Anesthesia study guide vet240

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What are vet tech's responsibilities during anesthesia?

a. maintain anesthetic equipment
b. administer anesthetic agents (premeds, induction agents)
c. intubate patient and monitor
d. all of the above
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Terms in this set (151)
What are vet tech's responsibilities during anesthesia?

a. maintain anesthetic equipment
b. administer anesthetic agents (premeds, induction agents)
c. intubate patient and monitor
d. all of the above
D
Anesthesia is the loss of sensation in a body part or in the whole body? True or false.

a. true
b. false
A
Analgesic is the absence of pain or perception. True or false?

a. true
b. false
A
A class V ASA status defines a patient that is at minimal risk, such as a routine dental or OHE.
True or false?

a. True
b. False
B
Patients in ASA class II would fit which patients characteristics?

a. OHE
b. liver failure
c. geriatric/pediatric
d. cardiac disease
C
The lower the number of the controlled substance, the lower amount of abuse potential. T or F?

a. true
b. false
B
Class II controlled substance drugs include:

a. morphine
b. fentanyl
c. hydromorphone
d. all of the above
D
What is an acceptable plane of anesthesia for intubation?

a. stage 3 plane II
b. Stage 3 plane I
c. stage 2
d. stage 3 plane IV
B
What is considered the "excitement stage" of anesthesia?

a. stage II
b. stage III plane 1
c. stage III plane 3
d. stage I
A
Stage III plane 2 is a moderate plane of anesthesia that is appropriate for surgery. T or F

