 10 a.m. and 4 p.m.
D. Sunscreen should be applied 15 to 20 minutes
after sun exposure.
B: Dampness or wetness further increases risk of
hypothermia for an athlete exercising in a cold and
windy environment
What environmental condition, when combined
with low air temperatures and wind, creates an
environment that can predispose an athlete to
hypothermia?
A. Lightning
B. Wetness
C. Cloudiness
D. High pollen count
C: Central nervous system dysfunction and a rectal
temperature of 105°F are the exertional heatstroke
diagnostic criteria signs and symptoms
In addition to a rectally assessed core body
temperature above 105°F, what postcollapse
symptom is the other criterion for diagnosing
exertional heatstroke?
A. Involuntary muscle spasm
B. Tachycardia
C. Central nervous system dysfunction
D. Hyperventilation
D: Ozone levels are at their highest during sunny
days with high air temperatures. The levels rise
during dawn and peak midday. As the day progresses,
levels reduce as traffi c decreases along with lowering
air temperatures and the setting sun
A city is hosting a 10K race to benefi t at-risk innercity
youth. The race course includes running through
the city ' s developed and highly populated sections.
At what time during the day should the race begin
to best minimize the risk of runners experiencing
problems due to air pollution?
A. Late dawn
B. Midday
C. Early Afternoon
D. Evening
D: Exposure to dry temperatures well below freezing
most often results in more severe cold injuries, such
as frostbite and chilblain
Which cold injury is most likely to occur in an
athlete exposed to a damp, freezing cold?
A. Deep frostbite
B. Superfi cial frostbite
C. Chilblain
D. Frost nip
C: Intense exercise in a hot and humid environment
can cause acute exertional rhabdomyolysis in a
healthy person. Symptoms include gradual onset
of muscle weakness, swelling, pain, renal
dysfunction, and presence of dark urine
Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis can occur in
healthy individuals during intense exercise. What
environmental conditions increase an athlete ' s risk
for this condition?
A. High air temperature and rain
B. Low air temperature and wind
C. High air temperature and high humidity
D. Low air temperature and high humidity
E. Low air temperature and rain
D: Predisposing factors for an exertional sickling
episode include altitude, heat, dehydration, asthma,
and other illnesses
What environmental condition puts an athlete with
sickle cell trait at risk for an exertional sickling
episode?
A. Low air temperature
B. High pollen count
C. High wind speed
D. High altitude
C: The National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) Sports Medicine Handbook recommends
avoiding the use of rubberized clothing and suits
Wearing which clothing has the greatest potential to
increase an exercising athlete ' s risk for heat illness?
A. Cotton short-sleeve T-shirt
B. Net jersey
C. Rubberized long-sleeve pullover
D. Cotton long-sleeve T-shirt
D: As stated in recommendation 28 of the National
Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) position
statement, the athletic trainer ' s role is to be the
athlete ' s advocate
A female lacrosse player is exhibiting signs of
disordered eating. According to the National Athletic
Trainers' Association (NATA) position statement
on preventing, detecting, and managing disordered
eating in athletes, the certifi ed athletic trainer
plays an important role in managing an athlete
who is being treated for an eating disorder. Which
intervention is within the recommended role of the
certifi ed athletic trainer?
A. Determine limitations of physical workouts based
on team practice schedules.
B. Make the initial diagnosis and design a treatment
plan.
C. Be willing to work individually with athletes
with disordered eating who do not want to seek
treatment from physicians or psychotherapists.
D. Assume the role of informed patient advocate
C: The corpus luteum (CL) is what is left of
the follicle after a woman ovulates. This yellow
hormone-secreting body is a dynamic endocrine
gland that releases progesterone and small amounts
of estrogen. The CL degenerates after a few
days unless pregnancy has begun
Which hormone or hormones are secreted by the
corpus luteum?
A. Progesterone
B. Human growth hormone (HGH)
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
E. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D: In athletes 35 years of age and older the leading
cause of sudden death is atherosclerotic coronary
disease resulting in myocardial infarction. This
condition is very uncommon in younger athletes,
although it can occur in younger athletes in the
presence of family history, hypercholesterolemia, and
hypertension.
