129 terms

Content Knowledge Praxis Study Material

STUDY
PLAY

Terms in this set (...)

The ability to identify four distinct sounds in the word "clap" demonstrates competence in which of the following phonemic awareness skills?


A. Phoneme identity

B. Phoneme categorization

C. Phoneme blending

D. Phoneme segmentation
D. Phoneme segmentation


This question tests your ability to recognize the application of the skill of phonemic segmentation. Phonemic segmentation refers to the ability to break a word into its separate sounds, saying each sound as it is counted. The ability to identify four sounds in the word "clap" demonstrates an understanding of phonemic segmentation.
Which of the following statements best describes a student who has acquired proficiency in reading automaticity?


A. The student effortlessly processes, decodes, and understands the written words in a text.

B. The student reads sustained text with natural expression and appropriate phrasing.

C. The student recognizes text structure, apprehends meaning, and understands author's purpose.

D. The student adjusts reading rate based on comprehension demands and genre of the text.
A. The student effortlessly processes, decodes, and understands the written words in a text.


Automaticity refers to a student's ability to process, decode, and understand written words without effort.
Which of the following is a true statement about phonological awareness in literacy development?


A. The visual recognition of sight words depends on the ability to recognize sound blends.

B. The decoding of unfamiliar words depends on the ability to associate sounds with written letters.

C. The development of reading fluency depends on the ability to connect letter names to sounds.

D. The development of reading comprehension depends on the ability to identify written letters by name.
B. The decoding of unfamiliar words depends on the ability to associate sounds with written letters.


This question tests your knowledge of the foundational element of decoding. The ability to match sounds to individual letters provides the foundation for more complex decoding tasks. Understanding the relationship between the letters in a word and the sound of a word is required for decoding unfamiliar words.
Word Student's Spelling
coat coet
bought baught
right rite
hitch hich

The sample analysis of a student's spelling test shown best demonstrates which of the following characteristics of spelling development?


A. The ability to recognize that words are made up of letter patterns representing sounds

B. The ability to represent words phonetically, with a single letter representing each sound

C. The ability to recognize sound-letter correspondence for single letters only

D. The ability to represent words with random letters that have no letter-sound correspondence
A. The ability to recognize that words are made up of letter patterns representing sounds


This question requires an analysis of a student's work and a correct interpretation of the student's stage in spelling development. The student has progressed through the random-letter stage, the simple phonetic stage, and the stage in which students rely on single letters to represent combinations of consonants. The student's spelling of "coat" ("coet"), "bought" ("baught"), "right" ("rite"), and "hitch" ("hich") indicates that he or she recognizes that letter patterns represent sounds.
Which of the following concepts is best supported by research on emergent literacy?


A. Reading and writing develop concurrently and in interrelated ways.

B. Literacy learning has distinct beginning and ending points.

C. Children begin their literacy learning when they enter school.

D. Children begin their literacy learning after having mastered basic letter-sound skills
A. Reading and writing develop concurrently and in interrelated ways.


This question asks you to recognize research conclusions related to emergent literacy. Emergent literacy is the idea that children grow into reading and writing with no real beginning or ending point, that reading and writing develop concurrently and in interrelated ways, and that this learning process starts long before children enter school and does not depend on mastery of letter-sound skills.
A beginning reader is learning to read and spell the following words.

five
dime
gave
cute
hope

The reader is able to visualize and remember the letter patterns in the words and transfer this knowledge to reading and writing new words such as "hide," "take," and "robe." Which of the following best identifies the processing system the reader is using to extend learning?


A. Orthographic

B. Syntactic

C. Phonological

D. Semantic
A. Orthographic


This question tests your knowledge of the processing systems a reader uses to extend learning. The reader in this scenario uses the orthographic word processing system because he or she uses visualization (has a visual awareness) of the letter pattern in the words. Although these words can be phonologically decoded, the reader is not using this system, because he or she is not "sounding out" the words letter by letter.
Which THREE of the following words contain an open syllable?


A. Different

B. Vehicle

C. Jungle

D. Fantastic

E. Remembering

F. Apron
B. Vehicle
E. Remembering
F. Apron


This question tests your knowledge of syllable types. An open syllable ends in a vowel and the sound is long. In "vehicle," the first syllable ("ve") is open. In "remembering," the first syllable ("re") is open. In "apron," the first syllable ("a") is open.
Before reading a new text, a reader identifies the purpose for reading, examines the genre and difficulty of the material, and considers prior knowledge on the topic. These strategies will best help the reader focus on which of the following elements of fluency?


A. Rate

B. Accuracy

C. Prosody

D. Automaticity
A. Rate


The rate refers to the speed at which a text is read. Purpose, genre, difficulty, and prior knowledge all affect how quickly a text is read.
A reader who has demonstrated fluency while reading an informational text can now use available cognitive resources to focus on which of the following?


A. Decoding difficult words in the text

B. Comprehending the main ideas in the text

C. Engaging with the text at a fast reading rate

D. Transferring knowledge of domain-specific vocabulary to other texts
B. Comprehending the main ideas in the text

If a reader does not need to concentrate on word recognition demands while reading, most of the cognitive resources a reader brings to the task can be used to comprehend the text.
Students' phonological awareness can be assessed by evaluating their ability to


A. understand how words in a text are segmented into syllables

B. make personal connections to characters within a text

C. understand unfamiliar words by using the surrounding text

D. read with varied intonation based on story elements
A. understand how words in a text are segmented into syllables


This question tests your ability to understand the developmental process of phonological awareness. The ability to understand how words in a text are segmented into syllables is the definition of phonological awareness.
Long ago, the mice had a general council to consider what measures they could take to outwit their common enemy, the Cat. Some said this, and some said that; but at last a young mouse got up and said he had a proposal to make, which he thought would meet the case. "You will all agree," said he, "that our chief danger consists in the sly and treacherous manner in which the enemy approaches us. Now, if we could receive some signal of her approach, we could easily escape from her. I venture, therefore, to propose that a small bell be procured, and attached by a ribbon round the neck of the Cat. By this means we should always know when she was about, and could easily retire while she was in the neighborhood."

This proposal met with general applause, until an old mouse got up and said: "That is all very well, but who is to bell the Cat?" The mice looked at one another and nobody spoke. Then the old mouse said:

"It is easy to propose impossible remedies."

-— "Belling the Cat" by Aesop

Which of the following best paraphrases the moral of the fable?


A. Older usually means wiser.

B. Outsmarting an enemy is a task best left to older generations.

C. It is best to go with group consensus.

D. It is important to be realistic when proposing a solution to a problem.
D. It is important to be realistic when proposing a solution to a problem.


A moral is the lesson derived from a story. The moral of the fable is "it is easy to propose impossible remedies." This means that it is easy to find unrealistic solutions to problems; therefore, it is important to be realistic when proposing solutions to problems.
Long ago, the mice had a general council to consider what measures they could take to outwit their common enemy, the Cat. Some said this, and some said that; but at last a young mouse got up and said he had a proposal to make, which he thought would meet the case. "You will all agree," said he, "that our chief danger consists in the sly and treacherous manner in which the enemy approaches us. Now, if we could receive some signal of her approach, we could easily escape from her. I venture, therefore, to propose that a small bell be procured, and attached by a ribbon round the neck of the Cat. By this means we should always know when she was about, and could easily retire while she was in the neighborhood."

This proposal met with general applause, until an old mouse got up and said: "That is all very well, but who is to bell the Cat?" The mice looked at one another and nobody spoke. Then the old mouse said:

"It is easy to propose impossible remedies."

-— "Belling the Cat" by Aesop

Based on the passage, the reader can infer that the


A. old mouse is angry at the young mouse for proposing the plan

B. young mouse did not think the plan through before making the proposal

C. old mouse has proposed many possible solutions to the cat problem

D. young mouse will become the leader of the group as a result of his innovative plan
B. young mouse did not think the plan through before making the proposal


This question tests your ability to infer. The young mouse proposed his plan very confidently, but when the old mouse questioned him, the whole group fell silent, showing that they were forced to rethink the young mouse's plan.
German shepherds are the most familiar of the dogs employed as guides for the visually impaired, but collies, boxers, Labrador retrievers, and several other breeds have also been trained successfully for this job. It is not only the dog that must be trained. The person who is visually impaired and who will become the dog's master must also go to a special school, where the two can develop trust and a close understanding.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the paragraph?


A. Describing different breeds of dogs so that people can choose a suitable guide dog

B. Expressing an opinion about the preferred breed of dog to work with people who are visually impaired

C. Explaining that guide dogs and people who are visually impaired receive training to work together

D. Illustrating the process and steps involved in training guide dogs
C. Explaining that guide dogs and people who are visually impaired receive training to work together


This question asks you to identify the primary purpose of a nonfiction paragraph. While types of dogs that are typically used as guides are mentioned in the beginning of the paragraph, this is simply a lead-in to the primary focus that both guide dogs and people who are visually impaired receive training to learn how to work together.
Which of the following terms best describes a series of events that build tension from conflict in a story?


