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Bacteriology Test 2 Study guide
What is the morphology of staphylococcus?
Staphylococcus is found on____ and ____ surfaces.
True/False: Staphylococcus is a commensal organism.
What are the two major forms of transmission?
Describe the endogenous transmission of staphylococcus
invades upon epithelial damage of skin and mucosal surfaces
Describe the exogenous transmission of staphylococcus.
direct contact, fomites
Staphylococcus is resistant to what two extreme conditions?
List the 5 enzymes that contribute to the pathogenicity of staphylococcus.
catalase, coagulase, hemolysin, hyaluronidase, urease
List the 3 toxins and one additional pathogenic feature (not an enzyme) produced by staphylococcus.
exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, polysaccharide capsule
Which species of staphylococcus causes mastitis in cattle?
Streptococcus causes what 3 common diseases in humans?
toxic shock syndrome, food poisoning, strep throat
S. aureus is resistant to what type of antibiotic?
What type of S. aureus is most commonly seen in horses?
Pyoderma is seen in what species of bacteria? (use entire genus species) What is the most common symptom of pyoderma?
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, skin pustules
Just like S. aureus, there are some strands of S. pseudintermedius that are resistant to ________.
What superficial pyoderma in the abdominal region of young dogs called? What organism causes this?
impetigo, S. pseudintermedius
What are 5 other diseases caused by S. pseudintermedius aside from impetigo and pyoderma?
otitis externa, tonsillitis, mastitis, cystitis, urolithiasis
What bacteria species is also called "Greasy Pig Disease"? (use entire genus species)
Which species of staphylococcus lives on the normal flora of human skin and is an opportunistic pathogen?
Alpha hemolysis in Streptococcus exhibits ______ clearing and looks _____.
Beta hemolysis in Streptococcus is ____ clearing and appears _____.
M-protein is the most important virulence determinant in which bacteria?
M-protein allows for ____ , inhibits ____ activation (antiphagocytic), and causes _______.
adherence, complement, inflammation
What virulence feature of Streptococcus physically protects the bacteria from phagocytosis?
What three enzymes are virulence factors of Streptococcus?
hemolysins, streptokinase, hyaluronidase
Are Streptococcus infections endogenous or exogenous?
What three exogenous modes of transmission are exhibited by Streptococcus?
direct contact, inhalation, fomites
Strep. agalactiae causes ____ in cattle.
Where does Strep. agalactiae reside in cows?
Transmission of this bacteria is usually via improper milking procedures.
True or False. S. agalactiae is found in the environment.
Is Strep. agalactiae a contagious or environmental infection?
S. _____ and S. _____ are environmental and cause mastitis in cattle.
S. uberis, S. dysgalactiae
Mastitis is usually a ______ infection. A cow can have it without showing signs of illness.
What are the three contagious bacteria that cause mastitis?
S. aureus, S. agalactiae, M. bovis
What are 3 environmental bacteria that cause mastitis? (there are technically 8)
S. dysgalactiae, S. uberis, E. coli
What is the morphology of Streptococcus?
Streptococcus is classified based on the _____ portion of its cell wall.
The J-5 bacterin immunization is commonly used for what disease?
What bacteria lives in the tonsils, nostrils, and vagina of healthy adult carrier pigs?
Who is mainly affected by S. suis?
What is a zoonotic bacteria that can cause meningitis in slaughterhouse workers?
What causes septicemia, fibrinous arthritis, meningitis, pericarditis, endocarditis, and pneumonia in piglets?
What bacteria usually lives in the upper respiratory tract and vagina of horses?
Strep. zooepidemicus is the primary cause of ______ and _____ in mares.
Strep. zooepidemicus is usually secondary to what?
respiratory virus infection
Strangles is caused by what bacteria?
S. equi causes what common disease in young horses?
What disease causes fever, anorexia, depression, nasal discharge and painful submandibular and pharyngeal lymphadenopathy in young horses?
What are the two main modes of transmission for S. equi?
direct contact, fomites
Does strangles have a low or high mortality rate?
Bacterial ____ occurs about 1 week after S. equi infection and can live in environment for 2 months.
