Natural resistance (EP) is a non-specific, innate form of protection:

A / yes
B / no
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Receptors of the Fc-fragment of immunoglobulins have the following cells: a / T lymphocytes b / neutrophils c / macrophages d / dendritic cells e / all answers are correctb / neutrophils c / macrophagesIn the mucous secretions are most often found: a / Ig G b / Ig A c / Ig E d / Ig M e / Ig Db / Ig A (95% - important role in local immunity)The activation of the complement by the alternative route is carried out by: a / bacterial lipopolysaccharides (endotoxin) and autoantibodies (C3 - nephritic factor) b / C-reactive protein (CRP) and other acute phase proteins c / antigen-antibody complexes d / peptidoglycans e / all answers are correcta / bacterial lipopolysaccharides (endotoxin) and autoantibodies (C3 - nephritic factor) d / peptidoglycansToll-like receptors (TLRs) are characterized by: a) are located on the surface of T and B lymphocytes b / are found on the surface of macrophages and dendritic cells c / are activated upon binding to antibodies d / bind to PAMP structures of bacteria and viruses e / activate complementb / are found on the surface of macrophages and dendritic cells d / bind to PAMP structures of bacteria and virusesTypical of innate immunity is that: a / is an adaptive (acquired) form of protection b / is inherited and has a non-specific effect c / has memory d / all answers are correct e / no evening answerb / is inherited and has a non-specific effectHow many ways are there to activate the complement system? List them.The activation pathways are 3 - classical, alternative and lectin. Classical - Ag-AT Alternative - Lipopolysaccharides (endotoxin), peptidoglycans, autoantibodies Lectin - By mannose binding lectinsThe following cells are defined as "professional" phagocytes performing efficient phagocytosis:Neutrophils & MacrophagesHumoral factors of natural resistance include:Complement, Lysozyme, Acute Phase Proteins & CytokinesCytokines are _______________that are synthesized by _____, ______, ______ Fill in the blanksCytokines are physiological mediators that are synthesized by macrophages, lymphocytes, fibroblastsThe main mechanisms for intracellular killing of bacteria in phagocytosis are:There are 2, Oxygen dependent and oxygen independentC3 particle cleavageCentral reaction in the complement cascadeC5a and C3a particles of complementThey are anaphylatoxins (mediators of inflammation, cause the release of biologically active substances from mast cells and basophils - histamines, kinins, prostaglandins ---> inflammatory process)C5-9 complement fractionsMembrane Attack ComplexOstrophase cytokinesIL1, IL6Interferon α and βHave antiviral activityA 9-year-old child was admitted urgently to the Children's Clinic due to airway obstruction and difficulty breathing. Recently, the child has seizures that are not affected by histamine preparations and corticosteroids. After a thorough examination, the doctor finds non-itchy swelling on the skin. Parents also mention frequent severe abdominal pain that occurs with swelling. The duty officer a doctor prescribes in addition to the standard tests for a complete blood count and additional ones for the next day, including determination of certain serum complement fractions. Questions: What is the probable disease of the child? How will it be treated when it is not affected by histamine drugs and corticosteroids?Hereditary Angioedema Therapy performed with concentrate of C1 esterase inhibitor obtained from human plasma, or infusion of fresh blood plasma In severe mechanical asphyxia, a tracheotomy is performed.Adaptive (acquired) immunity is non-specific, represents an older form of protection and has a low degree of efficiency: a/true b/wrongb/wrongThe bone marrow is a central immune organ: a/yes b/noa/yesThe thymus is a peripheral immune organ: a/yes b/nob/noOne B-cell can synthesize several different antibodies with different specificity for the antigen: a/true b/incorrectb/incorrectTh1 cells produce IFNb, IL4, TNFα: a/true b/wrongb/wrongWhich of the following methods are used to quantify serum immunoglobulins: a / nephelometry and turbidimetry b / radial Mancini immunodiffusion c / fluocytometry d / agglutination e / PCRa / nephelometry and turbidimetry b / radial Mancini immunodiffusionAfter antigenic stimulation, the mature B-lymphocyte becomes: a) cytoxic cell b / plasma cell c / immunocompetent cell d / there is no correct answer e / all answers are correctb / plasma cellCD8 + T cells destroy their