A. Exposition

B. Rising action

C. Climax

D. Falling action
B. Rising action


The rising action of a plot occurs after the exposition, or introduction, and contains a series of events that build from the conflict and end at the climax of the story.
As Arctic ice continues to melt, the polar bear's quest for food often leads to swimming long distances, ultimately ending in starvation. Last year, a policy paper outlined a multi-step plan to save the ever-declining polar bear population, which included the risky suggestion to feed the bears directly. There are many endangered species on this planet, and it is not the case that one is more important or critical than another. However, when we see candid images of these majestic creatures in their environment, it becomes apparent how desperately they need saving.

The author of the passage can best be described as having a point of view similar to


A. a politician discussing climate change

B. an educator teaching a class about animal behavior

C. a company executive arranging a wildlife benefit

D. a conservationist pleading for a vulnerable species
D. a conservationist pleading for a vulnerable species


The excerpt is from an article that was likely written by someone with very strong feelings for vulnerable or endangered species, specifically polar bears. The tone of the article is pleading and passionate, citing other works and research the author has done to support his or her case, asking rhetorical questions, and advocating the polar bear's cause over those of other animals.
Once upon a time, a beggar woman went to the house of a poor peasant and asked for something to eat. The peasant's wife gave her some bread and milk. When she had eaten it, she took a barley-corn out of her pocket, and said, "This will I give thee; set it in a flowerpot, and see what will come out of it."

The woman set the barley-corn in an old flowerpot, and the next day the most beautiful plant had shot up, which looked just like a tulip, but the leaves were shut close together, as if it still were in bud.

Which of the following best describes the characteristics of the passage?


A. The passage contains simple characterization and quickly moving action.

B. The passage emphasizes themes surrounding differences between the rich and the poor.

C. The setting in the passage is described using rich and vivid vocabulary.

D. The melancholy tone of the passage is developed through the use of repetitive sentence structures.
A. The passage contains simple characterization and quickly moving action.


This question asks you to recognize structural and stylistic elements characteristic of a particular genre, the fairy tale. In this selection, the action moves very quickly, and the characters are developed with minimal description. None of the other choices accurately describe what is going on in the passage.
I told him how I got my name and I told him how I had just moved to Naomi. I also told him about the preacher and how he was a good man, even if he was too distracted with sermons and prayers and suffering people to go grocery shopping.

"But you know what?" I told Winn-Dixie. "You are a suffering dog, so maybe he will take to you right away. Maybe he'll let me keep you."

Winn-Dixie looked up at me and wagged his tail. He was kind of limping like something was wrong with one of his legs. And I have to admit, he stunk. Bad. He was an ugly dog, but already, I loved him with all my heart.

—from Because of Winn-Dixie, by Kate DiCamillo

Which of the following quotations from the passage best supports the claim that the novel's overall theme is acceptance?


A. "I told him how I got my name and I told him how I had just moved to Naomi."

B. "I also told him about the preacher and how he was a good man, . . ."

C. "Winn-Dixie looked up at me and wagged his tail."

D. "He was an ugly dog, but already, I loved him with all my heart."
D. "He was an ugly dog, but already, I loved him with all my heart."


The sentence indicates that the speaker accepts the dog even though it has some flaws.
I told him how I got my name and I told him how I had just moved to Naomi. I also told him about the preacher and how he was a good man, even if he was too distracted with sermons and prayers and suffering people to go grocery shopping.

"But you know what?" I told Winn-Dixie. "You are a suffering dog, so maybe he will take to you right away. Maybe he'll let me keep you."

Winn-Dixie looked up at me and wagged his tail. He was kind of limping like something was wrong with one of his legs. And I have to admit, he stunk. Bad. He was an ugly dog, but already, I loved him with all my heart.

—from Because of Winn-Dixie, by Kate DiCamillo

Which of the following details from the passage best supports the inference that "the preacher" is the speaker's father?


A. The preacher cares for people who are suffering.

B. The preacher was too busy to go to the grocery store.

C. The speaker describes the preacher to Winn-Dixie.

D. The speaker hopes the preacher will let her keep Winn-Dixie.
D. The speaker hopes the preacher will let her keep Winn-Dixie.


This statement indicates that the main character will have to ask the preacher if she can keep the dog, supporting the inference that the preacher is her father.
I told him how I got my name and I told him how I had just moved to Naomi. I also told him about the preacher and how he was a good man, even if he was too distracted with sermons and prayers and suffering people to go grocery shopping.

"But you know what?" I told Winn-Dixie. "You are a suffering dog, so maybe he will take to you right away. Maybe he'll let me keep you."

Winn-Dixie looked up at me and wagged his tail. He was kind of limping like something was wrong with one of his legs. And I have to admit, he stunk. Bad. He was an ugly dog, but already, I loved him with all my heart.

—from Because of Winn-Dixie, by Kate DiCamillo

Which of the following statements supports the observation that the passage is written in first-person point-of-view?


A. The thoughts of the speaker and the dog are included in the passage.

B. The events are arranged in sequential order in the passage.

C. The speaker describes her personal experiences and emotions in the passage.

D. There is a combination of dialogue and description in the passage.
C. The speaker describes her personal experiences and emotions in the passage.


The narrator is the main character and is therefore able to describe events and her emotions at the same time.
Alex baits a hook, attaches a heavy sinker, and hangs the fishing line overboard. It drops to the bottom. He waits and feels with his fingers for a tug on the line. He feels a nibble. He pulls. Nothing. He feels another nibble and tugs hard. He has it. The hook is set. Alex holds on and starts pulling it in.

Which of the following is the predominant pattern of organization in the passage?


A. Chronological order

B. Cause and effect

C. Spatial order

D. Problem and solution
A. Chronological order


This question asks you to recognize the predominant pattern of text structure. The writer organizes events in the order in which they happened — that is, in chronological order — using simple descriptive language to help the reader visualize the process.
Which of the following is a quantitative feature of text complexity?


A. Students' motivation to read a text

B. The intricacy of the analogies in a text

C. Students' prior knowledge related to a text's subject matter

D. The number of complex and compound sentences in a text
D. The number of complex and compound sentences in a text


The factors involved in text complexity include the length and structure of sentences. The number of complex and compound sentences in a text is a quantitative factor because it involves an amount, or quantity.
Passage 1

While Alexander Graham Bell was experimenting with telegraph instruments in the early 1870s, he realized it might be possible to transmit the human voice over a wire using electricity. Bell's interest in electricity continued, and he attempted to send several telegraph messages over a single wire at one time. It was on June 2, 1875, while Bell was at one end of the line and his assistant Watson worked on the reeds of the telegraph in another room that he heard the sound of a plucked reed coming to him over the wire.

Passage 2

After many failed attempts, Alexander Graham Bell invented a working telephone. The next step was to make the telephone accessible so people could use it. This involved putting in lines to carry the telephone messages. The first telephone lines went from one person's phone to another. Those were called landlines. Then they added what are called switching stations, so one line could reach more than one place. Even though it was not the most efficient system, it still worked well enough for people to communicate.

Which of the following excerpts most strongly supports the claim that Alexander Graham Bell's early diligence resulted in the telephone we know today?


A. "... he realized it might be possible to transmit the human voice over a wire using electricity."

B. "... he heard the sound of a plucked reed coming to him over the wire."

C. "After many failed attempts, Alexander Graham Bell invented a working telephone."

D. "Even though it was not the most efficient system, it still worked well enough for people to communicate."
C. "After many failed attempts, Alexander Graham Bell invented a working telephone."


The phrase "After many failed attempts . . . " supports the claim that Bell's early diligence resulted in the telephone of today.
Passage 1

While Alexander Graham Bell was experimenting with telegraph instruments in the early 1870s, he realized it might be possible to transmit the human voice over a wire using electricity. Bell's interest in electricity continued, and he attempted to send several telegraph messages over a single wire at one time. It was on June 2, 1875, while Bell was at one end of the line and his assistant Watson worked on the reeds of the telegraph in another room that he heard the sound of a plucked reed coming to him over the wire.

Passage 2

After many failed attempts, Alexander Graham Bell invented a working telephone. The next step was to make the telephone accessible so people could use it. This involved putting in lines to carry the telephone messages. The first telephone lines went from one person's phone to another. Those were called landlines. Then they added what are called switching stations, so one line could reach more than one place. Even though it was not the most efficient system, it still worked well enough for people to communicate.

Although both passages discuss Alexander Graham Bell's telephone, passage 1 is primarily concerned with __________________, while passage 2 is mostly concerned with __________________.


A. the first sound transmitted via telephone / world interest in telephones

B. Bell's interest in the telegraph / the first switching station

C. Watson's contribution to the telephone / Bell's failures with the telegraph

D. the invention of the telephone / the installation of the first telephone lines
D. the invention of the telephone / the installation of the first telephone lines


The first passage is mainly concerned with the way in which Bell invented the telephone, and the second passage, while it mentions the invention of the telephone, is also more concerned with the early installation and mechanics of the telephone.
If I could have the best job in the world, it would be to play for a major league baseball team when I'm older. I believe that a major league team should hire me because of my excellent skills. I also have a positive attitude and I want to play the game. Also I think a team should hire me because of the talent I have that will support the team's success. The team could probably win the World Series!

They should hire me because I can hit the ball really hard and score runs in every game. I can catch the ball really good. I can get the players on the other team out really easily. I can throw great to all the bases to get them out. I can run the bases OK and when it comes to stealing the bases most of the time I don't get out. My batting average is good. I hardly ever make errors. When I hit the ball, I mostly get singles but sometimes doubles. I might hit a homerun sometimes. I want this job because I'm really good at the sport. I can do a lot for my team and the fans and the owner and the manager. More people will watch the games on TV if I'm on the team and that will bring the ratings up.

