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Terms in this set (202)

All of the following are among the department's
guiding principles except:

A. The department is the crucial piece in the
structure that makes society a cohesive and
sate environment as opposed to one
characterized by chaos and disorder.
B. The department and each of its commands,
offices and divisions shall strive to reflect
the ethnic and cultural make-up of the
community it serves.
C. The neighborhood is the basic segment of
the community.
D. Because law enforcement and public safety
reflect community wide concerns, the police
must actively seek the involvement of
citizens in all aspects of policing.

A. The department is the crucial piece in the
structure that makes society a cohesive and
sate environment as opposed to one
characterized by chaos and disorder.

It is encouraged to used expedited Class Il
investigations, and not Sl investigations, in
circumstances, other than administrative type
violations, when:

A. there are repeated violations of a more
serious nature.
B. the employee acknowledges culpability and
accepts responsibility for all the alleged
conduct.
C. violations occur off-duty and outside the City
of Houston.
D. it appears likely that the investigation will
take fewer than seven (7) days.

B. the employee acknowledges culpability and
accepts responsibility for all the alleged
conduct

Supervisors who delegate tasks to subordinate
employees are:

A. ultimately accountable for ensuring the task
is completed.
B. required to delegate authority
commensurate with the responsibility so
delegated.
C. required to monitor the subordinate
employees with diligence and constancy.
D. encouraged to obtain the subordinate
employee's agreement regarding the goals,
objectives, and methods of carrying out the
delegated tasks.

A. ultimately accountable for ensuring the task
is completed

During an emergency response, the on-duty area
patrol sergeant or lieutenant shall immediately
respond to the scene of the emergency and take
charge of the department's response until
relieved. The first supervisor on the scene of an
emergency should ensure that the following
critical tasks are accomplished: Secure and
establish communications; Identify any danger or
kill zones and safe routes to the scene; Establish
inner and outer perimeters; and:

A. Establish a field command post.
B. Establish a staging area.
C. Request additional resources as necessary.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Supervisors who witness, are advised of, or
otherwise become aware of prohibited conduct
(discrimination or harassment) are required to
report the prohibited conduct and cannot agree to
do otherwise. Once a supervisor is aware of
prohibited conduct, the supervisor shall do both of
the following: Take immediate and appropriate
action to stop and/or prevent further misconduct
(implementing shielding if necessary); and
promptly report the prohibited conduct to
no later than 24 hours from discovery of the
incident

A. IAD
B. EEOC
C. the ERS facilitator
D. All of the above.

C. the ERS facilitator

All of the following statements about the Informal
Resolution process for Sexual Harassment
charges are correct except:

A. The complainant in a sexual harassment
case shall determine the format of the
process: mediation, training or counseling.
B. Informal Resolutions may be accomplished
through mediation, chain of command
management plan, counseling, or any other
process approved by the Chief of Police.
C. If anyone involved with the complaint
declines to participate in the Informal
Resolution process, the matter will be
referred to CIO.
D. ERS, in conjunction with Legal Services,
has the responsibility of determining
whether informal resolution is appropriate.

A. The complainant in a sexual harassment
case shall determine the format of the
process: mediation, training or counseling.

Which of the following statements about
Performance Rating Worksheets is correct?

A. Supervisors of classified employees shall
meet with their employees to discuss the
contents of the worksheet every two or
three months depending on which
worksheet is used.
B. Worksheets can be grieved if they are not
based on direct observation.
C. Only ratings of "Outstanding" and
"Unacceptable" require documentation with
Performance Rating Worksheets.
D. Supervisors shall only address those
specific task factors listed on the
Performance Rating worksheet.

A. Supervisors of classified employees shall
meet with their employees to discuss the
contents of the worksheet every two or
three months depending on which
worksheet is used.

Which of the following shall monitor extra
employment at alcoholic beverage establishments
by performing periodic inspections?

A. On-duty patrol supervisors.
B. EEO personnel.
C. IAD.
D. HD personnel.

A. On-duty patrol supervisors.

Employees subject to Department of
Transportation alcohol and drug testing shall be
directed by the division commander to report to a
controlled substance testing collection site. If an
alcohol test has not been administered within
_hours following a crash, all attempts for
such test shall cease. If the employee has not
submitted to a controlled substance test within
hours following the crash, attempts for
such tests shall cease.

A. 2; 8
B. 2: 16
C. 8; 16
D. 8; 32

D. 8; 32

Reasonable suspicion of possible alcohol use
while on duty, drug abuse, or illegal drug use,
may be developed through direct observation by a
supervisor or:

A. deductive reasoning.
B. a confidential investigation by IAD.
C. Drug Testing Unit revieW.
D. a thorough review of the employee's records
and reports.

B. a confidential investigation by IAD.

Employees who are potentially exposed to a
communicable disease shall go to a hospital
emergency room or urgent care facility to receive
protective treatment at the earliest possible time.
No employee may be forced to submit to a blood
test as a result of reporting an exposure;
however:

A. worker's compensation requires any
employee claiming exposure to submit to a
baseline blood test within ten calendar days
following exposure.
B. the employee may be placed on
administrative leave for 10 days or until the
employee submits to a blood test or no
symptoms appear as determined by
Houston Health Department Bureau of
Epidemiology (HHD).
C. the employee shall be placed on restricted
duty until such time as the employee
submits to a blood test or no symptoms
appear as determined by a physician at
HD Bureau of Epidemiology.
D. B or C as determined by the employee's
commanding officer.

A. worker's compensation requires any
employee claiming exposure to submit to a
baseline blood test within ten calendar days
following exposure.

Each employee's personnel file may contain
records and information relating to any
misconduct by the employee if the letter,
memorandum or document is from the police
department, and:

A. if the misconduct resulted in disciplinary
action by the police department.
B. if the misconduct resulted in disciplinary
action of a suspension of two or more days
Off.
C. if the discipline was reviewed by the ADC.
D. if complete notes, reports and hearing
transcripts related to the misconduct are
included

A. if the misconduct resulted in disciplinary
action by the police department.

When an employee is placed in an Early Warning
System (EWS) Program, the employee's
immediate supervisor shall:

A. meet once a week with the EWU
Caseworker to discuss the employee's
progress in the Program.
B. meet at least once per week with the
employee where the employee's
performance shall be reviewed and
discussed.
C. monitor the employee's progress and make
a recommendation to the EW caseworker
recommending employee continuance in or
completion of the Program.
D. meet weekly with the employee's
commander to review the employee's
performance in the Program.

B. meet at least once per week with the
employee where the employee's
performance shall be reviewed and
discussed.

Which of the following statements about officer
communications with criminal defense attorneys
about a pending case is correct?

A. Employees shall not communicate with
criminal defense attorneys unless they are
subject to court order or subpoena.
B. Employees shall only communicate with
criminal defense attorneys about a pending
case with authorization from the prosecutor,
unless the employee is subject to court
order or subpoena.
C. Employees shall only communicate with
criminal defense attorneys with a supervisor
from their chain of command present, if
practicable.
D. Information volunteered by a criminal
defense attorney to an employee is not
privileged and may be shared with the
prosecutor.

D. Information volunteered by a criminal
defense attorney to an employee is not
privileged and may be shared with the
prosecutor.

All the following are Standards of Productivity
categories except:

A. Arrest Activity.
B. Call Activity.
C. Complaints.
D. Report Activity.

C. Complaints.

Supervisors who receive issues from a
complainant shall sign the Issue Record From
(IRF). If a walk-in complainant refuses to provide
a sworn statement regarding an allegation of
serious misconduct, the supervisor shall make a
notation of the refusal on the (IRF) and:

A. refer the complainant to IAD/CIO.
B. immediately notify the commanding officer.
C. send the original to CIO immediately.
D. inform the complainant that a sworn
statement is required to initiate and proceed
with an investigation of the complaint.

