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advanced biology - Mr. ostrichman Chapter 1-5 and chapter 8-10

Terms in this set (375)

Biologists claim what is the foundation for the unity of life?
DNA
Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which one of the following sequences illustrates that hierarchy as it increases in complexity?

a. ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, tissue

b. organism, organ system, tissue, population, organ, community, cell, ecosystem, molecule

c. cell, molecule, organ system, organ, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community

d. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem

e. ecosystem, molecule, cell, tissue, organism, organ system, organ, community
d. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, wasps, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, all these organisms are
community
a tentative explanation for a specific phenomenon
hypothesis
If a light switch is moved from the "off" to the "on" position, then the light will go on. This statement

a. is the result of deductive reasoning.

b. is a prediction.

c. can be tested.

d. can be falsified.

e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
To be scientifically valid, a hypothesis must be

a. testable and falsifiable.

b. phrased as a question.

c. testable.

d. falsifiable.

e. based on faith.
a. testable and falsifiable.
A scientist performs a controlled experiment. This means that

a. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable.

b. the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.

c. one experiment is performed, but the scientist controls the variables.

d. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by two or more variables.

e. the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data
a. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable.
Consider the following statement: "If all vertebrates have backbones, and turtles are vertebrates, then turtles have backbones." This statement is an example of
a. an observation.

b. hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

c. a hypothesis.

d. rationalization.

e. discovery science logic
b. hypothetico-deductive reasoning
The role of a control in an experiment is to

a. provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.

b. prove that a hypothesis is correct.

c. ensure repeatability.

d. prove that a hypothesis is correct and ensure repeatability.

e. None of the choices are correct.
a. provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.
Organisms that are not prokaryotes are in the Domain

a. Bacteria.

b. Monera.

c. Archaea.

d. Fungi.

e. Eukarya.
e. Eukarya.
Which one of the following is a kingdom within the Domain Eukarya?

a. Protista

b. Fungi

c. Viruses

d. Monera

e. Archaea
b. Fungi
Which one of the following statements is true of the Domain Bacteria?

a. All bacteria are "animal-like" in that they eat other organisms and all bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus.

b. All bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus.

c. All bacteria are "animal-like" in that they eat other organisms.

d. All bacteria are multicellular organisms.

e. All bacteria lack a nucleus
e. All bacteria lack a nucleus
A scientist examining a group of cells under the microscope notices the presence of nuclei within these cells. Chemical tests reveal that each cell is surrounded by a wall composed of cellulose. These cells must come from an organism that is a member of the Kingdom
Plantae
Organisms belonging to the Kingdom Plantae

a. contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.

b. are photosynthetic.

c. are unicellular.

d. lack a nucleus.

e. are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.
e. are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.
include the mushrooms and yeasts, and decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers.
Kingdom Fungi
are composed of cells that lack a cell wall.
Kingdom Animalia
Which of the following is/are properties of life?

a. the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment

b. All of the choices are correct.

c. the ability to reproduce

d. the ability to take in energy and use it

e. a complex organization
b. All of the choices are correct.
Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. Each organism has its own unique DNA code.

b. Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.

c. Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides.

d. Genes are proteins that produce DNA.

e. the DNA of humans is more similar to the DNA of birds than it is to that of apes.
b. Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.
Which one of the following observations would provide the strongest evidence that the many different plants we call orchids are actually related to one another?

a. They all produce small seeds.

b. They all have the same common ancestor.

c. The flowers have the same shape of petals.

d. They all attract insect pollinators.

e. None of them can grow without the presence of a specific type of fungus.
b. They all have the same common ancestor.
An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria
to be more resistant to that antibiotic.
Which of the following is/are true about ecosystems?

a. The "web of relationships" within an ecosystem includes the nonliving components of the environment.

b. Plants, photosynthetic bacteria, and photosynthetic protists are the ultimate sources of food in ecosystems.

c. All of the choices are true.

d. Nutrients are cycled through ecosystems.

e. The bacteria and fungi are responsible for recycling the mineral nutrients within an ecosystem.
c. All of the choices are true.
The ultimate source of energy flowing into nearly all ecosystems is
sunlight
Ethanol boils at a lower temperature than water. Which has stronger hydrogen bonding based on this observation?

a. Water

b. ethanol
a. Water
Before they attempt to understand the properties of molecules, scientists first try to understand the atoms found in the molecules. This illustrates

a. an existential approach to science.

b. the emergent properties of matter.

c. that the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

d. a holistic approach to science.

e. a reductionist approach to science.
e. a reductionist approach to science.
Which one of the following is not a trace element in the human body?

a. iodine

b. manganese

c. zinc

d. fluorine

e. nitrogen
e. nitrogen
The five most common elements in living organisms are

a. C, N, O, Na, Cl.

b. C, N, O, Ca, Fe.

c. C, H, O, N, Ca.

d. C, H, O, Na, Ca.

e. C, H, O, Na, Cl.
c. C, H, O, N, Ca.
Matter

a. is what life is composed of.

b. occupies space.

c. has mass.

d. is composed of elements.

e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
In the equation 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O

a. only H2O is a compound.

b. H2 and O2 are elements.

c. H2 , O2, and H2O are all molecules but only H2O is a compound.

d. H2, O2, and H2O are all molecules.

e. H2 , O2, and H2O are all compounds.
c. H2 , O2, and H2O are all molecules but only H2O is a compound.
contains two or more elements in a fixed ratio
compound
The nucleus of an atom contains these
protons and neutrons
Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that

a. insects fly around a bright lamp at night.

b. cars are parked along the sides of a street.

c. boats cross a lake.

d. people pass each other along a sidewalk.

e. birds migrate to a new winter home.
a. insects fly around a bright lamp at night.
The atom sodium contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?
23
The atomic number of an atom is

a. the number of protons in the atom.

b. the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.

c. the number of electrons in the atom.

d. the net electrical charge of the atom.

e. the number of neutrons in the atom.
a. the number of protons in the atom
Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of seven electrons, seven protons, and seven neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could
have more than seven neutrons
A radioactive isotope is one that
decays
Which of the following statements about radioactive isotopes is/are true?

a. The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.

b. All of the choices are true.

c. The nuclei of radioactive isotopes are unusually stable, but the atoms tend to lose electrons.

d. The tracers typically used for diagnosing medical problems remain radioactive in the body for a number of years, but give off very low levels of radioactive energy.

e. When given a choice between radioactive and nonradioactive isotopes of the same atom, living cells are more likely to incorporate the radioactive isotopes into their structures.
a. The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.
Radioactive isotopes

a. are never incorporated into organic compounds.

b. never occur naturally.

c. have no effect on living tissue.

d. can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose a patient.

e. have no medical usage.
d. can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose a patient.
When full, the innermost electron shell of an atom contains __________ electrons, and the outermost shell contains __________ electrons.

a. 2 . . . 8

b. 4 . . . 8

c. 8 . . . 2

d. 2 . . . 2

e. 8 . . . 8
a. 2 . . . 8
The further an electron is from the nucleus, the

a. more likely it is to be radioactive.

b. more inert the atom.

c. lower the atomic number.

d. greater its energy.

e. more unstable the isotope.
d. greater its energy.
Table salt is formed when

a. sodium crystals combine with chlorine crystals.

b. chlorine gives an electron to sodium.

c. sodium and chlorine share electrons to form a bond.

d. None of the statements are true.

e. a hydrogen bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
d. None of the statements are true.
The body uses atoms in different ways to accomplish different tasks. For example, one portion of the body's calcium supply strengthens bones, whereas another portion combines with proteins to stimulate blood clotting after tissue injury. Which of the statements below provides the most logical chemical explanation of calcium's ability to perform such different functions?

a. The calcium in blood is a more reactive form of the atom and therefore has fewer protons than the calcium in bone.

b. There are many different isotopes of calcium, and the most reactive isotope is found in the bone.

c. The calcium in blood has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone and is in a more reactive form.

d. The calcium in blood has fewer protons, is a more reactive form of the atom, and has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone.

