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Exam 2 : Lymphatic, Immune and Respiratory Systems
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Which of the following provides a first line of defense against pathogens?
Skin and Mucosae
With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?
Opsonins
Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
kinins
prostaglandins
histamines
antibodies
antibodies
Which of the following phases involves white blood cells leaving capillaries?
Diapedesis
Which type of chemical induces fever?
Pyrogens
Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?
Mast Cells
Inflammation ________.
brings more leukocytes to the site of infection
*Neutrophils lead, macrophages follow
Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________
disrupting the selective permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane
*MAC creates a hole in membrane that allows massive influx of water, lysing the target cell
All but one of the following occurs during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does NOT describe the process of inflammation.
Inflammation increases capillary permeability.
Chemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury.
Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury.
Release of prostaglandins results in pain.
Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?
prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
sets the stage for repair processes
replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement?
opsonization
prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
insertion of MAC and cell lysis
enhancement of inflammation
prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.
Cytokines
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.
Natural Killer Cells
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.
opsonization
Fever is thought to be a beneficial response because it makes iron and zinc less available to support bacterial growth.
True
Which of the areas seen the figure must be occupied by T lymphocytes, at least for a while, but is NOT required for the production of B lymphocytes?
Thymus
How does a lymphocyte exhibit immunocompetence?
by being able to recognize their one specific antigen
Which of the following is not an antigen-presenting cells (APC)?
macrophage
T cell
B cell
dendritic cell
T cell
B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.
Bone marrow
What part of the antibody's structure determines its class?
Constant (C) Region
In certain classes of antibody, the monomeric versions join to form dimers. What portions of the molecules adhere to each other to form these dimers?
Stem Regions
**The stem region of one monomer will bond to the stem region of another that is turned at a 180 degree angle.
Which of the following occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?
Neutralization
Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true ?
A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.
A vaccine is effective because ________.
the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response
A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.
the flu has several strains that change seasonally
Plasma cells ________.
have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.
Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be?
passive, artificial immunity
Monoclonal antibodies are used in clinical laboratory diagnosis because they bind to many antigenic determinates.
False
Where does most exogenous antigen presentation take place?
in lymphoid tissues and organs
Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells
B cells: produce antibodies
helper T cells: destroy infected body cells
macrophages: antigen-presenting cells
helper T cells: destroy infected body cells
What occurs if a naïve T cell binds to an antigen without receiving a co-stimulatory signal?
The T cell enters a state of anergy.
T Cell unresponsiveness (aenergy) results
Which class of tissue graft is the LEAST likely to be accepted by a patient's body
Xenograft
An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.
its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen
Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?
antigenic
regulatory
cytotoxic
helper
antigenic
Regulatory T cells ________.
may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
Cytotoxic T cells ________
can directly attack and kill other cells of the body
T helper cells ________.
function in the adaptive immune system activation
Which of the following is/are the most specific internal defense against disease?
T Cells
A class I MHC protein presents an antigen. What type of cell is likely presenting and to what type of cell would it be presented?
Any nucleated cell would present antigens to a CD8 cell.
Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus
severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells
multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream.
True
The nose serves all of the following functions EXCEPT ________.
cleansing the air
as a passageway for air movement
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
warming and humidifying the air
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
What structure prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea?
Epiglottis
Segmental bronchi
No exchange of gases occurs here.
Type II cells
Secrete a fluid containing surfactant.
respiratory bronchioles
Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins.
Type I Cells
Form a simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli.
Alveolar duct
Terminates in alveoli.
Type II Cells
Are cuboidal cells.
The respiratory membrane consists of 3 layers: capillary endothelium, fused basement membrane and alveolar epithelium consisting of
Type I Cells
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.
secrete surfactant
In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?
Type II Alveolar cells - not secreting surfactant
What type of epithelial tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?
Simple squamous epithelium
Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.
True
Which of the following statements about the pleurae is NOT true?
The pleurae create one continuous cavity for both lungs.
The parietal and visceral pleura are continuous.