C. send the original to CIO immediately.

With respect to initiating Mediation:

A. employees may request mediation
themselves by directly contacting the
Alternative Dispute Resolution Unit (ADR).
B. Division commanders may refer issues
directly to ADR with a recommendation that
they be mediated.
C. Issues received by the Central Intake Office
(CIO) and determined to be eligible for
mediation shall be referred to ADR's
Mediation Section.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

The first supervisor making the scene of a crash
involving an on-duty City employee or a City
vehicle shall immediately notify the Command
Center of the incident under all of the following
circumstances except:

A. damage is greater than $500.
B. the crash creates hazardous conditions that
could endanger life.
C. the crash is likely to draw the attention of
the media.
D. the crash involved three or more vehicles.

A. damage is greater than $500.

Any Surveillance evidence created within a
division shall be retained by:

A. CID, Technical Surveillance Detail.
B. IAD.
C. the investigative division.
D. the narcotics division.

C. the investigative division.

The following guidelines shall be used as a basis
for granting confidential status of employee
information in the department's computer system.
Which of the following is not one of these
quidelines?

A. Officers who spend the majority of time
serving as an undercover investigator, if
access to the officer's home address or
telephone number could endanger the
officer or family members.
B. Officers who primarily investigate possible
criminal violations committed by department
personnel.
C. Employees assigned to the Criminal
Intelligence Division and are in regular
contact with gang members and/or other
individuals with a nexus to terrorist
organizations or activities.
D. Employees who have received a legitimate
personal or family-directed threat of death
or serious bodily injury.

C. Employees assigned to the Criminal
Intelligence Division and are in regular
contact with gang members and/or other
individuals with a nexus to terrorist
organizations or activities.

An officer's Mobile Video Recorder (MVR) may be
deactivated only when: All contacts with the
public on the scene are completed and, if
applicable, all arrests have been made and
arrestees have been transported; Approved by a
Supervisor on extended scenes; and:

A. The officer's BWC has been activated and is
operating
B. Victims and/or witnesses refuse to provide a
statement when the MVR is activated.
C. The inner perimeter of a scene is cordoned
off with crime scene tape, and a supervisor
has permitted the deactivation of the BWC
and MVR for officers within the inner
perimeter.
D. The inner perimeter of a scene is cordoned
off with crime scene tape, and a supervisor
has permitted the deactivation of the BWC
and MVR for officers within the inner
perimeter.

C. The inner perimeter of a scene is cordoned
off with crime scene tape, and a supervisor
has permitted the deactivation of the BWC
and MVR for officers within the inner
perimeter.

ACED Trained officer may remove CED darts
from suspects if:

A. approved by an on-scene Supervisor.
B. there is no indication for medical personnel
to be called to the scene.
C. a person is darted in a sensitive area.
D. All of the above.

B. there is no indication for medical personnel
to be called to the scene.

The reporting period for the Automated Vehicle
Location (AVL) system is variable, depending on
whether the mobile unit is moving or stationary,
and:

A. discretion of the driver.
B. the mobile unit's rate of speed.
C. dispatch load and time of day.
D. All of the above.

B. the mobile unit's rate of speed.

Supervisors shall review relevant BWC recordings
prior to submitting any administrative reports as
they relate to incidents involving: Response to
Resistance; or:

A. Arrests for violent crimes.
B. Pursuits.
C. Domestic Violence.
D. All of the above.

B. Pursuits.

All of the following statements about BWCs are
correct except:

A. supervisors tasked with coordinating the
response to special events shall have the
discretion to order officers to record portions
or the entire special event.
B. officers may request permission from a
supervisor to deactivate the BWC when
witnesses and complainants may have been
traumatized and this will inhibit the officer's
ability to obtain a full and candid statement.
C. In all cases BWCs shall be activated prior to
turning on emergency equipment.
D. Under no circumstances, except with
Supervisory approval, shall an officer
remove the BWC from their uniform while
on duty.

D. Under no circumstances, except with
Supervisory approval, shall an officer
remove the BWC from their uniform while
on duty.

lAD investigators and designated division level
Internal Affairs investigators have the authority to
show a complainant or witness a video recording:

A. prior to trial or hearing in the presence of
the District Attorney or an AD Supervisor
B. only after a complaint has been made in
accordance with civil service law.
C. only with the permission of the defendant.
D. only prior to the filing of charges or
complaint.

B. only after a complaint has been made in
accordance with civil service law.

Prior to initiating a stop, the ALPR operator shall
adhere to all the following tasks except:

A. notify their supervisor.
B. ensure there is a hit, which requires the
ALPR operator to visually verify the license
plate number matches the license plate
number read by the ALPR system.
C. if the alert is solely related to a warrant, the
ALPR operator shall ascertain information
about the person named in the warrant via
dispatch or MCD query.
D. if the alert is not related to a warrant and is
another type of alert, the ALPR operator
shall verify the current status of the license
plate through dispatch or MCD query.

A. notify their supervisor.

When a Personal Radiation Detector provides a
detection alarm, the officer reviewing the alarm
shall conduct the primary screening which
consists of: Note the dose rate of the source;
Attempt to locate and verify the Source; and:

A. Evacuate the area.
B. Isolate the source.
C. Investigate to determine if the source is a
Threat or Non-Threat.
D. Determine the extent of radiation exposure
from the source.

C. Investigate to determine if the source is a
Threat or Non-Threat.

Physically evasive movements to defeat an
officer's attempt at control, including bracing and
tensing in an aggressive manner iS:

A. Active aggression.
B. Actively resisting.
C. Active non-compliance.
D. Passive aggression.

B. Actively resisting.

The Remote Restrain Device (RRD) should only
be used when the officer can safely approach the
intended individual within the range intended for
the proper operation of the device:

A. 5 - 10 feet.
B. 10 - 15 feet.
C. 10 - 20 feet.
D. 10 - 30 feet.

C. 10 - 20 feet.

The scene supervisor shall conduct an inquiry of
an RRD incident and:

A. ensure that BWCs of on scene officers are
transported to IAD.
B. ensure that a R2R report is completed by
the officer deploying the RRD.
C. ensure data from the BWCs involving RRD
deployments are downloaded before going
off duty.
D. All of the above.

C. ensure data from the BWCs involving RRD
deployments are downloaded before going
off duty.

Which of the following statements about
Supervisory oversight of sUAS flights is correct?

A. Supervisors shall not order the Pilot in
Command (PIC) to launch or continue a
flight against the judgment of the PIC.
B. Supervisors may order the termination of a
launch.
C. Supervisors may order the termination of a
flight.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following may authorize the use of
force or deadly force using a drone?

A. the Commander of the Special Operation
Division.
B. the Commander of the Tactical Operations
Division.
C. the Commander of the Air Support Division.
D. The use of force or deadly force using a
drone is prohibited

B. the Commander of the Tactical Operations
Division.

Employees are advised that when a suspect
ingests narcotics or other contraband and
evidence is destroyed, they are to:

A. notify the Narcotics Division.
B. notify the jail personnel of the incident.
C. consult with the appropriate district
attorney's office to discuss the acquisition of
a search warrant.
D. file Tampering with Evidence charges.

C. consult with the appropriate district
attorney's office to discuss the acquisition of
a search warrant.

Which of the following statements about Strip
Searches and Body Cavity Searches is correct?

A. Body cavity searches may only be
conducted in accordance with a valid search
warrant.
B. Only medical personnel at medical facilities
shall conduct body cavity searches.
C. Strip searches shall be conducted only upon
approval of the Shift commander.
D. Strip searches may be conducted only
subsequent to an arrest when there is
probable cause to believe a suspect is
concealing weapons, contraband, or
evidence that may not be detected or
recovered by the usual search techniques.

B. Only medical personnel at medical facilities
shall conduct body cavity searches.

Which of the following is not a condition under
which an officer may search a vehicle?

A. There is probable cause to believe that
there is evidence of a crime within the
person's reach.
B. Contraband is found in plain view.
C. There is reasonable suspicion to believe
there is evidence of a crime in the vehicle.
D. The search is related to the suspect's
arrest.

C. There is reasonable suspicion to believe
there is evidence of a crime in the vehicle.

Which of the following is not an On-Scene
Supervisor's Responsibility at a consent search?

A. Make the scene of all consent searches of
residences, buildings, businesses, and
other premises.
B. Supervise the entire consent to search
process once they arrive on the scene.
C. Ensure the signature of the individual giving
consent is obtained and documented on the
consent form.
D. When evidence is seized as the result of the
search notify the appropriate investigative
division.