The student writing sample best shows an understanding of which of the following components of effective writing?


A. The sample is clearly and logically organized and includes an introduction, body, and conclusion.

B. The writer's arguments and support in the sample are presented in a logical order that makes it easy for the reader to follow.

C. There are a variety of transitions that clearly show how ideas are connected, and the sample includes a variety of sentence types.

D. The thesis statement names the topic of the sample, and then the main points that support a position are introduced.
D. The thesis statement names the topic of the sample, and then the main points that support a position are introduced.


The writer does have a thesis statement at the beginning of the sample — "I believe that a major league team should hire me ..." followed by three main points that are discussed to support the position. Organization of ideas and the inclusion of effective transitions are not strengths of the of the essay.
If I could have the best job in the world, it would be to play for a major league baseball team when I'm older. I believe that a major league team should hire me because of my excellent skills. I also have a positive attitude and I want to play the game. Also I think a team should hire me because of the talent I have that will support the team's success. The team could probably win the World Series!

They should hire me because I can hit the ball really hard and score runs in every game. I can catch the ball really good. I can get the players on the other team out really easily. I can throw great to all the bases to get them out. I can run the bases OK and when it comes to stealing the bases most of the time I don't get out. My batting average is good. I hardly ever make errors. When I hit the ball, I mostly get singles but sometimes doubles. I might hit a homerun sometimes. I want this job because I'm really good at the sport. I can do a lot for my team and the fans and the owner and the manager. More people will watch the games on TV if I'm on the team and that will bring the ratings up.

Which of the following best identifies the student's primary purpose in writing the piece?


A. To inform

B. To persuade

C. To explain

D. To describe
B. To persuade


This question tests your knowledge of types of writing. Persuasive writing is used to convince others of an opinion or position. The writer of this piece is attempting to convince a major league baseball team to hire him or her when he or she is an adult.
Which of the following is the best example of a primary source?


A. A textbook in a specific discipline

B. A magazine account of interviews conducted by researchers

C. A researcher's data from surveys, interviews, or observations

D. An article in a scientific journal reporting the results of several research studies
C. A researcher's data from surveys, interviews, or observations


This question tests your knowledge of the difference between primary and secondary sources. Primary sources are original documents such as a researcher's data. Secondary sources interpret and analyze primary sources.
For more than four hundred years, the Akan people of Ghana in West Africa used a currency based on tiny grains of gold called gold dust. This desirable currency made the Akan very valued trading partners for the North African traders who crossed the Sahara Desert by camel caravan and for the seafaring Europeans who arrived on Africa's Atlantic Coast in ships laden with goods. The Akan were able to enrich their own lives by trading for goods with people of vastly different climates and cultures.

Which of the following best describes the type of writing used in this excerpt?


A. Descriptive

B. Persuasive

C. Informative

D. Narrative
C. Informative


The paragraphs provide information on the history of trade involving currency.
Which of the following questions should writers ask themselves during the revision process to address the coherence of a composition?


A. Are all my details related to the main idea?

B. Are commas placed correctly in complex sentences?

C. Do I need to conduct further research to support my claim?

D. Did I use appropriate transitions to show relationships between ideas?
A. Are all my details related to the main idea?


This question tests your understanding of the steps in the revision process of writing. A composition with coherence contains ideas and details that are all related to the main idea. The question asked in option (A) is an appropriate question to ask during the revision stage of the writing process, where changes to content and organization are made.
WanSuponn a tim ther was a funne dog it lik to run real fast i watched it

The writing in the sample is best characterized as occurring during which of the following stages of writing development?


A. Early emergent

B. Transitional

C. Conventional

D. Proficient
B. Transitional


This question tests your knowledge of the stages of writing development. As with the word "funne," children at the transitional stage rely on the most obvious sounds in words for spelling. They also experiment with words with which they are most familiar. They often write about personal experiences, and their writing can be understood.
Which THREE of the following are considered reliable sources for research?


A. Blogs

B. Forums

C. Newspapers

D. Scholarly articles

E. Educational institutions
C. Newspapers

D. Scholarly articles

E. Educational institutions


This question tests your ability to evaluate research sources. Option (C) is reliable because the information is timely and most publishers are reputable. Option (D) is correct because the information is provided by authors who have established credentials and expertise in the field. Option (E) is correct because educational institutions are reputable and information is provided by experts in the field. For these reasons, these are all recognized as reliable research sources.
A narrative poem must include which of the following literary elements?


A. Flashbacks and foreshadowing

B. Characters and plot

C. Rhythm and rhyme

D. Onomatopoeia and alliteration
B. Characters and plot


The question tests your knowledge of the defining part of narrative poetry, which is the fact that it, like a story or a novel, contains basic story elements such as characters and plot.
A group research task involves the following steps.

1. Formulate a research question.
2. Gather information and organize the findings.
3. Collaborate on composing, revising, and editing a written report.
4. Publish a version of the report that can be downloaded from the class Web page and can be printed as a hard copy for the teacher.
5. Present the findings to the class orally, using visual aids.

Which of the following types of digital formats will best allow students to meet both publishing requirements in task 4 ?


A. GIF

B. MOV

C. JPEG

D. PDF
D. PDF


When documents, forms, graphics, and Web pages are converted into a portable document format, they look just as they would if printed. This type of document is easy to print and to upload to a Web site.
A group research task involves the following steps.

Formulate a research question.
Gather information and organize the findings.
Collaborate on composing, revising, and editing a written report.
Publish a version of the report that can be downloaded from the class Web page and can be printed as a hard copy for the teacher.
Present the findings to the class orally, using visual aids.

A primary benefit of using a wiki for task 3 is that a wiki


A. allows contributors to track changes made to the project

B. allows multiple users to modify the written material

C. restricts students' access to the written material

D. restricts outside contributors to the project
B. allows multiple users to modify the written material


This question tests knowledge of wikis. A wiki is a collaborative tool that allows students to contribute and modify the content of the site. A wiki is designed to allow multiple users to collaborate and edit a work in progress.
Which of the following tools best facilitates real-time collaborations during peer editing of a writing task?


A. Personal blogs

B. Multimedia presentation programs

C. Online notice boards

D. Document-sharing programs
D. Document-sharing programs


Document-sharing programs can be accessed from any location, enabling students to interact and revise documents simultaneously.
After locating basic information on a topic for a research report, the next best step to take in the process is to


A. use an outline to organize the information gathered

B. search for graphics to illustrate the report

C. determine which information is most relevant to the research topic

D. write a first draft of the research report
C. determine which information is most relevant to the research topic


This question asks you to apply your knowledge of proper research techniques. After a student has located and accessed information, it is necessary to analyze, interpret, and evaluate that information for its usefulness and reliability before synthesizing it. Options (A), (B), and (D) skip the next logical step of evaluating the information for usefulness and relevance and move ahead to the aspects of developing a final product.
It took the young child a long time to lick the mile-high ice-cream cone.

The phrase "mile-high" is an example of


A. a simile

B. personification

C. hyperbole

D. an oxymoron
C. hyperbole


This question asks you to apply your knowledge of figurative language or figures of speech. Since the ice-cream cone is most likely only a few inches high, not a mile-high, the writer has effectively used hyperbole. Hyperbole is defined as "an extravagant exaggeration used for emphasis or effect."
Tara always enjoyed a vacation on a tropical island after a long, cold winter at home.
Select the part of speech that best describes how each of the underlined words is functioning in the sentence.

Words: always, on, after


A. Conjunction

B. Adverb

C. Preposition
always: adverb
on: preposition
after: conjunction

An adverb is a word that modifies a verb, adjective, or another adverb. In the sentence in this item, "always" is an adverb. A preposition is a word that shows the relationship between a noun or pronoun and other words in the sentence. In the sentence in this item, "on" is a preposition. A conjunction is a part of speech or word class that connects words, phrases, clauses, or sentences. In the sentence in this item, "after" is a subordinating conjunction.
The following are the first and second drafts of the opening paragraph of a story about a spooky old house.

First draft:
I was walking down the street on a very dark night. Up ahead I saw a large, old house. I decided to go in. I heard a noise as I slowly climbed the stairs to enter the house. I heard many different sounds when I got into the house. I turned and tried to leave, but the wind shut the front door behind me and I was trapped.

Second draft:
It was an eerie, moonless night as I walked down the deserted street. Out of the corner of my eye, a monstrous, spooky-looking house taunted me. My curiosity overcame my fear, and I approached the house to investigate. As I climbed the creaking staircase to the dilapidated porch, the howling wind, screeching birds, and rustling trees seemed to whisper in my ear "Don't go in! Turn around!" but I kept climbing. I opened the heavy front door and stepped into the dark, dusty house. Suddenly, my fears made me turn to leave, but the wind swirled around me and blew the heavy door shut with a deafening thud. I was trapped.

The revisions made between the first and second drafts best demonstrate the writer's understanding of the relationship between word choice and


A. plot development

B. mood

C. character development

D. theme
B. mood


Mood is the feeling or emotion that a text evokes in the reader. The writer's changes most impact the mood of the paragraph, as they contribute to the audience's feelings of fright.
I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired, it was making a funny noise.