targets: a) after recognition of antigens associated with MHC class I molecules b / after recognition of antigens associated with MHC class II molecules c / by activating the alternative complement pathway d / all answers are correct e / there is no correct answera) after recognition of antigens associated with MHC class I moleculesT-lymphocytes acquire immune competence in: a / the thyroid gland b / bone marrow c / thymus d / submucosal lymphoid formations e / there is no correct answerc / thymusB-lymphocytes acquire immune competence in: a / spleen b / lymph nodes c / thymus d / bone marrow e / there is no correct answerd / bone marrowMature B-lymphocytes express on their surface: a / IgM and IgD b / IgM and IgA c / IgD and IgE d / IgG and IgD e / there is no correct answera / IgM and IgDThe articulated region of the IgG heavy chain is located: a) between CH1 and CH2 b) between CH2 and CH3 c / between CH3 and CH4 d) between VH and CH1 e / there is no correct answera) between CH1 and CH2The class of an immunoglobulin molecule is determined by: a / L-chains b / disulfide bonds c / H-chains d / variable areas e / there is no correct answerc / H-chainsThe first immunoglobulin that is synthesized by the fetus is: a / IgA b / IgE c / IgG d / IgM e / IgDd / IgMCD4 + cells can: a) support B cells for antibody production b / process and present the antigen c / enhance T cell function (via IL) d) release interlefkin-1 e / all answers are correcta) support B cells for antibody production c / enhance T cell function (via IL)CD4 + T cells recognize the antigen associated withclass II MHC moleculesTh2 cells secreteIL4 * IL-4 and IL-5 - they act as growth factors for B-cells, eosinophils, mast cellsWhich are antigen-presenting cells (APC)?MacrophagesThe primary immune response is characterized by the production of Which Immunoglobulin?IgMCD4T helpersCD8Cytotoxic and suppressor T lymphocytesCD3Common immunocompetent T lymphocytesCD19B lymphocytesCD56 and/or CD16NK CellsThe main role in protection against viruses is played by cellular immunity: a/true b/incorrecta/trueIntracellular bacteria are eliminated from the immune system mainly by humoral immune mechanisms: a/true b/incorrectb/incorrectLysozyme in mucous secretions effectively eliminates Gram-positive bacteria: a/true b/incorrecta/true * destroys glycosidic bonds in the peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell wall - there is a strong lytic action against Gram + (have a multilayer peptidoglycan)In the primary immune response against bacteria and viruses in the patient's serum appear specific IgG antibodies: a/true b/incorrectb/incorrect * primary - IgM * secondary - IgGDamage to liver cells in hepatitis B infection is due to: a / toxins b / direct lysis by viruses c) immunopathic effect of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes d / all answers are correct e / no answer is correctc) immunopathic effect of cytotoxic T-lymphocytesThe high antigenic variability of which of the following viruses makes it very difficult to recognize them from immune system: a / hepatitis A virus b / influenza viruses c / chickenpox virus d / hepatitis C virus e / HIV-1/2b / influenza viruses d / hepatitis C virus e / HIV-1/2It is typical for active tuberculosis infection to be accompanied by: a) an effective humoral immune response b / immunocomplex disease c / infectious type of allergy d / endotoxic shock e / there is no correct answerc/infectious type of allergyWhich of the following bacteria develop intracellularly, which prevents the access of antibodies to them? a / pneumococci b / listeria c / Klebsiella d / brucellosis e / tuberculosis bacteriab / listeria d / brucellosis e / tuberculosis bacteriaWhich of the following immunological parameters are most important in the study of patients with HIV infection? a) antimitochondrial antibodies b / number of CD4 + T lymphocytes c) anti-microsomal antibodies d / NBT test e ) the CD4 / CD8 T-lymphocyte ratio e / anti-DNA antibodiesb / number of CD4 + T lymphocytes e ) the CD4 / CD8 T-lymphocyte ratioNeutralizing antibodies are a major protective factor in protection against: # a) toxigenic bacteria b / encapsulated bacteria c / intracellular bacteria d / viruses e / all specifieda) toxigenic bacteria d / virusesNegative skin tests with purified protein derivative (PPD) in patients with tuberculosis and AIDS are due to a deficit of: a / some ingredients of the complement b / T lymphocyte and CD4 c / lysozyme d / NK cells e / there is no correct answerb / T lymphocyte and CD4Receptors for HIV viruses