The formation of a S. equi abscess in an organ of the body is called _____ ______.
Bastard strangles is characterized by chronic _____ _______ or sudden death due to abscess rupture into a body cavity.
A complication of S. equi results in what disease?
guttural pouch empyema
What disease is characterized by hypersensitivity immune-mediated vasculitis? What bacteria causes this?
purpura hemorrhagica, S. equi
Pitting edema of limbs, sloughing of skin, and hemorrhages of mucosa are all symptoms of what disease?
How do you diagnose S. equi?
What are the 5 steps for the treatment of S. equi?
isolate horse, disinfect fomites, antibiotic therapy, antibiotic treatment, aid ruptured abscesses
What bacteria is a commensal of skin and mucous membranes in dogs and cats, and casues otitis, and septicemia following skin trauma?
What is the main strep pathogen in humans?
What bacteria causes strep throat?
If you see a human with a rash, endocarditis, sore throath, or necrotizing fasciiatis, what bacteria may be the cause?
What is the morphology of Listeria?
What bacteria is ubiquitous in nature?
What is the major pathogenic species of Listeria?
This bacteria usually elicits disease development when it is in high numbers or when the host's CMI is compromised.
What is a facultative intracellular parasite of epithelial cells, liver cells, macrophages, neural cells, and trophoblast cells?
The main virulence factor of listeria is a ______ called _____ that lyses phagosome and vacuole membranes.
hemolysin, listeriolysin O
Listeria contains two different _____ that allow for lysis of membranes. _____ ______ creates a pseudopod that allows for the bacteria to spread around the cell.
phospholipase C, actin polymerization
What is the primary route of Listeria transmission?
What bacteria is found in large numbers in silage and animal feed?
Ingestion of Listeria causes what two problems?
abortion, CNS diseases
Disease from Listeria is very rare and is most common in an ___________ host.
"Circling disease" or "silage disease" is a CNS disease caused by what?
Meningoencephalitis of the brainstem is caused by what?
What disease causes fever, head tilt, head pressing, nystagmus, propulsive walking, and perivascular cuffing in the CNS?
Listeria is most commonly seen in _______.
Abortion, septicemia or encephalitis in humans are most likely infected with what?
Listeria is _____ _____ in high numbers!!!
When diagnosing, Listeria is best recovered after _______ ______ of brain tissue.
What is the fatality % of Listeria if untreated?
There is no commercial vaccine available for the infection of what ubiquitous bacteria?
What is the morphology of Rhodococcus? What color are the colonies?
Where is Rhodococcus found?
What is the only species of Rhodoccocus of veterinary importance?
Rhodococcus grows well in ______ ______.
What are the primary hosts of Rhodococcus?
foals, humans, swine
What 4 bacteria are facultative intracellular pathogens of macrophages?
R. equi, C. Pseudotuberculosis, mycobacterium, nocardia (listeria)
R. equi contains a virulence ______ and a surface protein called ____ that is essential for it's intracellular survival.
What is the primary mode of transmission of R. equi?
Disease caused by inhalation of contaminated dust in dry seasons that is taken up by alveolar macrophages is caused by what bacteria?
Disease from what bacterias is only caused when the host is immunologically compromised or immature?
R. equi, listeria
What bacteria causes pyogranulomatous pneumonia (lung abscesses) in young foals and humans?
A young foal with weight loss, osteomyelitis, joint effusion, and diarrhea is probably infected with what?
Cervical lymphadenitis is swine is caused by what?
If you see a radiograph of lungs with "cotton puff" lesions, what is this animal infected with?
R. equi can be diagnosed by performing a ____ cytology or culturing a _____ sample.
Is R. equi fatal without antibiotic therapy?
What vaccine is given for R. equi?
Antibiotics for R. equi are only helpful with the bacteria is not yet ______ because it has to prevent uptake from the _____.
A human with HIV or cancer who works with horses or swine and has an abscess in their lungs is probably infected with what?
What is the morphology of Erysipelothrix?
What is the primary pathogen of Erysipelothrix?
What bacteria is widespread in nature and also found on mucous membranes of carrier swine and on the skin of fish?