a. True
b. false
A
Which part of the anesthesia process is the most dangerous for a patient? a. premedication b. recovery c. induction d. they all carry equal risksBThe sympathetic nervous system (SNS) allows for the a. "fight or flight" response b. "rest or digest" responseAWhich electrical impulse starts the cardiac conductivity? a. purkinje fibers b. AV node c. SA node d. bundle of hisCArteries bring blood to the heart. T or F? a. true b. falseBCardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute. T or F? a. true b. falseAMost anesthetic drugs cause... a. hypotension b. hypertension c. bothAHow can you correct hypotension? a. decrease vaporizer setting b. decrease IV fluids c. administer a breathAVentilation is movement of gas into and out of the lungs. T or F? a. true b. falseATidal volume is: a. air inspired and expired during 1 minute b. exchange of O2 and CO2 within the pulmonary capillaries c. volume of air inspire and expired during 1 breath d. volume of air not participating in gas exchangeCIPPV stands for "intermittent positive pressure ventilation" and can be be performed to prevent collapsed lung a. true b. falseTrueWhen performing IPPV or a pressure check on your anesthesia machine, you never want the manometer to read higher than a. 20mmHg b. 20 cm h20 c. 15mmHg d. 30cm h20BWhat is included in signalment? a. breed b. age c. male/female altered d. all of the aboveDWhat is included on an informed consent? a. hospital name b. date c. client name/signature d. all of the aboveDIn the controlled substances log, what is NOT included? a. number of bottle used b. name of who prescribed it c. patient information/ID d. amount used/remainingBWhat is NOT considered "routine" pre-diagnostic test to complete before an anesthetic procedure? a. CBC b. radiographs c. serum chemistry d. pcvBWhat are some abnormal preanesthetic PE findings to report to the DVM? a. dehydration b. increased temp c. weak pulse d. all of the aboveDA normal BCS for a cat and dog is considered a 6 out of a 9 point scale. T or F a. true b. falseFalse"SOAP" stands for a. what you use to wash your hands b. subjective, objective, assessment, plan c.statement, observation, association, placement, d. surgery, ocular, auricle, paymentBWhich patients should be fasted? a. exotics b. cats c. neonates d. diabeticsBCats and dogs can have free choice water before a surgery. T or F? a. true b. falseAThe larger the number, the smaller the diameter of a catheter you have a. true b. falseAWhat are some lab tests we can perform to assess a patient's dehydration? a. pcv b. urine SG c. BUN d. all of the aboveDA patient with mild dehydration (5%) presents as a. lethargic b. moderate skin turgor c. tachycardia d. semi-dry mucous membranesDsurgical fluid rate for a cat is: a. 3 ml/kg/hr b. 5 ml/kg/hr c. 10 ml/kg/hrAColloids provide water and electrolytes to patients. T or F? a. true b. falseBExamples of crystalloids include a. LRS b. packed RBC's c. vetastarch d. dextranADEA stands for a. denatured erythrocyte antibody b. dog erythrocyte antibody c. dog erythrocyte antigen d. dog erythrocyte agentCCats are on the ____ system for blood typing a. DEA b. AB c. FEA d. FBIBThe blood group of canines that is considered a "universal donor" a. DEA 1.1 negative b. DEA 1.1 positive c. DEA 1.2 positive d. DEA 1.2 negativeAWhat are common signs of pain in an animal? a. hunched posture b. aggression c. lethargy d. all of the aboveDWhich part of the pain pathway comes first? a. perception b. modulation c. transmission d. transductionDCSU canine/feline score ranges from 0-5. T or F? a. true b. falseBHow are anesthetic drugs categorized? a. route of administration b. time period when given c. class/chemical make-up d. all of the aboveDPre-medications are given 15-20 mins before induction. T or F? a. true b. falseAWhich anticholinergic drug is less likely to cause tachycardia? a. atropine b. glycopyrrolateBAnticholinergic drugs can go which of the following route? a. SQ b. IC and IT c. IM d. all of the aboveDPhenothiazine's are classified as major tranquilizers. T or F? a. true b. falseAAcepromazine should not be used in a. horses b. boxers c. collies d. all of the aboveDWhich route for a phenothiazine tranquilizer will cause hypotension? a. PO b. SQ c. IM d. IVDOpioids can often be used interchangeably with the term "narcotics", T or F? a. true b. falseAAll of the following are opioids EXCEPT a. acepromazine b. morphine c. hydromorphone d. butorphanolAThe most clinically significant reversal agent for opioids is Naloxone. T or F? a. true b. falseAButorphanol can partially reverse pure agonists a. true b. falseABuprenorphine is one of the ONLY opioids that cant be reversed a. true b. falseAMorphine is a schedule III controlled substance a. true b. falseBThe use of hydromorphone can cause all the following EXCEPT.. a. large amount of histamine to be released b. bradycardia c. hyperthermia d. respiratory depressionAFentanyl can be used as a time-released patch for ____ hours of analgesic? a. 12-24 b. 4-8 c.48-72 d. 24-48CBuprenorphine can be used for moderate pain a. true b. falseATramadol