D. When evidence is seized as the result of the
search notify the appropriate investigative
division.

Adults, juveniles, and prisoners of the opposite
sex will be transported in different vehicles
unless:

A. the persons have been arrested as a result
of the same incident.
B. the adults and juveniles are related to each
other.
C. authorized by a supervisor.
D. All of the above.

A. the persons have been arrested as a result
of the same incident.

If the prisoner arrested for DW1 has less than .08
breath-alcohol content and the arresting officer
believes the prisoner is under the influence of
another substance, the officer should contact:

A. the Command Center.
B. their supervisor.
C. a Traffic and Accident Division Supervisor.
D. a Narcotics Division Supervisor.

A. the Command Center.

HPD officers will assist ICE agents on criminal
matters of mutual concern, but only when
requested and only in situations in which the
involved HPD officers will be clearly exercising
their powers under the laws of the State of Texas.
Officers are prohibited from participating in ICE
raids for which the primary purpose is the arrest
of persons for their undocumented status. Any
request to participate in these types of
investigations shall require the prior approval of
prior to participation.

A. a supervisor.
B. the shift commander.
C. Criminal Intelligence Division.
D. an Assistant Chief.

D. an Assistant Chief.

When an officer has probable cause to believe
that a juvenile is in possession of marijuana within
Harris County, the officer shall contact:

A. the District Attorney's office.
B. the Narcotics Division.
C. the Juvenile Division.
D. Harris County Juvenile Probation.

D. Harris County Juvenile Probation.

Prior to interrogating a juvenile who has been
taken into police custody in connection with an
incident and who is the focus of a police
investigation, officers shall:

A. request the presence of a supervisor.
B. attempt to contact the juvenile's parent or
quardian.
C. administer the appropriate statutory
warnings.
D. present the juvenile to a magistrate in the
county where the incident occurred in order
for the magistrate to read the juvenile the
statutory warnings.

D. present the juvenile to a magistrate in the
county where the incident occurred in order
for the magistrate to read the juvenile the
statutory warnings.

When a supervisor responds to an arrest for
Resisting Arrest, Search, or Transportation;
Evading Arrest, Detention, or Interference with
Public Duties, the supervisor is responsible for all
the following except:

A. speak with all officers at the scene and
review the facts with them.
B. review all the facts with the arresting officer
and discuss with the arresting officer the
range of charges that may be applicable.
C. ensure any response to resistance is
properly documented.
D. contact the District Attorney's office to
determine if criminal charges will be
accepted.

D. contact the District Attorney's office to
determine if criminal charges will be
accepted.

Which of the following statements about Brady
disclosures is correct?

A. Irrespective of good or bad faith,
suppression of evidence favorable to an
accused violates due process when the
evidence is material either to guilt or to
punishment.
B. The defense is not required to request
potential Brady material.
C. Employees whose history regarding
integrity, honesty, credibility, veracity, and
related matters having a negative bearing
on their professional reputation may be
subject to Brady disclosure.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Officers may divert non-violent, low-level
misdemeanor offenders who are not in crisis and
not a danger to themselves or others to the
Mental Health Diversion Center instead of filing
charges or writing a citation. To be eligible for jail
diversion, the suspect must be 18 years of age or
older and:

A. must agree to go to the Diversion Center.
B. supervisor approval must be obtained.
C. the suspect must have no prior arrests.
D. the person is a legal resident of the U.S.

A. must agree to go to the Diversion Center.

Officers have the authority to apprehend a person
by using the Notification of Emergency Detention.
A peace officer may take a person into custody
without a warrant if both of the following apply:
The officer has reason to believe that the person
is mentally ill and because of that mental illness
there is a substantial risk of serious harm to the
person or others unless the person is immediately
restrained; and:

A. A certified caretaker of the person informs
the peace officer of agitated behaviors
exhibited by the person.
B. The officer has first-hand knowledge of the
person and his history of violent behavior.
C. The officer believes there is not sufficient
time to a warrant before taking the person
into custody.
D. The person informs the officer of behaviors
that warrant taking the person into custody.

C. The officer believes there is not sufficient
time to a warrant before taking the person
into custody.

________ shall investigate all incidents involving
diplomats or persons claiming diplomatic
immunity.

A. Criminal Intelligence Division
B. Special Investigations Command
C. Special Operations Division
D. Homeland Security Command

A. Criminal Intelligence Division

Officers are authorized to seize firearms from
persons exhibiting a mental health crisis only
when: The person is exhibiting a mental health
crisis and taken into custody for a Notification of
Emergency Detention (NED); Upon detention the
person is in possession of the firearm; and:

A. The person has made a credible threat to
use the firearm to harm themselves or
another.
B. A criminal offense involving the use of the
firearm has not been committed.
C. The person attempted to conceal the
presence of the firearm.
D. There is no other person, who is related to
the person in possession of the firearm
available to take possession of the firearm.

B. A criminal offense involving the use of the
firearm has not been committed.

Prior to any officer seeking judicial approval for a
No Knock Search Warrant, which of the following
must review and approve the request in writing?

A. The District Attorney.
B. The Commander of the Narcotics Division.
C. The Office of the Homeland Security
Command.
D. The Chief of Police, or in his absence, the
Executive Chief or an Executive Assistant
Chief.

D. The Chief of Police, or in his absence, the
Executive Chief or an Executive Assistant
Chief.

Knock and Announce Search Warrants with
forced entry require:

A. execution by SWAT personnel.
B. the presence of an officer holding the rank
of lieutenant or above.
C. the presence of the Narcotics Tactical Team.
D. a marked unit to be visible or as close as
possible as the situation allows to be utilized
to activate the siren and emergency lights to
announce the officers' presence.

D. a marked unit to be visible or as close as
possible as the situation allows to be utilized
to activate the siren and emergency lights to
announce the officers' presence.

Officers shall confirm that the arrest warrant
remains valid by contacting the HSCO, Criminal
Warrants Division. Another verification should be
made no earlier than
prior to attempting
the arrest.

A. 30 minutes
B. 3 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A. 30 minutes

A General Broadcast/Lookout shall be entered for
possible stolen vehicles only when:

A. a call for service has been entered to obtain
a response from a field unit or from the
Teleserve Unit.
B. reported by the responding officer.
C. the case has been transferred to the
appropriate investigative division.
D. approved by the field officer's supervisor.

A. a call for service has been entered to obtain
a response from a field unit or from the
Teleserve Unit.

Any of the following may terminate a pursuit
except:

A. officer in primary unit.
B. officer in secondary unit.
C. on-duty officer holding the rank of sergeant
or above.
D. on-scene Tactical Flight Officer.

B. officer in secondary unit.

The primary unit in a pursuit shall attempt to
obtain a to-be warrant through the district
attorney's office if the pursuit was not initiated or
is terminated without apprehending the suspect,
and:

A. the identity of the suspect is known.
B. the suspect is believed to have committed a
felony
C. approval is obtained from the managing
supervisor of the pursuit.
D. there was damage to a motor vehicle, or a
witness, victim, or other party sustained an
injury requiring hospitalization.

A. the identity of the suspect is known.

The first on-scene patrol supervisor at the scene
of a Special Threat shall:

A. establish and supervise a mobilization point
to which all patrol personnel shall report.
B. assume overall command of operations.
C. request a response from Special Operations
Division personnel.
D. All of the above.

A. establish and supervise a mobilization point
to which all patrol personnel shall report.

At a special threat situation, once the inner
perimeter has been manned by SWAT Detail
personnel, only the
can order the
planned discharge of firearms.

A. operational commander
B. the senior officer of the SWAT Detail
C. the Tactical Operation Division Commander
D. any of the above

A. operational commander

Before a suspect can be arrested for violating a
temporary or ex parte protective order, the
investigating officer shall:

A. verify that the suspect has been served with
the temporary or ex parte protective order.
B. establish that probable cause exists to
execute an arrest independent of the
temporary or ex parte protective order.
C. determine the relationship between the
suspect and the person claiming protection
with the temporary or ex parte protective
order.
D. require the alleged victim to provide written
documentation of the temporary or ex parte
protective order.