are: a / IgD on B-lymphocytes b / CD8 molecules c / CD4 molecules d / Rh antigens on erythrocytes e / all specifiedc / CD4 moleculesAnergy (lack of cellular immune response) is typical for: a / acute uncomplicated gonorrhea b / acute cystitis from Escherichia coli c / diphtheria d / lepromatous leprosy e / all specifiedd / lepromatous leprosyNK cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes have a major protective role in immunity against: a / viruses b / toxigenic bacteria c / extracellular bacteria d / all specified e / no answer is correcta / virusesNeonatal meningitis from E. coli K1antigenic mimicryHIV infectionneoplasms (Kaposi's sarcoma); dementiaEbstein-Barr virus (EBV) infectionnasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt's lymphomaPapilloma virus infectioncervical cancerActive tuberculosisan infectious type of allergyImmunodeficiency conditions and diseases are not associated with a defect in natural resistance or acquired immunity: a / true b / incorrectb / incorrectSevere combined immunodeficiency includes a group of diseases with serious immune disorders, caused by different pathogenetic mechanisms: a/true b/incorrecta/trueSecondary immunodeficiencies (TYDs) are caused by various factors: a/yes b/noa/yes viral, bacterial infections, irradiation with ionizing radiation; cytostatics, CS, AB; malnutrition; chronic endogenous intoxications, neoplastic processesChronic recurrent infections are not common for immunodeficiencies: a/true b/incorrectb/incorrectIn immunodeficiency diseases, immunization with live vaccines is contraindicated: a/true b/incorrecta/trueWhich of the immunodeficiencies are the result of genetically determined defects? a / primary immunodeficiencies (PID ) b / TYPE c / both answers are correct d / there is no correct answera / primary immunodeficiencies (PID )In which group of immunodeficiencies is Duncan's syndrome? a / TYPE b / PID c / can be included in both groups d / there is no correct answerb / PIDWiskott-Aldrich syndrome is: a / complement immunodeficiency b / deficiency of antibody formation c / cell-mediated immunodeficiency d / combined immunodeficiencyd / combined immunodeficiencyWhich of the immunodeficiencies are more common? a / PID b / TYPE c / both groups of immunodeficiencies are equally commonb / TYPEWhich of the following PIDs are not associated with phagocytic dysfunction? a / chronic granulomatous disease b / Chediak-Higashi syndrome c / Bruton's disease d / Job syndrome d / chronic mucocutaneous candidiasisc / Bruton's disease d / chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis * chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis - T-cell immune deficiencyWhich of the following immunological tests are specialized? a / leukocyte count and DNA (differential blood count) b / flow cytometric determination of lymphocyte populations and subpopulations c / quantification of immunoglobulins d) determination of C3 and C4 fractions of complement e) determination of C1q, C2 and C3 natural inhibitorb / flow cytometric determination of lymphocyte populations and subpopulations e) determination of C1q, C2 and C3 natural inhibitorAre any of the syndromes listed below unrelated to primary immunodeficiency? a / Job syndrome b / Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome c / Chediak-Higashi syndrome d / Sjogren's syndrome e / Nezelof syndromed / Sjogren's syndromeWhich of the following causes lead to the development of secondary immune deficiency? a / genetic b / biochemical and metabolic c / burns d / retention (arrest) in embryogenesisc / burnsWhich of the most common symptoms are not only suspected of immune deficiency? a / partial albinism b / thrombocytopenia c / incomplete recovery between episodes of infection or incomplete response to treatment d / recurrent infections e / all listeda / partial albinism b / thrombocytopenia * may be related to PID, but may be a manifestation of an independent disease or one of the symptoms of suchWhich of the methods is not suitable for the treatment of immunodeficiency? a / gene therapy b / bone marrow transplantation c / radiation therapy d / transfusion and infusion of cells e / none of the above is appropriatec / radiation therapyDetermination of allergen-specific IgE is necessary to demonstrate an allergic reaction from type I: a / true b / incorrecta / trueHemolytic disease of the newborn develops by the mechanism of type II allergic reactions: a / true b / incorrecta / true *- IgG antibodies are formed against the Rh (D) of the child , as IgG cross the placenta