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BIOL 351 - Final Practice Exam

Terms in this set (109)

Group whose cells contains nucleoid

a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaea
d) Bacteria
e) Archaea and Eukaryotes
Prokaryotes
Group whose cells contain the largest ribosomes

a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaea
d) Bacteria
e) Archaea and Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes
Group whose cell membranes contain phospholipid monolayers.

a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaea
d) Bacteria
e) Archaea and Eukaryotes
Archaea
Group whose cells have walls made from peptidoglycan

a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Archaea
d) Bacteria
e) Archaea and Eukaryotes
Bacteria
The current widely accepted estimates for the origin of life on earth and formation of earth are (in years: life and earth):

a) 3.6 x 10^7 and 4.6 x 10^7
b) 3.6 x 10^8 and 4.6 x 10^8
c) 3.6 x 10^9 and 4.6 x 10^9
d) 3.6 x 10^10 and 4.6 x 10^10
e) 3.6 x 10^11 and 4.6 x 10^11
3.6 x 10^9 and 4.6 x 10^9
The categorization of cells into "three domains" of life was originally based on what evidence?

a) Cell membrane differences
b) Genome size differences
c) Small subunit ribosomal rRNA comparison
d) Large subunit ribosomal rRNA comparison
e) Amino acid sequence comparison
Small subunit ribosomal rRNA comparison
Based on this diagram, which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) 5 is equally related to 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4 are equally related to 5
c) 3 and 4 are equally related to 1
d) 4 and 5 are equally related to 1
e) 1 and 2 are more closely related to each other than to 3, 4, or 5
4 and 5 are equally related to 1
Which of the following does NOT generally apply to the bacterial cell wall?

a) It is composed of alternating NAG and NAM residues
b) Helps determine cell shape and provides rigidity
c) Its material is called peptidoglycan or murein
d) It is an important target for antibiotics
e) Crosslinking between peptides attached to NAG give the cell wall strength
Crosslinking between peptides attached to NAG give the cell wall strength
How are the shapes of bacteria labeled i, ii, iii, and iv defined?

a) Vibrio, Bacillus, Coccus, Spirochete
b) Coccus, Bacillus, Vibrio, Spirillum
c) Spirochete, Coccobacillus, Bacillus, Spirillum
d) Vibrio, Coccus, Bacillus, Spirochete
e) Vibrio, Bacillus, Spirochete, Coccus
Vibrio, Bacillus, Coccus, Spirochete
Vibrio, Bacillus, Coccus, Spirochete
Which of the following statements about active transport is TRUE?

a) It chemically modifies the molecules it carries
b) It is the same as facilitated diffusion
c) It can result in the net movement of molecules from a region of low concentration to high concentration
d) It does not require ATP or proton motive force as a source of energy
e) It always requires siderophores
It can result in the net movement of molecules from a region of low concentration to high concentration
Which of the following IS NOT a component of the bacterial cytoskeleton?

a) Actin
b) FtsZ
c) MreB
d) Crescentin
Actin
Which of the following statements concerning gas vacuoles is TRUE?

a) They can pressurize gas
b) The membrane surrounding them is a phospholipid bilayer
c) They are found only in Archaea
d) They extract carbon dioxide from air
e) They provide buoyancy
They provide buoyancy
Which of the following taxonomic ordering is correct (either top to bottom or bottom to top)?

a) domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b) domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species
c) domain, order, phylum, class, family, genus, species
d) species, genus, family, order, domain, class, phylum
e) species, genus, family, order, class, domain, phylum
domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
What does the this image represent, and where are Regions 1 and 2?

a) Gram-negative cell envelope, inside cell, outside cell
b) Gram-positive cell envelope, inside cell, outside cell
c) Gram-negative cell envelope, outside cell, inside cell
d) Gram-positive cell envelope, outside cell, inside cell
e) Archaea cell wall, outside cell, inside cell
Gram-negative cell envelope, outside cell, inside cell
What does this image show?

