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BISC 1 CHAPTERS 4,19,21

Terms in this set (128)

With a negative feedback mechanism, the value in question will vary around a set point.

True or False
True
Homeostasis can best be described as the body's

ability to avoid responding to external stimuli.

need to speed things up to a more energized state.

need to slow things down to a more relaxed state.

ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
During the maintenance of homeostasis, changes in bodily functions are detected by sensors, which in most cases are

melanocytes.
specialized sensory neurons.
adipose tissues.
specialized epidermal receptors.
specialized sensory neurons.
Once the sensor detects the change in bodily function, the information is relayed to which part of the body?

the hypothalamus within the brain

the thyroid gland within the neck

the spinal column

the pituitary gland within the brain
the hypothalamus within the brain
In a negative feedback mechanism, the response directs the system to operate in a similar direction. For example, if an individual is cold, the negative feedback mechanism would direct the body to become colder.

True or False
False
If body temperature was controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's temperature would continue to rise.

True or False
True
Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain

urine levels.

body temperature.

blood volume.

blood pH.

blood glucose levels.
body temperature
Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called

membranes.

organs.

tissues.

glands.

organisms.
tissues.
Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities?

epithelial tissue

connective tissue

muscular tissue

nervous tissue

vascular tissue
epithelial tissue
What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?

actin
collagen
keratin
fibrinogen
myosin
collagen
It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome. Which types of fibers are affected in this disorder?

elastic fibers
reticular fibers
collagen fibers
hyaline fibers
ground fibers
Elastic fibers
The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other.

True or False
False
Which component of a neuron receives the signal from a sensory receptor?

dendrite
axon
cell body
nucleus
myelin sheath
dendrite
Which two types of cells form myelin sheaths?

oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

microglia and astrocytes

astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

microglia and oligodendrocytes

Schwann cells and microglia
oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?

ependymal cells

plasma membrane

synovial membrane

basement membrane

transitional membrane
basement membrane
One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelium?

pseudostratified epithelium

glandular epithelium

cuboidal epithelium

stratified epithelium

columnar epithelium
pseudostratified epithelium
Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?

immune system

integumentary system

cardiovascular system

urinary system

musculoskeletal system
immune system
Which systems help to adjust the blood's acid-base balance?

cardiovascular and muscular

cardiovascular and urinary

respiratory and urinary

respiratory and skeletal

muscular and skeletal
respiratory and urinary
The cardiovascular system is limited to just the heart and the blood.

True or False
False
Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane?

ovaries

heart

cavities of freely movable joints

tubes of the digestive system

abdominal cavity
tubes of the digestive system
Which body cavity contains the small and large intestines?

abdominal cavity

dorsal cavity

cranial cavity

vertebral canal

pelvic cavity
Abdominal Cavity
The pleurae would be found in which body system?

respiratory system

cardiovascular system

muscular system

urinary system

skeletal system
respiratory system
Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle?

G1 → G2 → S → M
G1 → M → G2 → S
G1 → S → M → G2
G1 → G2 → M → S
G1 → S → G2 → M
G1 → S → G2 → M
The division of the cytoplasm is called?

cytokinesis.

cytogenetics.

mitosis.

meiosis.

synapsis.
cytokinesis.
Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of mitosis?

prophase → metaphase → telophase → anaphase
prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase
metaphase → prophase → anaphase → telophase
metaphase → prophase → telophase → anaphase
prophase → anaphase → metaphase → telophase
prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase
DNA replication occurs in mitosis.

True or False
False
Mitosis and cytoplasmic division result in the formation of two genetically identical cells.

True or False
False
The success of DNA replication is assessed during the ______ phase.

G1
G2
M
C
S
G2
The cell cycle is regulated by checkpoints during the _______ phases.

G1, S, and G2
G1, S, and M
G1, S, G2, and M
G1, G2, and M
G1, S, and C
G1, G2, and M
A eukaryotic cell that receives a "go-ahead" signal at the G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle will?

move directly into the M phase.

enter a resting stage.

complete the cycle and divide.

move directly into the G2 phase.

stop growing.
complete the cycle and divide.
Preparation for cell division occurs in the G2 phase.?

True or False
True
After cytokinesis, the cell enters the G1 phase.

True or False
True
A cell encounters several checkpoints during the cell cycle to ensure the cycle is occurring accurately.

True or False
True
There are _______ important checkpoints throughout the cell cycle.

Three
Three
At this checkpoint, it is verified that all chromosomes have attached in preparation for anaphase.