and destroy fetal erythrocytes, increased risk of Rh + / Rh- (baby / mother) after pregnancyElevated serum IgA levels are detected in Shonlein-Honoch vasculitis: a/true b/incorrecta/trueRapid-type hypersensitivity reactions usually occur 15-30 minutes after contact with allergen: a / true b / incorrecta / true *there is degranulation of mast cells and basophils , and in the bloodstream - "reformed" mediators (histamine), synthesis of leukotrienes , prostaglandins , platelet-activating factor . Clinic → erythema, edema, pruritus, bronchospasm, bronchial obstruction.IFNα is a leading mediator in the mechanism of type I allergic reactions: a / true b / incorrectb / incorrect *None of the IFNs are involved in type 1 reactionsType I allergic reactions are: a / immunocomplex b / cytolytic c / IgE mediated (anaphylactic, atopic) d / cell-mediatedc / IgE mediated (anaphylactic, atopic)Atopic diseases develop: a / with the participation of the complement b / in case of hereditary predisposition c / under the action of immune complexes d / with the participation of IgEb / in case of hereditary predisposition d / with the participation of IgEType II allergic reactions are realized by the mechanism of: a / anaphylaxis b / complement-mediated cytolysis c / immune complexes d) cell-mediated immunityb / complement-mediated cytolysis *- IgG or IgM bind to cell surface antigens → the complement cascade is activated by classical pathway → macrophages and polymorphonuclears are attracted, phagocytizing the cell with antigen. Clinic - edema, erythema, tissue necrosisAutoimmune hemolytic anemias occur most often as: a / type I hypersensitivity reactions b / type II hypersensitivity reactions c / type III hypersensitivity reactions d / type IV hypersensitivity reactionsb / type II hypersensitivity reactions *- are directed against erythrocyte antigens , and when binding to erythrocytes, antibodies form immune complexes that activate complement and lead to the destruction of erythrocytes.By what immune mechanism do type III allergic reactions develop? a / anaphylaxis b / complement - mediated cytolysis c / immune complexes d / infectious immunityc / immune complexes *immune complexes cannot be removed from the immune system, but are deposited in the tissuesWhat immune mechanism is involved in type IV allergic reactions: a / immune-complex b / anaphylaxis c / complement-mediated cytolysis d / infectious immunityd / infectious immunity *develops 24-48 hours with the participation of CD4 + T-lymphocytes , IL2 , IFN (gamma) and macrophages .Histological finding → granuloma.Anaphylactic reactions: a / develop very shortly after the meeting with the allergen - up to 30 minutes. b / may be followed by an inflammatory complication a few hours later c / are the result of the release of pharmacologically active mediators d / all are trued / all are true *Key moment → degranulation of mast cells and / or basophils. There is tissue destruction + inflammation.Which immunological methods are not used to test for specific IgE: a / enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA, immunoblot) b / fluorimetric c / chemiluminescent d / classic (agglutination, complement fixation reaction)d / classic (agglutination, complement fixation reaction)Patch tests are used to diagnose: a / primary biliary cirrhosis b / rheumatoid arthritis c / systemic lupus epithematosus d / contact sensitivity (type IV)d / contact sensitivity (type IV)Eosinophil cationic protein (ESP) is a marker in: a / atopic dermatitis b / tuberculosis c / systemic lupus erythematosus d / autoimmune hemolytic anemiasa / atopic dermatitis *One of the 4 toxic substances that are released; useful in monitoring of inflammatory changes, body fluids, with increased levels of IgE .List at least two diseases in the diagnosis of which a Montoux type test is used:Tuberculosis, Leprosy, BrucellosisWrite three diseases in which type I allergic reactions are involvedAllergic Rhinitis, Bronchial Asthma, Urticaria, Food Allergy, Anaphylactic ShockHypersensitive pneumonitis is what type of hypersensitivty reaction?Type 3Hemolytic disease of the newborn is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?Type 2Anaphylactic shock is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?Type 1Bronchial asthma is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?Type 1Autoantibodies are normally present in the repertoire of the immune system a / true b / incorrecta / trueThe functions of the immune system do not include distinguishing one's own from others antigens a / true b / incorrectb / incorrectAntinuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive in most patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) a / true b / incorrecta / true"Sm" and "RNP" are part of the group of extractable nuclear antigens that induce the formation of ANA a / true b / incorrecta / trueAutoantibodies to cytoplasmic neutrophil antigens (ANCA) are not detected in Wegener's granulomatosis and microscopic polyangitis a / true b / incorrectb / incorrectVascular inflammation and glomerulonephritis induced by autoantibodies are characteristic of:Systemic Lupus ErythematosusAutoimmune hemolytic anemias occur most often by type of:Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity ReactionsLymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid infiltration is characteristic ofHashimoto's ThyroiditisRheumatoid factor in the serum of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis is the most commonIgM reacting with an Fc fragment of endogenous IgGWhich of the following methods is not used to detect rheumatoid factor in serum? -Indirect immunofluorescenceFor the study of ANA are used -Indirect immunofluorescence (this is gold standard) ELISA and/or immunoblotWhich of the following substrates is most often used to determine ANA with indirect immunofluorescenceCryostat section of rat liver HEp2 cell lineThey are used to prove autoimmune diseases of the thyroid glandAntithyroglobulin AT AT against thyroid peroxidaseanti-double-stranded DNA is found mainly in patients withSLEAnti-LKM, AHA and anti-smooth muscle AT are important studies in the diagnosis ofAutoimmune hepatitisDetection of the HLA-B27 antigen aids in the diagnosis ofAnkylosing spondylitisAntiphospholipid syndromeAnticardiolipin ATGluten enteropathyantigliadin ATPrimary biliary cirrhosisAntimitochondrial ATClinical case: A 46-year-old woman admitted to the internal ward with a rash on the nose and cheekbones of face, pain and swelling of the small joints of the hands, dating from 8 months. Reports a feeling of discomfort and lethargy. During the examination are established: CN - 140/110, T-37 degrees, pulse - 80. The attending physician appoints paraclinical studies in which the following results are obtained: (table p. 49) SLE has been diagnosed What are the reference points for the diagnosisButterfly rash on the face, joint pain, menopausal age, increased ESR, positive ANA, presence of specific anti dsDNA and anti sm ANA, serum hypergammaglobulinemia IgG and IgA, positive lupus band testWhat is the immunopathogenetic mechanism of disease developmentThe formed ANAs are associated with nuclear hypertension and form immune complexes. Impaired removal of complexes from circulation leads to their deposition in the tissuesBy what method for the study of common ANAIndirect immunofluorescenceCarcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are the so-called "oncofetal AG " a / true b / incorrecta / trueTumor marker is any indicator (substance) whose concentration may increase in the presence of a neoplastic process in the body a / true b / incorrecta / trueProstate-specific hypertension (PSA) can be used successfully for early diagnosis of prostate carcinoma a / true b / incorrecta / trueAFP is not detected in elevated values in primary hepatocellular carcinoma a / true b / incorrectb / incorrectEbstein bar virus (EBV) has oncogenic properties, because may cause nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt's carcinoma a / true b / incorrecta / trueImmunotoxins are:- toxins combined with corresponding monoclonal AT (MCA) - They serve to destroy tumor cellsBlocking factors secreted during tumor growth:- block the action of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes on tumor cells - It appears as a mechanism for the tumor to escape from the body's immune response.The most common biological carcinogens are:DNA virusesCA15-3 is a marker of first choice in the immunodiagnostics of:The mammary glandMonoclonal ATs bound to diphtheria exotoxin can be used to:Specific immunotherapy of tumoursThe determination of SER in the serum of patients with colorectal cancer is most important for:- control of treatment and prognosis of the disease - Elevated serum levelsWhich of the following human tumor antigens are associated with Melanoma malignum:gp100 and MAPT-1 / Melan AFor the immunohistological diagnosis of lymphocytic neoplasms is used:- Monoclonal antibodies (MCA) - Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay - We have bone marrow cell staining from patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.Which