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Patho Midterm Quizzes 1-8

Evolve- Huether: Understanding Pathophysiology Quizzes 1-8 (Midterm)
An ordered photographic display of a set of chromosomes from a single cell is a(n):
A) metaphase spread.
B) autosomal spread.
C) karyotype.
D) anaphase spread.
An error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis is termed:
A) aneuploidy.
B) nondisjunction.
C) polyploidy.
D) anaplasia.
A somatic cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called:
A) an aneuploid cell.
B) a euploid cell.
C) a polyploidy cell.
D) a haploid cell.
A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. Which of the following describes this condition?
A) Euploidy
B) Triploidy
C) Tetraploidy
D) Aneuploidy
If a person is a chromosomal mosaic, the person may:
A) be a carrier of the genetic disease.
B) have a mild form of the genetic disease.
C) have two genetic diseases.
D) be sterile as a result of the genetic disease.
The most common cause of Down syndrome is:
A) paternal nondisjunction.
B) maternal translocations.
C) maternal nondisjunction.
D) paternal translocations.
Risk factors for Down syndrome include:
A) fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus.
B) increased paternal age.
C) family history of Down syndrome.
D) pregnancy in women over age 35.
A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. Her condition is called:
A) Down syndrome.
B) Cri du chat syndrome.
C) Turner syndrome.
D) Edward syndrome.
A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child's parents are first cousins. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of:
A) X inactivation.
B) genomic imprinting.
C) consanguinity.
D) obligate carriers.
Joey, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. He inherited this condition through a:
A) sex-linked dominant trait.
B) sex-influenced trait.
C) sex-limited trait.
D) sex-linked recessive trait.
A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with:
A) penetrance.
B) recurrence risk.
C) expressivity.
D) delayed age of onset.
People who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease; this is because of the genetic principle of:
A) penetrance.
B) expressivity.
C) dominance.
D) recessiveness.
Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene.
A) X-linked dominant
B) X-linked recessive
C) autosomal dominant
D) autosomal recessive
To express a polygenic trait:
A) genes must interact with the environment.
B) several genes must act together.
C) multiple mutations must occur in the same family.
D) in situ cloning must occur.
The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example of:
A) polygenic trait.
B) multifactorial trait.
C) crossing over.
D) recombination.
A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease, but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child?
A) 50%
B) 33%
C) 25%
D) Impossible to determine
A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?
A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to cause this syndrome?
A) Translocation
B) Inversion
C) Nondisjunction
D) Duplication at fragile sites
The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease:
A) genotype.
B) allele.
C) phenotype.
D) dominance.
Which of the following genetic diseases manifests with progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood?
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Achondroplasia
D) Huntington disease
Which of the following types of genetic disorders is the most common cause of miscarriage?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) Chromosomal
Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of an autosomal recessive pedigree?
A) On average, 50% of the children will have the autosomal recessive disease if one parent has the disease.
B) Males are affected more than females.
C) On average, 25% of the children are affected by the autosomal recessive disease if both parents are carriers.
D) There is a decreased risk of disease with consanguinity.
Which of the following is an accurate characterization of an X-linked recessive pedigree?
A) Disease is seen more often in males than females.
B) A pattern of skipped generations is rare.
C) Males are gene carriers.
D) Mothers usually transmit the disease to their daughters.
The process by which RNA directs the synthesis of protein is called:
A) termination.
B) transcription.
C) promotion.
D) translation.
A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of:
A) gene imprinting.
B) an autosomal recessive trait.
C) an autosomal dominant trait.
D) a sex-linked trait.
Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to:
A) treat disease.
B) protect cells from injury.
C) prevent cellular aging.
D) speed up cellular death.
Cellular atrophy involves:
A) an increase in cell size.
B) a decrease in cell size.
C) an increase in the number of cells.
D) a decrease in the number of cells.
The process of cellular atrophy is accomplished through which of the following processes?
A) Loss of fluid
B) Decreased cell division
C) Inhibition of enzyme formation
D) Formation of autophagic vacuoles
In compensatory hyperplasia, growth factors stimulate cell division in response to:
A) tissue loss.
B) decreased hormonal stimulation.
C) ischemia.
D) puberty.
Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to:
A) neoplasia (cancer).
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) all of the above.