Which of the following is the most effective and grammatically correct revision of the sentence?


A. I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired, since it was making a funny noise.

B. I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired it was making a funny noise.

C. I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired, my car was making a funny noise.

D. I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired because it was making a funny noise.
D. I recently came to your shop to have my car repaired because it was making a funny noise.


The original sentence contains a comma splice and is a run-on sentence. Inserting "because" and eliminating the comma corrects both of these problems.
Stephanie and her mother did not see eye to eye about plans for the weekend.

The sentence contains an example of which of the following types of figurative language?


A. Personification

B. Irony

C. Paradox

D. Idiom
D. Idiom


An idiom is an expression with a meaning that differs from the literal meaning of the individual words. The sentence contains an idiom, "see eye to eye," which means to agree on something.
In which of the following sentences does the word "hollow" function as a noun?


A. Jack's camera captured the raccoons trying to hollow out an old log.

B. Marsha's sheep were grazing in the wide hollow between the mountains.

C. Lilly's footsteps echoed with a hollow sound as she entered the old general store.

D. Ashley's hollow cheeks made her seem much more mature than she actually was.
B. Marsha's sheep were grazing in the wide hollow between the mountains.


This question asks you to figure out a word's meaning in context. The word "hollow" can be used as a noun, adjective, or verb with different meanings. A skillful reader can usually use the context to figure out which meaning and part of speech is intended in a given sentence. Option (B) is the only choice in which hollow is used as a noun.
Which of the following tasks requires a reader to process Tier 3 vocabulary?


A. Reading a descriptive passage that uses precise vocabulary words to describe familiar things

B. Reading a narrative passage that uses high-frequency, single-meaning vocabulary words to describe a character

C. Reading an informational passage that uses domain-specific vocabulary words to describe processes

D. Reading an argumentative passage that uses challenging conversational vocabulary words to describe a problem
C. Reading an informational passage that uses domain-specific vocabulary words to describe processes


Tier 3 vocabulary contains content- and domain-specific words.
A flash of smoldering flame and fire
Ignites the East. Then, higher, higher,
O'er all the sky so gray, forlorn,
The torch of gold is borne.

Which of the following is the best interpretation of the last line of the poem ("The torch of gold is borne.") ?


A. There is new life created.

B. A prize is being awarded.

C. A treasure is carried away.

D. The sun's light is appearing.
D. The sun's light is appearing.


The figurative language is used to communicate the glories of a sunrise, with "torch of gold" being used as a form of metonymy to refer to the sun and "borne" being used to explain that the torch is figuratively being held up in the sky by some force.
When students engage in conversation about a novel they are reading, their comprehension of the novel improves. Which of the following best explains the increase in reading comprehension?


A. Communicating orally with others enables readers to confirm their ideas about the theme

B. Talking about the text gives readers an opportunity to summarize the details of the plot

C. Interacting orally with others encourages readers to use academic vocabulary to extend the meaning of a text

D. Discussing the text requires readers to meet the challenge of clearly explaining their thinking to others
D. Discussing the text requires readers to meet the challenge of clearly explaining their thinking to others


This question tests understanding of the benefits of collaborative communication. After reading a novel, students need to challenge themselves to communicate their thoughts and ideas about the text to others. Speaking, an expressive form of language, requires the students to think again, organize their thoughts, and communicate clearly to other readers.
An English-language learner (ELL) participates in a small collaborative group to read and discuss a magazine article. Which of the following best identifies how the group activity supports the reading comprehension development of the ELL?


A. It provides an opportunity for the student to gain insight on how others access and process information.

B. It sets a purpose for the student to read an authentic, meaningful text of personal interest.

C. It improves the student's knowledge of the prosodic features and spelling conventions of written language.

D. It gives the student an opportunity to apply word-recognition skills to decode content vocabulary.
A. It provides an opportunity for the student to gain insight on how others access and process information.


This question tests your knowledge of effective activities to support the development of ELLs. Through collaborative learning, an ELL can observe and gain insight into how others use print resources to learn new information. The student in the scenario learns by watching and participating in the small-group collaborative learning activity.
Following an oral presentation, a listener responds by restating the three key points of the speech. Which of the following components of active listening is the listener demonstrating?


A. Encouraging

B. Clarifying

C. Summarizing

D. Reflecting
C. Summarizing


This question tests your knowledge of active listening skills. By stating the three key points of the speech, the listener is summarizing the speaker's message.
During a presentation, the speaker grimaces apologetically and then pauses to allow the audience to react to the message. In this situation, the speaker best demonstrates which of the following skills?


A. Enunciating words to ensure clear delivery of a message

B. Communicating by matching nonverbal cues with a message

C. Explaining details thoroughly to ensure understanding of a message

D. Sharing personal anecdotes so the audience can relate to a message
B. Communicating by matching nonverbal cues with a message


This question tests your knowledge of verbal and physical cues and their translation. Facial expressions and pauses are examples of nonverbal communication that can support or enhance the delivery of a message.
When giving an oral report, a speaker changes the relative highness or lowness of a sound to communicate meaning and emotion to listeners. Which of the following elements is the speaker adjusting?


A. Pitch

B. Volume

C. Rate

D. Articulation
A. Pitch


This question tests your knowledge of pitch as it pertains to oral presentations. Pitch refers to the highness or lowness of a sound. Changes in pitch, also known as inflections, communicate meaning and emotion to the audience.
Reading a text orally in small groups provides an opportunity for students to develop skills primarily in which of the following areas of effective oral presentation?


A. Using body language to communicate emotion

B. Speaking clearly and expressively

C. Listening and responding to the audience

D. Maintaining engagement through eye contact
B. Speaking clearly and expressively


This questions tests your ability identify the primary benefit of oral reading. Oral reading provides readers with an opportunity to practice reading from a text in a "natural" way; i.e., with appropriate expression and clarity.
Which of the following expresses 3/16 as a percent?


A. 0.1875%

B. 1.875%

C. 5.33%

D. 18.75%
D. 18.75%


The question requires an understanding of percent and percentages. To convert a fraction to a percent, it is necessary to multiply the fraction by 100 and add a percent symbol. Since 3/16×100=18.75, 3/16 is equivalent to 18.75%.
Which of the following is equal to 4(5−2) squared−2 cubed


A. 16

B. 28

C. 76

D. 136
B. 28


The question requires an understanding of the order of operations. The first step to simplify the expression 4(5−2) squared−2 cubed is the evaluation of the subtraction within the parentheses; the expression is equivalent to 4×3 squared−2 cubed. The second step is the evaluation of the powers; the expression is equivalent to 4×9−8. The third step is the evaluation of the multiplication; the expression is equivalent to 36−8. The final step is the evaluation of the subtraction; the expression is equivalent to 28.
A two-dimensional net of a certain three-dimensional figure includes five faces, nine edges, and six vertices. Which of the following three-dimensional figures is represented by the net?


A. Triangular pyramid

B. Triangular prism

C. Rectangular pyramid

D. Rectangular prism
B. Triangular prism


The question requires an understanding of three-dimensional geometry. Triangular pyramids and rectangular prisms have four and six faces, respectively. Triangular prisms have five faces: two are triangles, and three are quadrilaterals. Rectangular pyramids also have five faces: one is a rectangle, and four are triangles. Triangular prisms have nine edges, while rectangular pyramids only have eight edges.
1/1
1/2
1/3
1/4

Which of the following is demonstrated by the figure shown?


A. When the numerator stays the same and the denominator increases, the fraction increases.

B. When the numerator stays the same and the denominator increases, the fraction decreases.

C. When the denominator stays the same and the numerator increases, the fraction increases.

D. When the denominator stays the same and the numerator increases, the fraction decreases.
B. When the numerator stays the same and the denominator increases, the fraction decreases.


The question requires an understanding of fractions and how to use geometrical representations to compare fractions. All of the fractions shown are unit fractions; that is, fractions in which the numerator is 1. The models accompanying each of the four given fractions are called tape models. In a tape model, the length of the tape represents one whole. This whole can then be divided into pieces of equal lengths, and the length of each piece represents a unit fraction. The way in which the models are organized and displayed shows that the length that represents the fractional part of the whole becomes shorter as the whole is subdivided into more parts of equal length. This is a pictorial representation that demonstrates that if the numerator of a set of fractions is fixed and does not change, the size of the number represented by the fractions will decrease as the denominators are increased.
Week Customers
1 52
2 79
3 44
4 110
5 90
6 68
7 125
8 96
9 88

Bobby runs a small store. The total number of customers who shopped at the store during each of nine consecutive weeks is recorded in the chart shown. If the number of customers who shopped at the store during the tenth week were included in the data, the mean and median of the data would change but the range would not change. Which of the following could be the number of customers who shopped at the store during the tenth week?


A. 39

B. 41

C. 73

D. 132
C. 73


The question requires an understanding of basic statistical concepts. The range is obtained by subtracting the smallest value, 44, from the largest value, 125. In order to modify the mean and median but not the range, the number of customers that shopped at the store during the tenth week must be greater than or equal to 44 and less than or equal to 125.
Which of the following is equal to 5(10 to the 0 power) ?