The pleural lining reduces friction during ventilation.
The visceral pleura covers the external lung surface and lines the fissures between lobes.
.The pleurae create one continuous cavity for both lungs.
Which of the choices below is NOT a role of the pleurae?
help limit the spread of local infections
allow the lungs to glide easily over the thorax wall during breathing movements
assist in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
help divide the thoracic cavity into three chambers
assist in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue)
True
The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.
True
Quiet inspiration is __________, and quiet expiration is __________.
Active process, passive process
To produce the pressure gradient responsible for inspiration, thoracic volume must first increase in order to decrease intrapulmonary pressure relative to atmospheric pressure.
True
In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.
intrapleural pressure is equal to intrapulmonary pressure
Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a balloon?
internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________
Vital capacity
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Inspiratory capacity is ________.
the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
Spirometry results reveal a vital capacity of two liters which is well below the predicted value of five liters. This suggests which disorder?
restrictive disease
Using spirometry, a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV) after the first second is 40%. What does this suggest?
obstructive pulmonary disease
What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?
as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
Which of the following best describes the chloride shift as seen in the figure?
Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate.
Which form of hypoxia reflects poor O2 delivery resulting from too few RBCs or from RBCs that contain abnormal or too little hemoglobin?
Anemic hypoxia
Which form of CO2 transport accounts for the least amount of CO2 transported in blood?
Dissolved in Plasma
most as bicarbonate ion in plasma
If your core temperature becomes colder, it is more difficult for oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin at any PO2.
True
Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.
too little oxygen in the atmosphere
How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?
as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells
Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?
rising carbon dioxide levels
Which of the following conditions or scenarios increases the respiratory rate?
acidosis
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
medulla and pons
The erythrocyte (red blood cell) count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.
concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
In chronic bronchitis, mucus production is decreased and this leads to the inflammation and fibrosis of the mucosal lining of the bronchial tree.
False
mucus production is excessive
Labored breathing is termed hypercapnia.
False
Labored breathing=dyspnea
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?
NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
NK cells attack transplanted organs.
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide).
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
nonspecific
Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?
interferons
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?
The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?
complement proteins
Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?
antibodies and complement proteins
Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?
antigen-presenting cells
Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?
Class II MHC proteins
Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?
CD8
Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?
All nucleated cells
Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?
CD8
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?
Innate external defenses
What cells make antibodies?
Plasma B cells
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?
Innate internal defenses
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?
antigenic determinant
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?
Humoral immunity
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?
cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?
cytotoxic T cells
What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?
Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.
What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?
An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.
The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?
Memory B cells
1) Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.
Lymph Nodes
Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?
a. pancreas
b. spleen
c. tonsils
d. Peyer's patches
a. Pancreas
The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called
Peyer's patches
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on ________
skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
The thymus is most active during ________.
childhood
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?
right lymphatic duct
What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?
The thymus initially increases in size and then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.
The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
more permeable than blood capillaries
Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by _____
plasma cells
Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.
efferent lymphatic vessels
Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?
Lymphocytes
Functions of the spleen include all of those below except ________.
a. removal of old/defective blood cells
b.forming crypts that trap bacteria
c. storage of blood platelets
d. storage of iron
forming crypts that trap bacteria
*tonsils form crypts
When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.
severe localized edema distal to the blockage
Select the correct statement about lymph transport.
A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.
B) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.
C) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.
D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
15) Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.
A) The two main types are T cells and macrophages.
B) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
C) T cells are the precursors of B cells.
D) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue.
B) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
16) Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.
A) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.
B) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood.
C) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.
D) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.
C) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.
Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.
A) tonsil
B) thymus
C) Peyer's patch
D) appendix
Tonsil
Which of the following is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?
A) tonsil
B) thymus
C) Peyer's patch
D) appendix
Thymus
19) Peyer's patches are found in the ________.
A) duodenum of the small intestine
B) ileum of the small intestine
C) large intestine
D) jejunum of the small intestine
B) ileum of the small intestine
Lymph capillaries are absent in all but which of the following?