e. The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
e. The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
Medicines are often administered in pill form. In many cases, the active ingredient of the pill (the drug) is joined to another substance by __________. This forms a(n) __________, which is stable in the dry environment of a pill bottle but dissociates under the wet conditions of the digestive system to release the drug to the body.

a. ionic bonds . . . acid

b. polar covalent bonds . . . acid or base (depending on the drug)

c. hydrogen bonds . . . base

d. ionic bonds . . . salt

e. covalent bonds . . . salt
d. ionic bonds . . . salt
A(n) __________ forms when two atoms share electrons.

a. ion

b. ionic bond

c. polar covalent bond

d. polar covalent bond or covalent bond

e. covalent bond
d. polar covalent bond or covalent bond
What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?

a. Covalent bonding involves only the outer electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next inner electron shell.

b. In a covalent bond, the partners have identical electronegativity; in an ionic bond, one of them is more electronegative.

c. In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner captures an electron from the other.

d. In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells; in ionic bonding, one partner does and the other does not.

e. Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element; ionic bonds, between atoms of different elements.
c. In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner captures an electron from the other.
The oxygen atom of a water molecule

a. is more positively charged than the hydrogen atoms.

b. is attracted to the negatively charged atoms of other molecules.

c. is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.

d. attracts electrons less strongly than the hydrogen atoms.

e. is electrically neutral.
c. is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
Many fabrics are coated with a "water-repellent" chemical that causes water to bead on the fabric instead of soaking in. This probably occurs because

a. the coating has positive charges that repel the positively charged ends of the water molecules and also has negative charges that repel the negatively charged ends of the water molecules.

b. the coating has negative charges that repel the negatively charged ends of the water molecules.

c. the coating has positive charges that repel the positively charged ends of the water molecules.

d. the coating is neutral, and therefore repels water, which is also neutral.

e. the coating is neutral and repels the positive and negative ends of the water molecules
e. the coating is neutral and repels the positive and negative ends of the water molecules
A water molecule (H-O-H) is held together by

a. a single covalent bond.

b. a double covalent bond.

c. hydrogen bonds.

d. an ionic bond.

e. a polar covalent bond.
e. a polar covalent bond.
The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by __________ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by __________ bonds.

a. hydrogen . . . polar covalent

b. hydrogen . . . ionic

c. polar covalent . . . hydrogen

d. polar covalent . . . ionic

e. ionic . . . covalent
c. polar covalent . . . hydrogen
__________ are weak bonds that are not strong enough to hold atoms together to form molecules but are strong enough to form bridges between molecules.
Hydrogen bonds
Water molecules stick to other water molecules because

a. the hydrogen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.

b. the oxygen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.

c. covalent bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.

d. hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.

e. water molecules are neutral, and neutral molecules are attracted to each other.
d. hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
The ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules is critical to

a. evaporative cooling of skin surfaces.

b. the movement of water from the roots of a tree to its leaves.

c. the milder temperatures of coastal regions when compared to inland areas.

d. the ability of certain insects to walk on the surface of water.

e. all of these factors.
e. all of these factors.
After turning the water off at the end of a shower, water still clings to your body because of
adhesion
As ice melts,

a. hydrogen bonds are broken.

b. water molecules become less tightly packed.

c. the water becomes less dense.

d. covalent bonds form.

e. All of the choices are true.
a. hydrogen bonds are broken.
The temperature of evaporation is much higher for water than for alcohol. Without knowing more about the chemistry of alcohol, which of the following is the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?

a. Ionic bonds form between alcohol molecules. These are the weakest type of bond and are easier to break than the hydrogen bonds between water molecules.

b. Alcohol has a higher surface tension than water. This means that alcohol molecules can easily break away from other alcohol molecules and evaporate at a lower temperature.

c. Alcohol molecules are more cohesive than water molecules. This means that as alcohol molecules evaporate, they pull other alcohol molecules into the air along with them.

d. Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break away from solution and enter the air.

e. None of the choices is a logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon.
d. Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break away from solution and enter the air.
You've made a hot drink by dissolving a teaspoon of instant coffee and a teaspoon of sugar in a cup of hot water. Which of the following is/are true?

a. You've just prepared an aqueous solution.

b. The water is the solute portion of the drink.

c. The instant coffee and sugar are solvents.

d. The instant coffee and sugar dissolve because they have no electropositive or electronegative regions to repel the electropositive and electronegative regions of the water molecules.

e. All of the choices are true.
a. You've just prepared an aqueous solution.
Which of the following is not related to the ability of NaCl to dissolve in water?

a. Ionic bonds tend to dissociate in water.

b. The atoms of this salt are held together by ionic bonds.

c. Positively charged substances are attracted to negatively charged substances.

d. Water is a polar compound.

e. Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are weaker than the hydrogen bonds between sodium and water or between chloride and water.
e. Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are weaker than the hydrogen bonds between sodium and water or between chloride and water.
the substance that is dissolved in solution
solute
A pharmaceutical company hires a chemist to analyze the purity of the water being used in its drug preparations. If the water is pure, the chemist would expect to find

a. only molecules of H2O.

b. H2O molecules and OH-ions.

c. H2O molecules and H+ ions.

d. only H+ ions and OH- ions.

e. H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions.
e. H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions.
either accept H+ ions from solutions or donate OH- ions to solutions
Bases
A solution with a pH of 7 is
neutral
A solution with a pH of 1 is
strongly acidic
Which of the following statements about pH is/are true?

a. None of the choices are true.

b. pH is a measure of oxygen ion concentration.

c. A single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration.

d. An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.

e. pH stands for percent hydrogen.
d. An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach.

b. Both of these substances are strong acids.

c. The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach and a solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.

d. A solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.

e. The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
e. The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts ions when conditions become too acidic
buffer
What can each of us do to decrease the production of acid precipitation? We can

a. drive more fuel-efficient automobiles.

b. decrease our consumption of coal-generated electricity.

c. encourage the use of alternative energy resources such as solar, wind, and geothermal energy.

d. whenever possible, walk or ride a bicycle instead of driving a car.

e. All of the choices are ways to decrease the production of acid precipitation.
e. All of the choices are ways to decrease the production of acid precipitation.
In the equation 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O , the H2 molecules are __________ and the H2O molecules are __________.
reactants . . . products
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chemical reactions?

a. Chemical reactions involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds.

b. The atoms of the reactants are exactly the same as the atoms of the products.

c. Although the atoms of a reaction's reactants and products are identical to each other, their molecular formulae differ.

d. The reactants contain the same number of atoms as the products.

e. Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
e. Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
When beta-carotene (C40H56) combines with oxygen (O2) and four hydrogens (4 H), two molecules of vitamin A are formed. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 20 carbon atoms.

b. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 2 oxygen atoms.

c. Beta-carotene is one of the products of the reaction.

d. The vitamin A molecules are the reactants.

e. All of the statements are true.
a. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 20 carbon atoms.
Spider silk is made of
proteins
Characteristics of carbon that contribute to its ability to form an immense diversity of organic molecules include its

a. All of the choices are correct.

b. ability to bond together to form extensive, branched, or unbranched "carbon skeletons."

c. capacity to form single and double bonds.

d. ability to bond with up to four other atoms.

e. tendency to form covalent bonds
a. All of the choices are correct.
Hydrocarbons

a. All of the choices are correct.

b. are composed of carbon atoms that are attached to hydrogen skeletons.

c. contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.

d. consist of atoms linked exclusively by single bonds.

e. are inorganic compounds
c. contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms
Propanol and isopropanol are isomers. This means that they have

a. the same number of carbon atoms but different numbers of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

b. the same molecular formula and the same chemical properties.

c. the same molecular formula, but propanol is the liquid form of the compound and isopropanol is the gaseous form.

d. the same molecular formula but different chemical properties.

e. different molecular formulas but the same chemical properties.
e. different molecular formulas but the same chemical properties.
Organic compounds

a. can only be synthesized in a laboratory.

b. always contain carbon.

c. always contain carbon and are synthesized by cells.

d. are synthesized by cells.