Which of the following conditions is the leading
cause of cardiac problems in middle-aged and older
physically active people?
A. Cystic fi brosis
B. Marfan ' s syndrome
C. Cardiac arrhythmia
D. Atherosclerotic coronary disease
E. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C: Due to decreased activity levels in schools
and activities of daily living, a general fi tness and
conditioning program is required before the start
of competitive sports to decrease risk of injury
Which of the following is recommended for
pediatric athletes to minimize overuse injuries?
A. Pediatric athletes should have 3 to 4 days off
per week.
B. Pediatric athletes should participate on a maximum
of two teams of the same sport per season.
C. Pediatric athletes should begin a general fi tness,
conditioning, strengthening, and fl exibility
program 2 months before the start of the
competitive sports season.
D. Pediatric athletes should progress the duration,
load, and intensity of workouts by no more than
20% per week.
E: A disaccharide is a combination of two
monosaccharides. Maltose is two glucoses, lactose is
a glucose and a galactose, and sucrose is a glucose
and a fructose.
Which of the following lists contains only
disaccharides?
A. Glucose, maltose, lactose
B. Lactose, galactose, glucose
C. Galactose, fructose, glucose
D. Sucrose, fructose, maltose
E. Maltose, lactose, sucrose
C: Excess dietary vitamin D can result in
hypercalcemia, which can cause mineral deposits and
calcifi cation in blood vessels, kidneys, and other soft
tissues
What is considered a cause of mineral deposits in
the kidneys, blood vessels, and other soft tissues in
the body?
A. Excessive dietary vitamin A
B. Inadequate dietary vitamin D
C. Excessive dietary vitamin D
D. Excessive dietary vitamin K
E. Inadequate dietary vitamin K
D: Capillaries are single-layered blood vessels that
connect arterioles to venules. They are the site for
exchange of nutrients and metabolic wastes between
the tissues and blood
Distribution of oxygen and usable metabolic
materials occurs through which vessels?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Glands
D. Capillaries
E. Venules
B: Bile is produced by the liver and then stored in
the gallbladder. The gallbladder holds the bile until
it is needed, then the gallbladder pushes it into the
common bile duct and into the small intestine
What is the primary function of the gallbladder?
A. Secrete digestive enzymes
B. Store bile
C. Release insulin into the bloodstream
D. Produce hormones for regulating carbohydrate
metabolism
E. Store glucose
C: Injury can be a signifi cant stressor for athletes,
especially if it is season ending, career ending, or
severe enough that it would trigger fears of returning
to activity
Which of the following athletes would be at risk for
a potential psychological concern?
A. A freshman who sustains a meniscal tear and will
miss 3 to 4 weeks of competition
B. A sophomore who is choosing not to join his
friends in weekend alcohol use
C. A senior who is draft eligible and sustains a
femur fracture with 2 weeks left in the season
D. A junior who sustained a second concussion that
resolved quickly and who has returned to full
school and sport activities
D: The National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA) bans drugs that fall into these classes:
stimulants, anabolic agents, alcohol and beta
blockers (rifl e competition only), diuretics and other
masking agents, illicit drugs, peptide hormones and
analogues, antiestrogens, and beta-2 agonists.
Which of the following classes of drugs are banned
by the National Collegiate Athletic Association
(NCAA)?
A. Cathartics
B. Histamine-2 blockers
C. Sympathomimetics
D. Peptide hormones
A: Pediatric athletes should increase the intensity
and duration of their workouts by no more than 10%
each week to allow adaptation and reduce risk of
overload
A seventh-grade runner participating on a cross
country team is running approximately 10 miles per
week at the beginning of team practices. How many
miles a week can the coach safely have the athlete
run in the second week of practice?
A. 11 miles
B. 12 miles
C. 15 miles
D. 20 miles
B: Whereas not as accurate as other screening tools,
skinfold measurements are inexpensive, and accuracy
can be improved with mastery of the measurement
techniques
Which method of assessing body composition is
relatively easy to perform clinically, requires limited
equipment, and has a measurement error of only
3% to 5%?