E. rhusiophatiae produces a _____ that promotes spreading and invades the ____.
What is the primary route of transmission of E. rhuthiopathiae?
E. rhusiopathiae is usually acquired by ingestion of foods with ____ in them, or by direct contact with carrier ______.
What disease does E. rhusiophathiae cause in young swine?
What causes septicemia in turkeys and poultry?
A young (but not newborn) pig with septicemia, endocarditis, arthritis, and skin infarct probably has what disease?
If you see a pig with reddish-purple rhomboid lesions and scabs, what disease does it have?
What antibiotic is given to swine or turkeys with erysipelas?
If you see a human with broken skin and swollen fingers and hands, what disease do they probably have?
Erysipeloid is caused by what bacteria? Who does it affect?
E. rhusiopathiae, humans
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium?
"Chinese character" morphology is characteristic of what bacteria?
What subspecies of bacteria is a commensal of the urogenital tract of sheep and carrier cows?
_____ and _____ are commensals of the genital mucosa of all ruminants.
C. pilosum, C. cystitidis
The C. renale group contains ____ for adherence to mucosa and ____ ____ to increase urine ammonia concentration.
pili, bacterial urease
What are the 3 predisposing factors of the C. renale group?
high protein diet, parturition, peak lactation
What 2 pathogens produce bacterial urease?
S. pseudintermedius, C. renale
The C. renale group is ____ in ruminants, sheep, and carrier cows. It is _____ in non-carrier cows.
What causes pyelonephritis in cattle?
What disease is characterized by an ascending infection of the ureter and kidney, causing purulent and bloody urine?
Pyelonephritis can be diagnosed by a ____ culture and treated with large doses of ____ and putting the animal on a _____ ____ diet.
urine, penicillin, lower protein
What is the scientific disease name for "pizzle rot"? What 2 bacteria species causes this disease?
ulcerative posthititis, C. renale, C. pilosum
Pizzle rot is usually seen in what 2 animals?
If you see a sheep with ulcers and scabs around the prepuce area, what disease (formal name) is probably the cause?
What are the two best treatment methods for pizzle rot?
clean hair around the prepuce, lower protein diet
_______ is a major virulence feature of C. Pseudotuberculosis.
Phospholipases are promote spread of bacteria in the host. What 3 bacteria produce phospholipases?
listeria, C. Pseudotuberculosis, C. perfringens-type A
C. pseudotuberculosis can be transmitted by direct contact with ____ or ____, or by mechanical transmission from ____.
pus, fomites, insects
Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by what bacteria?
If you see a sheep or goat with lumpy skin from subcutaneous abscesses of the superficial lymph nodes, it probably has what disease?
Caseous lymphadenitis can develop into a ____ disease and cause abscesses in the lung, liver, and kidney.
By using good shearing practices like avoiding injury and cleaning the shears, you are avoiding what 2 diseases?
caseous lymphadenitis, malignant edema
C. pseudotuberculosis causes what disease in horses?
A horse with a chronic infection of the superficial lymphatics, cellulitis, and draining lesions probably has what disease?
In terms of diseases caused by C. pseudotuberculosis, antibiotic therapy can effectively treat _____ _____, but not _____ _____.
ulcerative lymphangitis, caseous lymphadenitis
What bacteria are acid fast (pink) because of the lipids in their cell wall (which also provide a defense mechanism against the hosts radicals)?
Granuloma formation is a main characteristic of what 2 bacteria?
What are the two agents of tuberculosis in animals?
M. bovis, M. tuberculosis
What 3 bacteria contain a catalase enzyme to evade the host's immune response?
staphylococcus, mycobacterium, nocardia
Mycobacteria live in the necrotic center of a _____ or intracellularly in ______.
What is formed when T cells, fibroblasts, and epithelial cells surround macrophages that are trying to kill bacteria but can't?
The National Bovine Tuberculosis Eradication Program is trying to eliminate what organism?
What are the 2 primary modes of transmission of M. bovis?
Crowding/enclosed conditions aid the transmission of what bacteria?
A cow with weight loss, lung disease, pulmonary node enlargement, moist cough, and dyspnea is probably infected with what?