e. always contain nitrogen.
c. always contain carbon and are synthesized by cells
You now know that the old "oil and water don't mix" is true. Why?

a. Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.

b. Water is hydrophobic.

c. Oil is an organic compound and water is not.

d. Oil is hydrophilic.

e. Oil exhibits polarity and water does not.
a. Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
A hydroxyl group is
characteristic of alcohols
Which one of the following is an amino group?

a. -CO

b. -COOH

c. CH3

d. -OH

e. -NH2
e. -NH2
Which one of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is not true?
a. Functional groups help make organic compounds hydrophilic.

b. All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound's skeleton.

c. Functional groups help make organic compounds soluble in water.

d. Functional groups participate in chemical reactions.

e. Many biological molecules have two or more functional groups
b. All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound's skeleton.
Which one of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is not true?

a. Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.

b. DNA is built from just four kinds of monomers.

c. The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal.

d. Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers.

e. Cells typically make all of their macromolecules from a set of 40-50 common monomers and a few other ingredients that are rare.
a. Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.
Monosaccharides can be joined together by a process called dehydration synthesis. Which of the following statements is/are true of this process?

a. All of the choices are correct.

b. Covalent bonds are formed between the monomers.

c. Electrons are shared between atoms of the joined monomers.

d. One monomer loses a hydrogen atom, and the other loses a hydroxyl group.

e. H2Ois formed as the monomers are joined.
a. All of the choices are correct.
The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by

a. a hydrolysis reaction and digestion.

b. a condensation reaction.

c. polymerization.

d. digestion.

e. a hydrolysis reaction.
a. a hydrolysis reaction and digestion.
Which list below consists of only polymers?

a. proteins, lipids, nucleotides, sugars

b. sugars, amino acids, nucleic acids, lipids

c. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, amino acids

d. polysaccharides, lipids, amino acids, nucleic acids

e. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
e. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
The molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multiple of
CH2O
A molecule with the formula C55H110O55 is probably a(n)
polysaccharide
Sucrose is formed

a. from two monosaccharides by dehydration synthesis.

b. from two glucose molecules.

c. when ionic bonds link two monosaccharides.

d. when water molecules are added to two monosaccharides.

e. when glucose and lactose are combined.
a. from two monosaccharides by dehydration synthesis.
A disaccharide forms when
two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis
Molecules that taste sweet

a. must bind to the sweet and bitter receptors.

b. are all carbohydrates.

c. have a shape that binds tightly to sweet taste receptors.

d. include at least one carbohydrate monomer.

e. cause carbohydrates to break down into monomers that trigger the sweet taste reaction.
c. have a shape that binds tightly to sweet taste receptors.
Which one of the following lists contains only polysaccharides?

a. fructose, cellulose, and glucose

b. starch, amino acids, and glycogen

c. nucleotides, glycogen, and cellulose

d. sucrose, starch, and cellulose

e. cellulose, starch, and glycogen
e. cellulose, starch, and glycogen
Cellulose differs from starch in that
most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
Foods that are high in fiber are most likely derived from
plants
Cows can derive nutrients from cellulose because

a. they produce the enzymes that break down cellulose.

b. they convert cellulose into starch, which is easily broken down in the intestinal tract.

c. their intestinal tract contains termites, which can break down cellulose.

d. they chew their food so thoroughly that cellulose fibers are broken down.

e. their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms
e. their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms
The storage form of carbohydrates in animals is __________ and in plants is __________.
glycogen . . . starch
One way to convert an oil into a substance that is solid at room temperature is to
add hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules
Which one of the following is not true about animal cell lipids?

a. Steroids are lipids that function as signaling molecules.

b. Cholesterol is a type of lipid used in cell membranes and as a starting material for making steroid hormones.

c. Many lipids function as enzymes.

d. Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes.

e. Fats are a form of lipid that functions as energy-containing molecules
c. Many lipids function as enzymes.
A diet high in animal products may increase the risk for atherosclerosis. This is because

a. most animal fats are unsaturated and most animal products contain high levels of steroids.

b. most animal fats are hydrogenated oils and most animal products contain high levels of phospholipids.

c. most animal products contain high levels of unsaturated oils and anabolic steroids.

d. most animal fats are saturated and most animal products contain high levels of triglycerides.

e. most animal fats are used for energy storage and most animal products contain high levels of unsaturated fats.
d. most animal fats are saturated and most animal products contain high levels of triglycerides.
In salad dressings, oil quickly separates from vinegar because oils are
nonpolar
Suppose you wanted to make margarine using a plant oil. How would you alter the oil molecules to make the oil solid at room temperature?

a. attach more fatty acids to each glycerol

b. add a phosphate group to the glycerol

c. reduce the number of fatty acids attached to each glycerol

d. use a larger glycerol

e. add hydrogens to change the double bonds in the fatty acids to single bonds
e. add hydrogens to change the double bonds in the fatty acids to single bonds
Because water and oil don't mix, water is not very effective at washing away oily dirt. The ability of soap to mix with both water and oily dirt allows dirt to be washed away. Which statement provides the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?

a. Soap molecules have both positively and negatively charged regions. The positively charged regions are attracted to water; the negatively charged regions are attracted to oil.

b. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions. The neutral regions are attracted to water molecules; the charged regions are attracted to oils.

c. Soap molecules carry no charge. As a result, soap can form an effective bridge between charged water molecules and neutral oil molecules.

d. Soap molecules have both positively and negatively charged regions. The negatively charged regions are attracted to water; the positively charged regions are attracted to oil.

e. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions; the charged regions are attracted to water molecules; the neutral regions are attracted to oils.
e. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions; the charged regions are attracted to water molecules; the neutral regions are attracted to oils.
A triglyceride

a. is hydrophobic.

b. is a type of fat.

c. All of the choices are correct.

d. plays a role in energy storage.

e. consists of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol.
c. All of the choices are correct.
Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be
unsaturated
If you want to promote the development of atherosclerotic disease, you would eat a diet high in
saturated fats
If you were to add olive oil to your food as part of a diet to lower your risk of atherosclerotic disease, you would use olive oil that

a. was hydrogenated.

b. None of the choices are correct.

c. was modified to be solid at room temperature.

d. had lard added to it.

e. was liquid at room temperature.
e. was liquid at room temperature.
A phospholipid is composed of

a. one fatty acid molecule linked to three glycerol molecules.

b. one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acid molecules.

c. one fatty acid molecule linked to one glycerol molecule and two phosphate groups.

d. one glycerol molecule linked to three fatty acid molecules.

e. one glycerol molecule linked to three phosphate groups.
b. one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acid molecules.
Which one of the following substances is not a lipid?

a. triglycerides

b. cholesterol

c. cellulose

d. steroids

e. wax
c. cellulose
A major type of lipid found in cell membranes is
phospholipids
Which one of the following statements is not true about waxes? Waxes are

a. nonpolar.

b. more hydrophobic than fats.

c. used as a starting material for making steroids.

d. lipids.

e. used by some insects and plants for protection
c. used as a starting material for making steroids.
Which one of the following statements about anabolic steroids is not true? Anabolic steroids

a. often cause the body to reduce its normal output of sex hormones.

b. cause a general buildup of muscle mass.

c. can stimulate mood swings and violent behavior.

d. chemically resemble testosterone.

e. promote bone growth.
e. promote bone growth.
Which one of the following statements about androstenedione is not true?

a. Taking androstenedione can lead to premature puberty and stunted growth.

b. Androstenedione is normally produced in the body and converted to testosterone.

c. Taking androstenedione decreases levels of "good" cholesterol.

d. Studies show that taking androstenedione greatly increases the production of male sex hormones.

e. Taking androstenedione can increase the likelihood of cardiovascular disease, cancer, and breast enlargement in males.
d. Studies show that taking androstenedione greatly increases the production of male sex hormones.
A scientist suspects that the food in an ecosystem may have been contaminated with radioactive nitrogen over a period of months. Which of the following substances could be examined for radioactivity to test the hypothesis?

a. Any of these choices.