Spindle checkpoint 1
Spindle checkpoint 1
This critical checkpoint is influenced by external signals and growth factors.

G1/S 3
G1/S 3
A cell that has successfully completed all three stages of interphase is allowed to pass this checkpoint.

G2/M 2
G2/M 2
The overall purpose of mitosis is to produce?

four daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other.

two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another.

two daughter cells that have genetic variability.

four daughter cells that have genetic variability.
two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another.
Sister chromatids can best be described as?

the protein-rich core that holds a replicated chromosome together.

the four genetically identical halves that comprise a chromosome.

the two genetically identical chromatids that result from the replication of the chromosome.

the four genetically variable chromatids that result from the replication of the chromosom
the two genetically identical chromatids that result from the replication of the chromosome.
Which of the following events does not occur during prophase?

The nuclear envelope begins to fragment.

Chromosomes replicate themselves.

Chromatin in the nucleus condenses.

Identifiable chromosomes appear.
Chromosomes replicate themselves.
The purpose of the spindle fibers is to?

assist in the condensing of chromatin into chromosomes.

assist in the replication of chromosomes.

aid in sorting and aligning the chromosomes for their movement to opposite ends of the cell.

aid in the growth of a new plasma membrane upon cytokinesis
aid in sorting and aligning the chromosomes for their movement to opposite ends of the cell.
Which of the following phrases best describes the events that occur during anaphase?

The spindle fibers shorten and the sister chromatids begin to separate and move to opposite ends of the cell.

The spindle fibers attach to the sister chromatids and align them along the center of the cell.

The nuclear envelope begins to re-form around the newly separated chromosomes and the spindle fiber breaks down.

The contents of the cell begin to divide as the plasma membrane begins to pinch apart, forming two separate cells.
The spindle fibers shorten and the sister chromatids begin to separate and move to opposite ends of the cell.
Place the following events in order as they occur during cell division through mitosis. Keep in mind that not all events may occur during the process of mitosis itself.

chromatin replicates and condenses into chromosomes, spindle fibers attach to sister chromatids and align them at the center of the cell, the plasma membrane pinches apart into two distinct cells, spindle fibers begin to shorten and drag the sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell, the nucleus re-forms around the chromosomes

the plasma membrane pinches apart into two distinct cells, spindle fibers attach to sister chromatids and align them at the center of the cell, spindle fibers begin to shorten and drag the sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell, chromatin replicates and condenses into chromosomes, the nucleus re-forms around the chromosomes

spindle fibers attach to sister chromatids and align them at the center of the cell, chromatin replicates and condenses into chromosomes, spindle fibers begin to shorten and drag the sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell, the nucleus re-forms around the chromosomes, the plasma membrane pinches apart into two distinct cells

chromatin replicates and condenses into chromosomes, spindle fibers attach to sister chromatids and align them at the center of the cell, spindle fibers begin to shorten and drag the sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell, the nucleus re-forms around the chromosomes, the plasma membrane pinches apart into two distinct cells
chromatin replicates and condenses into chromosomes, spindle fibers attach to sister chromatids and align them at the center of the cell, spindle fibers begin to shorten and drag the sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell, the nucleus re-forms around the chromosomes, the plasma membrane pinches apart into two distinct cells
Which of the following events occur during prophase of mitosis?

All of the answer choices are correct.

DNA condenses to form chromosomes

nuclear membrane breaks down

nucleolus breaks down

mitotic spindle begins to form
All of the answer choices are correct.
The mitotic spindle fibers attach to chromosomes via special structures termed?

centrioles.

kinetochores.

asters.

keratins.
centrosomes.
kinetochores.
Which of the following statements about microtubules during anaphase is true?

Those attached to chromosomes shorten, while those that are unattached elongate.

Both attached and unattached microtubules elongate at first and then shorten.

Both attached and unattached microtubules elongate.

Those attached to chromosomes elongate, while those that are unattached shorten.

Both attached and unattached microtubules shorten.
Those attached to chromosomes shorten, while those that are unattached elongate.
Centromeres divide during metaphase?

True or False
False
Cytokinesis in plant cells occurs by means of a cleavage furrow.

True or False
False
Which of the following events occur during prophase I?

breakdown of nuclear envelope

condensation of chromosomes

movement of centrosomes

breakdown of nuclear envelope and condensation of chromosomes

breakdown of nuclear envelope, condensation of chromosomes, and movement of centromeres
breakdown of nuclear envelope, condensation of chromosomes, and movement of centromeres
How many bivalents are formed in a cell with 20 chromosomes at the beginning of meiosis I?