A. verify that the suspect has been served with
the temporary or ex parte protective order.

All the following charges may be filed involving a
crash on "public" private property except:

A. Failure to stop and give information (FSGI).
B. Failure to stop and render aid (FSRA).
C. Reckless driving.
D. Driving while intoxicated, intoxication,
assault, etc.

C. Reckless driving.

Whenever a stolen vehicle or a vehicle suspected
of being stolen is recovered (whether or not it is
occupied or operable), the recovering officer
shall: Attempt to contact the owner or
complainant; Advise the owner of the location and
condition of the vehicle and determine how the
vehicle is to be handled; Have the vehicle
removed as a non-consent tow if the owner
cannot be contacted or indicates no preference
for disposition; and:

A. Request the approval of a supervisor prior
to requesting a non-consent tow.
B. Remove the owner's personal items from
the vehicle prior to the non-consent tow.
C. Attempt to lift or have fingerprints lifted at
the scene before the vehicle is removed
D. All of the above.

C. Attempt to lift or have fingerprints lifted at
the scene before the vehicle is removed

When involved in a foot pursuit, officers move to
active suspect search mode when:

A. back-up officers arrive on scene.
B. officers have a tactical advantage.
C. the suspect is no longer in sight.
D. the identity of the suspect is known.

C. the suspect is no longer in sight.

When responding to an incident involving the
sexual abuse of a child younger than 17 years of
age, officers shall:

A. generate an incident report and forward it to
the Special Victims Division for assignment
to an Investigator.
B. generate an incident report and forward it to
the Juvenile Division for assignment to an
Investigator.
C. arrange for the child to be interviewed at the
Child Assessment Center.
D. immediately contact the Texas Department
of Family and Protective Services.

A. generate an incident report and forward it to
the Special Victims Division for assignment
to an Investigator.

Which of the following statements about
Restricted Use Cls is correct?

A. Restricted Use Cls may not use department
funds for the purchase of controlled
substances.
B. Restricted Use Cls require the written
approval of the division commander of the
authorized division and shall be subject to a
greater degree of supervisory control.
C. All Defendant Cls shall operate under
Restricted Use Guidelines.
D. Restricted Use Cls shall not be eligible to
complete a District Attorney CI Contract.

B. Restricted Use Cls require the written
approval of the division commander of the
authorized division and shall be subject to a
greater degree of supervisory control.

Objectively reasonable refers to an objective
standard viewed from the perspective of a
reasonable officer on the scene, without the
benefit of 20/20 hindsight, and within the
limitations of:

A. the agency's use of force policy.
B. the law.
C. standard of what a reasonable officer, with
similar training and experience, would do
D. the totality of circumstances present at the
time of the incident.

D. the totality of circumstances present at the
time of the incident.

When safe and feasible under the totality of
circumstances, officers shall use a team approach
to de-escalation, considering: Officer training and
skill level; The number of officers; and:

A. Location of the individual.
B. Location of the individual.
C. Availability of non-lethal options.
D. Whether any officer has successtully
established rapport with the individual.

D. Whether any officer has successtully
established rapport with the individual.

If a suspect gains control of an officer's CED, the
officer should:

A. consider such seizure as an objectively
reasonable threat of death or serious bodily
injury.
B. attempt to use de-escalation techniques.
C. use whatever means necessary to subdue
the suspect short of the use of deadly force.
D. issue an immediate request for back-up.

B. attempt to use de-escalation techniques.

An on-duty supervisor will be sent to the scene to
conduct an investigation and complete a
supplemental or original incident report whenever:

A. an officer unintentionally discharges a
firearm and it does not result in any bodily
injury or serious bodily injury to any person.
B. an officer discharges a firearm toward an
animal or shoots an animal and it does not
result in any bodily injury or serious bodily
injury to any person.
C. an officer discharges a soft impact weapon,
intentionally or unintentionally, and it does
not result in any serious bodily injury to any
person.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

If a Reportable Force (RF) only requires the Short
Form, no supervisor review of documentation is
required. If the RF requires the Long Form, the
supervisor shall review all applicable Use of Force
forms and BWC videos within
after the
BWC is available.

A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 5 calendar days

D. 5 calendar days

If a person is recording police activity from a
position that interferes with the safety of officers
or their ability to perform their duties, if
reasonable to do so, an officer may:

A. direct the person to stop recording.
B. seize the recording device.
C. detain and question the person making the
recording.
D. direct the person to move to a position that
will not interfere.

D. direct the person to move to a position that
will not interfere.

Warrantless seizure of a member of the public's
recording device and/or media is permissible only
when there is probable cause to believe that the
property holds contraband or evidence and:

A. the officer has obtained supervisory
approval for the seizure.
B. the exigencies of the circumstances
demand seizure of the property.
C. there is reason to believe that suspects or
witnesses to the event will file a complaint
relating to an officer's use of force.
D. All of the above.

B. the exigencies of the circumstances
demand seizure of the property.

When immediate follow-up investigation provides
a high probability that the suspect can be
arrested, the investigation may be continued by
the patrol officer. Officers not otherwise
authorized shall contact the concerned division
prior to continuing the investigation. Which of the
following shall determine whether an extensive or
time-consuming follow-up investigation is
required?

A. The patrol division shift lieutenant.
B. A patrol division supervisor.
C. A supervisor from the concerned division.
D. An officer from the concerned division along
with the patrol division supervisor.

D. An officer from the concerned division along
with the patrol division supervisor.

With some allowances for the additional
requirements of specialty assignments, it can be
said that the American police sergeant: Guides,
Monitors, and
subordinates.

A. Motivates
B. Directs
C. Evaluates the performance of
D. Learns from

C. Evaluates the performance of

The ethical law enforcement leader also knows
that he best serves his community as well as his
subordinates when:

A. he demonstrates his loyalty to his superiors
and subordinates
B. he treats all people with same degree of
respect.
C. his guiding value is fairness.
D. he acts as a positive role model for what a
peace officer should be.

D. he acts as a positive role model for what a
peace officer should be.

Which of the following often tops the list of the
CEO's complaints about his subordinate
supervisors?

A. A lack of loyalty to management.
B. A failure to prioritize their activities.
C. A lack of reliability or follow-through.
D. Looking the other way away from their
subordinates' mistakes and misdeeds.

C. A lack of reliability or follow-through.

To many police leaders, there is no greater sin
than that committed by a subordinate officer who:

A. lies to his boss.
B. fails to support his co-workers.
C. assumes the very worst in people, both
within and outside the department.
D. takes shortcuts and settles for less than
good work.

A. lies to his boss.

The instructor who allows a general discussion of
the topic under study is:

A. risking deviation from the content of the
lesson, and allowing key information to be
overlooked
B. making use of the collective knowledge of
the class members in addition to his own
insights.
C. demonstrating his respect for his students.
D. acting on his understanding that use of the
lecture will not engage students or
maximize learning.

B. making use of the collective knowledge of
the class members in addition to his own
insights.

First of all, when considering performance
evaluations, the Agency's leaders must decide
what is to be measured. Second, it is vital that
pertormance appraisals:

A. include objectives and performance
standards developed with employee input.
B. be conducted both formally and informally.
C. look only at behavior or results that are
tangible, observable, and capable of being
measured in some way.
D. be a 360-degree process, with Supervisors
evaluating their subordinates, their bosses
and their peers.

C. look only at behavior or results that are
tangible, observable, and capable of being
measured in some way.

Whatever form of corrective action is chosen for a
specific incidence of misconduct, the first-line
supervisor must be closely associated with it. If
the line supervisor is to retain his authority, as
well as his reputation as one who can help, he
must be able to:

A. recommend formal corrective actions to
higher authority.
B. apply positive and not negative discipline.
C. ensure that the employee agrees with and
accepts the corrective action.
D. use the resources available to him to correct
the employee's misconduct.

D. use the resources available to him to correct
the employee's misconduct.

Behavioral psychologists have known for a long
time that in order to be effective,
reward/punishment must be:

A. sure and immediate enough for the person
being rewarded or punished to connect his
actions with the results.
B. administered in a way that ensures the
person he rewarded or punished takes full
responsibility for his actions.
C. applied in such a way that it provides a
lesson for the entire work group.
D. be part of a written policy that describes in
specific terms the rewards and punishments
that will be applied for specific behaviors.