b. the hair produced by humans living in the ecosystem

c. the cholesterol in the cell membranes of organisms living in the ecosystem

d. the sugars produced during photosynthesis by plants growing in the ecosystem

e. the cell walls of plants growing in the ecosystem
b. the hair produced by humans living in the ecosystem
Which one of the following statements is not true? Enzymes

a. have structures that correspond to their function.

b. regulate virtually all chemical reactions in a cell.

c. function as organic catalysts.

d. are typically consumed by the reactions they promote.

e. are proteins that change the rate of chemical reactions
d. are typically consumed by the reactions they promote.
Proteins differ from one another because
the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein
Amino acids can be distinguished from one another by

a. the chemical properties of their amino and carboxyl groups.

b. the chemical properties of their R groups.

c. All of the choices are correct.

d. the type of bond between the R group and the rest of the amino acid molecule.

e. the number of R groups found on the amino acid molecules
b. the chemical properties of their R groups.
Glucose molecules are to starch as __________ are to proteins.
amino acids
link amino acids
Peptide bonds
Which one of the following will not be affected by the denaturation of a protein?

a. the shape of the protein

b. the binding properties of the protein

c. the solubility of the protein in water

d. the function of the protein

e. the number of amino acids in the protein
e. the number of amino acids in the protein
Which of the following factors can result in the denaturation of a protein?

a. changes in salt concentration

b. All of the choices can result in the denaturation of a protein.

c. chemicals that destroy hydrogen bonds

d. changes in pH

e. heat
b. All of the choices can result in the denaturation of a protein.
The __________ structure of a protein consists of a chain of amino acids assembled in a specific order.
primary
Which one of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein?

a. a globular shape

b. a particular amino acid sequence

c. the joining of two polypeptide chains

d. a fibrous shape

e. an alpha helix
e. an alpha helix
The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to

a. the amino acids of which it is made.

b. its size.

c. the presence of pleated sheets.

d. the overall three-dimensional structure.

e. the number of R groups it contains.
d. the overall three-dimensional structure.
A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the __________ level of protein structure.

a. primary

b. infinite

c. quaternary

d. tertiary

e. secondary
c. quaternary
Which one of the following statements about Linus Pauling is not true? Linus Pauling

a. helped to produce a ban on nuclear testing.

b. determined how hemoglobin carries oxygen.

c. first described the double-helix shape of DNA.

d. is the only person ever to receive two unshared Nobel Prizes.

e. first described the two fundamental secondary structures of proteins.
c. first described the double-helix shape of DNA.
Nucleotides

a. contain phosphate groups.

b. contain nitrogenous bases.

c. contain sugar molecules.

d. can be linked together to form nucleic acids.

e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
DNA differs from RNA because DNA
contains thymine in place of uracil
Genetic information is encoded in the
sequence of nucleotides in DNA
Which one of the following is not the proper pairing of a polymer and its monomer?

a. protein and amino acid

b. All of the pairs properly reflect a polymer and its corresponding monomer.

c. triglyceride and steroid

d. polysaccharide and monosaccharide

e. nucleic acid and nucleotide
c. triglyceride and steroid
A new "wonder food" is being distributed by a rival company. The researchers in your company determine that the "wonder food" contains only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. At this point, your researchers can say with certainty that the food

a. includes proteins.

b. could only be made of carbohydrates.

c. includes nucleic acids.

d. could only be made of triglycerides.

e. does not include proteins or nucleic acids.
e. does not include proteins or nucleic acids.
The glucose produced by a plant is used to make the carbohydrate, proteins, fats, and nucleic acids of the plant. Which statement is true about the process of converting sugars into other molecules?

a. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and fats, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and nucleic acids.

b. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and nucleic acids, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and fats.

c. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce fats, proteins, and nucleic acids.

d. None of the substances in the other answers can be produced from glucose alone.

e. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce these other molecules.
a. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and fats, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and nucleic acids
Art is important to biology because
biologists use art to illuminate their findings.
ability of an optical instrument to show two objects as separate.
Resolving power
use light and glass lenses to magnify an image.
Light microscopes
Which one of the following statements is true about electron microscopes?

a. Electron microscopes use glass lenses to focus and magnify the image.

b. Scanning electron microscopes are used to study the details of internal cell structure.

c. Electron beams are focused to create a magnified image of an object.

d. Transmission electron microscopes are used to study the architecture of cell surfaces.

e. Specimens must be sectioned to be viewed under a scanning electron microscope
c. Electron beams are focused to create a magnified image of an object.
A scientist wants to magnify a pollen grain 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. Which one of the following instruments would be best?

a. a scanning light microscope

b. a scanning electron microscope

c. an inverted light microscope

d. a transmission light microscope

e. a transmission electron microscope
b. a scanning electron microscope
A scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cells use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away from the lungs. Which one of the following instruments would be best, and why?

a. a transmission electron microscope, because it has high resolving power

b. a light microscope, because it allows observations of whole, live cells

c. a scanning electron microscope, because it can reveal structures on cell surfaces

d. a scanning electron microscope, because it can be used to observe whole cells without slicing them

e. a transmission electron microscope, because it is capable of very high magnification
b. a light microscope, because it allows observations of whole, live cells
A scanning electron microscope is used to study ____________, whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study ___________.

a. plant tissue..... animal tissue

b. live cells..... dead cells

c. dead cells..... live cells

d. cell surfaces..... internal cell structures

e. internal cell structures.....cell surfaces
d. cell surfaces..... internal cell structures
A bird egg is a single large cell, whereas a human red blood cell is much smaller, because
cell size is related to cell function.
Which one of the following is equvalent to one thousandth of a millimeter?

a. a meter

b. a nanometer

c. a micrometer

d. a decimeter

e. a centimeter
c. a micrometer
As cell size increase, the

a. volume and surface area decrease .

b. volume increases faster than the surface area.

c. surface area and volume increase at the same rate.

d. None of the choices are correct.

e. surface area increases faster than the volume.
b. volume increases faster than the surface area.
A cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. The cell becomes larger and larger. This situation

a. should present no problem to the cell since it can continue to perform all other necessary funtions.

b. should present no problem to the cell because the surface area of the cell will increase as the volume if the cell increases.

c. will eventually be problematic since the cell's ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.

d. should be beneficial since the cell will be able to divert the ATP normally used for cell division to other processes.

e. None of the choices are correct.
c. will eventually be problematic since the cell's ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.
Your throat is dry, and you want the last cough drop in the box to last a long time in your mouth. What should you do?

a. Break the cough drop into little pieces, put them all in your mouth, and drink plenty of water.

b. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. This decreases the surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.

c. Keep the cough drop whole. This maintains the largest surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.

d. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. Since each little piece must be dissolved separately, the drop will last longer.

e. It doesn't matter if the cough drop is in one piece or many pieces; the total amount of cough drop is all that matters.
c. Keep the cough drop whole. This maintains the largest surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.
Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?

a. a capsule

b. a cell wall

c. a membrane-bound nucleus

d. pili

e. ribosomes
c. a membrane-bound nucleus
The nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell

a. separates the DNA from the cytoplasm.

b. contains the cell's nucleoli.

c. is the site of organelle production.

d. contains the cell's DNA.

e. is surrounded by a nucleoid membrane.
d. contains the cell's DNA.
Cells that lack a membrane-bound nucleus are __________________ cells.
prokaryotic
You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant. animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see the cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells
are plant cells.
produce hydrogen peroxide
Peroxisomes
Which of the following structures are used by prokaryotes for attaching to surfaces?

a. pili

b. capsules

c. anchoring junctions

d. flagella

e. both pili and capsules
e. both pili and capsules
Unlike animal cells, plant cells have ____ and ____. Unlike plant cells, animal cells have _____.

a. large central vacuoles....cell walls....cell membranes

b. large central vacuoles....cell walls....centrioles

c. centrioles....cell walls....large central vacuoles

d. chloroplasts....cell walls....cell membranes

e. centrioles....large central vacuoles....cell walls
b. large central vacuoles....cell walls....centrioles
Which one of the following statements about cellular metabolism is not true? Cellular metabolism

a. can involve the synthesis of steroid hormones.