In response to an increased workload, such as that caused by high blood pressure (hypertension), myocardial cells in the left ventricle will adapt through the process of:
A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) hyperplasia.
D) dsyplasia.
The process of muscle hypertrophy involves an increase in:
A) cell division.
B) water accumulation.
C) protein synthesis.
D) plasma membrane thickness.
Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical:
A) atrophy.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hormonal hyperplasia.
Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by:
A) another type of cell.
B) abnormal cells of the same tissue type.
C) scar tissue.
D) cancer cells.
Metaplasia occurs in response to:
A) increased workload.
B) growth factor secretion.
C) cell injury from noxious stimuli.
D) viral infection.
The most common cause of hypoxic injury is:
A) free radicals.
B) malnutrition.
C) chemical toxicity.
D) ischemia.
Tissue ischemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation result in:
A) cellular dehydration.
B) decreased ATP production.
C) calcium accumulation outside the cell.
D) increased protein synthesis.
Lysosomal rupture during hypoxic injury leads to:
A) cellular acidosis.
B) sodium influx.
C) cellular adaptation.
D) autodigestion of cells.
Free radical injury can be caused by all of the following factors except:
A) tissue damage by antioxidants.
B) radiation injury.
C) tissue reperfusion following ischemia.
D) enzymatic metabolism of chemicals.
Vitamin E, vitamin C, and beta-carotene are molecules in food that act as:
A) poisons.
B) free radicals.
C) receptor blockers.
D) antioxidants.
Lead poisoning affects nervous system function by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Lead blocks oxygen delivery to the brain by binding with hemoglobin.
B) Lead interferes with neurotransmitter release.
C) Lead causes nervous tissue necrosis.
D) Lead inhibits fatty acid oxidation in the brainstem.
The population group most vulnerable to lead poisoning is:
A) children.
B) pregnant women.
C) male adolescents.
D) the elderly.
Which of the following organs is most frequently affected by ethanol injury?
A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Stomach
Which of the following molecules accumulates in liver cells as a result of alcohol abuse?
A) Water
B) Fat (lipids)
C) Protein
D) Iron
Fetal exposure to alcohol during pregnancy can result in:
A) low birth weight.
B) mental retardation.
C) death.
D) all of the above.
Why is carbon monoxide exposure a life-threatening condition?
A) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents normal oxygen transport to tissues.
B) Inhalation of carbon monoxide interferes with oxygen diffusion in the lungs.
C) Carbon monoxide causes the release of toxic amounts of iron from the tissues.
D) Carbon dioxide removal from the tissues is inhibited.
A contusion injury results in:
A) tearing of the skin.
B) the removal of superficial skin layers.
C) entrance and exit wounds.
D) bleeding in the skin or underlying tissues.
What are the primary factors contributing to oncosis from hypoxic injury?
A) Decrease in ATP production and sodium movement into the cell
B) Injury to the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
C) Increase in ATP production and potassium movement out of the cell
D) Accumulation of lipids and pigments in the cell
Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs after severe hypoxic injury to which of the following organs?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Adrenals
D) Pancreas
The process by which cells program themselves to die is called:
A) karyolysis.
B) apoptosis.
C) pyknosis.
D) necrosis.
What fraction of total body water (TBW) volume is contained in the intracellular space?
A) 3/4
B) 2/3
C) 1/2
D) 1/3
Total body water (TBW) in elderly persons is:
A) increased because of decreased adipose tissue and decreased bone mass.
B) increased because of decreased renal function and hormonal fluctuations.
C) decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
D) decreased because of diuresis and sodium loss.
Which state describes the ideal proportion of electrolyte-to-water content in the body?
A) Homeostatic
B) Osmotic
C) Cationic
D) Isotonic
Osmosis describes the movement of:
A) electrolytes.
B) glucose.
C) water.
D) blood.
Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentrations in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
Capillary oncotic pressure is primarily determined by which of the following molecules?
A) Glucose
B) Sodium
C) Albumin
D) Water
Starling's hypothesis describes the forces that determine:
A) the intercellular concentration of electrolytes.
B) the net filtration of water at the capillary membrane.
C) the exchange of gases at the capillary membrane.
D) the concentration of albumin in the interstitial fluid.
Edema can result from all of the following alterations except:
A) decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
B) decreased capillary oncotic pressure.
C) lymphatic obstruction.
D) increased capillary membrane permeability.