a) Gram-positive Bacilli (plural of bacillus) and Gram-negative Cocci (plural of coccus)
b) Gram-negative Bacilli and Gram-positive Cocci
c) Gram-positive Vibrio and Gram-negative Cocci
d) Gram-negative Spirochetes and Gram-positive Cocci
e) Gram-neutral Bacilli and Gram-positive Cocci
Gram-negative Bacilli and Gram-positive Cocci
Which of the following are arranged from smallest to largest?

a) nano, micro, milli, kilo
b) micro, nano, milli, kilo
c) 10^8 , 10^7 , 10^6
d) 10^-6 , 10^-7 , 10^-8
e) ribosome, lipid molecule, water molecule
nano, micro, milli, kilo
During flagellar-mediated motility, when the flagella spin clockwise, the bacterium tumbles. What do you predict is the consequence of reversing the spin direction?

a) The bacterium tumbles more slowly
b) The bacterium tumbles more quickly
c) The bacterium moves forward
d) The flagella become tangled and the bacterium sinks
e) The flagella cannot reverse direction
The bacterium moves forward
Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

a) Carbon
b) Zinc
c) Phosphorous
d) Calcium
e) Sulfur
Zinc
Spirulina are cyanobacteria that use light as an energy source, water as an electron source, and CO2 as a carbon source. Which type of metabolism do these organisms possess?

a) Photolithoheterotroph
b) Chemoorganoheterotroph
c) Photoorganoheterotroph
d) Photolithoautotroph
e) Not enough information to determine which type
Photolithoautotroph
Which of the following is FALSE concerning growth factors for microorganisms?

a) They are organic compounds
b) Not all microorganisms require growth factors
c) Vitamins can be growth factors
d) Glucose is considered to be a growth factor because microorganisms can grow on sugars
e) Growth factors for specific microbes must be supplied by the environment for those microbes to survive and reproduce
Glucose is considered to be a growth factor because microorganisms can grow on sugars
If an archaeon (singular of archaea) has an S-layer, where with respect to the cell will it be located?

a) Outside of the outermost layer of the cell envelope
b) Between the plasma membrane and the cell wall
c) In the cytoplasm, attached to the inner face of the plasma membrane
d) In the place where the cell wall used to be before it was replaced by the S-layer
e) Surrounding the chromosomal DNA
Outside of the outermost layer of the cell envelope
Which statement concerning the bacterial cell cycle is FALSE?

a) It is the sequence of events from the formation of a new cell through the next cell division
b) The pathways of (i) DNA replication and partitioning, and (ii) cytokinesis each must function
c) It is known as mitosis
d) Generally, bacteria must increase in size to initiate a new cell cycle
e) Defects in genes important in the cell cycle can cause cells to grow as filaments
It is known as mitosis
You have an exponentially growing batch culture of bacteria that at "time 0" contains 1 x 105 bacteria. The generation time is 2 hr. Following 6 h of additional exponential growth after "time 0", how many bacteria will there be in the culture?

a) 8 x 10^5
b) 4 x 10^5
c) 3 x 10^5
d) 2 x 10^5
e) 1 x 10^5
8 x 10^5
Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to this typical growth curve of bacteria in a batch culture? In this graph, phases of the culture are marked 1, 2, 3, and 4.

a) The X-axis is time (linear scale), the Y-axis is number of bacteria (log scale)
b) Phase 1 and 3 are known as lag phases
c) Phase 2 is known as log or exponential phase
d) Cells are the most uniform in terms of their chemical and physical properties during phase 2
e) Phase 4 is known as death phase
Phase 1 and 3 are known as lag phases
Which of the following statements concerning killing a microbial population is generally FALSE?

a) Biofilm formation can make microbes more resistant to killing agents
b) The size of the population affects the efficiency of the killing agent
c) The concentration or intensity of the killing agent affects its efficiency of killing
d) Sanitization refers to complete killing of the population
e) Both physical and chemical methods can be used to completely kill microbial populations
Sanitization refers to complete killing of the population
Which processes BEST define the major pathways for energy production in the chemoorganotroph Escherichia coli?

a) Photosynthesis and Calvin cycle
b) Substrate-level phosphorylation and glucose synthesis
c) Respiration and fermentation
d) Anabolism and catabolism
e) Glycolysis and NADH synthesis
Respiration and fermentation
Which of the following is FALSE for catabolic and anabolic pathways?