A. sure and immediate enough for the person
being rewarded or punished to connect his
actions with the results.

There are certain elements that are common to
each and every plan. First of all, the Supervisor-
planner must:

A. internalize the mission and vision of the
agency.
B. identify the end objectives he seeks.
C. establish his authority to develop the plan.
D. assemble a team to work on developing the
plan.

B. identify the end objectives he seeks.

The police leader determined to maintain a good
information exchange with his subordinates will
see to it that:

A. important communications are put into
written form.
B. information and facts are double-checked.
C. everyone impacted by the situation is
included in the conversation.
D. he keeps himself informed and knows
where to go for facts and information when
he does not have the answers himself.

D. he keeps himself informed and knows
where to go for facts and information when
he does not have the answers himself.

Detecting the existence of a problem is the first
step towards resolving it. Determining the nature
of the problem should be the next logical step
towards a solution. The Supervisor's most reliable
ally in this effort is:

A. regular monitoring of each individual
officer's performance.
B. careful observation of changes in an
officer's behaviors and/or mood.
C. a common sense understanding of human
nature and a specific understanding of the
emotional hazards of police work.
D. a direct and forthright approach to the
troubled employee.

D. a direct and forthright approach to the
troubled employee.

The police supervisor's cardinal rule in his or her
dealings with a subordinate of the opposite sex
should be:

A. equality in all things.
B. question your assumptions.
C. rely on facts not impressions, opinions or
emotions.
D. build rapport and trust.

A. equality in all things.

On occasion, the police manager will find that a
piece of information he has received for
forwarding from either end of the chain of
command is too incomplete, confusing, or unclear
for it to be understood at the other end. It is a
good rule of thumb:

A. to confirm what you have been told by
paraphrasing what you heard and
determining if that is correct.
B. to ask for instructions in writing, when
possible.
C. that if the supervisor cannot understand it,
others will have difficulty with it as well
D. to utilize repetition in communication to help
clarify what was said.

C. that if the supervisor cannot understand it,
others will have difficulty with it as well

The supervisor should remember that he must
often convince many people besides himself that
a proposed alteration (change) will be beneficial
and worth the effort expended on it. He does this
by first by:

A. getting his own facts straight and then by
presenting them logically and clearly.
B. identifying the potential reasons why
subordinates might resist the change.
C. understanding the need for change - the
problem to be solved.
D. determining whether, in fact, the proposed
change is needed.

A. getting his own facts straight and then by
presenting them logically and clearly.

Since Garrity, public employees, including police
agencies have realized that:

A. all investigations that may involve criminal
activity require the administration of the
Miranda advisement.
B. self-incriminating statements obtained from
employees who have been ordered to talk
cannot subsequently be used against those
employees in criminal proceedings.
C. investigators are no longer permitted to
require employees to answer questions in
investigations of misconduct.
D. once an employee has been given a Garrity
advisement, investigators may not
administer a Miranda advisement in an
investigation of the same charges.

B. self-incriminating statements obtained from
employees who have been ordered to talk
cannot subsequently be used against those
employees in criminal proceedings.

Sarah Blakely, CEO of Spanx, described the
mind-set that contributes to her success. She
learned early in life that "failure is not the
outcome, it's:

A. unacceptable."
B. not trying. Don't be afraid to fail."
C. avoided by leading from the heart."
D. not a tragedy."

B. not trying. Don't be afraid to fail."

Self awareness is the most difficult pillar of
emotional intelligence to master. The most
significant leadership work requires that we look
inward at what we need to improve in ourselves
and:

A. it requires understanding our childhoods.
B. it requires that we solicit feedback from
people we trust and respect to inform us of
how we lead, and how it impacts their lives.
C. balancing our needs with the needs of
others is the hardest work of all.
D. make amends to our friends and family.

B. it requires that we solicit feedback from
people we trust and respect to inform us of
how we lead, and how it impacts their lives.

Persuasion in its purest and noblest form is part
of passion, which is a huge element of:

A. Success.
B. Emotional intelligence.
C. Inspiration.
D. Team building.

B. Emotional intelligence.

Democratic leaders are self-aware enough to
recognize that their brand is simply the outward
representation of their culture. To have a great
external appearance:

A. the leader must defer to the knowledge and
hearts of the team.
B. you need everyone on the same page, each
instrument working in concert.
C. you need to empower the people on the
inside to contribute, have a voice; and add
value each day while knowing they're
valued.
D. your culture must embody all the ideas of
each participant and the leadership they
bring forward.

C. you need to empower the people on the
inside to contribute, have a voice; and add
value each day while knowing they're
valued.

A command leadership style is sometimes
needed. This leadership style works best when
combined with a keen self-awareness and:

A. pushing people outside their comfort
zones.
B. zeroing in on one's purpose without
consideration of its impact on workers.
C. self confidence.
D. mindful approach of empathy.

D. mindful approach of empathy.

Which of the following is not considered a pillar of
EQ?

A. Self Management.
B. Motivation.
C. Expectation.
D. Social skill.

C. Expectation.

The best way to thwart regressive behavior is with
a fully self-aware mind-set toward addition and
subtraction. Connors calls it offense and defense
Which of the following represents "playing
defense?"

A. Eliminating tasks and activities that either
add no value or take them down a notch.
B. Visualizing yourself achieving success.
C. Committing to the game plan regardless of
what may be temporary setbacks.
D. Refusing to accept defeat.

A. Eliminating tasks and activities that either
add no value or take them down a notch.

Emotionally intelligent leaders have an open mind
and prominently include _______ as part of their
organizational mission.

A. strategy and tactics
B. self reflection and self improvement
C. diversity and inclusion
D. learning and teaching

C. diversity and inclusion

It's harder for people to change once they've
become entrenched in an organization and they
get used to one way of doing things. An important
reason people can become obstacles is linked to
motivation. Which of the following are motivating
factors that can overcome resistance to change?

A. Recognition and reward.
B. An opportunity to truly make a difference.
C. Empowerment for decision-making that
leads to tangible, positive results.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Leading an organization, department, division, or
even a small unit requires adjustments. It's not so
much about following a playbook as it is about
gaining a deep understanding of four key areas:
Your people, Your customers, Your strategy, and:

A. Your resources.
B. Your timeline.
C. Your culture.
D. Your competition.

C. Your culture.

According to Rule #2 for Remixers, in order to
successtully work with people of other
generations, you have to be able to:

A. recognize the weaknesses, failures, and
follies of your own generation.
B. put yourself in their shoes and consider the
world from their perspective.
C. give up some authority and delegate.
D. recognize that simple problems may have
multiple solutions.

B. put yourself in their shoes and consider the
world from their perspective.

Referring to an earlier book, Pollak talks about
how many successful leaders across all levels
and industries told her that they learned how to
lead well by:

A. modeling themselves after existing leaders
they had personally experienced.
B. listening - listening often and listening well.
C. being well informed.
D. judging behaviors not people.

A. modeling themselves after existing leaders
they had personally experienced.

The goal of reflecting on your own beliefs and
beliefs in the management remix is to:

A. enable yourself to be open to change.
B. be able to communicate openly and
honestly with co-workers of different
generations.
C. build awareness and acknowledge what
expectations you have that may be different
from those of your employees.
D. ensure that you set a good example and
avoid transmitting less effective lessons and
methods.

C. build awareness and acknowledge what
expectations you have that may be different
from those of your employees.

No matter what your role or job title, if you want to
communicate across generations - and all
differences - you have to become expert on how
to best communicate with the people you want to
communicate with. How do you do that? It's quite
simple:

A. You practice and get feedback.
B. You vary the way you convey information;
use multiple methods and/or media.
C. You ask. Ask about how to best
communicate with that person.
D. You make a point of having one-on-one
conversations every day with as many
people as possible.

C. You ask. Ask about how to best
communicate with that person.

Reverse mentoring is particularly valuable if:

A. the number of younger employees in your
organization greatly outnumber those who
are older and more experienced
B. your work product is highly dependent on
new technologies and systems.
C. formal training opportunities and limited or
the time available for training is limited
D. you are in an industry that serves a younger
demographic of clients or customers.