Which of the following hormones stimulates sodium excretion by the kidneys?
A) Cortisol
B) Aldosterone
C) Natriuretic hormones(ANH)
D) Antidiuretic hormone
Increased aldosterone, as in the case of hyperaldosteronism, results in:
A) decreased serum osmolarity.
B) renal retention of sodium and water.
C) increased sodium excretion coupled with retention of potassium.
D) increased water reabsorption without affecting sodium balance.
Which of the following molecules inversely varies its concentration with chloride (Cl-) in the plasma?
A) Phosphate
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Bicarbonate
Symptoms of dehydration include:
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) edema.
Which of the following groups of symptoms are caused by hyponatremia?
A) Weak pulses, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate
B) Thirst, dry mucous membranes, and diarrhea
C) Nausea, muscle cramps, and confusion
D) Cardiac arrhythmias, paresthesias, and acid-base imbalances
Signs and symptoms of hypervolemia (fluid overload) include all of the following except:
A) elevated blood pressure.
B) weight gain.
C) edema.
D) increased hematocrit.
Moderate to severe hypokalemia manifests with:
A) muscle spasms and rapid respirations.
B) muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
C) confusion and irritability.
D) vomiting and diarrhea.
Which of the following molecules act as buffers for acid in the blood?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Albumin
C) Bicarbonate ion
D) All of the above
What is the normal pH of the blood?
A) Neutral
B) Slightly acidic
C) Slightly alkaline
D) Very acidic
Which of the following molecules is a volatile acid in the body?
A) Lactic acid
B) Ketoacids
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Sulfates
A common cause of metabolic acidosis is:
A) diuresis.
B) dehydration.
C) vomiting.
D) renal failure and diabetes.
If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the person's pH is:
A) high.
B) low.
C) normal.
D) impossible to determine.
Compensation for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis is accomplished by which of the following organs?
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Heart
D) Lungs
A common cause of metabolic alkalosis is:
A) volume overload.
B) hyperventilation.
C) vomiting.
D) ketone production.
In general, respiratory acidosis is caused by:
A) states that induce hyperventilation.
B) compensation for metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory disease causing retention of carbon dioxide.
D) hormone imbalances.
Which of the following alterations is evidence that the kidneys are compensating for a respiratory acidosis condition?
A) Decreased carbon dioxide
B) Elevated carbon dioxide
C) Decreased bicarbonate ion
D) Elevated bicarbonate ion
Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:
A) hyperventilation.
B) pneumonia.
C) pulmonary congestion.
D) pulmonary edema.
Starling law of capillaries What is the effective filtration pressure for the following values? EFP (Q)=CHP= 24 mm Hg, IFOP= 5 mm Hg, COP= 20 mm Hg, IFHP= 4 mm Hg?
A) 5 mm Hg
B) 0 mm Hg
C) 9 mm Hg
D) -8 mm Hg
If a fluid compartment has 183-mg/100 ml of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-), what is the mEq/L? Formula mEq/L= [mg/100 ml x 10 x valence]/atomic weight[Atomic weight of carbon is 12, oxygen is 16, hydrogen is 1 and sodium is 23]
A) 183 mEq/L
B) 30 mEq/L
C) 60 mEq/L
D) 90 mEq/L
What is the purpose of vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation?
A) To bring white blood cells to the area of injury
B) To transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury
C) To dilute toxins
D) All of the above
The first cell to react to tissue injury is the:
A) macrophage.
B) mast cell.
C) fibroblast.
D) neutrophil
Which of the following stimuli are known to induce mast cell degranulation?
A) Thermal injury
B) The presence of toxins
C) Immunologic tissue injury
D) All of the above
The process of a phagocyte squeezing through retracted endothelial cells to enter into the tissues is called:
A) fusion.
B) diapedesis.
C) phagocytosis.
D) margination.
Prior to engulfment of a bacterium during phagocytosis, which of the following events must occur?
A) Release of lysosomal enzymes
B) Fusion
C) Recognition and adherence
D) Formation of a phagolysosome
In addition to phagocytosis, which of the following functions are also performed by macrophages?
A) Release of growth factors and stimulating new blood vessel growth
B) Destroying circulating antibodies
C) Inhibiting inflammation
D) Promotion of blood clotting
A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response?