of the cells can cause lysis of tumor cells without the help of antibodies:Cytotoxic T cellsTNFα canCause necrosis of solid tumoursWhich of the following cellular bioproducts has the most pronounced tumoricidal activity?Tumour infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL)By which of the following immune factors and mechanisms can antibodies cause lysis of? tumor cells?ADCCWhich of the viruses have pronounced oncogenic properties?EBV, HPVWhich definition does not apply to Burkitt's lymphoma?T cell neoplasiaCA19-9 is a marker forBreast CancerCEA is a marker forTumours of GI tractCA15-3 is a marker forBreast cancerAFP is increased inPrimary hepatocellular carcinomaThe graft is a graft from 1 place to another in the same individualWrong Autograft is from 1 place to another in the same individualShould blood group compatibility between donor and recipient be determined before kidney transplantationYesClassical MHC class II antigens (HLA-DR, DQ) have a more limited distribution than MHC class I antigensYes * MHC class II are secreted by specialized antigen-presenting cells - dendritic, macrophages, Langerhans, in contrast to MHC class I - more common on somatic cellsThe most suitable cells for HLA compatibility testing are lymphocytes derived from the patient's peripheral bloodYes * are used for 2 reasons: easy availability and high concentration of HLA in their cell surfaceAfter blood transfusions, pregnancy and previous transplants can form circulating antibodiesYesThe acute rejection reaction of the transplanted organ is manifested:Up to 3 monthsDuring transplantation, the preformed cytotoxic antibodies in the recipientAre responsible for the super-sharp rejection Can be directed against HLA or ABO antigens of the graftGraft reaction against the host (GVH)Manifests itself in different MHC antigens between donor and recipient May be the result of an infusion of blood products containing viable lymphocytes into immunologically incompetent recipient * Graft-versus-host disease (GVH) is caused by the destruction of cells or tissues of immunocompetent recipient of immunocompetent lymphoid cells transmitted by tissue incompatible donor. The GVH response does not require suppressor T cells.Rejection of the transplant is a manifestation ofCell mediated immunity Hypersensitivity type 3 (immune complex) Complement dependent cytotoxicityImmunological follow-up of an organ transplant patient requires examination of:Changes in lymphocyte populations and subpopulations Serum levels of cytokines Donor specific ATPrevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn due to compatibility with maternal Rhesus (RhD) factor includes:Passive maternal immunization to remove Rh antigen * Prevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn in Rh incompatibility is done by infusion of anti-RhD antibodies to the Rh (-) mother immediately but not later than 72 hours after the first birth. Introduced antibodies "bind" and lead to the rapid removal of Rh (+) cells from the child's blood. the mother; this prevents further risk exposure and immunization ( sensitization) of the Rh (-) mother to Rh (+) antigens.If the mother develops IgG AT to A and B erythrocyte antigens of the fetus, hemolytic disease of the newborn will appear in children from:O mother and AB Father * The only situation in which hemolysis occurs can be observed when a mother with blood group O produces IgG antibodies to fetal erythrocytes with A or B antigens on their surfaceWhich of the following AGs are rich in cell membranes of B-lymphocytesMHC 2Class III MHC regions in the major human tissue compatibility complex contain genes which encodecomponents of the complement systemAntimetabolites that suppress the immune response are the purine antagonistsAzathioprine and mercapturinHypersensitivity graft rejection is associated withpreformed cytotoxic antibodiesThe accelerated rejection reaction involves the following immunological factors and mechanisms ofsensitised T cells preformed by HLA AT formed during the immune response to graft or AZKCMolecular genetic methods for HLA typing in clinical transplant practice includePCRThe cells infiltrating the graft in the acute rejection reaction are predominantlyCD4+Allogeneic transplantationBone marrow transplantation from mother to daughterAutologous transplantation -Transplantation of skin from thigh to face of same individualSyngenna is:Bone marrow transplantation between identical twinsSources of stem cellsBone marrow, peripheral blood, umbilical cordGene loci of the HLA-class II region:DQ, DRCase: A 36-year-old man with a 20-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes goes for an examination at your doctor, found impaired renal function from diabetic nephropathy and elevated levels of urea and creatinine in the blood, which have increased significantly in the last few years, his doctor suggested that he start a kidney transplant procedure and look for a suitable donor. 