can be used for post-surgical or chronic pain in an injectable form a. true b.falseBApomorphine is an opioid that can be used off-label to induce vomiting in dogs a. true b. falseAAll of the following are true about benzodiazepines EXCEPT... a. they are light sensitive b. they can be combined with other drugs c. anticonvulsant activity d. all of the above is considered trueDBenzodiazepines have a high margin of safety, which makes them safe for geriatric patients a. true b. falseAThe reversal for benzodiazepines is a. xylazine b. flumazenil c. propofolBDiazepam can be administered IM and SQ only. a. true b. falseBDiazepam is.. a. light sensitive b. binds to syringes/IV tubing c. is a controlled substance d. all of the aboveDmidazolam is similar to diazepam, but some differences are/is a. water soluble b. does not bind to plastic c. both a & b d. false question, they aren't similarCA-2 agonists are known for causing a. bradycardia b. bradypenia c. reaction to surrounding stimulus d. all of the aboveDA-2 agonists can provide mild sedation and no analgesic a. true b. falseBA-2 can be used as pre-meds or induction agents a. true b. falseASileo is a gel that can be applied for noise aversion in dogs that lasts for 2-3 hours a. true b. falseAXylazine is the choice of an off label emetic in cats a. true b. falseAThe onset of action for xylazine is a. 3-5 mins IV b. 5-15 mins IM c. both answers above are correct d. both answers above are incorrectCYohimbine can be used to reverse Xylazine a. true b. falseADexdomitor can be used for minor procedures but can cause patients to become easily around by stimuli a. true b. falseAAtipamazole (antisedan) can be used IV to reverse dexdomitor a.true b.falseANSAIDs have many benefits including a. they are not controlled substances b. little to no effects on CV or resp system with NO CNS depression c. used for acute and chronic pain d. all of the aboveDNSAIDs are put into categories of COX-1, COX-2 and non-cox products a.true b.falseACarprofen (rimadyl) is one of the most common prescribed veterinary NSAIDS a. true b. falseARobenacoxib (Onsior) is a COX-2 NSAID that can be used for dogs only a. true b. falseBLocal anesthetics can decrease the amount of inhalant used a.true b.falseAGalliprant is one of the non-cox NSAIDs that is known for causing less liver/kidney damage than an... a. true b. falseALidocaine is known for a. given IV for cats b. having a slow onset c. given in combo with epinephrine d. none of the aboveDBupivicaine can be administered IV a. true b. falseAThe induction phase is when a patient leaves a normal state of consciousness to enter an... a. true b. falseAA titration method is when an IV induction drug is given.. a. rapidly and calculated dose given in one smooth unit b. in increments of 1/3 to 1/4 to see how patient tolerates it c. administration of micro-doses overtime d. none of theseBBarbiturates are not used in patients with low body fat a. true b. falseABarbiturates are classified in either long, short, or ultra-short acting a. true b. falseAPhenobarbital is... a. a schedule IV substance b. considered long acting c. used for seizures d. all of the aboveDPentobarbital is considered all of the following EXCEPT a. a short acting drug b. used for a euthanasia solution c. not really used for induction anymore d. a controlled IV substanceDDissociative agents can cause a. profound amnesia b. superficial analgesic c. catalepsy d. all of the aboveDThe cardiovascular and respiratory system are unchanged with dissociatives a. true b. falseBKetamine and diazepam (ket/val) is a common drug combo for induction a. true b. falseAKetamine is considered which of the following... a. a controlled substance b. can be administered IV, IM, or PO c. can increase body temp d. all of the aboveDTiletamine is the drug of choice for immobilizing wildlife a. true b. falseAHypnotic agents include propofol, etomadate, and alflaxolone a. true b. falseAPropofol is a controlled substance a. true b. falseBWhen measuring the ET tube length, you start at the incisors to the point of the thoracic inlet a. true b. falseAWhen measuring the ET tube width, all of the following are accurate EXCEPT a. measure width of nasal septum b. palpation of the trachea c. weight chart d. all above are correctDAll can be ways to confirm ET tube placement, but which is the MOST ACCURATE? a. palpation of the animal's neck b. watch the reservoir bag c. ETCO2 monitor d. coughing reflexCWhat is generally considered to be the minimum acceptable heart rate in an anesthetized feline patient? a.140 bpm b.120 bpm c.100 bpm d.80 bpm e.60 bpm f.None of theseCThe audible sound coming from the Doppler probe is produced by red blood cells circulating through the: a.Vein b.Artery c.Capillaries d.Mucous membranesBThe use of oscillometric blood pressure monitoring should be reserved for patients weighing more than how many kilos because of inaccuracies in smaller patients? a.2 kg b.3 kg c.4 kg d.5 kgDBlood pressure cuff placement is common in all of the following areas except the: a.Tail b.Forelimb c.Hind limb d.FootDWhich of the following provides a noninvasive method for assessing ventilation, cardiac output, pulmonary perfusion, and systemic metabolism? a.Electrocardiograph b.Capnograph c.Central venous pressure d.Arterial blood gasBTreatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes: a.Turning up the anesthetic gas b.Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids c.Increasing the flow of oxygen d.Giving ventilating breathsBThe EKG strip below was recorded at 50 mm/sec. What is the rhythm? a.Ventricular fibrillation b.Atrial flutter c.Ventricular tachycardia d.3rd degree AV block e.Premature atrial contractions f.None of theseCWhich species is most prone to developing malignant hyperthermia? a.Canine b.Feline c.Equine d.Bovine e.Small ruminants f.None of theseFIdeally, in a patient under general anesthesia; a. the PaO2 should be high, and PaCO2 should be high b.The PaO2 should be low, and PaCO2 should be low c. The PaO2 should be high, and PaCO2 should be low d. The PaO2 should be low, and PaCO2 should be high e. The PaO2 and PaCO2 should be equal f. None of theseCWhich of the following would NOT be an appropriate measure to take if your patient vomits during the recovery period? a.Elevate the patient's head approximately 15 degrees b.Lavage the patient's mouth c.Suction the patient's mouth, pharynx and ET tube d.Auscultate the patient's thorax e.Obtain thoracic radiographs f.None of theseAThe end tidal capnometer measures which of the following parameters? a.Systolic blood pressure only b.Electrical activity of the heart c.The amount of CO2 present in expired air d.The percent of hemoglobin that is saturated with O2 e. Diastolic blood pressure only f.None of theseCWhich of the following would be contraindicated when to treat hypercapnia in an anesthetized patient? a.increase O2 flow rate b.Decrease ("turn down") anesthetic vaporizer setting c.Perform IPPV d.Increase ("turn up") anesthetic vaporizer setting e.All of these f.None of theseDThe normal blood pressure range for canine and feline patients is: a.80/120 cmH2O b.100/70 mmHg c.120/80 cmH2O d.120/80 mmHg e.80/120 mmHg f.None of theseDBlue mucous membranes in an anesthetized patient would be caused by all the following EXCEPT: a.Hypoxia b.Anemia c.Apnea d.Obstructed ET tube e.All of these f.None of theseBWhat is generally considered to be the minimum acceptable heart rate in an anesthetized canine patient? a.120 bpm b.100 bpm c.80 bpm d.60 bpm e.40 bpm f.None of theseDThe small oxygen tank that attaches to the anesthesia machine is labeled as what type of tank? a."E" b."H" c."J" d."G"AWhat shows the amount of oxygen the patient is receiving? a.Oxygen tank pressure gauge b.Flowmeter c.Pressure manometer d.VaporizerBIn which organ are most inhalant anesthetic drugs metabolized (biotransformed)? a.Skin b.Lungs c.Eye d.LiverWhat is the main component of soda lime (a substance used to absorb carbon dioxide from the breathing system)? a.Carbon dioxide b.Potassium hydroxide c.Calcium hydroxide d.Baking sodaCWhich of the following factors do not influence MAC? a.Age b.Temperature c.Sex d.StressCA partial/semi-closed rebreathing system allows excess gas to either exit the system via the pop-off valve, or to return to the patient through the carbon dioxide absorber to be rebreathed. a.True b.FalseAWhich of the following would you expect to see with administration of an inhalant anesthetic agent? a.Increase in PaO2 b.Increase in heart rate c.Hypertension d.Reduced systemic vascular resistance e.All of these f.None of theseDWhich of the following statements regarding MAC are NOT true? a.1.5x the MAC will provide a surgical plane of anesthesia in most patients. b.Several factors, including the length of an anesthetic procedure, will decrease the MAC of a given volatile agent. c.MAC is expressed as a percent (%) and corresponds with the settings on the vaporizer d.A balanced multimodal protocol can decrease the MAC of a given volatile agent. e.All of these f.None of theseBAn EKG monitor provides information on all of the following EXCEPT: a.An accurate heart rate b.Specific diagnosis of cardiac arrhythmias c.Regurgitant blood flow caused by valvular insufficiency d.Myocardial depolarization and repolarization e.All of these f.None of theseCAll inhalant anesthetic agents are potent cardiopulmonary depressants. a.True b.FalseAThe EKG strip below was recorded at 50 mm/sec. What is the heart rate? a.360 bpm b.520 bpm c.180 bpm d.260 bpm e.180 bpm f.None of theseWhich of the following is NOT an acceptable means of treating hypotension in an anesthetized patient? a.Administer IV atropine b.Increase IV fluid rate c.Increase ("turn up") the inhalant anesthetic d.Administer IV dobutamine e.All of these f.None of theseCRubber solubility describes the tendency of an inhalant agent to bind to certain components of the anesthetic machine and circuit, which can decrease the amount of gas the patient receives. a.True b.FalseAThe two main types of inhalant anesthetic agents used in veterinary medicine are organic gases and volatile liquids. a.True b.FalseBBlue mucous membranes in an anesthetized patient would be