A) Neutrophil
B) Macrophage
C) Mast cell
D) Fibroblast
Cells defend against viral invasion through the production and secretion of:
A) histamine.
B) interferon.
C) growth factors.
D) prostaglandins.
Opsonization promotes the process of:
A) phagocytosis.
B) vasodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) clotting.
Warmth and redness of the skin are indicators of inflammation. Which of the following processes is responsible for this clinical manifestation?
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Phagocytosis
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Vasodilation
Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of a persistent bacterial infection?
A) Fibrinous
B) Serous
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Purulent
One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever, which is induced by several mediators, including:
A) histamine.
B) interferon.
C) interleukin 1.
D) nitrous oxide.
Which of the following characteristics concerning the acute phase reactant C-reactive protein is (are) true?
A) Produced by the liver
B) Plasma indicator of inflammation
C) Significant risk factor for heart disease
D) All of the above
Which of the following cells plays an active role in collagen deposition during wound contraction and scar tissue formation?
A) Mast cell
B) Macrophage
C) Fibroblast
D) Osteocyte
If the surface barriers such as the skin or mucus membranes are breached, the second line of defense in innate immunity is the:
A) lymph node.
B) lymphocyte response.
C) inflammatory response.
D) memory cells.
If a person has innate resistance to a disease, the person has _____ immunity.
A) natural
B) native
C) active acquired
D) passive
A child fell off the swing and scraped her knee. The injured area becomes red and painful. Which of the following would also occur?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Decreased RBC concentration at injured site
C) Fluid movement from tissue to vessels
D) Edema at injured site
The mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the process of:
A) cytokinesis.
B) endocytosis.
C) degranulation.
D) hemolysis.
A 13-year-old female fell on her knee while skating. The area became inflamed and sore to touch. Which of the following would result from activation of the plasma system secondary to her injury?
A) Mast cell degranulation
B) Release of cellular products
C) Cellular infiltration
D) Pathogenic invasion
A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?
A) Serous
B) Purulent
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Fibrinous
In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response:
A) is more effective at fighting microorganisms.
B) is faster.
C) recognizes specific invaders.
D) has no memory.
The primary cell of immunity is the:
A) mast cell.
B) macrophage.
C) neutrophil.
D) lymphocyte.
Humoral immunity is generated through the process of:
A) direct cell lysis.
B) stimulating an inflammatory response.
C) producing antibodies.
D) secreting toxic molecules.
If a person has resistance to a disease from natural exposure to an antigen, the person has which form of immunity?
A) Natural
B) Innate
C) Passive acquired
D) Active naturally acquired
Molecules that are capable of inducing an immune response are called:
A) lymphocytes.
B) haptens.
C) antigens.
D) antibodies.
Which of the following is an example of an endogenous antigen?
A) Poison ivy
B) Injected medications
C) Pollen
D) The body's own tissue
The condition in which the immune cells attack the individual's own tissues as if they were invaders is called:
A) alloimmunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) hypersensitivity.
D) graft rejection.
Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:
A) cellular RNA.
B) major histocompatibility antigens.
C) different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
D) "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells.
Major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?
A) Red blood cells
B) B lymphocytes and macrophages only
C) All body cells except for red blood cells
D) Liver, heart, and bone marrow cells only
Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?
A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) Memory cells
D) Pluripotent cells
Which cell ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?
A) Helper T cell
B) Mast cell
C) Neutrophil
D) Macrophage
Which cell stimulates both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?
A) Plasma cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) B lymphocytes
D) Helper T cells
CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages and B cells are found on:
A) helper T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Which process confers long-lasting immunity against a specific organism?
A) Production of memory cells
B) Activation of macrophages
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) Activation of the inflammatory response
The predominant antibody of a typical secondary immune response is:
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.
If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen X again, which of the following immune responses will occur?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Determinant
D) Immunosuppressive
What type of immunity is conferred when an individual is given a vaccine?
A) Natural immunity
B) Passive acquired immunity
C) Active acquired immunity
D) Alloimmunity
Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?
A) Neutralizing bacterial toxins
B) Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells
C) Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals
D) Opsonizing foreign antigen
Which is the main antibody transferred from a mother to an infant in breast milk?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgA
When a person has an allergic reaction to bee stings, which antibody causes the life-threatening hypersensitivity response?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Producing toxins
B) Stimulating apoptosis
C) Producing antibodies
D) Both A and B
How do natural killer (NK) cells differ from cytotoxic T (Tc) cells?
A) NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell.
B) NK cells are phagocytic.
C) NK cells can opsonize bacteria and viruses.
D) NK cells release toxins that kill the target cell.
A 20-year-old female is applying for nursing school and is required to be tested for immunity against several illnesses. Testing that looks at which of the following would be the best to determine immunity?
A) Neutralization
B) Agglutination
C) Precipitation
D) Titer
A 20-year-old female has been diagnosed with AIDS. Laboratory testing would reveal diminished levels of:
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) B cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) T suppressor cells.
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a large tapeworm. Which of the following cells would be produced in response to this worm?
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Natural killer cells
When a person has an allergic reaction to a bee sting, which type of hypersensitivity response is occurring?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following antibodies?
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
The most severe type I hypersensitivity response is:
A) eczema.
B) allergic rhinitis.
C) serous otitis.
D) anaphylaxis.
Which cells are stimulated by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Mast cells
B) Macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) T lymphocytes
In type II hypersensitivity, tissue injury is caused by:
A) autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
B) autoantibody stimulation of NK cells that destroy target cells.
C) autoantibody opsonization of target cells and subsequent phagocytosis.
D) all of the above.
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that get deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
A positive tuberculin skin test for detecting the presence of tuberculosis is indicative of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
What is the effect of repeated exposure to an allergen in an atopic individual?
A) The allergic response gets worse.
B) Antibody production is suppressed.
C) Antibody formation remains constant.
D) Tc cell activity increases significantly.
Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE
B) Decreasing the amount of IgE in the body
C) Decreasing the amount of antigen in the bloodstream
D) Decreasing the responsiveness of the bronchi and blood vessels to histamine
Which of the following features is characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity?
A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity
B) Delayed response
C) Usually life-threatening
D) Mediated by the complement system
Type IV hypersensitivities, such as poison ivy reactions, are initiated by:
A) B cells that release IgD 24 to 48 hours after exposure.
B) the release of neutrophil chemotactic factor.
C) the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
D) the release of large quantities of IgE.
What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Autoimmune
C) Alloimmune
D) Immunosuppressive
Autoimmunity can result from all of the following hypersensitivities except:
A) type I.
B) type II.
C) type III.
D) type IV.
Manifestations of the autoimmune disease SLE include:
A) wheezing, eczema, and itching.
B) pulmonary edema, leg swelling, and vein distention.
C) arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.
D) nasal polyps, headache, and rhinorrhea.
A person with type O blood has which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?
A) A and B
B) Rh
C) O
D) None of the above
Transfusion of A-negative blood to an O-positive individual will have which of the following results?
A) Improved red blood cell count
B) Clumping and lysis of red blood cells
C) Production of anti-B antibodies
D) An Rh incompatibility reaction
Individuals with immunodeficiencies are at risk for:
A) hypersensitivity reactions.
B) fungal infections only.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) autoimmune diseases.
The microorganism that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a:
A) gram-negative bacterium.
B) gram-positive bacterium.
C) retrovirus.
D) protozoan.
The microorganism that causes AIDS can be transmitted through:
A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) breast milk.
C) blood transfusions.
D) all of the above.
HIV inserts its genetic material by binding to the _____ on the helper T cell.
A) gp 120 receptor
B) CD8 receptor
C) CD4 receptor
D) phospholipids
After initial infection with the HIV, most individuals:
A) experience severe symptoms of AIDS.
B) have mild flu-like symptoms.
C) have low levels of circulating antibodies against HIV.
D) manifest with central nervous system symptoms.
If blood cell counts from an individual with AIDS were analyzed, you would expect to see very low quantities of:
A) Th cells.
B) mast cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) neutrophils.
Serious systemic fungal infections and parasitic infections usually only develop in individuals who are:
A) immunocompromised.
B) young.
C) virally infected.
D) allergic.
Vaccine can be formed from all of the following agents except:
A) a live, infectious antigen.
B) an attenuated antigen.
C) a dead antigen.
D) a detoxified toxin.
Which pair of relatives has the highest chance of sharing both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?
A) Mother and daughter
B) Father and son
C) Siblings
D) Mother and father
Which of the following is a typical characteristic of benign tumors?
A) Cells in the tumor are undifferentiated.