b. occurs in animal but not in plant cells.

c. can occur within organelles.

d. includes different processes that require different conditions.

e. often occurs on the surfaces of internal membranes.
b. occurs in animal but not in plant cells.
The membranous compartmentalization of a cell

a. requires the presence of a large central vacuole.

b. allows different metabolic processes to occur simultaneously.

c. divides the cell into two equal-sizes halves.

d. requires the presence of a cell wall.

e. is common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
b. allows different metabolic processes to occur simultaneously.
In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes

a. greatly increase a cell's total membrane area.

b. contain proteins essential for metabolic processes.

c. All of the choices are correct.

d. form membranous compartments called organelles.

e. provide additional area where many metabolic processes occur.
c. All of the choices are correct.
The nucleus of a cell

a. is contained within the nucleolus.

b. is surrounded by a single layer of membrane.

c. is the region of the cell where ribosomes are degraded.

d. contains DNA

e. is both contained within the nucleolus and contains DNA.
d. contains DNA
Long fibers of DNA and protein are called a

a. chromatin

b. nucleolus

c. ribosome

d. central vacuole

e. lysosome
a. chromatin
During cells reproduction, chromatin coils up into structures called
chromosomes
The function of the nucleoulus is

a. intracellular digestion

b. to store chromatin

c. to produce

d. to manufacture polypeptides

e. to help manufacture ribosomes
e. to help manufacture ribosomes
Which one of the following statements is not true? The endomembrane system
a. included the nuclear envelope.

b. is involved in the synthesis, storage, and export of important molecules.

c. includes the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d. divides the cell into compartments.

e. is a system of interrelated membranes that are all physically connected.
e. is a system of interrelated membranes that are all physically connected.
The two main funtions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum are the production of
a. ribosomes and steroid hormones. ??
Secretory proteins are

a. produced by ribosomes on he smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b. released from the cell through the plasma membrane.

c. chemically modified in the nucleus .

d. incorporated into the mitochondrial membrane.

e. produced by the cell for internal use.
b. released from the cell through the plasma membrane.
The cells that produce hair contain a lot of _____. The cells that the oils that coat the hair contain a lot of _____.

a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum....lysosomes

b. microbodies...lysosomes

c. nuclei...chromatin

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum...smooth endoplasmic reticulum

e. smooth endoplasmic reticulum...rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. rough endoplasmic reticulum...smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Chronic administration of a drug (such as a barbiturate or an antibiotic) may cause the liver to

a. increase the production of enzymes tht break down certain other drugs or foreign substances.

b. increase the production of enzymes tht detoxify the drug in question.

c. produce additional smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d. All of the choices are correct.

e. increase the body's tolerance to the drug.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

a. produces proteins for cell membranes.

b. stores calcium ions in muscle cells.

c. helps assemble ribosomes for protein synthesis.

d. produces antibodies.

e. is the major site of carbohydrat synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
b. stores calcium ions in muscle cells.
Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production to its exit from the cell?
??
stores, modifies, and packages proteins.
The Golgi apparatus
Lysosomes

a. help to digest worn-out or damaged organelles.

b. All of the choices are correct.

c. recycle materials within the cell.

d. can destroy harmful bacteria engulfed by white blood cells.

e. fuse with food vacuoles to expose nutrients to hydrolytic enzymes.
b. All of the choices are correct
When a cell is deprived of oxygen its lysosomes tend to burst and release their contents into the cell. As a result of this, that cell will

a. undergo cell division.

b. undergo autolysis (self-digestion).

c. produce replacement lysosomes.

d. recycle damaged organelles.

e. produce additional ER.
b. undergo autolysis (self-digestion).
Tay-Sachs disease

a. involves damage to liver cells.

b. is due to the absence of an enzyme that digests polysaccharides.

c. results in an accumulation of triglycerides in the alveoli of the lungs.

d. prevents the breakdown of glycogen.

e. involves an accumulation of lipids in brain cells.
e. involves an accumulation of lipids in brain cells.
The functions of the central vacuoles of plant cells include

a. storing pigments that will help attract pollinating insects.

b. helping the cell to grow by absorbing water.

c. storing food molecules

d. storing poisons.

e. all of the choices listed above.
e. all of the choices listed above.
Contractile vacuoles

a. prevent cells from bursting as a result of the influx of excess water.

b. All of the choices are correct.

c. are generally found in protists that inhabit salt water.

d. allow organisms to avoid dehydration by absorbing water fron the environment.

e. help in the excretion of excess salt.
a. prevent cells from bursting as a result of the influx of excess water.
A manufacturing company dumps its waste into a nearby pond. One of the wastes is found to paralyze the contractile vacuoles of certain protists. A biologist looking at one of the organisms would find that the organism
has gained water and burst.
Which one of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?

a. smooth ER

b. Golgi apparatus

c. nucleus

d. ribosomes

e. lysosomes
d. ribosomes
Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria

a. convert solar energy to chemical energy, whereas chloroplasts convert one form of chemical energy to another.

b. are not found in plants, whereas chloroplasts are not found in animals.

c. contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disk-like vesicles in stacks called grana.

d. produce glucose, whereas chloroplasts break glucose down.

e. contain three different membrane-bound compartments, whereas chloroplasts contain two.
c. contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disk-like vesicles in stacks called grana.
The stroma is the

a. fluid within the grana.

b. space between the inner and outer membrane of a chloroplast.

c. thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane.

d. watery fluid enclosed by the inner membrane of a mitochondrion.

e. space between the inner and outer membranes of a mitichondrion.
c. thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane.
The function of chloroplasts is
photosynthesis
The function of mitochondria is
cellular respiration.
The ________ of a mitochondrion is/are adaptation that increass the surface area and enhances a mitochondrion's ability to produce ATP.
cristae
Cyanide inhibits mitochondrial function; as a result, the rate of

a. ATP synthesis would decrease.

b. photosynthesis would increase.

c. lipid synthesis would increase

d. ATP synthesis would increase.

e. protein synthesis would increase.
a. ATP synthesis would decrease.
Microfilaments differ from microtubules in that microfilaments

a. help to anchor organelles, whereas microtubules primarily function to help cells change shape and move.

b. form the inner core of cilia and flagella and microtubules regulate metabolism.

c. are found only in plants and microtubules are found in plants and animal cells

d. are mainly composed of actin and microtubules are composed of with tubulin.

e. are larger than microtubules.
d. are mainly composed of actin and microtubules are composed of with tubulin.
Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is not true?

a. Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.

b. It plays an important role in amoeboid.

c. It is composed od three types of fibers: microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments.

d. It includes both fibrous and globular proteins.

e. It helps support cells.
a. Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.
Intermediate filaments function as

a. tension-bearing elements.

b. guides for the movement of organelles.

c. guides for the movement of chromosomes .

d. a structural component of cilia and flagella.

e. supports for the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a. tension-bearing elements.
A drug interferes with microtubule formation is likely to completely disrupt

a. the ability of sperm cells to move.

b. contraction of muscle cells.

c. the production of ribosomes.

d. the function of lysosomes.

e. the amoeboid motion of a cell.
a. the ability of sperm cells to move.
Cilia differ from flagella in that
cilia are typically shorter than flagella
A basal body is

a. composed od nine microtubule triplets surrounding a central pair of microtubules.

b. identical in structure to centrioles.

c. identical in structure to cilia.

d. composed of nine microtubule doublets surrounding a central pair of microtubules.

e. identical in structure of flagella.
b. identical in structure to centrioles.
are found on microtubules in cilia and flagella and cause movement by grabbing and pulling at adjacent microtubule doublets
Dynein arms
A women is having trouble becoming pregnant. Examination of her partner's sperm indicates that dynein arms are missing from the flagella in his sperm cells. Physician explains that this could interfere with fertility by

a. preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.

b. preventing the sperm from producing enough energy to power swimming.

c. preventing the sperm from attaching to the egg cell.

d. interfering with the ability of the sperm to tolerate the acid conditions in the vaginal canal.