1.WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE IN THE SURVIVAL OF A GRAFT IF IT IS ANTIGEN-RELATED INDIVIDUAL OR FROM A CARCASS DONOR?With cyclosporine the level of survival in cadaveric donors increases to 80%, and in related donors up to 90%.2. WHAT IS THE MECHANISM OF ACTION AND WHAT ARE THE POTENTIAL SIDE EFFECTS OF CYCLOSPORINE?Cyclosporine is a cyclic polypeptide derived from a fungus, it interferes with the secretion of interleukin 2 from T lymphocytes, resulting in blockade of T cell proliferation and inhibition of cellular immunity. Its main side effects are mainly renal and more a little liver intoxication, a balance must be found between harm and benefit in order maximum immunosuppression with minimal risk to the patient.3. WHAT IS THE ROLE OF MULTIPLE BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS BEFORE TRANSPLANTATION?The application of multiple transfusions before transplantation increases the life of the graft4. WHAT ARE SOME OF THE COMPLICATIONS IN ORGAN TRANSPLANTATION?Transplant patients on immunosuppressive therapy are very susceptible to viral infections, cytomegalovirus, Ebstein-Barr virus, hepatitis B and HIV can be transmitted from donor to recipient, for prevention, a serological test of the donor is required for these viruses.Transplants often have a higher risk of developing tumors, B-cell lymphoma, squamous cell carcinoma and Kaposi's sacrum.Hormones: luteinizing (LH), follicle-stimulating (FSH), inhibin B and estradiol, are tested in serum to assess ovarian reserve in women with reproductive disordersYesRecurrent abortions are not associated with defects in coagulation factors or circulating anticoagulants (lupus-like anticoagulants)IncorrectWomen with positive anti-ovarian antibodies have an increased chance of becoming pregnant after birth control in vitro fertilization or embryo transfer compared to women in whom no such was found antibodiesNoAntibodies in women with reproductive disorders are tested by serumYesAntiphospholipid syndrome is associated with the presence of anticardiolipin antibodies, loss of fetal, arterial and venous thrombosisYesWhich hormone is secreted by the granulosa cells of the ovary and controls the series of follicle-stimulating hormone from the pituitary glandInhibin BWhich immune indicators are associated with premature decline in ovarian function- antiphospholipid, antinuclear, antithyroid and anti-ovarian ATThe study of the reproductive immunophenotype in women with reproductive problems includes:-T-lymphocytes CD3 +, CD4 +, CD8 + -B-lymphocytes CD19 + -NK cells CD3 CD56 +, CD16 +Immunological manifestations in patients with endometriosis and reproductive problems are demonstrated with:- increased serum levels of antiphospholipid and antinuclear antibodies - activated reproductive phenotype and increased NK-cell cytotoxicity - increase in CA125In patients with previous abortions, monitoring and prognosis of the current pregnancy includes a study of serum concentrations ofBeta Human Chorionic GonadotropinHLA-G antigens are expressed inTrophoblastThe main functions of HLA-G antigens are (SPECIFY THE WRONG ANSWER) a) inhibiting the antitrophoblast activity of maternal NK cells b) protecting the fetus from the mother's immune response against the paternal antigens in it c) inducing frequent abortions d) protection of the fetus from transplant infectionsc) inducing frequent abortionsElevated NK cells in women with frequent abortions (SPECIFY THE WRONG ANSWER) A) they don't matter B) are cytotoxic to the placental trophoblast C) secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) are examined by peripheral venous blood in an anticoagulantA) they don't matterThe immunological examination of anti-phospholipid syndrome in pregnant women includes:- anticardiolipin antibodies -antibodies to phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidic acid, phosphatidylglycerol, phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine - anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I ATAnti-ovarian antibodies include AT versus- antigens of the pellucid zone - antigens of steroid-producing granulosa-luteinizing