D. you are in an industry that serves a younger
demographic of clients or customers.

A not unreasonable phrase notes that Supervision
is the act of directing and controlling the talents
and actions of others in:

A. the process of team building.
B. the pursuit of excellence.
C. carrying out certain goals and objectives.
D. helping others fulfill their potential and
perform at the highest level.

C. carrying out certain goals and objectives.

The average police officer's attitude towards his
job presents something of a contrast over that of
the so-called average worker from other fields.
The mythical average policeman:

A. may see himself as part of a cause, an idea
almost dead in those who work for pay in
modern times.
B. experiences high levels of stress in the most
ordinary activities.
C. has a complex and often antagonistic
relationship with his "customers."
D. must function at a very high level often
without the benefit of guidance.

A. may see himself as part of a cause, an idea
almost dead in those who work for pay in
modern times.

Garner's proposed Police Supervisor's Code of
Ethics, starts and ends with:

A. I will apply myself to accomplishing the
greater good.
B. I will be loyal.
C. I will be the best person I can be.
D. Right or wrong, I will always support those
under my charge.

B. I will be loyal.

Keeping the boss informed requires good
judgment on the part of the first line supervisor.
The really difficult part is:

A. respecting the confidentiality of
subordinates.
B. avoiding the appearance of pandering to his
superiors.
C. trusting that the information provided will be
put to good use.
D. determining what the boss wants to know
about and what can be handled at a lower
level of command.

D. determining what the boss wants to know
about and what can be handled at a lower
level of command.

A unique obstacle to following the established
chain of command is found when:

A. personal, off-the-job friendships are involved
between the persons doing the
communicating.
B. those high in the chain of command are not
well informed about the issues that are
brought to them.
C. there is an inherent conflict between the
concepts of following the chain of command
and officer discretion.
D. those lower in the chain of command are
better informed and have first-hand
knowledge of the issue or incident.

A. personal, off-the-job friendships are involved
between the persons doing the
communicating.

The most valuable assets of the police supervisor
intent upon developing a deserved reputation for
ample command presence must be: Calmness;
Self Confidence; and:

A. Courage.
B. Self-control.
C. Integrity.
D. Patience.

B. Self-control.

Any field that places as much emphasis on
practical application as police work does must call
for:

A. delegation of decision making to the lowest
level employees.
B. mentoring.
C. a long-term evaluation process.
D. practice.

C. a long-term evaluation process.

The police supervisor engaged at any stage of the
grievance procedure must remain mindful of:

A. the role he played in the matter being
grieved.
B. his equal obligations to employees and
management.
C. the fact that at the end of the day, the
supervisor represents management.
D. the motives of the employee presenting the
grievance.

B. his equal obligations to employees and
management.

With respect to informal organizational rules and
expectations, probably no one in the police
organization is held in more contempt by the
street cop or street supervisor than:

A. the worker who won't carry his fair share of
the load.
B. the cop who hesitates because of fear.
C. the deskbound Monday morning
quarterback, who second guesses the
actions of others.
D. the cop who says what he thinks others
want to hear rather than what he truly thinks
and feels.

C. the deskbound Monday morning
quarterback, who second guesses the
actions of others.

The supervisor who is dissatisfied with his
agency's stature and accomplishments can:

A. seek promotions and greater influence.
B. give his bosses honest feedback and
positive criticism.
C. hold his bosses accountable to the same
extent that he holds his subordinates
accountable.
D. work within his own sphere of influence to
change attitudes and actions.

D. work within his own sphere of influence to
change attitudes and actions.

is one of the buzzwords of the latest
generations of cops, and the supervisor who
brings them into the problem-solving exercise
may see good results.

A. Me too
B. Empowerment
C. Accommodation
D. Loyalty

B. Empowerment

Community policing in its true form only exists
where community or some element of it, in
addition to the police, does the following:

A. Takes responsibility for the existence of
problems in the community.
B. Regards quality of life as the single most
important issue affecting community safety.
C. Participates in the problem identification,
analysis and solution process.
D. All of the above.

C. Participates in the problem identification,
analysis and solution process.

When practicing problem-solving, police first
attempt to identify the problem or series of
problems by breaking the situation down to its
component parts. Next, they:

A. try to identify the actors involved, either as
suspects, victims, or others touched by the
situation.
B. gather the facts that may indicate a pattern
in the way the problem occurs.
C. try to identify as many possible solutions to
the problem as they can.
D. enlist others who offer expertise or
experience in addressing the type of
problem(s) identified.

A. try to identify the actors involved, either as
suspects, victims, or others touched by the
situation.

Which of the following most often determines
whether or not community policing will succeed?

A. The commitment of the entire department
from the chief executive down.
B. The first-line supervisor.
C. An engaged citizenry.
D. The low-level officer.

B. The first-line supervisor.

To supervise effectively in an agency practicing
community policing, a supervisor must be able to:

A. get out of his car and get to know members
of the community and learn about their
problems.
B. propose solutions to the most pressing
problems in the community and enlist the
support of his subordinates as well as
community members.
C. shift his attention away from numbers only
and too-rigid rules and focus as well on his
peoples' knowledge of their area, their
citizens and the problems to be found there.
D. invite the community to participate in police
activities from which they are typically
excluded, such as policy planning and
oversight of police performance.

C. shift his attention away from numbers only
and too-rigid rules and focus as well on his
peoples' knowledge of their area, their
citizens and the problems to be found there.

Race, ethnicity or national origin may be legitimate factors in a detention decision when used:

A. as part of an investigation of a specific crime.
B. as part the description of a specific suspect for whom an officer is searching.
C. as part of a criminal profile.
D. as part of any of the above.

B. as part the description of a specific suspect for whom an officer is searching.

Divisional Gang Unit (DGU) officers and supervisors are responsible for all the following except:

A. Coordinate gang related investigations with other divisions of gang-related crime in the
DGU officer's or Supervisor's area.
B. Notify a Supervisor in the Gang Division of all gang related significant events.
C. Assist patrol officers in gang investigations.
D. Conduct follow up investigations on gang
intelligence submitted by officers and submit the resulting intelligence to the Gang
Division.

A. Coordinate gang related investigations with other divisions of gang-related crime in the
DGU officer's or Supervisor's area.

Garner presents a reliable set of twenty-one officer survival rules designed to keep a policeman or police woman from falling prey to one or more of the deadly mistakes. First and foremost is:

A. Don't try to be a hero.
B. Always rely on your good common sense.
C. Never stop looking for threats or danger.
D. Do not underestimate your adversary.

B. Always rely on your good common sense.

The supervisor's safety counseling task may become somewhat harder when:

A. it comes to dealing with the veteran employee who feels he or she has seen it all, done it all, and knows it all.
B. budget constraints reduce training time and opportunities.
C. the supervisor resorts to telling employees the right way to do things instead of providing them with hands-on experience.
D. the supervisor underestimates the dangers in the community.

A. it comes to dealing with the veteran employee who feels he or she has seen it all, done it all, and knows it all.

The citizen seeks some specific things when interacting with a service provider. The average citizen expects: Reliability, Responsiveness; and:

A. Reassurance.
B. Empathy.
C. Results.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Basic "tricks of the trade" to apply to leave a citizen-customer with positive feelings about his or her encounter with law enforcement are:

1. Treat people as individuals and use their name.
2. Treat peoples' problems as if they were your OWn.
3. Be a very good listener.
4. Allow him or her to save face, if possible.
5. Don't leave a citizen with unanswered questions.
6. Build trust.

Correct answer: C.
You chose: B.
A. 1, 2, 3,4
B. 1, 2, 3, 6
C. 1, 3, 4, 6
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

C. 1, 3, 4, 6

It is absolutely necessary that the supervisor interested in career advancement:

A. let his bosses know of his interest.
B. approach every incident as an opportunity to be noticed by and impress his bosses.
C. be discreet and keep his ambition private.
D. find out what qualities his organization seeks in its managers and place the highest priority on developing those qualities.