A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 50
C. 5


The question requires an understanding of the place value system and powers of 10. Since 10 to the zero power=1, the expression 5(10 to the zero power) is equal to 5×1, or 5.
A pencil is 18 centimeters in length. How long is the pencil in millimeters?


A. 0.18

B. 1.8

C. 180

D. 1,800
C. 180


The question requires an understanding of the metric system. Since 1 centimeter equals 10 millimeters, 18 centimeters equal 180 millimeters.
If the geometric sequence below continues to increase in the same way, what is the next number in the sequence?

2, 6, 18, 54, 162, ...


A. 243

B. 324

C. 486

D. 729
C. 486


The question requires an understanding of patterns and the ability to find and use a pattern rule. A geometric sequence is a sequence for which the ratio between consecutive terms is constant. The generic rule for a geometric sequence can be written as an=a1(r) to the n−1 power, for n≥1, where a1is the initial term and r is the ratio. In this case the initial term is 2 and the ratio is 3, so the sequence rule can be expressed as an=2(3) to the n−1 power, for n≥1. Another way of representing the same sequence is a1=2 and an=3a to the n−1 power, for n≥2. The next number in the sequence is then a6=3a5=3×162=486.
3x to the fifth power+7x cubed⎯5
Which of the following lists the coefficients and degrees of the terms in the polynomial shown?


A. Coefficients: 3, 7,⎯5; Degrees: 5, 3, 0

B. Coefficients: 3, 7,⎯5; Degrees: 5, 3, 1

C. Coefficients: 5, 3, 0; Degrees: 3, 7,⎯5

D. Coefficients: 5, 3, 1; Degrees: 3, 7,⎯5
A. Coefficients: 3, 7,⎯5; Degrees: 5, 3, 0


The question requires an understanding of algebraic terminology. The coefficients of the terms of a polynomial are the numbers by which the variables are multiplied. The degrees of the terms of a polynomial are the exponents to which the variables are raised. Therefore, the coefficients are 3, 7, and ⎯5 and the degrees are 5, 3, and 0.
n which quadrant is the point (⎯8,2) located?


A. Quadrant I

B. Quadrant II

C. Quadrant III

D. Quadrant IV
B. Quadrant II


The question requires an understanding of the coordinate plane. Since points in the second quadrant have a negative x-coordinate and a positive y-coordinate, the point with coordinates (⎯8,2) is located in quadrant II.
Elisa's number: 5,723,683

Troy's number: 2,678,533

Both Elisa and Troy wrote a number, as shown. The digit 7 in Elisa's number represents how many times what the digit 7 represents in Troy's number?


A. 10

B. 100

C. 1,000

D. 10,000
A. 10


The question requires an understanding of place value systems. The value of the number represented by the 7 in Elisa's number is 700,000, or 7×10 to the fifth power, while the value of the number represented by the 7 in Troy's number is 70,000, or 7×10 to the fourth power. Therefore, the value of the former is 10 times as great as the value of latter.
3y+2y

What is the value of the algebraic expression shown when y=5 ?


A. 15

B. 25

C. 60

D. 85
B. 25


The question requires an understanding of algebraic expressions and the ability to manipulate them. To find the value of the given algebraic expression when y=5, 5 must be substituted for y in the expression. Therefore, 3y+2y=3×5+2×5, or 25.
Sara went to the store to buy some clothes. She bought six shirts, half as many pairs of pants as shirts, and a fourth as many sweaters as shirts. How many pieces of clothing did Sara buy?

Which of the following statements about the solution to the word problem shown must be true?


A. Because of the real-world context, the solution must belong to the set of all rational positive numbers; therefore, the solution is acceptable.

B. Because of the real-world context, the solution must belong to the set of all rational positive numbers; therefore, the solution is not acceptable.

C. Because of the real-world context, the solution must belong to the set of all natural numbers; therefore, the solution is acceptable.

D. Because of the real-world context, the solution must belong to the set of all natural numbers; therefore, the solution is not acceptable.
D. Because of the real-world context, the solution must belong to the set of all natural numbers; therefore, the solution is not acceptable.


The question requires an understanding of how to evaluate the reasonableness of a solution to a contextual word problem. The solution to the given word problem must belong to the set of all natural numbers because the unit is pieces of clothing, which is a positive and discrete unit. According to the word problem, Sara bought 6 shirts, 3 pairs of pants, and 1 1/2 sweaters, totaling 10 1/2 pieces of clothing. The solution is, therefore, not acceptable since it is not a natural number.
Mr. Smythe has asked his students to come up with function rules for the following table of data.

x y
−1 1
0 0
Adam says that the function rule is y=−x, Belinda says that the function rule is y=−x2, and Chandra says that the function rule is y=−x squared−2x. Which of the three equations could be the function rule for the table?


A. Adam's only

B. Adam's and Chandra's only

C. Belinda's and Chandra's only

D. Adam's, Belinda's, and Chandra's
B. Adam's and Chandra's only


The question requires an understanding of the concept of function and its definition. A function is a rule that establishes a relationship between two quantities: the input and the output. To find out whether or not Adam's function could be the rule for the given table, it is necessary to substitute each pair of values, (0,0) and (−1,1), into y=−x to verify whether or not the substitution gives the correct output. This process must be repeated for both Belinda's function and for Chandra's function. It is easy to see that (0,0) satisfies all three rules. Since 1=−(−1), the pair (−1,1) satisfies Adam's function rule. Since 1=−(−1) squared−2(−1)=−1+2=1, the pair (−1,1) also satisfies Chandra's function rule. The pair (−1,1) does not satisfy Belinda's rule, since 1≠−(−1) squared=−1.
The community pool has a capacity of 50,000 gallons. It is leaking at a rate of 450 gallons per day. The equation g=50,000⎯450d can be used to find the number of gallons g remaining in the pool after d days. Which of the following statements is true?


A. g is the dependent variable because the volume is dependent on the number of days d.

B. g is the independent variable because it is what needs to be found.

C. d is the dependent variable because it is being multiplied by the independent rate of 450.

D. Dependent and independent variables cannot be determined in this situation because the equation is linear.
A. g is the dependent variable because the volume is dependent on the number of days d.


The question requires an understanding of dependent and independent variables within various formulas. The input of a function is referred to as the independent variable because the input can be any number. In this instance, the output, referred to as the dependent variable, is the number of gallons g remaining in the pool, because the volume depends on the input variable d, or the number of days since the pool started to leak.
Tom's company has to ship 1,944 boxes of shoes. If a truck can hold 450 boxes, how many trucks does he need to ship all the boxes?
5


The question requires an understanding of rounding strategies for reasonableness of results. The word problem can be solved by performing the division 1,944÷450, which yields 4.32. Since the result represents the number of trucks needed, the result must be rounded to an integer. Rounding down to 4 would yield the wrong answer since 4×450=1,800, so Tom would be able to ship up to 1,800 boxes of shoes with 4 trucks. Rounding up to 5 would yield the right answer since 5×450=2,250. Since with 5 trucks Tom would be able to ship up to 2,250 boxes of shoes, he would also be able to ship 1,944.
In the number 567,894, what is the value of the digit 6 ?


A. Sixty

B. Ten thousand

C. Six thousand

D. Sixty thousand
D. Sixty thousand


The question requires an understanding of place value systems. Reading the number from left to right, the digit 4 is in the ones position and has a value of 4. The digit 9 is in the tens position and has a value of 90. The digit 8 is in the hundreds position and has a value of 800. The digit 7 is in the thousands position and has a value of 7,000. The digit 6 is in the ten-thousands position and has a value of 60,000.
Kyle's father set up a savings account for him with an initial balance of $100. Since then, Kyle has been depositing $28 into the account each week. Kyle represents the amount of money he has saved after x weeks by the expression 28x+100. Which of the following is equivalent to Kyle's expression?


A. 4(7x+25)

B. 7(4x+100)

C. 7(4x+25)

D. 4(7x+100)
A. 4(7x+25)


The question requires an understanding of algebraic expressions and the ability to manipulate them. Since both 28 and 100 are divisible by 4,4 is a factor of the expression 28x+100. To arrive at the equivalent expression given in (A), the distributive property was applied to 28x+100. In fact, 28x+100=4×7x+4×25=4(7x+25).
Which of the following numbers is least?


A. 0.103

B. 0.1041

C. 0.1005

D. 0.11
C. 0.1005


The question requires an understanding of place value. To compare the four numbers in the options, the digits that determine place value must be compared moving left to right beginning with the digit in the tenths place. The digit 1 is in the tenths place of each number, so the digit in the hundredths place of each number must be compared. The digit 1 in the hundredths place of the number in (D) is greater than the digit 0 in the hundredths place of each of the numbers in (A), (B), and (C), so the number in (D) is the greatest. In the thousandths place, the number in (C) has a digit of 0, while the numbers in (A) and (B) have digits of 3 and 4, respectively. The number in (C) is thus less than the numbers in (A) and (B), making the number in (C) the least of the four numbers. Another way to approach this kind of problem is to add a zero to the end of 0.103 in (A) and two zeros to the end of 0.11 in (D) so that all four choices represent a value in ten-thousandths. This does not change the numbers' values, but makes it easier to determine that (D) is the greatest, being equal to 1,100 ten-thousandths, and (C) is the least, being equal to 1,105 ten-thousandths.
In a certain year, 5 percent of the 2,800 employees of a company had a perfect attendance record. Which of the following computations can be used to determine the number of employees with a perfect attendance record?