A. Bioelectric impedance
B. Skinfold measurement
C. Hydrostatic weighing
D. Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
C: Social workers are trained to connect people with
support services and community resources
An athlete shares that his father recently lost his job
and his family is having trouble affording food for
more than two meals per day. Which community
professional would be able to provide the best
resources to assist this family?
A. Psychologist
B. Occupational therapist
C. Social worker
D. Registered dietitian
D: Athletic trainers should be conscious of their
professional limits and scope of practice. When
psychosocial symptoms are not being successfully
managed the athlete should be referred to a qualifi ed
professional
An athlete was recently involved in a motor vehicle
accident in which her friend was paralyzed. Since
that time the athlete has been very short-tempered
and has had trouble sleeping more than 2 to 3 hours
per night. The athlete shares that she does not think
she can travel in the coming week, as she is terrifi ed
to get on the bus. After discussing this situation with
the team physician, what would be the best way to
manage this situation?
A. Refer the athlete to the team massage therapist to
help her relax
B. Teach the athlete deep breathing and meditation
exercises
C. Take the athlete through an imagery exercise to
visualize a safe bus trip
D. Refer the athlete to the school counseling center
A: Stage 1 and stage 2 hypertension most typically
require medication management and are associated
with values of systolic measures greater than or equal
to 130 mm Hg or diastolic measures greater than or
equal to 80 mm Hg
Which of the following serial blood pressure
measurements would indicate the need for referral
and probably medication management?
A. 136/76 mm Hg
B. 128/78 mm Hg
C. 110/68 mm Hg
D. 102/60 mm Hg
B: Repeat testing is recommended at 6 weeks,
3 months, and 1 year because antibodies are not
always detectable for some time
An athlete you are working with shares that she was
recently a victim of sexual assault. She is working
with a counselor to manage the aftereffects of the
trauma, but she is very worried that she is at risk
for human immunodefi ciency virus (HIV). Initial
HIV antibody testing was negative. How would you
counsel the athlete based on these results?
A. She does not need to worry because she had a
negative result from her fi rst test.
B. It may take 3 months to a year for measurable
antibodies to appear, so she needs to be retested
at 3 months and 1 year after the assault.
C. If her assailant tests positive for HIV, she will be
notifi ed.
D. Testing should be repeated monthly for up to
2 years from initial exposure.
C: Tension is generated by creating maximal force
against an immovable resistance, so no change in
muscle length occurs
Which type of muscular strengthening technique
is characterized by an increase in muscle tension
without changing the length of the muscle?
A. Isotonic
B. Isokinetic
C. Isometric
D. Eccentric
D: Scar tissue loses its elastic components and
so, when stretched, it may not allow full motion.
Excess superfi cial scarring may also be indicative of
subcutaneous adhesions
Why might an athlete with a large hypertrophic scar
across the anterior aspect of his knee joint secondary
to a previous knee surgery have limited fl exion range
of motion?
A. Excess calcium may be deposited in the joint and
the area around the scar.
B. The scar may act as a wedge in the joint limiting
motion.
C. The athlete may have changes to the neurologic
structures resulting in infl ammation and pain with
movement.
D. Scar tissue is more inelastic than skin and may
prevent full range of motion.
A: In addition to instruction in proper technique
and close supervision, adolescent athletes should be
encouraged to begin training with functional body
weight exercises based on their level of maturation.
When developing a strength training program for
adolescent athletes, what type of exercise is most
appropriate in the initial stages of training?
A. Body weight exercises
B. Isokinetic exercises
C. Plyometric exercises
D. Free-weight exercises
B: Overtraining can occur when athletes or patients
overemphasize resistance training and do not allow
for suffi cient periods of rest and muscle recovery.
The use of proper technique, adequate rest, and
proper nutrition can aid in preventing athletes and
patients from developing the negative consequences
of overtraining
Overtraining can result in physical fatigue, decreased
muscle strength, decreased physical performance,
and psychological breakdown resulting in a lessened
desire to train. In what situation is overtraining
likely to occur?