a) These pathways are reversible
b) In these pathways, the product of one reaction often serves as a substrate for the next reaction
c) Amphibolic pathways can be used catabolically or anabolically
d) They degrade and build macromolecules, respectively
e) Anabolic pathways generally do not require energy
Anabolic pathways generally do not require energy
Which of the following concerning respiration in E. coli is TRUE?

a) The electron donor is typically NAD+ or FAD+
b) The generated proton motive force is used for substrate level phosphorylation
c) Electron transfer results in the generation of proton motive force
d) The membrane potential is generated at the cell's outer membrane
e) Protons are transferred to an exogenous proton acceptor
Electron transfer results in the generation of proton motive force
Which is regarded as the most general chemical currency for energy in cells?

a) ATP
b) ADP + Pi
c) NADH
d) Proton motive forcee) Glucose
ATP
Which of the following is not produced by fermentation?

a) Soy sauce
b) Cheese
c) Yogurt
d) Coffee
e) Milk
Milk
Which of the following statements concerning metabolic fueling is FALSE?

a) The general strategy is to break-down macromolecules for fuel as needed
b) Anaerobic and aerobic respiration in principle can yield similar amounts of energy
c) Oxidative phosphorylation does not require oxygen
d) Photosynthesis provides energy but does not reduce CO2
e) Chemoorganoheterotrophs use organic carbon compounds as both energy and carbon sources
Anaerobic and aerobic respiration in principle can yield similar amounts of energy
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the TCA cycle?

a) The TCA cycle occurs in the cytoplasm of bacteria
b) Other names for the TCA cycle are the citric acid cycle and the Krebs cycle
c) A major function of running the TCA cycle in the forward direction is for respiration
d) The TCA cycle can be run in the reverse direction for direct biosynthesis
e) The TCA cycle produces NAD+ and FAD+
The TCA cycle produces NAD+ and FAD+
Using the following values for E0, which of the electron acceptors in principle should generate the most ATP during anaerobic respiration [consider NADP+ and NAD+ as interchangeable]:

a) NAD+ (-0.32)
b) NO3 - (0.421)
c) NO2 - (0.44)
d) Fe3+ (0.771)
e) O2 (0.815)
Fe3+ (0.771)
Which of the following statements concerning oxidative phosphorylation is FALSE?

a) Proton motive force is used to synthesize ATP using the F1FO ATP synthase
b) It needs a functional electron transport chain
c) NADH and FADH2 are important substrates used in this process
d) It requires O2 as the terminal electron acceptor
e) Endogenous electron acceptors are not used as the terminal electron acceptors
It requires O2 as the terminal electron acceptor
The chemical compound oligomycin, when added to cells, binds to the FO subunit of F1FO ATP synthase and blocks proton flow through the channel. Which of the following would be expected to be a consequence of adding oligomycin to cells:

a) Decrease the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation
b) Increase respiratory capacity
c) Increase cell growth
d) Increase ATP production by the ATP synthase
e) Decrease fermentation pathway use
Decrease the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation
Which of the following statements concerning fermentation is TRUE?

a) Proton motive force is used in fermentation
b) The F1FO ATP synthase is important for fermentation
c) Glucose is an important direct end-product of fermentation
d) Fermentation requires oxygen
e) Fermentation ultimately provides NAD+
Fermentation ultimately provides NAD+
Which of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan synthesis is TRUE?

a) Uridine diphosphate (UDP) derivatives of NAG and NAM combine in the periplasm
b) The pentapeptide is added to NAM in the cytoplasm.
c) Peptidoglycan contains fatty acids
d) Bactoprenol leaves the membrane each time it ferries molecules across the membrane
e) Animal cells also synthesize peptidoglycan
The pentapeptide is added to NAM in the cytoplasm
Which of the following is not a direct step in bacterial cell wall biosynthesis?

a) Synthesis of Lipid I
b) Synthesis of UDP-NAG
c) Synthesis of lipopolysaccharide
d) Polymerization of individual peptidoglycan chains
e) Cross-linking of adjacent peptidoglycan chains
Synthesis of lipopolysaccharide
The finished product of peptidoglycan synthesis is:

a) The capsule
b) The cell envelope
c) The cell matrix
d) The cell wall
e) The periplasmic space
The cell wall
Which of the following components is MOST directly responsible for the physical mechanism of E. coli chromosomal DNA replication?