A. 1/40×2,800

B. 1/20×2,800

C. 1/5×2,800

D. 5×2,800
B. 1/20×2,800


The question requires an understanding of fractions, percentages, and decimals and the ability to recognize equivalence among them. Since 5 percent means 5 one-hundredths, 5 percent is equivalent to 0.05, or 5 divided by 100, 5/100, which simplifies to 1/20. To find 5 percent of 2,800 employees, it is necessary to multiply 2,800 by either 0.05 or 1/20.
In the formula d=r×t, if d equals 60 and t remains constant, which of the following is equivalent to r ?


A. 60t

B. 60/t

C. t/60

D. d/60t
B. 60/t


The question requires an understanding of simple formulas and the ability to work with them. If d is equal to 60, d can be replaced with 60 in the equation, which will result in 60=r×t. The question asks for determining which option is equivalent to r, so it is necessary to solve the equation for r. Since r is multiplied by t, both sides of the equation must be divided by t to isolate r. The result is 60/t=r.
15(4+3)=15×4+15×3

The equation shown demonstrates which of the following?


A. The distributive property of multiplication over addition

B. The commutative property of multiplication

C. The associative property of multiplication

D. The additive inverse and additive identity properties
A. The distributive property of multiplication over addition


The question requires an understanding of the basic properties of real numbers. The distributive property of multiplication over addition states that for any real numbers a,b, and c, a(b+c) is equal to ab+ac. In other words, adding the numbers within the parentheses and then multiplying by the number outside the parentheses yields the same result as multiplying each term within the parentheses by the number outside the parentheses and then adding the two products together.
Which of the following is the product of two even numbers and an odd number, each of which is greater than 1 ?


A. 15

B. 16

C. 20

D. 21
C. 20


The question requires an understanding of factors of natural numbers. The question requires a determination of the number that has two even factors and one odd factor. The even numbers need not be unique. In (C), 20=2×2×5; 20 can be written as the product of 2, 2, and 5, so 20 can be written as the product of two even numbers and one odd number. In (A), 15=3×5, and in (D), 21=3×7; 15 and 21 do not have any even factors. In (B), 16=2×2×2×2; 16 does not have any odd factors.
In a certain contest, a total of $12,000 was divided among the first-, second-, and third-place winners in the ratio of 3 to 2 to 1, respectively. How much money did the first-place winner of the contest receive?


A. $9,000

B. $8,000

C. $6,000

D. $4,000
C. $6,000


The question requires an understanding of ratios. Since the ratio is 3 to 2 to 1, the prize money of $12,000 was divided into (3+2+1), or 6, equal shares. Each of the shares was worth 1/6 of the total of $12,000, or $2,000. The third-place winner received one share, for a total of $2,000. The second-place winner received two shares, for a total of $4,000. The first-place winner received three shares, for a total of $6,000. The solution can be checked by adding the three prize amounts; that is, 2,000+4,000+6,000, and seeing that the total is $12,000.
Step 1: Select a numerical value for the variable k.
Step 2: Add 3 to k.
Step 3: Multiply the result by 8.
Step 4: Cube the result.
Step 5: End.

Executing the algorithm shown is equivalent to evaluating which of the following algebraic expressions?


A. (8k+3) cubed

B. 8(k+3) cubed

C. 8 cubed (k+3)

D. 8 cubed (k+3) cubed
D. 8 cubed (k+3) cubed


The question requires an understanding of algorithms and their algebraic representations. The expression can be found by following the instructions in each of the steps given. The key steps in the algorithm are steps 3 and 4. When multiplying the binomial k+3 obtained in step 2, it is necessary to multiply both terms. The result of step 3 is, therefore, 8(k+3). When raising a product to the power of 3, it is necessary to raise each factor in the product to the power of 3. The factors are 8 and (k+3). The result of step 4 is, therefore, 8 cubed (k+3) cubed.
2, 3, a3, a4, a5, ...

The first two terms of the sequence shown are 2 and 3. Each subsequent term, beginning with the third, is found by adding the two preceding terms and multiplying the sum by −2. What is the value of a5, the fifth term of the sequence?


A. −14

B. −12

C. −10

D. −8
D. −8


The question requires an understanding of following a rule to continue a sequence of numbers. The first term is 2, the second term is 3, and the third term is found by adding 2 and 3 and multiplying the result by −2. So the third term is −10. The fourth term is found by adding 3 and −10 and multiplying the sum by −2. The fourth term is, therefore, −7 times −2, or 14. The fifth term is found by adding −10 and 14 and multiplying the sum by −2. The fifth term is, therefore, 4 times −2, or −8.
x f(x)
100
60 24
45 18
30 12

Some values of the linear function f are given in the table shown. What is the value of f(100) ?


A. 30

B. 36

C. 40

D. 48
C. 40


The question requires an understanding of finding patterns in data. Since (18−12)/(45−30)=6/15=2/5, the value of f(x) increases by 2 units for every 5-unit increase in the value of x. The value of x increases by 40 units from 60 to 100, so the value of f(x) must increase by 16 units between f(60) and f(100). Since f(60)=24, f(100)=24+16=40.
Wai tossed a fair coin 9 times with an outcome of H H T T T T H H H, where H means heads and T means tails. What is the probability that the next toss will be T ?


A. 0.2

B. 0.4

C. 0.5

D. 1.0
C. 0.5


This question requires an understanding of basic probability. If a coin is fair, the probability of tossing heads is the same as the probability of tossing tails. There are only two possible outcomes, so the probability of tossing tails is 1/2. The number 1/2 can also be written as 0.5. Please note that since each toss of the coin is an independent event, which means that the previous results do not affect the current toss of the coin, each time the coin is tossed, the probabilities of H or T would always be the same, 0.5.
The population of a certain city was 50,000 people. One year later, the population of the same city grew to 50,600. What was the percent increase in the city's population in that one-year period?


A. 0.6%

B. 1.2%

C. 6%

D. 12%
B. 1.2%


The question requires an understanding of computing percent increase. The increase in the population of the city is 50,600−50,000=600 people. The value of the fraction 600/50,000 gives the percent increase based on the population before the increase occurred. The fraction is equivalent to the decimal 0.012, which is equivalent to 1.2 percent.
Which of the following is an example of the associative property of multiplication?


A. ab+c=ba+c

B. ab+c=c+ab

C. (ab)c=a(bc)

D. a(b+c)=ab+ac
C. (ab)c=a(bc)


The question requires an understanding of algebraic properties. The associative property of multiplication concerns the order in which the multiplications are performed when three or more numbers are multiplied, which can be changed by inserting or removing grouping symbols such as parentheses. If the same factors are present, and in the same order, but the grouping symbols dictate that the order in which the multiplications are performed has changed, then the associative property of multiplication has been applied. In ab+c=ba+c, ab+c=c+ab, and a(b+c)=ab+bc, there are only products with two factors in each, so the associative property of multiplication cannot be applied. In (ab)c=a(bc), the parentheses dictate that on the left side, a and b are multiplied first, and then the result is multiplied by c, and that on the right side, b and c are multiplied first, and then a is multiplied by this result. The fact that the end results on each side are equal is guaranteed by the associative property of multiplication.
What is the greatest odd factor of the number 2,112 ?


A. 3

B. 21

C. 33

D. 111
C. 33


The question requires an understanding of prime factorization of a number. The prime factorization of 2,112 is 2 to the sixth power×3×11. Since 3 and 11 are the only odd prime factors of 2,112, the greatest odd factor is given by the product of 3 and 11, or 3×11, or 33.
At a yard sale, Tenille sold drinking glasses for $2.00 each and plates for $3.50 each. Nicholas spent a total of $18.00 on drinking glasses and plates at Tenille's yard sale. If Nicholas bought at least one glass and one plate, how many drinking glasses did he buy?


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
B. 2


The question requires an understanding of equations and the ability to translate a word problem into an equation. If x represents the number of glasses and y represents the number of plates that Nicholas bought, then 2x+3.5y=18. Both x and y must be integers. Therefore, 18−2x must be a multiple of 3.5. The possible multiples of 3.5 for this problem are 3.5, 7, 10.5, 14, and 17.5. The only multiple of 3.5 that is equivalent to 18−2x as an integer is 14. Thus, x=2.
The Clearbrook Wildcats basketball team scored an average of 77 points in four games. In the first three games, the team scored 70, 76, and 82 points. How many points did they score in their last game?


A. 70

B. 76

C. 77

D. 80
D. 80


The question requires an understanding of average (or arithmetic mean) and the ability to set up and solve several computations. An average of 77 points in four games means that they scored a total of 77 times 4, or 308 points. Since the scores for the first three games are given as 70, 76, and 82 points, it is necessary to add these up (228 points) and subtract from the four-game total of 308 points. This leaves 80 points for the last game's score.
On Greg's map, 1 inch represents 30 miles, and on Lori's map, 1 inch represents 20 miles. The area of a 1-inch by 1-inch square represents how many more square miles on Greg's map than on Lori's map?