caused by all the following EXCEPT: a.Hypoxia b.Anemia c.Apnea d.Obstructed ET tube e.All of these f.None of theseBWhich of the following would be the MOST effective method for treating hypothermia and rewarming an anesthetized or post-operative patient? a.Heating disk b.Electric heating pad c.Bair Hugger d.Circulating warm water blanket e.All of these f.None of theseCWhich of the following components is NOT a part of a non-rebreathing circuit? a.CO2absorber b.Reservoir bag c.Precision vaporizer d.ET tube e.All of these f.None of theseAYou have a 40 kg patient scheduled for an anesthetic procedure. What should the oxygen flow rate be during maintenance with sevoflurane? a.0.5 L/min b.1 L/min c.2 L/min d.3 L/min e.4 L/min f.None of theseAt both light and deep planes of anesthesia, a patient's eyes are in a __________ position. a.Ventral b.Eccentric c.Temporal d.Central e.Dorsal f.None of theseDWhich of the following sequences accurately depicts the cardiac conduction pathway? a.AV node,SA node à Bundle of HIS L & R Bundle branches Purkinje fibers b.SA node AV node L & R Bundle branches Bundle of HIS Purkinje fibers c.SV node AV node Bundle of HIS L & R Bundle branches Purkinje fibers d.Bundle of HIS AV node L & R Bundle branches SA node Purkinje fibers e.SA node AV node Bundle of HIS L & R Bundle branches Purkinje fibers f.None of theseWhich of the following is the MOST important when monitoring anesthesia? a.ETCO2 b.EKG c.Doppler blood pressure monitor d.Thermometer e.All of these are equally important f.The anesthetistFAfter turning off the vaporizer at the end of an anesthetic procedure, how long should a NORMAL patient be maintained on 100% oxygen before disconnecting the ET tube from the anesthetic circuit? a.10 minutes b.5 minutes c.7 minutes d.Until they are chewing at the ET tube e.Until they swallow two times f.None of theseBWhich of the following would NOT be included in the daily preanesthetic check of an anesthetic machine? a.Pressure/leak testing the machine b.Checking and filling the vaporizer with inhalant agent, if needed c.Weighing the passive scavenger canister d.Calibrating the vaporizer e.All of these f.None of theseD__________ can occur due to rapid recovery from sevoflurane inhalant anesthesia. a.Diffusion hypoxia b.Second gas effect c.Emergence delirium d.Analgesia e.All of these f.None of theseCThe MAC value of a volatile agent describes how readily the liquid agent evaporates within the anesthetic vaporizer. a.True b.FalseBWhich of the following is NOT a location where a pulse oximeter sensor can be placed? a.Tongue b.Pinna c.Prepuce d.Lip e.Base of tail f.All of these sites can be usedFWhen providing assisted ventilation/IPPV, which of the following statements is true? a.The pop-off valve is open b.The pressure in the circuit should not exceed 20 cmH2O c.The patient's chest should not move d.The anesthetist should smell Isoflurane e.All of these f.None of theseBAll inhalant anesthetic machines should have which of the following? a.A non-precision vaporizer b.A nitrous oxide flowmeter c.An anesthetic waste gas scavenger d.A CO2 absorber canister e.All of these f.None of theseCWhich of the following are properties of halothane? a.Color-coded red for easy identification b.Partially metabolized by the liver c.Poor analgesic d.Associated with malignant hyperthermia e.All of these f.None of theseFWhich of the following are properties of halothane? a.Color-coded red for easy identification b.Partially metabolized by the liver c.Poor analgesic d.Associated with malignant hyperthermia e.All of these f.None of theseEA non-rebreathing system has the highest oxygen and inhalant anesthetic flow rates, but is best for use in patients who are >15 kg because it minimizes dead space and resistance to breathing. a.True b.FalseBWhich of the following statements regarding the regulator, or pressure-reducing valve, on an anesthetic machine is true? a.It allows O2 to bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer, administering pure O2 to the patient b.Directs the gases in only one direction c.Allows excess pressure to be released from the system d.Decreases high, variable tank pressure to 45-50 psi e.All of these f.None of theseDThe EKG strip below was recorded at 25 mm/sec. What is the heart rate? a.60 bpm b.20 bpm c.40 bpm d.120 bpm e.None of theseBOxygen flowmeters which have a ball within the gauge, should be read from the top of the ball. a.True b.FalseBIn the United States isoflurane is labelled for use in dogs and cats. a.True b.FalseBWhich of the following is NOT a reason that patients are maintained on 100% oxygen after turning off the anesthetic vaporizer? a.To prevent hypoxia b.To flush anesthetic gas from the patient's lungs c.To decrease exposure to WAGs d.The patient's O2 requirements can increase by up to 600% during recovery e.All of these f.None of theseFIf inhalant anesthetic "X" has a MAC of 4.2 while inhalant anesthetic "Y" has a MAC of 3.5%, then anesthetic agent "X" is _____ potent than anesthetic agent "Y". a.More b.Less c.Equally d.You cannot compare the two gases based upon this informationB