A. let his bosses know of his interest.

Coach Brad Stevens is fond of saying, "The best leaders lead by serving others." Emotionally intelligent leaders are mindful and sensitive to:

A. reading the room.
B. how to set their employees up for success.
C. cultivating a uniform strategy forged with optimism.
D. how to downplay differences in skill level and experience while focusing on the mission.

B. how to set their employees up for success.

Daniel Goleman identifies three types of empathy.
All three types encourage us, first through listening, to show concern. The levels are Cognitive, Compassionate and:

A. Imaginative.
B. Emotional.
C. Result driven.
D. Idealistic.

B. Emotional.

Connors tells us leading from the heart is the essence of mastering
and becoming an
emotionally intelligent person.

A. social skills
B. our emotions
C. meaning
D. self awareness

A. social skills

Affiliative leadership begins with harmony. An affiliative leader bridges communication gaps, enables managers and employees through empathy and empowerment, and:

A. models positivity in all situations.
B. steps in to do the work when others don't show up.
C. steps in to mediate when necessary.
D. encourages others to let stress and tensions play out.

C. steps in to mediate when necessary.

Dr. Guy Itzchakov and Avraham Kluger say that
"listening resembles a muscle. It requires training, persistence, effort, and most importantly the intention to become a good listener. It requires clearing your mind from internal and external noise -- and if this isn't possible:

A. postponing a conversation for when you can truly listen without being distracted."
B. remove yourself and the speaker to a different location so that communication can be most effective."
C. honor the person talking by taking in what you can, trusting that the essence will be understood."
D. asking the person talking if they could instead send an email for you to read at a better time."

A. postponing a conversation for when you can truly listen without being distracted."

Connors says that in order to give value to others in your organization you must first introspectively look within and be firm in your values, strategy and goals. The transforming leader masters the fundamentals of self-awareness and then:

A. communicates his or her leadership plan to others.
B. utilizes their self knowledge to understand others.
C. builds relationships with people both inside and outside their organization.
D. authentically reveals their game plan for others to join.

C. builds relationships with people both inside and outside their organization.

Which of the following is not a sign of a truly adaptable, high-EQ leader?

A. Being agile and responsive to the needs of the business.
B. Having a balanced team.
C. Knowing how to best employ your strengths while compensating for your weaknesses.
D. Focusing on one and only one discipline.

D. Focusing on one and only one discipline.

Emotionally intelligent leaders are passionate about culture because:

A. they know winning organizations have a positive people-first culture.
B. cultural competency fuels belonging.
C. open and enquiring minds are so hard to find.
D. they don't want to be inflexible and out of touch.

A. they know winning organizations have a positive people-first culture.

According to scholars at the Emotional Literacy Foundation, "The model of emotional intelligence and diversity (EID).....encompasses the ability to feel, understand, articulate, manage, and:

A. help individuals to convey their truth.
B. help contain powerful emotional responses so that no one feels threatened.
C. apply the power of emotions to interactions across lines of difference.
D. help people understand differences are not significant when we respect each other.

C. apply the power of emotions to interactions across lines of difference.

What are the virtues of "leading through the front?"

A. It gets everyone involved in the process.
B. It shows genuine empathy and interest in people's concerns, problems, and key issues.
C. It communicates respect.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

In business, the remix is a positive approach to organizational change that takes practices or habits embraced by a previous generation and:
Correct answer: B.
You chose: D.
A. either eliminates them or lowers their influence in the organization.
B. adds to, removes from, or alters them in some way to better appeal to Millennial, Gen Zs, and future generations.
C. studies and measures their effectiveness using modern systems analysis.
D. applies new technologies to the older
practices.

B. adds to, removes from, or alters them in some way to better appeal to Millennial, Gen Zs, and future generations.

Pollak says that in fact, the longer I study generations in the workplace, the more similarities I find in what people want out of work. Those fundamentals - meaning, purpose, good leaders, professional growth - don't change. What changes is how each generation expresses those needs and:

A. the fact that fulfillment of these needs become non-negotiable features of the workplace.
B. how technology changes our approach to how these needs are met.
C. what expectations we have about our employer's fulfillment of them.
D. how the nature of work has changed in positive ways.

C. what expectations we have about our employer's fulfillment of them.

Another counterintuitive truth is that the best way to help people adapt to change is to focus on what will stay the same. This is particularly important:

A. in organizations with limited resources available to manage major change.
B. in managing long-tenured employees, who often feel tremendous loyalty to the organization and ways of working.
C. when customers and clients have set expectations about the services and products provided by the organization.
D. when catering to the demands of a board of directors and stakeholders.

B. in managing long-tenured employees, who often feel tremendous loyalty to the organization and ways of working.

According to James Frick, his biggest advice to organizations that want to attract a wide range of young leaders is to demonstrate that you want to partner with employees to:
.
A. flatten the old hierarchy in the organization.
B. utilize new technologies whenever possible.
C. make job descriptions more fluid and varied to make work more stimulating and exciting.
D. create a road map for their careers.

D. create a road map for their careers.

Pollak tells the story of a football coach who
"stopped yelling." This coach's story demonstrates that generational change requires leaders to:V
.
A. treat members of the younger generations as peers.
B. focus on internal (positive) rather than external (negative) motivational factors.
C. examine our existing practices and consider what actually works to achieve the results we want with the people we are leading today.
D. examine existing practices and make sure they address and acknowledge our people as multi-faceted human beings with a broad spectrum of personal and professional needs.

C. examine our existing practices and consider what actually works to achieve the results we want with the people we are leading today.

The leadership style most effective in getting the best results from all generations is:

A. to consider yourself a coach.
B. democratic.
C. diplomatic.
D. pragmatic.

A. to consider yourself a coach.

One of the most constructive changes younger generations have brought to the workplace is:

A. their tools and confidence to expose bad bosses.
B. their resourcefulness in obtaining new
information and skills.
C. their willingness and ability to multi-task and accomplish a variety of tasks and projects.
D. their ability to focus and apply themselves to activities for extended periods of time.

A. their tools and confidence to expose bad bosses.

The piece of advice Pollak offers most often to older generations managing younger employees iS:

A. give them plenty of space to work independently.
B. always balance praise with criticism.
C. be more specific not just in feedback but in
initial instructions.
D. don't be too distant, roll up your sleeves and work alongside them.

C. be more specific not just in feedback but in
initial instructions.

COPE: Create Once, Publish Everywhere is how leaders need to think about communicating with their employees. It means all the following except:

A. putting thought into what employees need to know.
B. empathizing with the time they have to consume information.
C. building in feedback mechanisms so that employees can get clarification, advice and resources to help them apply the information provided.
D. finding creative ways to provide information so that people of different generations, schedules, job functions, family situations, and learning preferences can access and digest it.

C. building in feedback mechanisms so that employees can get clarification, advice and resources to help them apply the information provided.

People say that today's younger professionals are lacking in certain soft skills that more experienced workers consider to be:

A. empathy.
B. communication skills.
C. reliability.
D. common sense.

D. common sense.

Police officers in the field and remote workers generally work without supervisor oversight.
Pollak found that the most common fears leaders have about remote work is that people aren't going to do their job. Pollak's solution is:

A. decide how you will measure if somebody is doing their job.
B. make unscheduled observations of remote workers.
C. draw up specific policies and procedures for remote work.
D. schedule regular on-site visits for those who work remotely.

A. decide how you will measure if somebody is doing their job.

The culture remix involves rethinking organizational culture from being:

A. focused on outputs and production to focused on relationships and process.
B. focused on internal relationships to being focused on external relationships, i.e. customers.
C. dictated by top-down leaders to growing bottom-up through the day-to-day experience of each and every employee.
D. having fixed work units and schedules to a more flexible organization with flexible schedules.

C. dictated by top-down leaders to growing bottom-up through the day-to-day experience of each and every employee.

In her discussion of Perks that Walk the Walk, Pollak says, when you acknowledge an employee try to do it in a way that:

A. enables the employee to "pay it forward" to build team spirit.
B. will truly resonate with that person.
C. has material benefits that make the acknowledgment concrete and long-lasting.
D. communicates your employee-centered approach to the entire work group or workforce.