A) bones and teeth
B) bone marrow
C) CNS
D) digestive organs
D) digestive organs
What is a bubo?
A) a wall in a lymph node
B) a lobe of the spleen
C) an infected Peyer's patch
D) an infected lymph node
D) an infected lymph node
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:
A) have lymphocytes
B) produce hormones
C) have a cortex and medulla
D) directly fight antigens
D) directly fight antigens
Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.
A) inguinal region
B) cervical region
C) axillary region
D) lower extremities
D) lower extremities
Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.
A) Peyer's patches
B) palatine tonsils
C) lingual tonsils
D) islets of Langerhans
D) islets of Langerhans
Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?
A) skeletal muscle contraction
B) breathing
C) valves in lymph vessel walls
D) smooth muscle contraction
D) smooth muscle contraction
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.
A) lingual tonsils
B) palatine tonsils
C) pharyngeal tonsils
D) Peyer's tonsils
A) lingual tonsils
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
A) water
B) plasma proteins
C) red blood cells
D) ions
C) red blood cells
A sentinel node is ________.
A) a lymph node found in the intestinal lamina propria
B) the first node at the junction of all the lumbar trunks
C) a small node in the spleen
D) the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous
D) the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous
Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?
A) house and provide a proliferation site for lymphocytes
B) house and provide a proliferation site for neutrophils
C) furnish an ideal surveillance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages
D) A and C
D) A and C
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
A) draining excess interstitial fluid
B) carrying out immune responses
C) transporting dietary fats
D) transporting respiratory gases
D) transporting respiratory gases
Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
A) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system
B) produce lymphoid cells and granular WBCs
C) produce lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid
D) serve as antigen surveillance areas
C) produce lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?
A) carbohydrate structure
B) composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
C) three binding sites per antibody monomer
D) incapable of being transferred from one person to another
B) composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?
A) exposure to an antigen
B) infusion of weakened viruses
C) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
D) booster shot of vaccine
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
A) cytotoxic
B) antigenic
C) helper
D) regulatory
Antigenic
B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.
A) thymus
B) spleen
C) bone marrow
D) lymph nodes
C) bone marrow
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
A) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
B) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
C) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
D) sets the stage for repair processes
replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.
Vasodilation
The antibody molecule is held together by ________ bonds.
A) disulfide
B) hydrogen
C) amino acid
D) sodium
A) disulfide
In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?
A) antigen
B) interferon
C) antibody
D) complement
A) antigen
Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?
A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil.
B) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.
C) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal MHC antigens.
D) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.
A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil.
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.
A) diapedesis
B) chemotaxis
C) margination
D) phagocytosis
B) chemotaxis
Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.
A) haptens
B) antibodies
C) ions
D) reagins
A) haptens
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?
A) adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis
B) chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing
C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
D) ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing
C) chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the ________.
A) regulatory cells
B) helper cells
C) cytotoxic cells
D) plasma cells
C) cytotoxic cells
Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity?
A) intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells
B) some cancer cells
C) foreign tissue transplants
D) pathogens in the CNS
D) pathogens in the CNS
________ predominate at the sites of chronic infections.
A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) B cells
C) Macrophages
Interferons ________.
A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
B) act by increasing the rate of cell division
C) interfere with viral replication within cells
D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold
C) interfere with viral replication within cells
________ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist.
A) The type of antigen
B) Memory cell production
C) Enzymes present at the time of the invasion
D) Our genes
D) Our genes
Regulatory T cells ________.
A) release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
B) decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases
C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
D) are the most thoroughly understood T cells
C) may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.
A) Isografts are between identical twins.
B) Allografts are between different species.
C) Xenografts are between individuals of the same species.
D) Autografts are between two genetically identical individuals.
Isografts are between identical twins.
Which of the statements below does not describe antigens?
A) Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity.
B) Antigens only come from microbes.
C) The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants.
D) Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.
B) Antigens only come from microbes.