20

10

5

1

40
10
Which of the following events occur during anaphase I?

separation of homologous chromosomes

formation of synaptonemal complex

lengthening of kinetochore microtubules

separation of homologous chromosomes and formation of synaptonemal complex

separation of homologous chromosomes, formation of synaptonemal complex, and lengthening of kinetochore microtubules
separation of homologous chromosomes
At the end of meiosis I, there are two haploid cells, each with two sister chromatids per chromosome.

True or False
True
The period between meiosis I and II is termed interkinesis.

True or False
True
Meiosis II produces haploid cells because

the chromosomes are duplicated between meiosis I and meiosis II.

some of the chromosomes are spontaneously reabsorbed by the newly formed gametes.

the chromosomes do not replicate between meiosis I and meiosis II.

meiosis II is actually a series of two additional cell division events.
the chromosomes do not replicate between meiosis I and meiosis II.
During metaphase II, sister chromatids attach to the spindle by kinetochore microtubules; each is attached to an opposite pole.

True or False
True
Following telophase II and cytokinesis, meiosis II results in the formation of four ______ (haploid/diploid) daughter cells.

haploid
haploid
Select all of the following which are true statements regarding meiosis II.

Following meiosis I, the cells are diploid.Following meiosis I, the cells are diploid. Incorrect

DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I and meiosis II.DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I and meiosis II. Incorrect


DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I but not before meiosis II.DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I but not before meiosis II. Correct

Meiosis I produces two haploid cells.Meiosis I produces two haploid cells. Incorrect

Meiosis II produces four haploid daughter cells.Meiosis II produces four haploid daughter cells. Correct

Meiosis II produces four identical diploid daughter cells.
DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I but not before meiosis II.DNA is replicated prior to meiosis I but not before meiosis II. Correct

Meiosis II produces four haploid daughter cells.Meiosis II produces four haploid daughter cells. Correct
During metaphase II, the ______ aligns the sister chromatids along the metaphase plate.

spindle
Spindle
A crossover in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between

sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes.

nonsister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes.

sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

sister chromatids of the same chromosome.

nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
A tetrad is made up of

four nonhomologous chromosomes.

two homologous pairs of chromosomes.

four nonhomologous chromatids.

four homologous pairs of chromosomes.

two homologous chromosomes, each consisting of two chromatids
two homologous chromosomes, each consisting of two chromatids
Which of the following statements about crossing-over is true?

It occurs only between genes that are heterozygous.

It results in reduced genetic variation among gametes.

It occurs only in males.

None of the answer choices is correct.

It occurs only in some chromosomes.
None of the answer choices is correct.
Crossing-over occurs during prophase I of meiosis.

True or False
True
Crossing-over allows the reassortment of linked genes.

True or False
True
Daughter cells produced in meiosis have?

half the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

the same number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

one-fourth the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

four times the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.

twice the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.
half the number of chromosomes as daughter cells produced in mitosis.
The number of cells produced in meiosis is

one-fourth the number of cells produced in mitosis.

twice the number of cells produced in mitosis.

equal to the number of cells produced in mitosis.

four times the number of cells produced in mitosis.

half the number of cells produced in mitosis.
twice the number of cells produced in mitosis.
Which of the following is unique to meiosis?

DNA organizes into chromosomes

crossing-over

chromosomes align along the central plate of the cell

None of the answer choices is correct.

nuclear membrane breaks down
crossing-over
Daughter cells produced in meiosis are identical.

True or False
False
Chromosome duplication occurs prior to both mitosis and meiosis.

True or False
True
The spindle apparatus is fully formed by the end of

anaphase II.

telophase II.

metaphase II.

prometaphase II.

prophase II.
prometaphase II.
Separation of ________ occurs in anaphase II of meiosis.

the two nuclei

nonsister chromatids

sister chromatids

homologous chromosomes

nonhomologous chromosomes
sister chromatids
At the end of meiosis II, there are

two haploid cells, with each chromosome containing two sister chromatids.

two haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

four haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.

four haploid cells, with each chromosome containing two sister chromatids.

four diploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.
four haploid cells, with each chromosome consisting of a single chromatid.
Replication of chromosomes occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II.

True or False
False
In animal cells, cell division is accomplished by the formation of a cleavage furrow.?