What is the first test that must be performed to diagnose M. bovis in cattle?
caudal fold test
If swelling from 1st test occurs, what test must be done to confirm M. bovis infection in cattle?
comparative cervical test
The comparative cervical test is positive if the reaction is to _____ and negative if the reaction is to ______.
M. bovis, M. avium
What antibiotics are given to treat M. bovis?
What vaccine is given for M. bovis?
What are the 2 current threats of M. bovis to US herds of cattle?
deer, imported cattle
What three animals are very susceptible to M. bovis?
cats, swine, humans
A rural cat with progressive weight loss and intestinal infections probably has what bacterial infection?
Dogs and cats with M. bovis or M. tuberculosis can be treated with what?
M. bovis causes ____ disease in sheep, goats, dogs, deer, primates, and humans.
What two animals are the most resistant to M. bovis?
Like cats, pigs infected with M. bovis usually develop ____ disease.
Who is the reservoir for M. tuberculosis?
Dogs and cats can get _____ from their owner, resulting in pulmonary infection, but not the other way around!!
What bacterial species is ubiquitous in nature and is found in high number in bird feces?
What is a major interference in livestock TB skin testing?
What is the mode of transmission of MAC?
What animals are resistant to MAC?
sheep, goats, horses
What 2 bacteria only cause disease in high numbers or in immunocompromised animals?
MAC mostly affects what two species?
If you come across a bird with progressive weight loss, weakness and death, what are they probably infected with?
What causes enlargement of lymph nodes of head and neck in young pigs?
A human with AIDS who has developed GI disease and diarrhea might be infected with what?
MAC infection in dogs and cats usually results in weight loss, anorexia, fever, and ____ disease.
Dissemination of MAC (and other mycobacterium species) usually results in _____ in lymph nodes and other organs of the body.
What test is done to diagnose MAC in cattle and swine?
comparative cervical skin test
What vaccine is given for MAC?
What is the causative agent of Johne's disease of ruminants?
What does MAP stand for?
mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis
MAP is very hard to culture because it is so ____ ____.
How is MAP transmitted?
What pathogen elicits an inflammatory response that thickens the intestine and causes a loss of absorptive function?
What is ingested by macrophages in the Peyer's Patches of the ileum, where they multiply and spread?
You see an emaciated cow with reduced milk production and diarrhea, but seems to be eating normally. What disease do they have? What causes this disease?
Johne's disease, MAP
MAP infection occurs in the ____ period but signs rarely develop before ___ years of age.
The most sensitive diagnostic test of MAP is a DNA based ____ test.
By avoiding manure contamination of water and feed, preventing newborns animals to manure exposure, and keeping a closed herd, you are helping to prevent what disease?
Is participation in the USDA Johne's Disease Herd Status program mandatory?
What is the morphology of Actinomyces?
pleomorphic branching rods
Which bacteria looks like a fungus?
What bacteria is a commensal of the oropharynx and is an opportunistic infection of the oral mucous membranes?
What is a commensal in the mouths of cattle that cause "Lumpy Jaw"?
What bacterial infection is characterized by granulomatous osteomyelitis of the face and jaw, fistulas, mastication problems, and tooth loss?
How is A. bovis transmitted?
What bacteria in horses causes "poll evil" and "fistulous withers" with hard yellow white granules in the exudate?
By not feeding course stemmy hay to cows and horses, you are preventing disease of what bacteria?
What antibiotic is given for treatment of A. bovis?
What is present in the oral mucosa of dogs and humans and causes periodontal disease?
What strain of actinomyces causes localized abscess of wounds, pneumonia, pleuritis, and arthritis in dogs?
What is the morphology of Nocardia?
rod with branching aerial hyphae
What two bacteria are acid fast?
What are the 2 main modes of transmission of Nocardia?
contamination of wounds, inhalation
What is the only species of Nocardia of veterinary significance?
What are the 3 disease forms of N. asteroides?
localized skin form, thoracic form, septicemic form
In dogs and cats, what causes localized subcutaneous lesions (mycetoma) and sometimes cough?
In humans, N. asteroides causes ______ and _____ lesions.
N. asteroides can be diagnosed by a cytology and gram stain of the lesions, showing the _____ _____, characteristic of this bacteria.