A. 100

B. 250

C. 400

D. 500
D. 500


The question requires an understanding of calculating areas using standard, real-world miles on a map. Area is a two-dimensional representation of a surface (length times width, base times height, etc.). A 1-inch by 1-inch square on Greg's map represents a square 30 miles on each side. The area of this square is 30 miles multiplied by 30 miles, or 900 square miles. On Lori's map, the 1-inch by 1-inch square represents a square 20 miles on each side. The area of this square is 20 miles multiplied by 20 miles, or 400 square miles. The difference between these is 500 square miles.
The relative scarcity of arable land in China led to which of the following patterns in Chinese social life?


A. Extensive low-intensity agriculture with an emphasis on grazing animals

B. Equal population density across all zones and assignment of the right to inherit land to the first-born child

C. Limited agricultural surplus and difficulty in sustaining large-scale states

D. Early development of intensive agricultural cultivation techniques
D. Early development of intensive agricultural cultivation techniques


In order to compensate for a scarcity of land, farmers in China used cast iron tools, animals to pull plows, irrigation, and water conservation projects to increase efficiency in farm production.
Which of the following are considered renewable energy resources when properly managed?

Select all that apply.


A. Nuclear power

B. Hydroelectric power

C. Solar power

D. Natural gas

E. Wind power
B. Hydroelectric power
C. Solar power
E. Wind power


Hydroelectric, solar, and wind power are renewable energy sources while nuclear power and natural gas are non-renewable energy sources.
Which of the following is an effect of the Gulf Stream?


A. North America is significantly dryer and colder than it otherwise would be.

B. The North Atlantic has the most unstable weather of any ocean on Earth.

C. Travel time for ships and aircraft is much shorter from Europe to North America than from North America to Europe.

D. The climate of Western Europe is significantly warmer and milder than it otherwise would be.
D. The climate of Western Europe is significantly warmer and milder than it otherwise would be.


The Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current that flows in the western North Atlantic, originating at the tip of Florida, traveling along the American coastline and splitting into the North Atlantic Drift that crosses to Northern Europe.
The Russian people's interest in acquiring and wearing American blue jeans is an example of


A. cultural diversity

B. cultural diffusion

C. cultural adaptation

D. acculturation
B. cultural diffusion


Cultural diffusion is the spread of cultural items (ideas, fashion, technology, etc.) from one central point to another.
Which of the following statements best describes gender role?


A. Gender role is the sex group (male or female) to which the individual belongs.

B. Gender role consists of the set of behaviors society considers appropriate for each sex group.

C. Gender role consists of actions taken by individuals to eliminate gender stereotypes.

D. Gender role consists of fixed, culturally invariant expectations for each sex group.
B. Gender role consists of the set of behaviors society considers appropriate for each sex group.


Gender roles are social and behavioral norms that determine how males and females speak, think, dress, and interact within society.
During the era of classical civilizations, which of the following primarily drove interaction between the Roman and Han empires?


A. Religious conversion

B. Trade in luxury goods

C. Common interest in Daoism

D. Geopolitical rivalry
B. Trade in luxury goods


The Silk Road was a system of trade routes established during the Han Dynasty that stretched from China through India to Egypt, and eventually to the Roman Empire.
Which of the following is an important provision of the Treaty of Versailles, signed at the end of the First World War?


A. Germany maintained control of Alsace-Lorraine.

B. Germany's colonial territories achieved independence and were admitted to the League of Nations.

C. Germany had to take responsibility for Allied war losses by accepting a "war guilt" clause.

D. Russia and the United States agreed to participate in peacekeeping operations under the control of the League of Nations.
C. Germany had to take responsibility for Allied war losses by accepting a "war guilt" clause.


Article 231 of the Treaty of Versailles required that "Germany accepts the responsibility of Germany and her allies for causing all the loss and damage to which the Allied and Associated Governments ... have been subjected as a consequence of ... the aggression of Germany and her allies."
Which of the following are characteristics of the European Renaissance that occurred from the fourteenth to the seventeenth centuries?

Select all that apply.


A. Decline in religious writings and philosophical studies

B. Revival that emphasized classical antiquity

C. Humanism that focused on human potential and achievements

D. Realism in painting that captured scenes of daily life

E. Opposition to new ideas about science and nature
B. Revival that emphasized classical antiquity
C. Humanism that focused on human potential and achievements
D. Realism in painting that captured scenes of daily life


The European Renaissance between the 14th and 17th centuries was characterized by a focus on Greek classical antiquity, the development of humanism, and the realistic portrayal of everyday life in artistic expression.
Which of the following Native American cultures is known for its complex temples and pyramids and its cultivation of maize?


A. Mohican

B. Pequot

C. Hopi

D. Aztec
D. Aztec


Stone temples and pyramids are associated with the Aztec Indians of central Mexico, specifically the great pyramid of Tenochtitlan in present-day Mexico City.
Which colony had the highest proportion of German settlers during the colonial period?


A. Massachusetts

B. Pennsylvania

C. New York

D. Virginia
B. Pennsylvania


The question would encourage the students to think about which colony had highest proportion of Germans and that Pennsylvania had the highest proportion of German settlers during the colonial period.
The correspondence between which of the following couples, in which the wife urged her husband, "Remember the ladies," is viewed by historians as an early illustration of the interest and activism of women in national policy?


A. George and Martha Washington

B. John and Abigail Adams

C. James and Dolley Madison

D. Andrew and Rachel Jackson
B. John and Abigail Adams


In 1776, Abigail Adams wrote the now-famous "Remember the Ladies" letter to her husband, John, who was serving as the Massachusetts representative to the Continental Congress in Philadelphia.
Which of the following issues did the Three-Fifths Compromise at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 resolve?


A. How to determine the number of senators granted each state in the Congress

B. How to account for slaves for both the purposes of representation of states in the House of Representatives and of taxation of states by the national government

C. How to determine federal compensation to states that forfeited western land claims

D. How to determine how the revenue from tariffs on imported goods would be distributed between the federal government and the states
B. How to account for slaves for both the purposes of representation of states in the House of Representatives and of taxation of states by the national government


The Three-Fifths Compromise was a result of a debate within the Continental Congress about apportioning taxes based on population or land value. Three-fifths of a state's slaves were counted in terms of congressional representation, presidential electors, and direct taxes.
What did the United States Supreme Court conclude in its 1857 ruling on the Dred Scott case?


A. The importation of slaves from Africa was illegal.

B. Slaves were free once their owners took them to free states.

C. Slaves had no legal right to sue for their freedom.

D. Slaves could be freed once their owners died.
C. Slaves had no legal right to sue for their freedom.


Chief Justice Roger Taney ruled that all blacks — slaves as well as free blacks — were not and could never become citizens of the United States; therefore, they had no legal right to sue in federal courts.
In 1920, the Nineteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution was passed in order to


A. establish the right to a trial by jury

B. abolish slavery

C. guarantee freedom of speech

D. guarantee women the right to vote
D. guarantee women the right to vote


The Nineteenth Amendment states that "the right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied ... on account of sex."
The Truman Doctrine justified which of the following United States policies?


A. Aiding Greece and Turkey after the Second World War

B. Participating in the United Nations

C. Selling of arms to Iran

D. Intervening in Nicaragua
A. Aiding Greece and Turkey after the Second World War


The Truman Doctrine provided political, military, and economic assistance to democratic nations threatened by authoritarian forces and governments, including Greece and Turkey.
Which of the following contributed to a decline in the prices of farm goods in the late-nineteenth-century United States?


A. Shortages of agricultural machinery caused by labor strikes

B. Shortages of arable land

C. Overproduction of agricultural products

D. The aftermath of the Civil War
C. Overproduction of agricultural products


Improved farming methods and increases in farm land acreage resulted in overproduction of agricultural goods. Supply surpassed consumer demand resulting in a sharp decline in prices.
Which of the following exemplifies the Constitution's federalist structure?


A. The separation of powers among the executive, legislative, and judicial branches

B. The Full Faith and Credit clause of Article IV of the Constitution

C. The Supremacy clause of Article VI of the Constitution

D. The Tenth Amendment's division of power between national and state governments
D. The Tenth Amendment's division of power between national and state governments


Federalism is the division of power between the national and state governments. The U.S. Constitution establishes this federalist structure through the Tenth Amendment.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas of Thomas Hobbes and helped to influence the writing of the United States Constitution?


A. The power to govern was a divine right granted to kings by God, which people were obliged to accept.

B. The power to govern was endowed in individuals who organized a government and decreed communal ownership of the means of production.

C. No order exists in a state of nature, and therefore people need to surrender some of their power and form a government to create order.

D. Government is an evil and corrupting influence and should be replaced by a utopian society based on free will.
C. No order exists in a state of nature, and therefore people need to surrender some of their power and form a government to create order.


In the political treatise Leviathan, Thomas Hobbes argued that humans in their natural state (one without a government) live a life that is "nasty, brutish, and short." It is only with mutual consent that people agree to a government system.
Which of the following is required for an individual to cast a ballot in any federal election in the United States?


A. Membership in a political party

B. A valid driver's license

C. Voter registration

D. Payment of a poll tax
C. Voter registration


Prospective voters must register with the state voter registrar in order to vote in federal elections.
Which of the following is true of the effect of high tariffs on an economy in the long run?


A. They increase the market for exports.

B. They decrease employment in the industries protected by the tariff.

C. They benefit some groups at the expense of others.

D. They encourage industries protected by the tariff to be more efficient and competitive.
C. They benefit some groups at the expense of others.