a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
b) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
c) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
d) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
e) Synthesis by the ribosome
DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
Which of the following statements concerning bacterial chromosomal DNA replication is FALSE?

a) It requires the replisome
b) DNA synthesis occurs by a mechanism that is called semi-conservative
c) DNA or RNA can serve as primers for DNA synthesis
d) No special machinery is needed to complete the process of separating the duplicated chromosomes at the completion of chromosomal DNA replication
e) Chromosomal DNA replication is bi-directional and requires a defined origin
No special machinery is needed to complete the process of separating the duplicated chromosomes at the completion of chromosomal DNA replication
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is TRUE based on the model presented in class?

a) Both the leading and lagging strands are replicated continuously
b) Both the leading and lagging strands are replicated discontinuously
c) The leading strand is replicated continuously; the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously
d) The leading strand is replicated discontinuously; the lagging strand is replicated continuously
e) The leading and lagging strands are each replicated both continuously and discontinuously
The leading strand is replicated continuously; the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously
Which of the following statements concerning E. coli RNA polymerase function is TRUE?

a) Three distinct types of RNA polymerase are used: one for rRNA, one for tRNA and one for mRNA
b) RNA polymerase binds to DNA at the promoter to initiate translation
c) Fully functional enzyme requires in addition only a proper DNA template and NTPs (ATP, GTP, CTP and UTP) for normal function
d) The holoenzyme is composed of the catalytic subunits only
e) E. coli RNA polymerase requires a primer
Fully functional enzyme requires in addition only a proper DNA template and NTPs (ATP, GTP, CTP and UTP) for normal function
Which of the following statements concerning bacterial transcription is TRUE?

a) The transcript is produced by addition of nucleotides in the 3' to 5' direction
b) Rho factor is important for the transcription apparatus to remain associated with the DNA it is transcribing
c) Sigma factor is important for choosing the transcription initiation site
d) Transcription initiates at start codons
e) The promoter sequence is included in the transcript
Sigma factor is important for choosing the transcription initiation site
Which of the following components is needed for the function of Rho-independent prokaryotic transcription terminators discussed in class?

a) A GC-rich stem structure followed by a string of U nucleotides
b) A stop codon
c) A sigma factor binding site
d) A Rho factor binding site
e) A GC-rich stem structure
A GC-rich stem structure followed by a string of U nucleotides
Which of the following statements concerning bacterial translation is FALSE?

a) Aminoacylated tRNA must enter the ribosome at the ribosome E-site
b) Occurs in the same cellular compartment as transcription
c) Codon-recognition occurs in the small ribosomal subunit
d) The peptidyl-transferase reaction occurs in the large ribosomal subunit
e) The large and the small ribosomal subunits are both needed for translation elongation
Aminoacylated tRNA must enter the ribosome at the ribosome E-site
Which of the following statements concerning Escherichia coli translation is TRUE?

a) Base-pairing between the large ribosomal subunit rRNA and the mRNA is important for translation termination
b) Formyl-methionine (fMet) is used as the first amino acid to be put into new polypeptides
c) Sigma-subunit is directly important for initiating translation
d) Translation terminates when special tRNAs are used to decode stop codons
e) Deacylated tRNA can be used to insert amino acids into polypeptides if the level of aminoacylated tRNA gets too low
Formyl-methionine (fMet) is used as the first amino acid to be put into new polypeptides
What are these molecules as presented from left to right?

a) A,C,G,T,U
b) T,A,C,G,U
c) T,G,C,A,U
d) U,A,C,G,T
e) U,G,C,A,U
T,A,C,G,U
Two antibiotics that interfere with bacterial peptidoglycan synthesis and the steps they affect are:

a) bacitracin - NAG synthesis; vancomycin - pentapeptide synthesis
b) doxycycline - pentapeptide synthesis; ampicillin - crosslinking peptidoglycan chains
c) rifampin - peptidoglycan elongation; cycloserine - peptidoglycan crosslinking
d) vancomycin - peptidoglycan elongation; cycloserine - pentapeptide synthesis
e) tetracycline - crosslinking peptidoglycan chains; bacitracin - membrane shuttling of peptidoglycan subunits
vancomycin - peptidoglycan elongation; cycloserine - pentapeptide synthesis
Based on the genetic code table, what are the FIRST THREE AMINO ACIDS encoded by the following DNA sequence, starting at the +1 nucleotide:
AUGCAUGGAUAG

a) Met His Gly
b) Cys Met Asp
c) Ala Trp Ile
d) Ile Gln Gly
Met His Gly
John Snow developed a detailed map (the "ghost map") to investigate the etiology of which disease?