e. interfering with the attachment of the flagella to the sperm.
a. preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.
Which one of the following statements about plant cell walls is not true?

a. The cell wall of one plant cell is separated from the cell wall of another by a layer of sticky polysaccharides.

b. Wood is primarily composed of plant cell walls.

c. Plant cell walls are multilayered structures.

d. Plant cell walls consist of cellulose fibers embedded in a matrix of polysaccharides and proteins.

e. Plant cell walls protect plant cells by forming an impermeable layer around the cell.
e. Plant cell walls protect plant cells by forming an impermeable layer around the cell.
Plasmodesmata

a. are one type of cell junction in plants.

b. carry chemical messages between plant cells.

c. penetrate plant cell walls.

d. All of the choices are correct.

e. carry nutrients between plant cells
d. All of the choices are correct.
Which one of the following would be most affected by a mutation that prevented cells from forming tight junctions.

a. attachment of the cell wall of one plant cell to the cell wall of another

b. attachment of cells to the surrounding matrix

c. integrity of the inner lining of the digestive tract

d. attachment of the cytoskeleton to the inside of the plasma membrane

e. direct flow of water and small molecules from one cell to another
c. integrity of the inner lining of the digestive tract
Most animal cells are

a. embedded in an extracellular matrix.

b. embedded in a lipid matrix.

c. embedded in an endomembrane system.

d. surrounded by a cell wall.

e. attached to each other via plasmodesmata.
a. embedded in an extracellular matrix.
It is essential for heart muscle cells to beat in a coordinated fashion. The cell junctions that would best facilitate this are

a. plasmodesmata

b. occluding junctions

c. tight junctions

d. communicating junctions

e. anchoring junctions
d. communicating junctions
Skin cells are attached to the extracellular matrix by
anchoring junctions.
Which of the following cell structures is not associated with the breakdown of harmful substances that are no longer meeded by the cell?

a. vacuoles

b. lysosomes

c. peroxisomes

d. mitochondria

e. All of the choices play a role in the breakdown of substances that are no longer needed by the cell.
d. mitochondria
All cells on Earth

a. can interconvert chemical materials.

b. are enclosed in amembrane that maintains internal conditions different from the surroundings.

c. can interconvert forms of energy.

d. All of the choices are correct.

e. have DNA as the genetic material.
d. All of the choices are correct.
A child is hospitalized for a series of chronic bacterial infections and dies despite heroic efforts. At autopsy, the physicians are startled to see that the child's white blood cells are loaded with vacuoles containg intact bacteria. Which of the following explanations could account for this finding? A defect in the

a. Golgi appartus prevented the cells from processing and excreting the bacteria.

b. lysosomes of the white blood cells prevented the cells from destroying engulfed bacteria.

c. surface receptors of the white blood cells permitted bacteria to enter the cells.

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum prevented the synthesis of the antobodies (defensive proteins) that would have inactivataed the bacteria.

e. cell walls of the white blood cells permitted bacteria to enter the cells.
b. lysosomes of the white blood cells prevented the cells from destroying engulfed bacteria.
Many of the enzymes that control a firefly's ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located
in membranes
Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that
a. kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules.
b. kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement.
c. kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into heat.
d. chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy.
e. kinetic energy depends on the movement of atoms, whereas chemical energy depends on the movement of molecules
a. kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules.
Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing
c. chemical energy into kinetic energy.
Which one of the following is not true?
a. An open system exchanges both energy and matter with its surroundings.
b. An automobile engine is an example of a closed system.
c. A single cell or the planet Earth could be a thermodynamic system.
d. Thermodynamics is the study of energy transformations that occur in a collection of matter.
e. The collection of matter under study is called the system.
b. An automobile engine is an example of a closed system.
According to __________, energy cannot be created or destroyed.
the first law of thermodynamics
A steer must eat at least 100 pounds of grain to gain less than 10 pounds of muscle tissue. This illustrates
the second law of thermodynamics
Which of the following energy transfers is/are possible in living systems?

a. light energy to potential energy
b. potential energy to kinetic energy
c. All of the choices are correct.
d. chemical energy to kinetic energy
e. light energy to chemical energy
c. All of the choices are correct.
Living systems
a. are examples of a closed system.
b. violate the first law of thermodynamics.
c. decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe.
d. None of the choices are correct.
e. violate the second law of thermodynamics.
c. decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe.
Which one of the following processes is endergonic?

a. cellular respiration
b. the burning of wood
c. the release of heat from the breakdown of glucose
d. the breakdown of glucose to power ATP formation
e. the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
e. the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?
Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.
...
a. Living systems convert heat energy into chemical energy to reduce entropy.
The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called
phosphorylation
Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely
result in cell death.
When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it couples a(n) __________ reaction with a(n) __________ reaction.
exergonic . . . endergonic
...
b. It contains a nitrogenous base molecule called adenine.
ATP can be used as the cell's energy currency because
d. endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP.
An energy barrier
e. prevents the spontaneous decomposition of ATP in the cell.
Most of a cell's enzymes are
proteins
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction
c. it lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
The active site of an enzyme is
b. the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate.
Which one of the following is not true?

a. Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates.
b. Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze.
c. An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
d. Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
e. An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site.
Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
...
e. Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?
a. a polypeptide
b. a protein
c. None of the choices are correct.
d. a zinc atom
e. a ribosome
d. a zinc atom
A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the child's temperature. Which explanation offers the most logical reason for this action?

a. Elevated body temperatures may denature enzymes. This would interfere with the cell's abilities to catalyze various reactions.
b. Elevated body temperatures cause molecules to vibrate more quickly and prevent enzymes from easily attaching to reactants. This would slow vital body reactions.
c. Elevated body temperatures easily break the covalent bonds linking biologically important molecules. This will cause a general breakdown of cell structures.
d. Elevated body temperature will increase reaction rates in the child's cells and overload the limited number of enzymes found in the cell.
e. Elevated body temperatures will increase the energy of activation needed to start various chemical reactions in the body. This will interfere with the ability of enzymes to catalyze vital chemical reactions.
a. Elevated body temperatures may denature enzymes. This would interfere with the cell's abilities to catalyze various reactions.
Heating inactivates enzymes by
changing the enzyme's three-dimensional shape.
Which of the following is a coenzyme?
a. zinc
b. vitamin B6
c. iron
d. hydrogen ions
e. iodine
b. vitamin B6
Which of the following can affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a. pH
b. competitive inhibitors
c. temperature
d. noncompetitive inhibitors
e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
Inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when
a. covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme.
How does inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a competitive inhibitor differ from inhibition by a noncompetitive inhibitor?
a. Competitive inhibitors change the enzyme's tertiary structure; noncompetitive inhibitors cause polypeptide subunits to dissociate.
b. Competitive inhibitors are inorganic substances such as metal ions; noncompetitive inhibitors are vitamins or vitamin derivatives.
c. Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site.
d. Competitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme reversibly; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to it irreversibly.
e. Competitive inhibitors interfere with the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors interfere with the reactants.
c. Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site.
Bacterial production of the enzymes needed for the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan declines with increasing levels of tryptophan and increases as tryptophan levels decline. This is an example of
negative feedback.
Malathion and tetracycline are both enzyme inhibitors. Malathion is used to kill insects; tetracycline to kill bacteria. Malathion is more toxic to human cells than is tetracycline. Which of the following explanations for the difference in toxicity to human cells would be reasonable?
a. Malathion is a competitive inhibitor; tetracycline is a noncompetitive inhibitor.
b. None of the choices are correct.
c. Human cells do not contain the enzymes inhibited by malathion or tetracycline.
d. Human cells contain the enzymes inhibited by both compounds, but the enzyme inhibited by malathion is not metabolically crucial.
e. Malathion binds to its enzyme reversibly; tetracycline binds to its enzyme irreversibly.
d. Human cells contain the enzymes inhibited by both compounds, but the enzyme inhibited by malathion is not metabolically crucial.
Where are eukaryotic cell enzymes typically located?
b. in cell membranes and inside organelles
Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
e. the plasma membrane regulates the passage of material into and out of the cell.
Which one of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? The plasma membrane
a. is involved in self-recognition.
b. forms a selective barrier around the cell.
c. is the control center of the cell.
d. plays a role in signal transduction.
e. has receptors for chemical messages.
c. is the control center of the cell.
Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids
d. easily pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer.
...
b. None of the choices are correct.
Which one of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer?
a. O2
b. Na+
c. CO2
d. H2O
b. Na+
The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of
a. individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer.
b. carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
c. a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
d. a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids.
e. two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them.
a. individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer
The cholesterol associated with cell membranes
d. helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to
c. allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs.
When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched?