What is the morphology of Dermatophilus congolensis?
What bacteria is characterized by its "railroad track" morphology (zoospores)?
What is the primary source of infection of D. congolensis?
You see an animal during the rainy season with infected skin, matted and crusty hair, and bald patches. What is the cause of this?
Streptothricosis and dermatophilosis are caused by what bacteria?
Rain scald, lumpy wool, and strawberry foot rot, are all infections by what?
D. congolensis can be treated by disposing of the _____ and using a iodine-based _____.
What is the morphology of Clostridium?
large anaerobic spore-forming rods
Clostridium diseases are ____ based.
What does Clostridium produce to resist disinfectants?
What causes tetanus?
Where are C. tetani spores present?
Tetanus is due to absorption of _____ by motor nerves.
What is the main mode of transmission of tetanus?
contamination of wounds
Neurotoxin of tetanus and botulism binds _____ to motor nerves and blocks the release of neurotransmittiers.
Spastic paralysis is characteristic of what disease?
What two animals are the most susceptible to tetanus?
Who is resistant to tetanus?
You see a horse with a stiff tail, erect ears, and a "saw horse" stance, what disease does it have?
Treatment of tetanus is ____ and is therefore easier in ____ animals.
To treat tetanus and botulism, an anti-toxin must be administered to neutrialize ____ toxin. Requires time to grow new ____ terminals.
What antibiotic can be used to kill vegetative tetanus toxins?
Is there a vaccine for tetanus?
What is the main mode of transmission of C. botulinum (botulism)?
Botulism toxin is usually produced in what two sources?
decomposing animal, plant tissue
Flaccid motor paralysis is a characteristic of what disease?
Clinical signs of botulism is caused by the ____ ____, NOT the ______!!!
botulism toxin, bacterium
Death from botulism is by ____ ____.
What is the most potent neurotoxin?
What two animals are the most susceptible to botulism?
What animal is the least susceptible to botulism?
What are the 3 forms of botulism intoxication? (List the most common one first)
ingestion of preformed toxin, wound botulism, toxicoinfectious botulism
What is it called when foals or infants ingest botulism spores and they germinate in the gut and release toxin?
What causes "limber neck" in poultry and birds?
If you see a drowsy bird with a droopy head and eyelids and paralysis of the wings and legs, what do you think they're infected with?
When you see grain falling from the mouth of a horse while eating or its tongue is hanging out, what do you think it is infected with?
Labored breathing, muscle weakness, mydriasis (dilated pupil) and a shuffling gait in a horse are all sings of what?
What causes "shaker foal syndrome"?
If you see a foal lying down, drooling milk, with decreased tail and tongue tone, what disease do they have?
shaker foal syndrome
A "downer cow" or a cow with a staggering gait, weakness, dyphagia, drooling, and drooping eyelids and tongue is most likely infected by what?
If a dog eats the carcass of a dead animal and then shows signs of weakness and flaccid paralysis, what disease do they have?
Cats are resistant to what disease?
Babies who eat honey and then develop muscle weakness and droopy eyelids mostly likely have what disease?
Botulism can be diagnosed by toxin identification using what two techniques?
ELISA, mouse inoculation test
Botulism has a high mortality rate in horses and ruminants, unless they are given the _______.
Practices such as preventing access to carrion, storing feed properly, and vaccinating are good prevention measures for what disease?
What sub-species of bacteria has types A, B, C, and D and is a commensal of animal intestines?
What type of C. perfringens produces alpha toxin and causes necrosis of the intestinal cell wall (necrotic enteritis)?
What causes gas gangrene and food poisoning in people?
C. perfringens-type A
What type of C. perfringens produces alpha toxin and cytotoxic beta toxin, which causes hemorrhagic necrosis of the intestine?
If you see a foal, piglet, lamb, child, or calve with stomach pain and bloody diarrhea, what do you suspect they have?
C. perfringens-type C
Treatment of C. perfringens-type C can be done by what 2 practices?
antibiotics, supportive care
High grain diets and stress causes over proliferation of what species of bacteria?
C. perfringens-type D
C. perfringens-type D produces what toxin that causes systemic effects?
Over eating disease and pulpy kidney disease are caused by what species of bacteria?