A. anthrax
B. botulism
C. cholera
D. listeriosis
cholera
Robert Koch was the first to conclusively determine the causative agent of which disease?

A. anthrax
B. gonorrhea
C. syphilis
D. tuberculosis
anthrax
Which term refers to the study of the geographic distribution of disease and its transmission?

A. epidemiology
B. etiology
C. morbidology
D. pathology
epidemiology
Malarial disease in Brazil is an example of which type of disease?

A. endemic
B. epidemic
C. pandemic
D. sporadic
endemic
Which agency monitors notifiable diseases in the United States?

A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B. Environmental Protection Agency
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. Homeland Security
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Who is credited for first finding a naturally occurring antimicrobial agent?

A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Edward Jenner
D. Joseph Lister
Alexander Fleming
Which of the following is not a b-lactam antibiotic?

A. carbapenem
B. cephalosporin
C. penicillin
D. tetracycline
tetracycline
How does bacitracin work?

A. Bacitracin binds to penicillin-binding proteins, thus inhibiting the transglycosylation reaction during cell wall synthesis.
B. Bacitracin binds to penicillin-binding proteins, thus inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction during cell wall synthesis.
C. Bacitracin blocks the movement of peptidoglycan subunits from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell.
D. Bacitracin inserts into the plasma membrane, causing cell lysis
Bacitracin blocks the movement of peptidoglycan subunits from the cytoplasm to the exterior of the cell.
An Etest® is a clinical tool used for the determination of

A. enteric presence.
B. Escherichia coli O157:H7 presence.
C. the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) value of an antimicrobial agent.
D. pathogenic enzyme activity.
the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) value of an antimicrobial agent.
Robert Koch contributed to the field of microbiology by being the first person to

A. develop the tuberculin test only.
B. formulate four postulates for definitively linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease only.
C. use agar as a solidifying agent in growth media only.
D. develop the tuberculin test, formulate four postulates for definitively linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease, and use agar as a solidifying agent in growth media.
develop the tuberculin test, formulate four postulates for definitively linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease, and use agar as a solidifying agent in growth media.
Which drug(s) would you recommend to treat penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A. ampicillin
B. metronidazole
C. ceftriaxone
D. both metronidazole and ceftriaxone
ceftriaxone
Chemotaxis in bacteria occurs through the use of

A. adaptation.
B. quorum sensing.
C. autoinduction.
D. a modified two-component system
a modified two-component system
Quorum sensing is a regulatory system that requires a certain cell density to work effectively Each of the following activities utilizes quorum sensing EXCEPT:

A. Staphylococcus aureus infection.
B. transition of Candida albicans from budding yeast to elongated filaments.
C. flagella synthesis in Proteus vulgaris.
D. light emission by Aliivibrio fischeri.
flagella synthesis in Proteus vulgaris
A bacterium that either partially or fully catabolizes an acyl-homoserine lactone will likely disrupt

A. attenuation.
B. chemotaxis.
C. endospore formation.
D. quorum sensing.
quorum sensing.
Which pathogen causes severe diarrhea?

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio cholerae
Which of the following secretes virulence factors such as KatG, a catalase-peroxidase, and SodA, a superoxide dismutase to get rid of hydrogen peroxide inside the phagosome?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Escherichia coli
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The initial infective stage of the malarial parasite is the

A. sporozoite.
B. merozoite.
C. schizont.
D. hypnozoite
sporozoite
Trypanosoma and Leishmania species are transmitted by

A. direct person-to-person contact.
B. insect vectors.
C. contaminated food or water.
D. contaminated needles and syringes
insect vectors
Hemoflagellates that cause tropical diseases such as sleeping sickness and Chagas disease are all transmitted by

A. contact with fecal contaminated soil.
B. contact with contaminated water.
C. insect vectors.
D. sexual contact.
insect vectors
The tsetse fly transmits which disease?