B) Benign tumors are surrounded by a capsule.
C) Benign tumors have a tendency to invade surrounding tissue.
D) Cells in the tumor occasionally metastasize to lymph nodes.
Malignant tumors have a tendency to:
A) grow rapidly.
B) metastasize to distant tissues.
C) invade surrounding tissues.
D) all of the above.
Sarcomas are cancers that arise from:
A) connective tissues.
B) glandular tissues.
C) epithelial tissues.
D) germ cells.
Which of the following cancers always arises from an initial mutation in the blood-forming cells of the bone marrow?
A) Lymphoma
B) Carcinoma
C) Leukemia
D) Sarcoma
Cervical carcinoma in situ:
A) usually progresses to cervical cancer even after treatment.
B) contains cancer cells that have not invaded the surrounding tissue.
C) refers to cervical cancer that has metastasized to the liver.
D) cannot be detected using available medical tests.
Referring to cancer, the term anaplasia means:
A) loss of cellular differentiation.
B) rapid growth of cells.
C) independence from normal cellular controls.
D) ectopic production of hormones.
Tumor cell markers can be used to:
A) screen individuals for cancer.
B) diagnose tumor type.
C) follow the clinical course of tumor development.
D) all of the above.
The term used to describe an aggregation of cancer cells that accumulates faster than its non-mutant neighbors is clonal:
A) selection.
B) stimulation.
C) expansion.
D) reunification.
Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of cancer cells?
A) Loss of cellular self-destruct mechanisms
B) Unlimited replication
C) Autocrine stimulation
D) Decreased responsiveness to growth signals
Cancer cells ensure adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients by releasing:
A) autocrine growth factors.
B) lysosomal enzymes.
C) telomerase.
D) angiogenic factors.
Cancer-causing mutations of a proto-oncogene result in:
A) apoptosis.
B) increased cell division.
C) production of monoclonal antibodies.
D) decreased cell responsiveness to growth factors.
The normal function of tumor suppressor genes in an individual without cancer is to:
A) prevent apoptosis.
B) control production of anti-growth signals.
C) stimulate cell replication.
D) prevent cancer-causing mutations.
Which of the following mutational routes is necessary to cause cancer with a tumor suppressor gene mutation?
A) Point deletion on one chromosome
B) Chromosomal translocation
C) Gene amplification
D) Deletion of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene
Which of the following genetic events is capable of activating oncogenes?
A) Deletion
B) Loss of heterozygosity
C) Amplification
D) All of the above
Viruses are associated with all of the following cancers except:
A) lung cancer.
B) Kaposi sarcoma.
C) lymphoma.
D) liver cancer.
Chronic active hepatitis B infection is a risk factor for developing which of the following types of cancer?
A) Lung
B) Leukemia
C) Pancreas
D) Liver
Which of the following viruses has been implicated in the development of cervical cancer?
A) Herpes virus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Human papilloma virus
Helicobacter pylori infection is a bacterial cause of:
A) lymphoma.
B) colon cancer.
C) gastric cancer.
D) bladder cancer.
Which of the following risk factors is associated with the development of lung, bladder, pancreatic, renal, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and esophageal cancer?
A) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
B) Radon
C) Tobacco use
D) Asbestos
Exposure to ionizing radiation is linked to all of the following cancers except:
A) leukemia.
B) thyroid cancer.
C) breast cancer.
D) skin cancer.
Which of the following statements about alcohol intake and cancer risk is true?
A) Alcohol intake is linked to the development of liver cancer only.
B) Alcohol intake increases the development of smoking-related cancers.
C) Moderate amounts of alcohol intake protect against breast and colon cancer.
D) Alcohol acts as an antioxidant, resulting in liver cancer.
Radon exposure increases an individual's risk for which of the following cancers?
A) Pancreatic
B) Esophageal
C) Lung
D) Skin
Local tissue invasion by a tumor is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Release of cytokines by the tumor cells, which kills surrounding cells
B) Release of lytic enzymes by the tumor cells, which causes tissue degradation
C) Release of antibodies by the tumor cells, which enhances phagocytosis of surrounding tissue
D) Release of free radicals by the tumor cells, which damages surrounding tissue
The wasting syndrome associated with cancer and cancer treatment is called:
A) cachexia.
B) anemia.
C) Cushing syndrome.