a. plasma membrane phospholipids
b. plasma membrane proteins
c. cell-surface carbohydrates
d. cytoskeletal elements
e. plasma membrane cholesterols
c. cell-surface carbohydrates
Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
proteins
Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called
e. signal transduction.
Which one of the following is not a function of membrane proteins? Membrane proteins

a. All of the choices are membrane protein functions.
b. provide cellular identification tags.
c. serve as enzymes.
d. form junctions between cells.
e. attach the membrane to the cytoskeleton.
a. All of the choices are membrane protein functions.
Which of the following is not a true statement about diffusion? Diffusion
???
Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of
passive transport
When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will
b. exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration.
In lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an "artificial cell." The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. Which of the following will occur?
a. Sucrose will leave the balloon.
b. None of the choices will occur.
c. Sucrose will enter the balloon.
d. Water will leave the balloon.
e. Water will enter the balloon.
d. Water will leave the balloon.
A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is
b. isotonic to its environment.
In lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an "artificial cell." The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. The solution in the balloon is __________ relative to the solution in the beaker.

a. hydrophobic
b. hypotonic
c. hydrophilic
d. hypertonic
e. isotonic
b. hypotonic
Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment
a. is hypotonic to the protozoan.
Osmosis can be defined as
a. the diffusion of water.
A plant cell in a hypotonic solution
a. is turgid.
b. lyses.
c. shrivels.
d. is flaccid.
e. wilts.
a. is turgid.
If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?
a. the fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water
b. expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
c. the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water
d. the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
e. the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
e. the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
The organ that plays a major role in osmoregulation in humans is the
kidney
You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean, and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result,
a. you dehydrate yourself.
Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires __________ and moves a substance __________ its concentration gradient.
d. transport proteins . . . down
The molecules responsible for membrane transport are
c. proteins.
Which one of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?
active transport
Which one of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?
a. None of the choices are correct.
b. The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP.
c. The solute must be phosphorylated before it can bind to the transport protein.
d. The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
e. The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place.
a. None of the choices are correct.
...
a. All of the choices are correct.
Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?
a. exocytosis
b. endocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. diffusion
e. passive transport
a. exocytosis
...
e. The breakdown of ATP is needed for transport to occur.
The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is
a. phagocytosis.
Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to
drinking
Cells acquire LDLs by
e. hypercholesterolemia.
Cells acquire LDLs by

a. osmosis.
b. pinocytosis.
c. diffusion.
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis.
e. phagocytosis.
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis.
The ultimate source of nearly all energy available to life on Earth is
sunlight
Ultimately, nearly all animals are dependent on __________ as their source of energy.
photosynthesis
Is quizlet stupid?
Yes
The creation of offspring carrying genetic information by just a single parent is called
asexual reproduction.
Which one of the following is a difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?
Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.
Strictly speaking, the phrase "like begets like" refers to
asexual reproduction only
With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have
some gene variants in common and some variants not found in the other.
Virchow's simple and profound principle, stated formally in 1858, was that
all cells come from cells.
Which one of the following is not true? Cell division
a. is commonly referred to as cell reproduction.

b. is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

c. is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.

d. ensures the continuity of life from generation to generation.

e. is necessary for development to occur.
b. is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.
Which one of the following is not true?

a. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells.

b. In prokaryotes, most genes are carried on a circular DNA molecule.

c. Most prokaryotic organisms reproduce mainly by the process of binary fission.

d. Daughter prokaryotic chromosomes are separated by some sort of active movement away from each other and the growth of new plasma membrane between them.

e. Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.
e. Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.
Sister chromatids are
tightly linked together at the centromere.
Compared to prokaryotic chromosomes, eukaryotic chromosomes
are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called
sister chromatids.
Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?
interphase
The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called
cytokinesis.
If the S phase was eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would
have half the genetic material found in the parental cell.
Which of the following occurs during interphase?

a. None of the choices are correct.

b. duplication of the chromosomes

c. cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes

d. growth of the aster

e. cell growth
c. cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called
prophase
During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane located equidistant from the two spindle poles?
metaphase
Which one of the following does not occur during mitotic anaphase?
The chromatid DNA replicates
During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form and the nucleoli reappear?
telophase
Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division?

a. Four new cells (rather than two) are produced per mitotic division.

b. A cell plate forms.

c. A cleavage furrow forms.

d. Cytokinesis does not occur.

e. The nucleolus disappears and then reappears.
b. A cell plate forms.
Which of the following is likely to account for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis?

a. Plant cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow.

b. Animal cells lack chloroplasts.

c. Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell wall.

d. Plant and animal cells do not have a common ancestor.

e. Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes.
c. Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell wall.
Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally?

a. The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate hormones from its parents.

b. None of the choices are correct.

c. Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell division.

d. Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division.

e. It must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.
e. It must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.
When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of
density-dependent inhibition.
Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition?
the absence of growth factors
Tissue-cultured skin cells will stop dividing when which of the following occurs?
The cells run out of growth factors due to the crowding of neighboring cells.
Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
are permanently in a state of nondivision
The cell-cycle control system

a. triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.

b. receives messages from outside of the cell that influence cell division.

c. is influenced by growth factors that bind to cell receptors.

d. includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle.

e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct
You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem not to exhibit density-dependent inhibition. Which of the following choices would be the most likely source for this tissue sample?
a cancer
A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor
does not metastasize
You are the director of research for a drug company. The following list of candidate drugs is brought to you. Which is the most likely to be worth developing as a cancer chemotherapy agent? A drug that
???
Which one of the following is not a function of mitosis? Mitosis helps organisms


a. repair tissues.

b. All of the choices are correct.

c. regenerate lost parts.

d. reproduce asexually.

e. grow.
b. All of the choices are correct.
Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of
homologous chromosomes
Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. Gametes are haploid cells.

b. Gametes are made by mitosis.

c. A typical body cell is called a somatic cell.

d. A zygote is a fertilized egg.

e. Somatic cells are diploid.
b. Gametes are made by mitosis.
Which of the following is a consequence of a reproduction system that is based on the union of haploid gametes?

a. offspring with enhanced homozygosity

b. offspring that have enhanced genetic diversity and a diploid chromosome complement that is the same size as their parents'

c. the prevention of sexual reproduction

d. offspring that have enhanced genetic diversity and a diploid chromosome complement that is twice the size of their parents'

e. a reduction in the number of offspring with undesirable traits
b. offspring that have enhanced genetic diversity and a diploid chromosome complement that is the same size as their parents'
During which stage of meiosis do synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur?
prophase I
Which one of the following choices best describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?
???
Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a. In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced.

b. All of the choices are correct.

c. Cells produced by mitosis are diploid; cells produced by meiosis are haploid.

d. In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice.
b. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following aspects of reproduction enhances genetic diversity?
random fertilization and independent orientation of chromosomes
Independent orientation results in an increase in the number of
possible combinations of characteristics
Karyotyping
can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
Which one of the following is not true?

a. A human embryo with an abnormal number of chromosomes is usually spontaneously aborted.

b. Women with Down syndrome can not reproduce.

c. Trisomy 21 usually leads to Down syndrome.

d. People with Down syndrome usually have a life span much shorter than normal.

e. Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States.
Women with Down syndrome can not reproduce.
Nondisjunction occurs when
members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.
Which one of the following is not true?

a. The absence of a Y chromosome results in "femaleness."

b. In general, a single Y chromosome is enough to produce "maleness."

c. Nondisjunction in meiosis can affect autosomes and sex chromosomes.