A. Training sessions that emphasize proper technique
B. Training sessions that exceed the body ' s
physiological limits
C. Training sessions that emphasize cardiovascular
training over strength training
D. Training session volume exceeding that of the
previous training sessions
D: A Valsalva maneuver results from performing an
isometric contraction while holding the breath, as
occurs with "bearing down." A Valsalva maneuver
causes an increase in blood pressure
Your client is using isometric strengthening exercises
as part of a work hardening program and has been
instructed to breathe while performing the exercises.
Why is breathing during isometric exercises
recommended?
A. To maximize blood fl ow to the client ' s working
muscles
B. To control the client ' s heart rate
C. To minimize accumulation of metabolic
by-products in the client ' s working muscles
D. To avoid a rapid increase in the client ' s blood
pressure
B: Older adults can increase Vo 2 max with aerobic/
oxidative training programs. The intensity of this
type of program should be between 60% and 80%
maximum heart rate but should be reached through
slow systematic progression
At what intensity should older adults participate in a
cardiovascular training program aimed at increasing
Vo 2 max?
A. 70%-90% maximum heart rate
B. 60%-80% maximum heart rate
C. 35%-55% maximum heart rate
D. 20%-40% maximum heart rate
D: By using correct technique, injury risk can be
minimized, and the client can gain the most from
each exercise
Strength and conditioning programs often
incorporate plyometric exercises to develop muscular
power. What is the most important consideration
when adding plyometric exercises to a fi tness
program?
A. Client ' s muscular strength
B. Client ' s speed of movement, quickness
C. Client ' s total body weight
D. Client ' s ability to properly execute each
exercise
C: Five disciplines have been identifi ed by the U.S.
federal government to be competent to provide
mental health services. Psychiatrists and psychiatric
nurses both take a medical approach to treatment,
including the use of medications
An athlete presents with a potential major mental
health disorder, and medical intervention is needed.
Referral to which of the following professionals is
most appropriate?
A. Social worker holding an MSW degree
B. Psychologist holding a PsyD degree
C. Psychiatrist holding a DO degree
D. Psychologist holding a PhD degree
B: Because the body has a limited capacity to use
amino acids, research suggests a daily protein intake
of more than 2 g/kg body weight, as more is unlikely
to produce additional muscle gains
While providing nutritional counseling to athletes,
you recommend that in addition to consuming
protein in a daily balanced diet, they consume
protein during and immediately after an exercise
session. What is the maximum total daily protein
intake that is recommended, based on research
suggesting more is unlikely to result in further
muscle gains?
A. 1.0 g/kg/day
B. 2.0 g/kg/day
C. 3.0 g/kg/day
D. 4.0 g/kg/day
A: An individual with a substance abuse or mental
health condition is ready to assist in developing
a treatment plan once he or she moves from the
precontemplation stage to the contemplation and
preparation stages
An athlete is demonstrating a pattern of illegal
substance abuse and dependence. While having a
discussion with this athlete about his options, you
employ Prochaska and DiClemente ' s framework
to determine his readiness to do something about
his condition. Which of the fi ve different stages of
change indicates he is not ready to work with you to
develop a treatment plan?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
A: The ABCDE ' s of melanoma are asymmetry (A),
border (B), color (C), diameter (D), and evolving
(E).
Athletes, regardless of skin type, should be educated
on the signs and symptoms of the various types
of skin cancer and encouraged to conduct regular
skin inspections and to immediately report any
suspicious lesions. The ABCDE mnemonic can be
used as a guide to recognize suspicious pigmented
lesions. For this mnemonic, which letter descriptor
is correct?
A. A stands for asymmetry: a malignant lesion does
not have equal top and bottom or left and right
sections
B. B stands for blackness: a malignant lesion has a
uniform black color
C. C stands for circumference: a malignant lesion
has a circumference greater than 6 mm
D. D stands for distinct: a malignant lesion has a
distinct border
E. E stands for elliptical: a malignant lesion has an
elliptical shape
D: SAID is an acronym for specific adaptation to
imposed demand and states that when the body is subjected to stress and overloads of varying
intensities, it will gradually adapt.
To which principle of conditioning does the SAID
principle directly apply?