True or false
True
What is the overall purpose of meiosis?

to produce four genetically different haploid cells

to produce four genetically identical diploid cells

to produce four genetically different diploid cells

to produce four genetically identical haploid cells
to produce four genetically different haploid cells
The exchange of genetic material between nonsister chromatids is called crossing-over and occurs during which phase of meiosis?

interphase

prophase II

prophase I

metaphase I
prophase I
Select all of the following ways in which meiosis II is different than meiosis I.

Interkinesis doesn't involve the replication of chromosomes, whereas interphase does.

Crossing-over doesn't occur in prophase II, whereas it does in prophase I.

Cells in meiosis II are haploid and cells in meiosis I are diploid.

Sister chromatids separate in anaphase II, whereas homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I.

All of the answer choices are correct.
All of the answer choices are correct.
What cells in the body are most likely to have originated through the process of meiosis?

heart cells

skin cells

sperm and egg cells

neurons
sperm and egg cells
Which of the following causes an extra copy of a chromosomal region to occur?

simple translocation

deletion

inversion

reciprocal translocation

duplication
duplication
When a chromosome is broken in two places and reconnected so that a region is flipped from the normal order, this is called?

duplication.

simple translocation.

deletion.

reciprocal translocation.

inversion.
inversion.
Which of the following occurs when a piece of one chromosome breaks off and is attached to another chromosome?

simple translocation

inversion

deletion

duplication

reciprocal translocation
simple translocation
A chromosomal mutation is a substantial change in the structure of a chromosome or chromosomes.

True or False
True
Both inversions and translocations can lead to overall deficiencies and duplications of genetic material.

True or False
True
A Barr body is typically found in the nucleus of

male somatic cells only.

both male and female somatic cells.

female gametes only.

female somatic cells only.

male gametes only.
female somatic cells only.
Which of the following statements about the Xist gene is true?

It encodes an RNA that will coat an X chromosome to promote its compaction.

It is located in the Xic region of the X chromosome.

It functions in the initiation phase of X inactivation.

It is located in the Xic region of the X chromosome, and it encodes an RNA that will coat an X chromosome to promote its compaction.
It is located in the Xic region of the X chromosome, and it encodes an RNA that will coat an X chromosome to promote its compaction.
A cell with three X chromosomes will contain?

3 Barr bodies.

1 Barr body.

no Barr bodies.

2 Barr bodies.

4 Barr bodies.
2 Barr bodies.
Once a cell undergoes X chromosome inactivation, all of its daughter cells will have the same X chromosome inactivated.?

True or False
True
X chromosome inactivation equalizes the gene dosage between mammalian males and females?

True or False
True
DNA is found in association with proteins within the cell. What is the term for this DNA-protein complex?

chromatin

nucleus

karyotype

centromere

chromatids
chromatin
The centromere is the structure that holds the chromatids together?

True or False
True
What is the structure that holds the chromatids together?

centromere

chromatin

chromosomes

karyotype

None of the answer choices is the structure that holds the chromosomes together.
centromere
In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?

Both occur continuously from puberty on.

Both result in four daughter cells.

Both result in cells with half the diploid chromosome number.

Both are arrested in prophase I.

Both result in one or two polar bodies.
Both result in cells with half the diploid chromosome number.
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting four cells is fertilized with a normal sperm (imagine four functional egg cells result from oogenesis). How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

one, three

two, two

three, one

two, one

one, two
two, one
How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?

Both have only two X chromosomes.

Both have only two Y chromosomes.

Both have three sex chromosomes.

Both have one sex chromosome.

Both have only 45 chromosomes.
Both have three sex chromosomes.
In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from?

largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.

smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.

largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes.

smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes.

sex chromosomes first and then smallest to the largest.
largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end.
What happens at the G2 checkpoint?

The cell makes a commitment to divide.

The cell receives external signals to divide.

The cell checks that the DNA has replicated.

The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly.

The cell enters G0.
The cell checks that the DNA has replicated.
At what two checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?

G1 and G2

G1 and mitotic

G2 and mitotic

cytokinesis and G2

G1 and cytokinesis
G1 and G2
What structure is not divided during cytokinesis?

chromosome

cell membrane

cell wall

cytoplasm

endoplasmic reticulum
chromosome
If an organism has four pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis, the daughter cells will contain how many chromosomes?