_______ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.
A) Cytokines
B) Perforins
C) Interleukin 1 proteins
D) Interleukin 2 proteins
A) Cytokines
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
A) keratin
B) cilia
C) gastric juice
D) phagocytes
D) phagocytes
Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
A) small molecules
B) reactivity with an antibody
C) contain many repeating chemical units
D) inhibit production of antibodies
B) reactivity with an antibody
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.
A) reducing its size
B) immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
C) forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
Graft rejection may be caused by ________.
A) using a xenograft
B) use of immunosuppressive drugs
C) treatment with antilymphocyte serum
D) total body irradiation
A) using a xenograft
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.
A) natural killer cells
B) T lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) pinocytosis
A) natural killer cells
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.
A) diapedesis
B) agglutination
C) opsonization
D) chemotaxis
C) opsonization
Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system?
A) It is antigen-specific.
B) It is systemic.
C) It has memory.
D) It is specific for a given organ.
D) It is specific for a given organ.
Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except ________.
A) juvenile diabetes
B) hepatitis
C) rabies
D) pregnancy
A) juvenile diabetes
Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
A) immune complex hypersensitivity
B) anaphylaxis
C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) allergic contact dermatitis
D) allergic contact dermatitis
Innate immune system defenses include ________.
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) plasma cells
D) phagocytosis
D) phagocytosis
Which of the following statements is incorrect or false?
A) Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers.
B) Class 1 MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells.
C) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.
D) MHC proteins are the cell's identity markers.
Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.
Phagocyte mobilization involves ________.
A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
B) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues
C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
D) monocytes as the most active phagocyte
C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
Fever ________.
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
Immunocompetence ________.
A) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
C) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
D) requires exposure to an antigen
B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on "self."
A) The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only.
B) Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigens are chemically inactivated.
C) Tolerance to self is due to the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to one's own tissues.
D) Tolerance is developed during fetal life.
D) Tolerance is developed during fetal life.
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.
A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.
B) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body.
C) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
Cytotoxic T cells ________.
A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
B) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function
C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations
D) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized
A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
Helper T cells ________.
A) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
B) often function to decrease the immune response
C) release B7 proteins
D) function in the adaptive immune system activation
D) function in the adaptive immune system activation
Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
B) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
C) Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
D) The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?
A) They are also called type IV hypersensitivities.
B) They are are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms.
C) They include allergic contact dermatitis.
D) They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.
They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.
Delayed hypersensitivities ________.
A) are mediated by B cells
B) include allergic contact dermatitis
C) include anaphylactic shock, a systemic vasodilation that results in inadequate blood delivery to all tissues
D) do not involve T cells
B) include allergic contact dermatitis
Natural killer (NK) cells ________.
A) are also called cytotoxic T cells
B) are a type of phagocyte
C) are cells of the adaptive immune system
D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
Select the correct statement about antigens.
A) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
B) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
C) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
Clonal selection of B cells ________.
A) occurs during fetal development
B) results in the formation of plasma cells
C) cannot occur in the presence of antigens
D) only occurs in the secondary immune response
B) results in the formation of plasma cells
The primary immune response ________.
A) occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
B) occurs when memory cells are stimulated
C) is another name for immunological memory
D) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
D) has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
A) Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders."
B) Neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump together.
C) Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.
D) The most potent agglutinating agent is IgG.
C) Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection.
Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?
A) B cell
B) helper T cell
C) cytotoxic T cell
D) APC
B) helper T cell
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A) multiple sclerosis
B) type II diabetes
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) glomerulonephritis
B) type II diabetes
Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?
A) exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system
B) a second exposure to an allergen
C) mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present
D) cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens
B) a second exposure to an allergen
Select the correct statement about complement.
A) An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target.
B) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, secondary, and alternate.
C) The membrane attack complex consists of complement proteins C3a through C5.
D) Complement proteins C1 through C9 act exclusively in the classical pathway.
A) An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target.
Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit?
A) IgD contains 4 binding sites.
B) IgA contains 6 binding sites.
C) IgG contains 6 binding sites.
D) IgM contains 10 binding sites.
D) IgM contains 10 binding sites.
Antibody functions include all of the following except ________.
A) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
B) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
C) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
D) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis
cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
Which statement is true about T cells?
A) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
C) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines.
D) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.
B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ________ to attract white blood cells to the scene.
A) cytokines
B) histamine
C) prostaglandins
D) complement
A) cytokines
Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work?
A) neutralizing antigen
B) activating cytokines
C) enhancing phagocytosis
D) agglutinating and precipitating antigen
B) activating cytokines
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
C) activates the complement mechanism
D) activates the inflammatory process
A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
A) The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs. All other lymphoid organs are referred to as secondary lymphoid organs.
B) It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist.
C) After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.
D) T cells and B cells become fully immunocompetent when they bind with recognized antigens.
C) After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.
Which of the choices below is not a functional process performed by the respiratory system?
A) pulmonary ventilation
B) transport of respiratory gases
C) external respiration
D) pulmonary respiration
D) pulmonary respiration
The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.
A) thickness of vestibular folds
B) length of the vocal folds
C) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles
D) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
D) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.
A) secrete surfactant
B) trap dust and other debris
C) replace mucus in the alveoli
D) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion
A) secrete surfactant
Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?
A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
B) the expansion of respiratory muscles that were contracted during inspiration and the lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall
C) the negative feedback of expansion fibers used during inspiration and the outward pull of surface tension due to surfactant
D) combined amount of CO2 in the blood and air in the alveoli
the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?
A) surface tension of water
B) surfactant
C) cartilage rings
D) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
C) cartilage rings
Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.
A) pressure within the pleural cavity
B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
C) negative pressure in the intrapleural space
D) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
The relationship between the pressure and volume of gases is given by ________.
A) Boyle's law
B) Henry's law
C) Charles' law
D) Dalton's law
A) Boyle's law
The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.
A) Henry's law
B) Boyle's law
C) Dalton's law
D) Charles' law
C) Dalton's law
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
A) humidifying the air before it enters
B) warming the air before it enters
C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
D) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.
A) at least 3 micrometers thick
B) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick
C) between 5 and 6 micrometers thick
D) The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in the efficiency of gas exchange.
B) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.
A) decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
B) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
C) increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
D) increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
B) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.
A) loss of oxygen in tissues
B) increase of carbon dioxide
C) pH (acidosis)
D) pH (alkalosis)
B) increase of carbon dioxide
Nerve impulses from ________ will result in inspiration.
A) the ventral respiratory group
B) the chemoreceptor center
C) Broca's center
D) the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
A) the ventral respiratory group
In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.
A) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form
B) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
C) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
D) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.
C) Descent of the diaphragm results in abdominal breathing.
D) The chest wall becomes more rigid with age.
B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.
Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?
A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
B) compliance and transpulmonary pressures
C) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures
D) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?
A) psychic stimuli
B) decrease in lactic acid levels
C) proprioceptors
D) simultaneous cortical motor activation of the skeletal muscles and respiratory center
B) decrease in lactic acid levels
Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?
A) adenocarcinoma
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) small cell carcinoma
D) squamous cell carcinoma
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2
and dispose of CO2?
A) pulmonary ventilation
B) blood pH adjustment
C) internal respiration
D) external respiration
B) blood pH adjustment
Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the aveoli?
A) Cartilage gradually decreases and disappears at the bronchioles.
B) Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter.
C) Proportionally, smooth muscle decreases uniformly.
D) Lining of the tubes changes from ciliated columnar to simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli.
B) Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter.
Which of the following determines lung compliance?
A) airway opening
B) flexibility of the thoracic cage
C) muscles of inspiration
D) alveolar surface tension
D) alveolar surface tension
Tidal volume is air ________.
A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?
A) solubility in water
B) partial pressure gradient
C) the temperature
D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule
B) partial pressure gradient
Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.
A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere
B) obstruction of the esophagus
C) taking several rapid deep breaths
D) getting very cold
A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________.
A) tidal volume
B) vital capacity
C) inspiratory capacity
D) expiratory reserve volume
B) vital capacity
Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?
A) Respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus.