d. Women with a single X chromosome have Turner syndrome and are sterile.

e. In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.
e. In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.
If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a(n)
inversion
Examine the following sentence. "Where is the cat?" Which one of the following variations of this sentence is most like a chromosomal deletion?

a. Where is cat?

b. Where is cat the the cat?

c. Where is the the cat?

d. Where is is is is the cat?

e. Where the is cat?
a. Where is cat?
Cancer is not usually inherited because
the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells.
Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. A dog's behavioral characteristics are influenced by its genetics and its environment.

b. A human's behavioral characteristics are influenced by its genetics and its environment.

c. About 60% of the genetic disorders in dogs are similar to human genetic diseases.

d. It is more difficult to trace patterns of inheritance in purebred dogs .

e. Dogs of different breeds have different temperaments.
It is more difficult to trace patterns of inheritance in purebred dogs .
Which one of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by Hippocrates?
A. None of the choices are correct.

b. Offspring inherit the traits of either the mother or the father but not both.

c. Particles called pangenes originating in each part of an organism's body collect in the sperm and eggs and are passed on to the next generation.

d. Fertilization of plants is dependent on an animal.

e. Pregnancy is a spontaneous event, and the characteristics of the offspring are determined by the gods
c. Particles called pangenes originating in each part of an organism's body collect in the sperm and eggs and are passed on to the next generation.
Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. The blending hypothesis suggested that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father.

b. Pangenesis is incorrect in part because reproductive cells are not composed of particles from somatic cells.

c. The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can reappear in later generations.

d. Pangenesis is incorrect in part because changes in somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm.

e. Aristotle suggested that inheritance is the potential to produce body features.
a. The blending hypothesis suggested that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father
Which one of the following is not true?
a. The parental plants of a cross are the P generation.

b. The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.

c. The cross-fertilization or hybridization is also called a cross.

d. The offspring of two different varieties are called hybrids.

e. The hybrid offspring of an F1 cross are the F2 generation.
b. The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.
Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to as
true-breeding.
A monohybrid cross is
a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one trait.
Research since Mendel's time has established that the principle of the segregation of genes during gamete formation
applies to all sexually reproducing organisms
Which one of the following is not true?

a. Alleles are alternate forms of a gene.

b. An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be heterozygous.

c. The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.

d. The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype.

e.An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive.
e. An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive.
Alleles of a gene are found at __________ chromosomes.
the same locus on homologous
Mendel's principle of independent assortment states that
each pair of alleles segregates independently during gamete formation.
Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that 3 of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision, and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation.
What is a testcross?
a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest
Using a six-sided die, what is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?
1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3
Assuming that the probability of having a female child is 50% and the probability of having a male child is also 50%, what is the probability that a couple's first-born child is female and second-born child is male?
25%
A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be __________ to transmit it to offspring.
heterozygous for the trait and able
Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes?
Dd and Dd
Many genetic disorders of humans are caused by
recessive alleles.
The vast majority of people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were
not affected at all by the disease.
Which of the following best explains why dominant alleles that cause lethal disorders are less common than recessive alleles that cause lethal disorders?

a. Most individuals carrying a lethal dominant allele have the disorder and die before they reproduce, whereas individuals carrying a lethal recessive allele are more likely to be healthy and reproduce.

b. Lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles are usually more severe than lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles.

c. Many lethal recessive alleles cause enhanced disease resistance when they are present in the heterozygous state, and carriers of these alleles have more children, on average, than other people.

d. Unlike lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles, lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles usually cause death of the embryo.

e. The presence of a lethal dominant allele causes sterility.
a. Most individuals carrying a lethal dominant allele have the disorder and die before they reproduce, whereas individuals carrying a lethal recessive allele are more likely to be healthy and reproduce.
Both amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for __________ and __________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities
karyotyping . . . biochemical testing
Which one of the following is not true?

a. Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed later in the pregnancy than amniocentesis.

b. Results from chorionic villus sampling come faster than from amniocentesis.

c. The complication rate for chorionic villus sampling is about 2% and for amniocentesis is about 1%.

d. Ultrasound imaging has no known risk.

e. Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis are usually reserved for pregnancies with higher than usual risks of complications.
a. Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed later in the pregnancy than amniocentesis
Which one of the following is not true?

a. Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis.

b. The four blood types result from various combinations of the three different ABO alleles.

c. ABO blood groups can provide evidence of paternity.

d. The impact of a single gene on more than one characteristic is called pleiotropy.

e. Heterozygotes for hypercholesterolemia have blood cholesterols about twice normal.
a. Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis.
Which one of the following is an example of incomplete dominance in humans?
hypercholesterolemia
Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of
incomplete dominance
The expression of both alleles for a trait in a heterozygous individual is
codominance.
Which one of the following is not true?
a. Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria.

b. Sickle-cell disease is common in tropical Africa.

c. About one in 10 African Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell disease.

d. White blood cells are sickle shaped in sickle-cell disease.

e. All of the symptoms of sickle-cell disease result from the actions of just one allele.
d. White blood cells are sickle shaped in sickle-cell disease.
Which of the following terms refers to the situation where a single phenotypic characteristic is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes?
polygenic inheritance
The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance.
Genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as __________ genes and generally __________.
linked . . . do not sort independently during meiosis
Crossing over __________ genes into assortments of __________ not found in the parents.
recombines linked . . . alleles
In a cross of a purple-flowered, short-stemmed plant with a yellow-flowered, long-stemmed plant, the expected phenotypic ratio is 1 purple-short:1 purple-long:1 yellow-short:1 yellow-long. When you do the actual cross you observe a 5 purple-short:1 purple-long:1 yellow-short:5 yellow-long phenotypic ratio. Which of the following explains these results?
???
Which of the following kinds of data could be used to map the relative position of three genes on a chromosome?
the frequencies with which the corresponding traits occur together in offspring
What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?
one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
How many sex chromosomes are in a human gamete?
one
A plant species in which individual plants produce both sperm and eggs is called
monoecious.
An animal species in which an individual produces both eggs and sperm is called
hermaphroditic.
How is sex determined in most ants and bees? Sex is determined by the
number of chromosome sets.
What is meant by the statement that "male bees are fatherless"?
Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs
Any gene located on a sex chromosome
is called a sex-linked gene.
Recessive sex-linked human conditions include which of the following?
red-green color blindness, muscular dystrophy, and hemophilia
Why are sex-linked conditions more common in men than in women?
Men need inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed.
Who discovered the transforming factor (transformation)?
Griffith
Who proposed one gene- one protein?
Beadle and Tatum
Who discovered that the amount of A = T and C = G in any given sample of DNA?
Chargaff
The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
transcription
Where do transcription and translation occur in prokaryotic cells?
in the cytoplasm
Who gained credit for discovering the structure of DNA?
Watson and Crick
Who showed DNA was the genetic material and not protein?
Hershey-Chase
In replication of DNA, are the two new molecules identical (excluding mutations)?
Yes
What results from replication?
DNA
What results from translation?
polypeptide
The number of different amino acids found in protein.
20
What base is found in DNA but not in RNA?
T
Which of the RNA molecules carries information as it is needed for the construction of a protein?
mRNA
Which of the RNA molecules carries an amino acid to the ribosome?
tRNA
Which of the RNA molecules with protein makes up the ribosome?
rRNA
What part of the nucleotide differs from other nucleotides in a DNA strand?
Nitrogenous base
What bases always pair with each other?
A-T, C -G
What base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
U
What molecules make up the backbone of the DNA?
deoxyribose and phosphate
How many bases are in a codon?
3
How many bases in an anticodon?
3
The codon is found on which RNA?
mRNA
The anticodon is found on which RNA?
tRNA
A single codon codes for how many amino acids?
1
What sugar is found in DNA?
deoxyribose
What subunits make up DNA and RNA?
sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base
Which is larger, DNA or RNA?
DNA
This is the largest listed chemical and holds many types of information.
Gene
Polypeptide
RNA
Chromosome
chromosome
This type of mutation has a greater potential to change more amino acids in the polypeptide chain
frame shift mutation (base deletion)
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