practice quiz multiple choice questions

Select the correct statement about the heart valves. A) The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. C) Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart. D) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.d. the AV valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contractionSelect the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall. A) The fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart. B) Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential. C) The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium. D) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.d. the myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contractsCompared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytiumSelect the correct statement about cardiac output. A) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. B) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume. C) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased. D) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.a. a slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contractionwhen does the period of atrial repolarization occur?ventricular depolarizationwhat is the expected heart rate when a heart is removed from a living body?100 beats / minutea person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely sufferinga bacterial infectionloss of fibrinogen with the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?loss of blood clottingwith a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to seeincreased hematocrithigher viscosity of blood will increase the amount of stress placed on the heart while it is pumping. viscosity of blood is highest whenhematocrit is highesta mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous becausepreformed antibodies in the RECIPIENT's blood will bind and clump the donated cellsif you centrifuge whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. this implies thatRBCs have a greater density than WBCswhat is the average normal pH range of blood7.35=7.45which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of bloodhemocytoblastwhich blood type is generally called the universal donorOFred's blood was determined to be AB positive. what does this meanthere are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasmasmall secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termedlymph nodeswhich of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organpancreaswhich of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSEit has follicles similar to those in the spleenlymph transport involves all of the following EXCEPT A) milking action of active muscle fibers B) thorax pressure changes during breathing C) smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls D) lymph capillary minivalve actionc. smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary wallsthe thymus is most active duringchildhoodwhich lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thoraxright lymphatic ductwhich of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system A) lymphatic vessels B) lymph nodes C) lymph D) erythrocytesd. erythrocytesthe lymphatic capillaries aremore permeable than blood capillarieslymph leaves a lymph node viaefferent lymphatic vesselsfunctions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT A) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood B) forming crypts that trap bacteria C) storage of blood platelets D) storage of ironforming crypts that trap bacteriawhen the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result issevere localized edema distal to the blockage of that limbselect the correct statement about lymph transportlymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscleslymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity if called a(n)tonsilpeyer's patches are found in the distal portion of thesmall intestinelymphatic capillaries are present indigestive organslarge clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations EXCEPT the A) inguinal region B) cervical region C) axillary region D) lower extremitieslower extremitiesmucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT A) Peyer's patches B) palatine tonsils C) lingual tonsils D) islets of Langerhansd. islets of Langerhanswhich of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow? A) skeletal muscle contraction B) breathing C) valves in lymph vessel walls D) capillary smooth muscle contractiond. capillary smooth muscle contractionthe tonsils located at the base of the tongue are thelingual tonsilswhich of the following NOT a normal component of lymph? A) water B) plasma proteins C) red blood cells D) ionsred blood cellswhich lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?thymuswhich of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?thymuswhich of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system A) draining excess interstitial fluid B) carrying out immune responses C) transporting dietary fats D) transporting respiratory gasesd. transporting respiratory gaseswhich of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes? A) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs C) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid D) serve as antigen surveillance areasproduce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluidan advantage to adaptive immunity isits memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigenan advantage of innate immunity isits barriers that prevent pathogens from entering into the bodyB-lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reason but one. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons B-lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunitythey are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediatleyWhich of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease? A) Infection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity. B) Release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis. C) Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness. D) Uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cellsantibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weaknessa vaccine is effective becausethe secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient thre primary responsea flu vaccine needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. the best explanation of this isthe flu has several strains that change seasonallyAll of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation. A) It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function. B) It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens. C) Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins. D) It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.d. it activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to themvaccines work bypriming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposureinflammationbrings more leukocytes to the sight of infectionmembrane attack complex (MAC) kills bydisrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria's plasma membraneduring inflammation fluids will passively diffuse out of blood vessels into the nearby, infected tissues. this implies all of the following EXCEPT A) the osmolarity of the fluids surrounding infected tissue is higher than the plasma B) the surrounding tissue will swell with excessive fluids C) nearby capillaries have become more permeable D) B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cellsd. the B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cellschoose the best description of an antigen. A) a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity B) part or a piece of a disease or pathogen C) a particle (typically a foreign protein) that triggers inflammation D) a chemical that enhances or modifies immune responsea. a particle that triggers the adaptive immunitywhich of the following is associated with passive immunity?passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetuswhich of the following is not a type of T cell A) cytotoxic B) antigenic C) helper D) regulatoryb. antigenicB lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in thebone marrowthe redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused byvasodilationwhich of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement? A) NK cells are a type of neutrophil. B) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow. C) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal or lack MHC antigens. D) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.a. NK cells are a type of neutrophilinterferonsinterfere with viral replication within cellsWhich of the statements below does not describe antigens? A) Antigens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity. B) Antigens only come from microbes. C) The parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants. D) Antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.the parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinantscomplement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytosize the organism. this phenomenon is termedopsonizationinnate immune system defense includephagocytosisSelect the correct statement about active and passive immunity. A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. B) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. C) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism. D) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodiesWhich of the following cells has the largest role and most widespread effect on immunity? A) B cell B) helper T cell C) cytotoxic T cell D) APCb. helper t cellAntibody functions include all of the following except ________. A) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms B) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched C) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution D) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysisb. cross-linkning cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matchedWhich statement is true about T cells? A) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. B) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2. C) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. D) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.b. their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2what is the role of interferon in defense against disease?protect cells that have not yet been infected by virusesthe main site of gas exchange is thealveolithe loudness of a person's voice depends on theforce with which air rushes across the vocal foldsthe walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. the function of type II alveolar cells is tosecrete surfactantair moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside of the lungs isgreat than the pressure in the atmospherewhich of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of airis it a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspirationwhich of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?c-shaped cartilage ringssurfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing byinterfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, therby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluidfor gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be0.5-1 micrometer thick-thinthe most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person isincrease of carbon dioxidein the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution isonly about 1.5-3% of the oxygen carried in bloodwhich of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungspulmonary ventilationtidal volume is airexchanged during normal breathingwhich of the choice below determines the direction of respiratory gas movementpressure gradient- diffusion of gasesthe lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is thevital capacityWhich of the following is NOT a stimulus for breathing? A) rising carbon dioxide levels B) rising blood pressure C) low arterial oxygen below 60 mm Hg D) acidosis resulting from CO2 retentionb. rising blood pressurethe amount of air that can inspired above the tidal volume is calledinspiratory reserve volumeWhich statement about CO2 is FALSE? A) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation. B) Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH. C) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs. D) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.c. more CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCsoxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes bydiffusionSelect the correct statement about the pharynx. A) The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the laryngopharynx. B) The pharyngotympanic (eustachean) tube drains into the nasopharynx. C) The laryngopharynx blends posteriorly into the nasopharynx. D) The palatine tonsils are embedded in the lateral walls of the nasopharynx.b. the paryngotympanic (eustachean) tube drains into the nasopahrynxthe larynx containsthe thyroid cartilagewhich respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a balloon?internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contracthow is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the blood cellsWhich of the following INCORRECTLY describes mechanisms of CO2 transport? A) 7-10% of CO2 is dissolved directly into the plasma B) just over 20% of CO2 is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin C) as bicarbonate ions in plasma D) attached to the heme part of hemoglobind. attached to the heme part of hemoglobinwhich of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?alveolithe respiratory membrane is a combination ofalveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranesinspiratory reserve volume isair inspired after a tidal inhalationThe nose serves all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) as a passageway for air movement B) as the direct initiator of the cough reflex C) warming and humidifying the air D) cleansing the airb. as the direct initiator of the cough reflexSelect the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood. A) During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2. B) During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently. C) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity. D) A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normala 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate at an activity level higher than normalWhich of the following does NOT influence hemoglobin saturation? A) temperature B) BPG/DPG C) partial pressure of carbon dioxide D) nitric oxided. nitric oxidefor inspiration of air, which of the following happens first?diaphragm descends and rib cage riseswhich structure is lined with simple squamous epithelium? A) trachea B) nasopharynx C) alveolus D) oropharynxalveoluswhich of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule PCT contain so many mitchondria?a great deal of active transport takes place in the PCTwhat is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule?they increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbedthe thin segment of the nephron loop's descending limb ___________aids in the passive movement of water out of the tubulethe presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following?damage to the renal tubulesif the diameter of the afferent arteioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation) which of the following is NOT likely to occur?systemic blood pressure will go upwhich of the following is NOT associated with the renal corpuscle?a vasa rectaan increase in the permiability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to aincrease in the production of ADHthe urinary bladder is compromised of ____________ epitheliumtransitionalthe kidneys are stimulated to produce renin __________by a decrease in the blood pressurewhich of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heatthe ___________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidneyarcuatethe glomerulus differs from other capillaries in that it ______________is drained by an efferent arteriolethe descending limb of the nephron loop _____________contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medullaselect the correct statement about the uretersthe ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the GI tractthe functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ___________nephronwhich of the following does not describe the justaglomerular complex?its macula densa cells produce aldosteronethe chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood acorss the filtration membrane is ___________glomerular hydrostatic pressurewhich of the following acts as the trigger for the intiation of micturition?the stretching of the bladder wallthe filtration membrane includes all exceptrenal fasciathe macula densa cells respond tochanges in Na+ content of the filtratewhich of the following is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?creatinethe fluid in glomerular capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of __________plasma proteinalcohol acts as a diuretic because it __________inhibits the release of ADHthe function of angiotensin II is to _________constrict arterioles and increase blood pressureif the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120mg/100ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230mg/100ml, the aminoacid will ______________appear in the urineif one says that the clearence value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?normally all the glucose is reabsorbedwhich of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?by secreting sodium ionsin the ascending limb of the nephron loop the ___________thick segment moves ions out into intersitual spaces for reabsorptionwhat is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneyswhich of the choices below is the salt level monitoring part of the nephron?macula densawhich of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?angiontensin II and aldosteroneThe enterohepatic circulation reabsorbs bile salts in the distal portion of the small intestine (ileum). All of the following statements about the enterohepatic circulation are true except one. Select the statement below that is not true of the enterohepatic circulation?all of the compnents of bile are recycled by the circulationwhich of the following is the best illustration of the difference between metabolism and digestion?metabolism comprimises all of the chemical reactions performed with in the body while digestion is only the breakdown of food in the GI tractwhich of the organs listed below is involved in all of the following processes: secretion, mechanical breakdown of food, digestion and absorption?the stomachBile salts bind at their hydrophobic regions to large fat globules within the chyme that enters the duodenum. Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salt is best described as ______________lipid emulsificationa doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise ___________eating foods that are low in fatselect the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms.the cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected form the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tractselect the description below that illustrates a different between a sphincter and circular muscle.a sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent th emovement of digestion materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting materialall of the following are true of swallowing except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowingthe epiglottis assists in propelling food into the tracheagenerally, the hormones secretin and cholecytokinin which are relased by duodenal enterendocrine cells will ______________increase the release of digestive enzymes and bilethe function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ___________collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liverthe chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are calleddigestionwhen we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbs, and proteins, they must undergo catablic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called _____________chemical digestionthe sheets of periotoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ___________mesentariesfrom esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumenmucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosathe capillaries tha nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutritents lie in the ____________lamina propriathe absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?villi, and microvilliwhich of the following is not true of saliva?contains acid which aid in chemical digestionthe bolus is liquified in the ___________ and it is now called chymestomachperistaltic waves are ________waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to anotherpepsinogen, an innactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ___________chief cells of the stomachyou have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help digest the meal?amylaseshort-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?lipasehepatocytes do not _________produce digestive enzymeswhich vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?B12chief cells ___________produce pepsinogenthe _________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.liverthe function of goblet cells is to ___________produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestionwhat stomachsecretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?intrinsic factorthe ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenumgluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose in the liver, is due to the action of ___________cortisolnormal development of the immune system requires hormones produced by the _____________thymus glandvirtually all amino acid based hormones exert their signaling effects through ________second messengerswhich of the following is NOT commonly seen in diabetes mellitus?polycythemiaoxytocin _________release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanismantidiuretic hormone __________secretion is inhibited by alcoholwhich of the following is NOT done by hormones?causes an action potentiala appetite supressing hormone is ________leptincells respond to the presence of a hormone based on _______________the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organtransportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the _____________hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal systemsteroid hormones _____________enter the nucleus of a cell and intiate or alter the expression of a genethyroid hormone enters target cells in a manner similar to _________steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cellsthe major target of growth hormone is _______________musculoskeletal systemwhich of the following is NOT a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?inhibition of calcitonin synthesiswhere is atrial natriureti peptide made?the heartmineralocorticoid to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to _____________cortisolcellular responses to hormones that intiate second-messenger systems include ________________possible activation of several different second-messenger systemsRegulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________________travel via the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal systemadrenocorticotropic hormone ________________secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormonealdosterone ____________functions to increase sodium reabsorptionA man needs FSH becauseFSH stimulates sperm production in the testesglucocorticoidsincrease blood glucose, fatty acid, an amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressurewhat ion is sometimes used as a second messenger?calciumwhich of the following hormones are synthesized from cholesterol?testosteronewhich hormone helps prevent a drop in sugar level between meals?glucagonwhat hormone is used by travelers to prevent jetlag?melatoninduring spermiogenesis _______________the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilizationall but one of the vents described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does not occurmitchondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to th egg uring fertilizationall but one of the following statements is true of uterine function. Select the statement that is not true of uterine function.the narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site for fertilizationthe oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill" contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because ______________the hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulationWhich of the following glands are responsible for 70% of the synthesis of semen?the seminal vesicleswhich of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?GnRHHuman egg and sperm are similar in that __________they have the same number of chromosomesfertilization generally occurs in the _________fallopian tubeswhich of the following female structures is homologus to the male scrotum?labia majoraeffects of estrogen include _________growth of the breasts at pubertywhich of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?stimulates mammary gland developmentwhich male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSHInhibinselect the correct statement about the uterine cycle.If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryowhich of the choices below is NOT a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?thalamuswhich of the following statements is true concering the mammary glands of both males and females?the mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary systemnormally menstruation occurs when ___________blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decreasethe basic difference betwen spematogenesis and oogenesis is that _____________in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cellwhy doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?the smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closeswhich hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur?LHthe hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ___________involves FSH and LH releaseSelect the correct statement about testosterone control.GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitarya boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ____________be unable to produce viable spermwhich of the following statments about the female reproductive system process is NOT true?rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of the placentaa low secretion of LH in the normal male adult would cause ____________decreased testosterone secretionall of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except _____________FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometriumthe duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following?corpus spongiosumprostate cancer is ____________sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

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