D) anabolism.
Which of the following is an effective treatment for cancer-related or chemotherapy-related anemia?
A) Exercise
B) Chemotherapy
C) Erythropoietin
D) Calcium and magnesium supplements
A concussion is defined as temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness lasting less than:
A) a few minutes.
B) 1 hour.
C) 6 hours.
D) 24 hours.
Spinal shock involves loss of:
A) skeletal motor function.
B) peripheral sensory function.
C) autonomic function.
D) All of the above
In individuals with spinal cord injuries, autonomic hyperreflexia occurs:
A) before spinal shock.
B) during spinal shock.
C) after spinal shock is resolved.
D) in individuals who did not develop spinal shock.
The most common cause of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is obstruction of a cerebral artery by:
A) atherosclerotic plaque.
B) a fat embolus.
C) vasospasm.
D) a thrombus.
In the pathophysiology of cerebral infarction, the release of which substance is associated with neuron hyperpolarization and seizure activity?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Endotoxin
C) Excitotoxins
D) Calcium
In subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), blood accumulates:
A) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the brain and skull.
B) around neurons and neuroglia in the brain tissue.
C) in the ventricles.
D) All the above
The most common source of life-threatening meningitis is:
A) streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) fungal infection.
C) haemophilus influenzae.
D) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Symptoms of bacterial meningitis can include all of the following except:
A) mild frontal headache.
B) skin rash.
C) nuchal rigidity.
D) vomiting.
Encephalitis is usually caused by:
A) viral infection.
B) bacterial infection.
C) parasitic infection.
D) fungal infection.
The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by:
A) degeneration of sensory and motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system.
B) loss of neurotransmitter function in the spinal cord.
C) immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons.
D) receptor abnormalities at the neuromuscular junction and in the skin.
The tonic phase of an epileptic seizure is characterized by:
A) involuntary muscle contraction and loss of consciousness.
B) cessation of seizure activity.
C) aura and prodromal signs.
D) alternating muscle contraction and relaxation.
Which of the following vertebral disorders involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of affected vertebra?
A) Spinal stenosis
B) Spondylosis
C) Degenerative disk disease
D) Herniated nucleus pulposus
Which of the following problems are likely to occur following a severe focal brain injury?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Subdural hematoma
C) Contrecoup injury
D) All of the above
Excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation in the ventricles or subarachnoid space is a condition called:
A) cerebral edema.
B) CSF shunting.
C) Cheyne-Stokes condition.
D) hydrocephalus.
An individual with paralysis of the lower extremities has:
A) paraplegia.
B) hemiparesis.
C) paratonia.
D) quadriplegia.
The main source of bleeding in subdural hematomas is:
A) arterial.
B) venous.
C) capillary.
D) sinus.
Which intervertebral disks are most likely to be herniated?
A) C5-C7
B) T6-T8
C) T12-L3
D) L4-S1
Risk factors for stroke syndromes include all of the following except:
A) primary hypertension.
B) anticoagulant medications.
C) atrial fibrillation.
D) diabetes mellitus.
The most common neurologic disorder observed in individuals with AIDS is:
A) peripheral neuropathies.
B) stroke.
C) encephalopathy.
D) central nervous system (CNS) tumors.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is caused by the degeneration of:
A) motor neurons in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves.
B) skeletal muscle tissue.
C) myelin in the peripheral nervous system.
D) myelin in the central nervous system.
Intracerebral hemorrhages most frequently occur in the:
A) frontal and temporal lobes.
B) occipital and parietal lobes.
C) diencephalon and midbrain.
D) cerebral cortex.
A 32-year-old female suffers from severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident. After rehabilitation she notices that her thought processes and goal-oriented behavior are impaired. The area most likely responsible is the:
A) thalamus.
B) limbic.
C) prefrontal.
D) occipital.
A 45-year-old male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease. He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements. Which of the following areas is most likely damaged?
A) Basal ganglia
B) Prefrontal area
C) Hippocampus
D) Temporal lobe
A 12-year-old female presents with hydrocephalus. Blockage of which of the following would cause this condition?
A) Cerebral aqueduct
B) Inferior colliculi
C) Red nucleus
D) Tegmentum
The most common type of cerebral palsy is:
A) ataxic.
B) dyskinetic.
C) spastic.
D) mixed.