A. African sleeping sickness
B. leishmaniasis
C. malaria
D. typhus
African sleeping sickness
Hershey and Chase (1952) used infection with phage T2 to determine which molecule was the genetic material. In their studies, in which radioactively labeled phage were used to successfully infect host cells to produce new phage, which phage component(s) entered the cell:

a) 32P-labeled DNA but not 35S-labeled protein
b) 35S-labeled protein but not 32P-labeled DNA
c) Both 35S-labeled protein and 32P-labeled DNA
d) Neither 35S-labeled protein nor 32P-labeled DNA
32P-labeled DNA but not 35S-labeled protein
Which of the following concerning Hfr conjugation is FALSE?

a) The recipient is converted to a donor at very low efficiency
b) The F factor in the donor is integrated into its chromosomal DNA
c) The donor's chromosomal DNA is generally at least partially transferred to the recipient
d) For Escherichia coli, it takes approximately 100 minutes for complete transfer of genetic information by Hfr conjugation
e) The F factor origin of transfer acts bidirectionally
The F factor origin of transfer acts bidirectionally
Based on the data in the table, which linear transfer map best represents the chromosome with the F+ labeled 1?

a) O-leu-pro-gal-mal-mtl
b) O-mtl-mal-gal-pro-leu
c) O-leu-mtl-pro-mal-gal
d) O-gal-mal-pro-mtl-leue) gal-mal-pro-mtl-O-leu
O-leu-pro-gal-mal-mtl
Which of the following statements concerning specialized transduction is FALSE?

a) The transducing phage particle provides a mechanism for horizontal gene transfer
b) The transducing phage particle contains only bacterial DNA
c) The transducing phage particle produces phage progeny upon infection
d) Transducing phage particles originate from a lysogenic infection
e) The transducing phage contains both bacterial and phage genes in its genome
The transducing phage particle contains only bacterial DNA
Which of the following is FALSE concerning F' factors?

a) F' factors are packaged into phage particles for specialized transduction
b) F' factors have roles in conjugation
c) F' factors can exist in double-strand DNA form
d) F' factors efficiently transfer to recipient cells
e) A specific F' factor contains a specific fragment of bacterial DNA that derives from a previous aberrant excision event
F' factors are packaged into phage particles for specialized transduction
Which of the following is FALSE concerning the F-pilus?

a) The pilus is important for natural competence
b) The pilus brings donor and recipient cells together
c) The pilus is produced by the donor cell
d) The pilus is needed for conjugation to occur
e) The pilus enables horizontal gene transfer
The pilus is important for natural competence
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the function of the CRISPR locus?

a) The CRISPR locus cannot target the bacterial genome due to the absence of the PAM sequence adjacent to the CRISPR RNA binding site in the host genome.
b) Each CRISPR RNA is expressed from its own promoter.
c) The CRISPR locus has no role in bacterial survival during a phage infection.
d) The CRISPR RNA directly targets invading phage or plasmid DNA which then results in the inactivation of the invading DNA.
e) None of the above are true.
The CRISPR RNA directly targets invading phage or plasmid DNA which then results in the inactivation of the invading DNA.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Cos sequence of lambda phage?

a) The Cos sequence is what is recognized by the terminase complex during DNA packaging into the phage capsid.
b) The Cos sequence allows the linear lambda phage DNA to circularize upon infection of a new host.
c) The Cos sequence is a G + C rich sequence.
d) Cos sequences function as the transcriptional start site to express the LamB protein.
e) The Cos sequences at each end of the phage DNA are homologous
Cos sequences function as the transcriptional start site to express the LamB protein.
Which of the following properly lists (in order) the steps of viral replication?