Tariffs are usually implemented to protect domestic manufacturing, but they may result in a weakening of related economies as those countries affected by the tariff purchase fewer goods. For example, the Tariff of 1828, while designed to protect northern manufacturing, reduced British imports of cotton from the southern United States, thereby damaging the southern economy.
In which of the following types of economies do the government and central planners play the largest part in deciding how resources are used and distributed to the people?


A. Capitalist

B. Command

C. Free market

D. Traditional
B. Command


In command economies, the government makes all of the decisions regarding the production and distribution of goods and services.
Which resource would be most useful to a researcher who is studying the significance of the Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz, and the Strait of Gibraltar?


A. A table with currency exchange rates between the United States and European countries

B. A map of the countries located between the North Atlantic and the Arabian Sea

C. A bar graph showing the number of democratic nations in the Middle East

D. A diary entry describing a traveler's encounters along the Silk Road
B. A map of the countries located between the North Atlantic and the Arabian Sea


The Suez Canal is located between the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea, the Strait of Hormuz is located between Iran and Oman, and the Strait of Gibraltar is located between Spain and Northwest Africa.
Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?


A. The removal of soil along the banks of a river by the flowing water

B. The sculpting of rocks by sand carried by the wind

C. A sidewalk crack getting larger when water in the crack freezes

D. An iron fence rusting over time
D. An iron fence rusting over time


The rusting of iron is a chemical process in which iron is changed into another compound, iron oxide.
The DNA in an animal cell is found in which of the following locations?


A. Nucleus

B. Ribosome

C. Plasma membrane

D. Endoplasmic reticulum
A. Nucleus


In an animal cell, DNA is found in the nucleus.
Which TWO of the following are typically found in the nucleus of an atom?


A. Electrons

B. Protons

C. Neutrons

D. Photons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons


Protons and neutrons are typically found in the nucleus of an atom.
Which of the following is typically considered a renewable energy resource?


A. Petroleum

B. Natural gas

C. Wind

D. Coal
C. Wind


A renewable resource is a natural resource that can be replenished over a reasonable period of time. Wind is an example of a renewable resource that is constantly replenished and so cannot be depleted.
Which of the following usually occurs after conclusions from an experiment are developed?


A. Forming the hypothesis

B. Designing the experiment

C. Observing and recording data

D. Communicating the results
D. Communicating the results


After conclusions are formed, the results and conclusions are usually shared.
Fossils are most often found in which of the following kinds of rocks?


A. Metamorphic

B. Sedimentary

C. Igneous

D. Pumice
B. Sedimentary


Fossils are typically formed when organisms are buried by sediment. As more sediment is deposited, the sediment surrounding the organism is compacted, forming sedimentary rock that contains fossils.
Which of the following must be present in a population in order for natural selection to occur?


A. Elevated birth rate

B. Genetic variation

C. Geographic isolation

D. Equal numbers of males and females
B. Genetic variation


Genetic variation must exist in the population in order for natural selection to occur. Natural selection is a basic mechanism of evolution, whereby certain traits make those individuals that have them more likely to survive and reproduce in a particular environment.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?


A. The cooking of an egg

B. The mixing of salt and pepper

C. The breaking in half of a pencil

D. The freezing of water in a plastic tray
A. The cooking of an egg


A chemical change occurs when one substance turns into a new substance, as is the case when an egg is cooked.
Of the following, which is the most likely consequence of the increasing levels of carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere that result from the burning of fossil fuels?


A. The formation of new islands in the South Pacific

B. More frequent volcanic eruptions

C. The thinning of the ozone layer

D. Rising sea levels
D. Rising sea levels


Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that is produced from the burning of fossil fuels. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can contribute to increasing global temperatures, which in turn can lead to increasing amounts of meltwater from glaciers. Hence, increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can lead to rising sea levels.
The density of a liquid is commonly expressed using which of the following units?


A. Grams

B. Milliliters

C. Grams per milliliter

D. Pounds per square foot
C. Grams per milliliter

Density is the mass of a substance per unit volume, so a unit for density includes a mass unit (e.g., gram) over a volume unit (e.g., milliliter).
Which of the following body systems most directly defends the body against pathogens?


A. Nervous system

B. Immune system

C. Respiratory system

D. Endocrine system
B. Immune system


The immune system is composed of cells, tissues, and organs that protect the body from pathogens.
Hurricanes are most likely to form over which of the following?


A. Tropical ocean water

B. Polar ocean water

C. Polar landmasses

D. Temperate landmasses
A. Tropical ocean water


One of the necessary conditions for hurricanes to form and maintain their strength is a large amount of warm, moist air, which is typically found over tropical ocean water.
Organisms that are in the same biological class must also be in the same


A. genus

B. family

C. phylum

D. species
C. phylum


Biological classification is hierarchical, with phylum above class and family, genus, and species below class. Therefore, all members of the same class will also be members of the same phylum.
Which of the following statements best describes an element?


A. It is very similar to a compound.

B. It is the smallest known particle.

C. It is a combination of different types of atoms.

D. It is a pure substance consisting of one type of atom.
D. It is a pure substance consisting of one type of atom.


An element is a pure substance made up of one type of atom. An element cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical or chemical means.
An x-ray image is typically used to diagnose which of the following?


A. A muscle tear

B. A broken bone

C. Cardiac arrhythmia

D. Low blood-oxygen levels
B. A broken bone


An x-ray image can reveal broken bones through layers of skin, muscle, and other tissue.
A graduated cylinder is typically used to measure which of the following?


A. Temperature

B. Composition

C. Volume

D. Mass
C. Volume


A graduated cylinder is typically used to measure volume. Common graduated cylinders range in size from 10 mL to 1 L.
Which of the following best describes how far the Moon is from Earth and the Sun?


A. The Moon is much closer to the Sun than it is to Earth.

B. The Moon is much closer to Earth than it is to the Sun.

C. The Moon is closer to either Earth or the Sun depending on the time of year.

D. The Moon is about the same distance from Earth as it is from the Sun.
B. The Moon is much closer to Earth than it is to the Sun.


The average distance from the Moon to Earth is 384,400 km. The average distance from Earth to the Sun is 149,600,000 km, or 1 AU (astronomical unit). Therefore, the Moon is much closer to Earth than it is to the Sun, regardless of its position in its orbit around Earth.
If the small projections on the roots of plants, "root hairs," are removed, which of the following is likely to be the most direct effect on the plant?


A. Excess water will build up in the stem.

B. Transport of sugars throughout the plant will stop.

C. Carbon dioxide will not be able to reach the leaves.

D. Water and minerals will not be absorbed from the soil.
D. Water and minerals will not be absorbed from the soil.


The root hairs provide the roots of plants with the surface area needed to absorb water and minerals.
Which of the following could be the pH of an acid?


A. 2

B. 7

C. 10

D. 13
A. 2


The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. Acids have pHs that are less than 7. A pH of 7 is neutral. Bases have pHs greater than 7.
Which THREE of the following statements about stars are true?


A. The Sun is a star.

B. Most stars orbit planets.

C. Various stars have different surface temperatures.

D. Some stars exist for longer periods than other stars.
A. The Sun is a star.
C. Various stars have different surface temperatures.
D. Some stars exist for longer periods than other stars.


The surface temperatures of main-sequence stars largely depend on their mass, which varies from star to star. The Sun is a main-sequence star that generates energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen. How long stars exist largely depends on their mass.
A ball is thrown straight up about fifty meters into the air. As the ball is traveling toward Earth and returning to the person who threw it, which of the following is most likely to be true?


A. The speed of the ball is increasing.

B. The potential energy of the ball is increasing.

C. The mass of the ball is decreasing.

D. The frictional force of air resistance acting on the ball is decreasing.
A. The speed of the ball is increasing.


As the ball is traveling toward Earth from about fifty meters, the ball is most likely increasing in speed due to the force of gravity acting on the ball.
Which of the following best describes how a small saltwater spill should be cleaned up in the elementary classroom?


A. Allow the spill to spread so that the water can quickly evaporate, then sweep up the salt.

B. Wipe up the spill with paper towels from the outer edge toward the center to minimize the spread of the spill.

C. Add water to dilute the salt water and increase the volume of the spill to ensure that all the students can help wipe up the spill.

D. Use the classroom sponge to absorb the spill, then squeeze out the salt water into its original container so that it can be reused.
B. Wipe up the spill with paper towels from the outer edge toward the center to minimize the spread of the spill.


Minimizing the area of the saltwater spill while effectively cleaning up the liquid reduces any potential safety hazards that the spill may create.
When one animal enters an area inhabited by another animal of the same species, the fighting that may occur is most likely associated with which of the following?


A. Predation

B. Territoriality

C. Mimicry

D. Parasitism
B. Territoriality


The aggressive interactions that may occur between individuals of the same species when one individual enters an area already occupied by another are most likely related to territoriality. These behaviors may be related to the defense of feeding or breeding areas.
A battery in a circuit causes a lightbulb to glow by providing energy to which of the following in the wires of the circuit?


A. Electrons

B. Protons

C. Heat

D. Light
A. Electrons


A battery in a circuit provides energy to the electrons in the wires of the circuit. In the bulb, some of the electrical energy is converted to light.