C. perfringens-type D
If you see a ruminant that is eating well, growing rapidly, and then has a rapid onset of ataxia, convulsions, coma, diarrhea, or death, what bacteria are they probably infected with?
C. perfringens-type D
Brain edema and kidney degeneration are both caused by the toxins of what bacterial species?
C. perfringens-type D
Infection by C. perfringen-type D can be controlled by vaccinating with Type D _______ or _____ and with adjusted _____ practices.
toxoid, bacterin, feeding
Clostridium toxins can be identified using what diagnostic test?
What produces exotoxins that increase capillary permeability and cause myonecrosis and systemic toxemia?
What disease is caused by C. chauvoei that results in a sudden onset of muscle inflammation and necrosis?
C. chauvoei is found in what 2 places?
soil, intestinal tract
If you have a rapidly growing cow or sheep receiving high levels of nutrition that may compromise the GI tract, what bacterial infection are they susceptible to?
What are the two main modes of transmission of C. chauvoei?
ingestion of spores, endogenous
What disease multiplies in the intestinal tract and causes fever, lameness or stiff gate from necrotic muscle, or sudden death without any signs?
C. chauvoei can be diagnosed by what test?
fluorescent antibody test
C. chauvoei is not easily treated but can be prevented by giving _____ or ______.
What causes "redwater disease", "infectious icterohemoglobinuria", and "bacillary hemoglobinuria"?
What bacteria is characterized by intravascular hemolysis, capillary damage, and infection where liver damage (from liver flukes) has occurred?
Coffee colored urine (hemoglobinuria) is caused by what bacteria?
Infarction of liver and death by anoxemia and RBC destruction are characteristic of what disease?
Malignant edema (gangrenous myonecrosis with edema and systemic toxemia) is caused by toxins from what bacteria?
What disease is mainly caused by C. septicum but can also be caused by other clostridium species?
Where does C. septicum infection usually occur?
Malignant edema can be diagnosed using what test?
fluorescent antibody test
C. difficile causes ____ in foals, ____ in dogs, and ____ in humans.
colitis, chronic diarrhea, enterocolitis
C. piliforme causes what disease in foals?
What is the morphology of Bacillus?
aerobic spore-forming rod
What is the only important Bacillus pathogen?
Bacillus is found in the _____ and causes _____.
What bacteria causes outbreaks in the summer after a major climate change?
The virulence determinants of B. anthracis are encoded on 2 _____. One encodes a capsule to resist phagocytosis and the other encodes a 3 component exotoxin.
The individual toxin components of this bacteria are harmless. The edema toxin and lethal toxin are made with combinations of toxin components. What is the bacteria?
In the infection of B. anthracis, ___ binds, which facilitates the uptake of ___ and ___. (Toxin components)
PA, LF, EF
What are the three main modes of transmission of B. anthracis?
ingestion of spores, inhalation of spores, cutaneous penetration of spore
What causes "wool sorters disease" in humans?
Death by B. anthracis is due to what two symptoms?
respiratory failure, anoxia
What are the 4 forms of disease from anthrax?
peracute, acute, intestinal, chronic
Diarrhea, edema of tongue, and bleeding from body openings is from the ____ form of ___.
What disease causes mouth and throat hemorrhaging and edema, dysphagia, and gastrointeritis in swine, dogs, and cats?
What 2 forms of anthrax are most commonly seen in ruminants?
Most human cases of anthrax are _____, which is not a common form in animals.
Severe lung edema (very fatal) and gastroenteritis in humans are both caused by what?
Do not perform necropsy if you suspect what type of infection?
Absence of rigor mortis and tarry blood in a carcass are sings of what disease?
Unlike clostridium, B. anthracis contains a ____ which is visible when stained.
What two diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose Anthrax?
Disposal of infected material (usually done by a state or federal vet) is a very important practice when dealing with what organism?
Infected carcasses and contaminated material have to be burned or buried if infected with what bacteria?
What are the 2 vaccines for Anthrax?
What 2 bacteria utilize bacterial urease as a virulence factor?
S. pseudintermedius, C. renale group