a) Attachment --> Lysis --> Penetration --> Biosynthesis --> Maturation
b) Attachment --> Penetration --> Biosynthesis --> Maturation --> Lysis
c) Biosynthesis --> Attachment --> Penetration --> Lysis --> Maturation
d) Penetration --> Biosynthesis --> Lysis --> Attachment --> Maturation
Attachment --> Penetration --> Biosynthesis --> Maturation --> Lysis
Which of the following is the host-cell receptor that recognizes human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A. CD4
B. CD8
C. Gp120
D. sialic acid
CD4
Which virus - HSV, HIV, or Influenza,- does not have a DNA stage for the viral genome in its life cycle?

a) Herpes Simplex Virus
b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c) Influenza Virus
d) All of the above have a DNA stage in their life cycle
Influenza Virus
Which of the following best describes bacterial sporulation?

a) Gene expression in the forespore and the mother cell compartments proceed independently of what occurs in the other compartment.
b) The resulting spore is metabolically active but resists many harsh conditions.
c) A cascade of sigma factor activations leads to the development of the spore.
d) After sporulation is complete, the spore will only survive in an environment for a couple of years before dying.
e) All of the above describe bacterial sporulation.
A cascade of sigma factor activations leads to the development of the spore
As discussed in class, which of the following is NOT associated with Clostridium difficile?

a) Infection by C. difficile spores results in a soft-tissue infection.
b) Fecal transplants can be used to successfully treat C. difficile infection.
c) C. difficile makes two toxins that lead to host cell toxicity.
d) C. difficile forms endospores.
e) Antibiotic treatment is generally needed to initiate a C. difficile infection.
Infection by C. difficile spores results in a soft-tissue infection.
Two species of bacteria live in near each other and use similar food resources. Which type of biological interaction does this describe?

A. a competitive interaction
B. a cooperative interaction
C. a mutualistic interaction
D. a parasitic interaction
a competitive interaction
The human microbiome consists of which of the following?

A. all microbes present on or in the body
B. pathogenic microbes only
C. resident microbes only
D. transient microbes only
all microbes present on or in the body
What are cationic antimicrobial peptides (CAMPs)?

a) CAMPs are amino acid-based molecules that can inhibit the growth of bacteria.
b) CAMPs are a component of the adaptive immune system.
c) CAMPs are positively charged enzymes that actively degrade bacterial cell walls.
d) CAMPs are iron-sequestering proteins, similar to lactoferrin.
e) CAMPs are secondary messengers generated by adenylate cyclase.
CAMPs are amino acid-based molecules that can inhibit the growth of bacteria
Which type of cells line the inner surface of blood vessels to prevent microbes from gaining access to blood?

A. ciliated epithelial cells
B. endothelial cells
C. keratinized squamous epithelial cells
D. squamous epithelial cells
endothelial cells
Which antimicrobial enzyme is found in saliva?

A. amylase
B. haptocorrin
C. lactoperoxidase
D. opiorphin
lactoperoxidase
Examine the diagram of peptidoglycan. Which bond (A-D) is targeted by lysozyme?

A
B
C
D
A
Defensins target which process or structure of a microbial cell?

A. cell membrane
B. cell wall
C. DNA synthesis
D. protein synthesis
cell membrane
Toll-like receptors are examples of which of the following?

A. NAMs
B. NKCs
C. PAMPs
D. PRRs
PRRs
Which of the following is FALSE concerning the innate immune system?

a) The innate immune system can function in an opsonin-independent manner.
b) The complement proteins of the innate immune system have memory and respond to the pathogen faster upon second exposure.
c) The innate immune system is considered the first line of defense against microbes or foreign material.
d) The innate immune system can detect pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).
e) The innate immune system uses neutrophils and macrophages as the primary immune cells.
The complement proteins of the innate immune system have memory and respond to the pathogen faster upon second exposure.
As discussed in class, which of the following events trigger apoptosis of a cell?

a) Phagocytosis of a microorganism by a macrophage will trigger apoptosis of the phagocytosed microorganism.
b) T-helper cell (TH) recognition of an antigen presented in MHC Class II will trigger apoptosis of the cell presenting the antigen.
c) Cytotoxic T-cell recognition of an antigen presented in MHC Class I will trigger apoptosis of the cell presenting the antigen.
d) T-cell activation of a B-cell will lead to the apoptosis of the T-cell.
e) TLR-recognition of bacterial PAMPs by a neutrophil will trigger apoptosis of the neutrophil.
Cytotoxic T-cell recognition of an antigen presented in MHC Class I will trigger apoptosis of the cell presenting the antigen.
Which of the following best describes the difference between MHC Class I and MHC Class II?