2

4

8

16

32
4
During which phase of meiosis will the homologous chromosomes pair up?

prophase I

prophase II

anaphase I

telophase II

metaphase I
prophase I
When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?

prophase I

prophase II

anaphase I

anaphase II

telophase I
anaphase II
If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at?

mitosis.

meiosis.

interphase.

G2.

G1.
meiosis.
The products of meiosis I in spermatogenesis are?

primary spermatocytes.

secondary spermatocytes.

spermatids.

spermatazoa.

two identical cells.
secondary spermatocytes.
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?

Turner syndrome

Klinefelter syndrome

Jacobs syndrome

Down syndrome

Williams syndrome
Turner syndrome
In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece?

True or False
True
Which of the following is a dominant allele?

A

a

Ab

AA

ab
A
Which of the following is an example of a homozygous recessive genotype?

ab

AA

aa

short

Aa
aa
When doing dihybrid crosses, it is assumed that the traits assort independently of one another. This is because they are on _____ chromosomes?

the same

different

homologous
different
If an individual within the parental generation was heterozygous for both traits, what combinations of traits could their gametes possess?

WS and ws

WS, Ws, wS, and ws

WW, Ww, ww, SS, Ss, and ss

WwSs, WWSS, and wwss
WS, Ws, wS, and ws
If a parent is heterozygous for a gene, 1/2 of the time they will contribute a dominant allele to their offspring and 1/2 of the time they will contribute a recessive allele to their offspring. The phenotypes of the resulting offspring will be _____ dominant and _____ recessive?

1/4; 3/4

3/4; 1/4

1/2; 1/2

all (4/4); no (0/4)
3/4; 1/4
The probability of having an offspring with both the dominant phenotypes for both genes is equal to the product of the individual probabilities. This means the probability of having a dominant phenotype for both traits would be?

4/4 × 4/4 = 16/16.

3/4 × 3/4 = 9/16.

1/2 × 1/2 = 1/4.

3/4 × 1/4 = 3/16.
3/4 × 3/4 = 9/16.
Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?

AAbb × Aabb

ff × ff

Ss × ss

AAbb × aaBB

Gg × gg
AAbb × aaBB
Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?

phenotype

autosomal

gamete

probability

genotype
genotype
The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square?

True or False
True
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?

aB

aa

ab

Ab

Aa
Aa
Which of the following is a dominant allele?

A

a

AA

ab

Ab
A
Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin?

cystic fibrosis

Tay-Sachs disease

Marfan syndrome

Huntington disease

sickle-cell disease
Marfan syndrome
Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder?

Marfan syndrome

sickle-cell disease

cystic fibrosis

Tay-Sachs disease

Huntington disease
Huntington disease
What type of inheritance does familial hypercholesterolemia display?

autosomal recessive

autosomal dominant

incompletely dominant

codominant

sex-linked dominant
incompletely dominant
Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait?

A

IA

XB

a

i
XB
A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.

True or False
True
When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing his or her genotype.

True or False
False
Which of the following is a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?

Heterozygotes are affected.

Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child.

Both males and females are affected with equal frequency.

Two unaffected parents will not have affected children.

All of the answer choices are characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree.
All of the answer choices are characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree.
Which variable has the stronger influence on the color of an individual's skin?

the individual's phenotype

the amount of time spent in the sun

the amount of time spent in the sun and the individual's genotype

the individual's genotype

Neither the sun nor the individual's genotype have any influence on the individual's skin color.
the amount of time spent in the sun and the individual's genotype
If an individual has the A blood type, how many different genotypes can they possess?

one

two

three

four

five
Two
Is it possible for a man with type O blood to be the father of a child with type A blood?

Yes or No
Yes
Which of the following is a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?

An affected son can have normal parents.

If a female has the trait, her father must also have it.

The characteristic often skips a generation.

If a woman has the characteristic, all of her sons will have it.

All of the answer choices are characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree.
All of the answer choices are characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree.
How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar?

Both exhibit a late onset in life.

Both are trinucleotide-repeat expansion disorders.

Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis.

Both cause autism.

Both are found only in males.
Both are trinucleotide-repeat expansion disorders.
If a mother is a carrier for color-blindness and her husband is not color-blind, what are the probable genotypes of the children?

one normal daughter, one carrier daughter, one normal son, and one color-blind son

two normal daughters, one normal son, and one color-blind son

two carrier daughters, one normal son, and one color-blind son

one normal daughter, one carrier daughter, and two normal sons

one normal daughter, one carrier daughter, and two color-blind sons
one normal daughter, one carrier daughter, one normal son, and one color-blind son
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