A. Individuality
B. Consistency
C. Progression
D. Overload
E. Safety
C: PAR-Q stands for Physical Activity Readiness
Questionnaire. This questionnaire and the modifi ed
American Heart Association/American College
of Sports Medicine Health/Fitness Facility
Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire are two
recommended self-guided preparticipation screening
tools.
Before initiating a conditioning program, participants
should complete a preparticipation multistage
health screening that includes the use of self-guided
questionnaires. What health questionnaire should
be used for participants aged 15 to 69 years to
determine if they should consult a physician before
beginning a conditioning program?
A. ICD-9
B. PIQ-6
C. PAR-Q
D. PHQ-9
C: In the United States, herbal supplements are not
closely regulated and have not been as thoroughly
studied and evaluated as medications. Use of St.
John ' s wort has demonstrated mixed results in
treating depression. Additionally, it has been shown
to interact with many medicati
An athlete who has been undergoing treatment for
depression and anxiety inquires about taking St.
John ' s wort, a commonly used herbal supplement,
as a more "natural" way to address his mental health
conditions. How should you respond to this athlete?
A. This supplement is safe to consume because like
all medications it is closely regulated.
B. Like most herbal supplements, this supplement
has been thoroughly studied, and its effects on
health are well understood.
C. This supplement has been shown to interact with
many medications, which could lead to serious
side effects.
D. If this supplement is purchased in a retail store, it
will not be adulterated or contaminated.
B: The Dietary Guidelines of Americans document
serves as a blueprint for developing eating plans for
most Americans.
What document published every 5 years by the U.S.
Department of Agriculture and the Department of
Health and Human Services provides Americans
advice on good eating habits to promote health?
A. FDA Recommendations for Americans
B. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
C. MyPlate for Americans
D. Dietary Reference Intakes for Americans
C: Total fi ber is the combination of functional fi ber,
nondigestible carbohydrate that may be added to
foods, and dietary fi ber, classifi ed as either soluble or
insoluble fi ber
A runner who is trying to improve the quality of her
carbohydrate intake asks you to explain the fi ber
information on the two energy bars she is comparing
so she can make an educated choice. Which
statement is correct?
A. Soluble (high-viscosity) fi ber is a digestible
carbohydrate found naturally in foods that
increases fecal bulk and acts as a laxative
speeding up the movement of food through the
digestive system.
B. Insoluble (low-viscosity) fi ber is a digestible
carbohydrate found naturally in foods that slows
gastric emptying, increases the feeling of fullness,
and may aid in decreasing blood cholesterol
levels.
C. Functional fi ber is nondigestible carbohydrate that
may have benefi cial physiological effects and is
typically added to foods.
D. A food label stating it is "high fi ber" food
means one serving of the product contains the
recommended daily allowance of fi ber.
D: A major depressive episode involves experiencing
depressive symptoms for at least 2 weeks, including
a lack of interest in usual events and a general
depressed mood along with at least four of the
following: appetite changes (with weight loss or
gain), insomnia or hypersomnia, psychomotor
agitation or retardation, fatigue, feelings of
worthlessness or guilt, diffi culty concentrating or
indecisiveness, or recurrent thoughts of death or
suicide
Over the past 3 weeks, you have noticed alarming
changes in an athlete. He is generally uninterested
in training sessions and matches, and he appears
unhappy, fatigued, and unfocused. Additionally, he
appears to have lost weight and looks as though
he is not sleeping enough. Which of the following
psychological conditions should you suspect?
A. Posttraumatic stress disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Generalized anxiety episode
D. Major depressive episode
B: Based on the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based
Medicine model, systematic reviews of randomized
controlled trials provide the strongest evidence
The women ' s soccer coach e-mailed the director
of athletic training requesting an anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) injury prevention program be
developed and administered to her players during
the upcoming nontraditional season. As you are
the newly hired intern, you have been tasked with
researching the current literature on ACL injury
prevention programs. Which type of published study
can provide you the strongest level of evidence?
A. Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
B. Systematic review of RCTs
C. Outcomes research
D. Case series
A: Tanner ' s fi ve stages of maturity begin with the
fi rst stage, whereby there is no evidence of puberty
to the fi fth stage where pubic hair and genitalia
development indicates full maturity
As part of the general medical screening, a maturity
assessment is conducted using Tanner ' s fi ve stages
of maturity. A female athlete is assigned a stage 5
rating. How should this staging be interpreted?
A. This athlete is fully developed.
B. This athlete is midway to full development, and
growth plates are weaker than joint capsule and
tendons.
C. This athlete is in the stage when the fastest bone
growth occurs.
D. This athlete demonstrates no evidence of puberty
D: Low-calorie foods such as celery, grapefruit, and
apples should be included in a healthy weight loss
plan, but the body will not expend more calories
digesting and absorbing the food than the caloric
content of the food
The wrestling coach is speaking with his wrestlers
about weight loss. He instructs his wrestlers to eat as
much celery and apples as they want because these
foods are catabolic foods, which promote weight
loss. He informs the wrestlers that these foods
contain fewer calories than are required to chew,
digest, and absorb them. How should you respond to
this coach ' s instructions?
A. Confi rm the coach ' s information is accurate
and note that the wrestlers will benefi t from the
increased intake of fruits and vegetables.
B. Confi rm the coach ' s information is accurate,
but encourage the wrestlers to also eat as much
grapefruit as possible, as grapefruit is the
strongest negative calorie food.
C. Inform the coach and the wrestlers that
metabolism is signifi cantly increased with eating
so any fruits and vegetables should aid in weight
loss.
D. Inform the coach and the wrestlers that while
metabolism increases with eating, the increase is
small, and there is no research in support of any
catabolic foods whereby more calories are used to
metabolize a food than the number of calories in
the food.
A: Healthy People is a set of more than 1,200
evidence-based objectives and goals designed to
improve the health of the nation. It is updated every
10 years and is developed by representatives from
multiple federal agencies
What is the purpose of the Healthy People initiative
that is updated every 10 years?
A. To provide comprehensive goals and objectives
designed to improve the health of the nation
B. To provide a census of the current health status of
the nation
C. To compare the health of our nation with that of
other nations worldwide
D. To compare the health of individuals in different
states and allocate federal funding accordingly
B: Nutritional habits should always be evaluated
first, as changes to dietary intake may meet intended
outcomes without the use of supplementation.
Supplementation combined with improper nutrition
may not yield intended results.
An athlete wants to gain lean muscle mass in order
to improve his overall performance levels and is
considering creatine supplementation. What action
should you take first?
A. Evaluate the creatine supplement to make sure it
does not include any banned substances.
B. Assess the athlete's current nutritional habits to see if those need to be adjusted.
C. Educate the athlete on the advantages and disadvantages of supplements before approving
its use.
D. Conduct a thorough evidence-based review of the supplement to assess its efficacy.
C: The Dietary Guidelines and Physical Activity
Guidelines provide clear guidelines and strategies specific to the general population. These are required by law to be updated regularly
You have been asked to speak at a local Rotary Club meeting regarding recommendations for improving nutrition and physical activity for the general population. Which of the following resources might you share with your audience?
A. National Strength and Conditioning Association
website, which is updated regularly
B. Healthy People 2020 objectives, which are updated every 10 years
C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans and Physical
Activity Guidelines for Americans, which are updated regularly
D. American College of Sports Medicine position statements, which are updated periodically as
information changes
D: Positive responses to mental health-related screening questions should be reviewed and explored by the team physician to determine the need for additional referral.
An athlete responds affirmatively to the following questions on the pre-participation medical history
form: (1) I have trouble sleeping. (2) I lack energy many days of the week. (3) I rehash things many
times. (4) I am often anxious or very nervous. (5) I lack confidence. (6) I have difficulty managing my
emotions. What actions should you take based on these responses?
A. Encourage the student to begin meditation techniques to decrease stress.
B. Enroll the student in a stress management class at the counseling center.
C. Restrict the student athlete from practices until a full mental health evaluation is completed.
D. Alert the team physician so follow-up questions can be asked to gain additional information
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