B) Respiratory exchanges are not necessary.
C) Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
D) Because the lungs develop later in gestation, fetuses do not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange.
C) Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?
A) rising carbon dioxide levels
B) rising blood pressure
C) arterial Po2 below 60 mm Hg
D) arterial pH resulting from CO2 retention
B) rising blood pressure
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) midbrain and medulla
B) medulla and pons
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla
B) medulla and pons
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.
A) reserve air
B) expiratory reserve
C) inspiratory reserve
D) vital capacity
C) inspiratory reserve
Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?
A) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.
B) Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH.
C) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
D) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.
) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) filtration
D) active transport
B) diffusion
Select the correct statement about the pharynx.
A) The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the laryngopharynx.
B) The auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx.
C) The laryngopharynx blends posteriorly into the nasopharynx.
D) The palatine tonsils are embedded in the lateral walls of the nasopharynx.
B) The auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx.
The larynx contains ________.
A) the thyroid cartilage
B) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple
C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds
D) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds
A) the thyroid cartilage
Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?
A) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
D) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?
A) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
B) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
C) as carbonic acid in the plasma
D) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin
as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
) Which of the following is not found on the right lobe of the lung?
A) middle lobe
B) cardiac notch
C) horizontal fissure
D) oblique fissure
B) cardiac notch
Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?
A) allows the lungs to inflate and deflate without friction
B) helps divide the thoracic cavity into three chambers
C) helps limit the spread of local infections
D) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
D) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.
A) thalamic control
B) voluntary cortical control
C) stretch receptors in the alveoli
D) composition of alveolar air
B) voluntary cortical control
Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli
C) respiratory bronchioles
D) alveolar ducts
B) alveoli
The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.
A) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
B) alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
C) atria and alveolar sacs
D) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs
B) alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
Gas emboli may occur because a ________.
A) person holds his breath too long
B) diver holds his breath upon ascent
C) pilot holds her breath upon descent
D) person breathes pure oxygen in a pressurized chamber
B) diver holds his breath upon ascent
Inspiratory capacity is ________.
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
B) the total amount of exchangeable air
C) functional residual capacity
D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
Which center is located in the pons?
A) pontine respirator group (PRG)
B) expiratory
C) inspiratory
D) pacemaker neuron center
A) pontine respirator group (PRG)
The nose serves all the following functions except ________.
A) as a passageway for air movement
B) as the initiator of the cough reflex
C) warming and humidifying the air
D) cleansing the air
B) as the initiator of the cough reflex
A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by ________.
A) 17 weeks
B) 24 weeks
C) 28 weeks
D) 36 weeks
C) 28 weeks
Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?
A) The respiratory rate of a newborn is slow.
B) The respiratory rate of a newborn varies between male and female infants.
C) The respiratory rate of a newborn is approximately 30 respirations per minute.
D) The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute.
The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute.
Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.
A) The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.
B) The dorsal respiratory group neurons depolarize in a rhythmic way to establish the pattern of breathing.
C) The pontine respirator group (PRG) continuously stimulates the medulla to provide inspiratory drive.
D) The ventral respiratory group is contained within the pons.
A) The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.
Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
A) partial pressure of oxygen
B) temperature
C) partial pressure of carbon dioxide
D) number of red blood cells
D) number of red blood cells
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.
A) the smooth muscles of the lung
B) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
C) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
D) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
D) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ________.
A) temperature is lower at higher altitudes
B) basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.
A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose
B) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
C) porous structure of turbinate bones
D) action of the epiglottis
A) ciliated mucous lining in the nose
Which of the following is not possible?
A) Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance.
B) Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.
C) Resistance equals pressure gradient over gas flow.
D) The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and
the alveoli.
B) Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.
Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.
A) A decrease in compliance causes an increase in ventilation.
B) A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation.
C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required.
D) Surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension.
C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required.
Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood:
A) During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2.
B) During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.
C) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.
Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood:
D) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
D) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
) Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?
A) pneumonia
B) tuberculosis
C) emphysema
D) coryza
C) emphysema
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