a) MHC Class I presents antigens derived from inside the cell while MHC Class II presents antigens derived from outside the cell.
b) MHC Class II is present on all nucleated cells, while MHC Class I is present phagocytic cells.
c )MHC Class II recognizes antigens that B-cells present while MHC Class I recognizes antigens that cytotoxic T-cells present.
d) MHC Class I works with Toll-like receptors to trigger apoptosis while MHC Class II works with Nod receptors to trigger phagocytosis.
e) MHC Class I is a component of the adaptive immune system while MHC Class II is a component of the innate immune system.
MHC Class I presents antigens derived from inside the cell while MHC Class II presents antigens derived from outside the cell.
Which of the following is an example of active immunity?

a) Mother's antibodies passing across the placenta to the fetus.
b) Mother's antibodies passing to newborn through milk.
c) Injection of antibodies into a host.
d) Antibodies generated from injection of a killed microorganism into a host.
e) All of the above are examples of active immunity.
Antibodies generated from injection of a killed microorganism into a host.
Which molecular fragment on an antigen molecule do antibodies recognize and respond to?

A. epitope
B. Fab region
C. Fc region
D. variable region
epitope
On an antibody, where do phagocytic cells bind during antibody-mediated opsonization?

A. disulfide bond
B. Fab region
C. Fc region
D. variable region
Fc region
Which process describes the cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies so the kidney and spleen can filter them from the blood?

A. agglutination
B. complementation
C. neutralization
D. transformation
agglutination
Which complement cascade begins with antibodies binding to a pathogen?

A. alternative only
B. classical only
C. lectin only
D. all three pathways (alternative, classic, and lectin)
classical only
A cell that has been infected with an intracellular pathogen will be targeted for destruction by which type of lymphocyte?

A. B cell
B. CD4+ regulatory T cell
C. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell
D. plasma cell
CD8+ cytotoxic T cell
Helper T cells are activated by which of the following?

A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. either MHC class I or class II
D. both MHC class I and class II presenting the same antigen
MHC class II
Cytotoxic T cells are activated by which of the following?

A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. either MHC class I or class II
D. both MHC class I and class II presenting the same antigen
MHC class I
Which of the following is the primary function of B cells?

A. to activate T cells
B. to phagocytose pathogens
C. to produce antibodies
D. to target and destroy cells infected with an intracellular pathogen
to produce antibodies
After antigen presentation and activation, antibodies are produced and secreted by which cells?

A. CD4 T cells
B. memory T cells
C. naïve B cells
D. plasma cells
plasma cells
"Children living on farms have a lower risk of asthma than children who don't because they are surrounded by a greater variety of germs."

yes
no
yes
You are working with a normal E.coli strain such as used by Jacob and Monod which can produce CAP and cAMP as described in class. When glucose and lactose are both present in the growth medium, what best describes the expression of the lac operon:

a) cyclic AMP is high, but CAP is modified by lactose so that binding to the activator binding site is non-productive and transcription of lac is turned off
b) cyclic AMP is high, CAP binds to the activator binding site, and transcription of lac is turned on
c) cyclic AMP is low, CAP binds to the activator binding site, and transcription of lac is turned on
d) cyclic AMP is high, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription of lac is turned on
e) cyclic AMP is low, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription of lac is turned off
cyclic AMP is low, CAP does not bind to the activator binding site, and transcription of lac is turned off
A scientist wants a mutant phage. This mutant phage would not have the cI protein. What is the consequence for the bacteria when infected with the cImutant phage?

A. No consequence
B. Lysis only phenotype
C. Lysogen only phenotype
D. The scientist is not able to make a cI mutant
Lysis only phenotype
Is holin formation and lysis immediate or gradual?

immediate
gradual
immediate
Which step in the viral life cycle do you think would be best to target as a drug therapy?

A) Entry
B) Microtubule trafficking
C) DNA replication
D) Viral Release
DNA replication
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