cellsThe normal development of pregnancy is due to the predominance ofTh2 cytokinesPregnancies with an increased risk of abortion are monitored by examination ofantiphospholipid AT, reproductive immunophenotypeInhibin B is tested on which day of the beginning of the menstrual cycleDay 3Antisperm AT is detected inA mans serum and semenIntravenous immunoglobulin therapy has been used successfully in women of childbearing potential disorders and:elevated circulating levels of NK cellsIndicators for examination in recurrent abortionsAntiphospholipid antibodiesMaterial for examination of ovarian hormonesSerumFunction of antisperm AT- agglutination (sticking) of sperm and blocking their interaction with the ovumInhibition of the activity of NK cellsIntravenous immunoglobulinMethod for determination of reproductive immunophenotypeFlow CytometryGamma globulin replacement therapy has a very good effect in selective IgA deficiencyNoIn T- and B-cell immunodeficiencies, live vaccines are counterinducedYesImmunosuppressive agents are used for treatment and prevention of patients after transplantationYesThe mechanism of action of glucocorticosteroids in the control of the immune response against graft organ is associated with inhibition of cytokine productionYesBCG vaccine is a bacterial immunomodulator for passive specific protective immunotherapyNo * The BCG vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis is also used in immunostimulatory therapy for tumors. It improves the body's overall immune reactivity, activating nonspecific cell-mediated immunity and macrophages. Therefore, BCG is considered for an active non-specific immunostimulant. It is used in the complex treatment of some solids tumors - carcinoma of the bladder (in the form of intravesical instillations); tumors in maxillofacial area, malignant melanoma, breast cancer, etc.Thymus transplantation is the main therapeutic approach inDiGeorge syndromeInterferon-gamma is used as the main treatment inChronic Granulomatous DiseaseIn intravenous immunoglobulin replacement immunotherapy in patients with primary immunodeficiency serum IgG levels should be maintainedover 6g / lTo which type of immunotherapy of tumors belong the preparations activating the specific one antitumor immune response to a specific tumorActive, specific * active specific antitumor therapy is carried out mainly by vaccines created by treated tumor cells - autologous, peptide, DNA, dendritic cells, etc. Vaccines.Levamisole and Bestatin are immunotherapeutic antitumor agents from the group ofSynthetic immunomodulatorsAllergenic preparations for hyposensitization are introducedSubcutaneously or sublinguallyTo prevent the activation of the immune response after transplantation, the following are used:Glucocorticosteroids, Calcium Neuron inhibitors, Antimetabolites, Antilymphocytic serumFor the prevention of acute graft rejection reactions apply (UNDERLINE WRONG ANSWER) -Cyclosporin A -Rapamycin -Azathioprine -BCG vaccine-BCG vaccine *BCG not used to prevent graft reactions, but in anti tumour therapyThe C1 esterase inhibitor is a leading therapeutic agent inHereditary AngioedemaIntravenous gamma globulin therapy is not used for which of the following immunodeficiencies Bruton's disease Chronic granulomatous diseaseChronic granulomatous diseaseBone marrow transplantation is indicated inSevere combined immunodeficiencyMesenchymal stem cells are candidates for replacement therapy inAutoimmune and degenerative diseasesThe optimal term for conducting allergen immunotherapy is3-5 yearsTreatment of systemic lupus erythematosus includesImmunosuppresantsThe main treatment for chronic viral hepatitis B and C isIFN Alpha * interferon-alpha is the basis of the treatment of hepatitis B and hepatitis C. Most of the effect of interferon-alpha on hepatitis C is attributed to its direct antiviral activity as well as to increased destruction of virus-infected hepatocytes. Interferons kill cells, infected with the virus, enhancing their apoptosis. It is believed that the effectiveness of interferon-alpha against Hepatitis B virus is determined by its immunomodulatory effect - stimulating the production of cytokines that activate macrophages, NK cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes.Tumor infiltrating lymphocytesAdaptive (cellular) immunotherapyUmbilical stem cell transplantationChildren with oncohematological diseasesAllergoidsSpecific hyposensitizationCyclosporine ACalcium Neuron inhibitorGranulocyte-colony stimulating factorTreatment of neutropenia associated with immunodeficiency