B. will truly resonate with that person.

Addressing the Diversity and Inclusion Remix, Natalia Oberti Noguera says:

A. Without diversity and inclusion the remix is merely public relations.
B. The generational remix is the tip of the iceberg; a true remix is as diverse as the variety of the people on the street.
C. Diversity without inclusion is tokenism.
D. When the most marginalized are leading the conversation, that's when inclusion happens.

D. When the most marginalized are leading the conversation, that's when inclusion happens.

When recruiting any group of people to your organization, it is important to both promote the aspects of your organization that appeal to their specific generation and:

A. also promote the shared, communal aspects that bring all your employees together.
B. acknowledge the reality that their generation will have to do the same for future generations.
C. place emphasis on the importance of the non-generational aspects of the organizational culture.
D. All of the above.

A. also promote the shared, communal aspects that bring all your employees together.

The values of the HPD are: Preserve and advance democratic values; Improve the quality of work life; Demonstrate professionalism; and:

A. Improve the quality of community life.
B. Build community partnerships.
C. Eliminate crime.
D. Solve problems.

A. Improve the quality of community life.

Retaliation refers to conduct or decisions that a reasonable employee would view as materially adverse and whose purpose or effect is to:

A. exact revenge for actions offensive to the
employee carrying out the adverse actions.
B. discourage employees from exercising their rights under policy or under the law.
C. target members of protected groups or classes of people who have been hired as a result of affirmative action.
D. injure an employee who has been awarded a work assignment, promotion or training or other opportunity deemed unfair by the employee carrying out the adverse behavior.

B. discourage employees from exercising their rights under policy or under the law.

Which of the following statements about supervisory procedures regarding the investigation of complaints is correct?

A. All complaints (except those going directly to lAD/CIO) shall be referred to a supervisor.
B. Job performance and productivity issues do not equate to disciplinary issues.
C. A 48-hour notice is not required before discussing the original infraction with an employee.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following statements about officers involved in Critical Incidents is correct?

A. All employees directly or indirectly involved in a critical incident shall undergo a fitness for duty evaluation.
B. If an employee is involved in an incident resulting in the death or serious injury to another person, the employee shall contact the Psychological Services Division within two business days to schedule a post-critical incident intervention session.
C. At the discretion of the employee's immediate supervisor, any employee who causes death or serious injury to any person may be placed on temporary restricted duty for a maximum of five work days.
D. All of the above.

.B. If an employee is involved in an incident resulting in the death or serious injury to another person, the employee shall contact the Psychological Services Division within two business days to schedule a post-critical incident intervention session.

If an Employee Integrity and Verification Review
(EIVR) reveals any criminal history disqualifying issue, the classified supervisor shall first determine if the issue has been addressed during a prior employee integrity check. If the issue was not addressed on a prior EIVR, the classified supervisor shall:

A. determine if IAD has been notified of the issue.
B. notify the division commander of the issue.
C. notify the Employee Services Division of the issue.
D. notify the appropriate assistant chief or executive assistant chief of the issue.

A. determine if IAD has been notified of the issue.

Which of the following statements about Transfers and Transfer Applications is correct?

A. Officers shall not make applications for transfer prior to their completion of a minimum assignment period.
B. Applicants declining a transfer offer shall be removed from the application list for a period of six months.
C. Applications shall be accepted for a Method
A (non-interview process) transfer to a patrol division whether or not there is a current opening.
D. All of the above.

C. Applications shall be accepted for a Method
A (non-interview process) transfer to a patrol division whether or not there is a current opening.

After five years in a proactive investigative assignment and every two years thereafter, proactive investigators shall:

A. re-apply for the proactive investigator's position.
B. schedule and attend a psychological counseling session administered by HPD's
Psychological Services Division.
C. attend a mandatory 40-hour retraining for the proactive investigator's position.
D. meet with and be interviewed by the assistant chief or executive assistant chief to determine suitability of the officer for continuation in the proactive investigator's assignment.

B. schedule and attend a psychological counseling session administered by HPD's Psychological Services Division.

It is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that all of the initial IOD forms and required worker's compensation forms and documents are completed and forwarded to the Health and Safety Unit (HSU) within
_ after being made
aware of the injury or event, or as soon as practicable.

A. 24 hours
B. 3 calendar days
C. 5 calendar days
D. 10 calendar days

A. 24 hours

Supervisors will document significant strengths and weaknesses on the employee efficiency report. If a significant weakness is identified, supervisors will document:
.
A. employee approval of the improvement plan.
B. weaknesses from Performance Rating
Worksheets and meetings.
C. previous ratings of the problematic performance factors.
D. suggestions for improvement on the efficiency report.

D. suggestions for improvement on the efficiency report.

Supervisors shall track all unscheduled leave taken by officers under their command and the reason for each unscheduled leave. Regardless of the reasons for the first unscheduled leave events, a supervisor may require a health care provider's statement for any subsequent health-related event.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

D. 8

Only ______ is authorized to determine whether
an officer is eligible for FMLA leave.

A. the officer's division commander
B. Human Resources
C. the HPD FMLA Coordinator
D. Employee Services Division

C. the HPD FMLA Coordinator

Workplace harassment is any demeaning hostile or offensive conduct. For conduct to be workplace harassment, all the following must be true except:

A. the conduct created physical or emotional injury.
B. the conduct is based upon a protected category.
C. the conduct is unwelcome.
D. the conduct is severe or pervasive enough to create a work environment that a reasonable person would consider intimidating, hostile, or abusive.

A. the conduct created physical or emotional injury.

Preventative action taken to protect employees in cases involving allegations of prohibited conduct
IS:

A. victim assistance.
B. shielding.
C. deterrence.
D. preclusion.

B. shielding.

All grievances shall be presented to eligibility review and processing.

A. the officer's immediate supervisor.
B. Human Resources Division.
C. the officer's Division Commander.
D. The Alternative Dispute Resolution Unit.

D. The Alternative Dispute Resolution Unit.

Controlled substance and/or alcohol testing shall be a two-step process: Initial Screening, and:

A. Duplication.
B. Identification.
C. Confirmation.
D. Follow-up.

C. Confirmation.

_______ shall be responsible for ensuring that the involved employee is tested for drugs as soon as practicable after the critical incident.

A. The involved employee's supervisor
B. The shift commander
C. The Drug Testing Unit
D. IAD

D. IAD

Which of the following statements about
Supervisory Interventions (SI) is not correct?

A. Documentation of an SI shall be retained exclusively in IAD.
B. Sis shall be used in evaluating an employee's performance only during the evaluation period in which the events giving rise to the Si occurred.
C. Documentation of Sls may be retained for three years from the date the Sl was issued to the employee.
D. An Si shall never be placed in the Department Personnel File or the
Employee's Official Personnel File at the
Human Resources Department.

A. Documentation of an SI shall be retained exclusively in IAD.

At the beginning of each month, the Early Warning Unit (EWU) shall perform a computerized data scan of lAD records to identify any employees who:

A. were the target of four or more lAD complaints within a 12 month period.
B. received a sustained Category E complaint.
C. had Administrative Complaints that indicate a significant pattern of negative behavior.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Standards of Productivity will be developed based upon:

A. the results of the supervisor-employee performance evaluation meeting.
B. each officer's activities over the previous six months.
C. criteria established by the Crime Analysis
Division.
D. the average of each category over the prior
30 calendar days.

D. the average of each category over the prior
30 calendar days.

Employees who have issues regarding a policy or procedure that cannot be resolved within their immediate chain of command may report issues tO:

A. their division Employee Representative
Council (ERC) representatives.
B. Employee Relations.
C. Central Intake Office.
D. ADR Unit.

A. their division Employee Representative Council (ERC) representatives.

For officers whose primary weapon qualification has expired, the officer's supervisor shall ensure that the corrective measures include assigning the officer to duties that do not require the officer to be armed, and:

A. ensuring that the officers enrolls in a four-hour redress firearms training.
B. ensuring the officer does not carry a firearm until qualification standards have been met.
C. notifying the office of the Chief of Police of the officers expired qualification.
D. All of the above.

B. ensuring the officer does not carry a firearm until qualification standards have been met.

The Supervisor of an employee involved in a police vehicle crash shall forward the Crash
Packet and all correspondence associated with the crash through the chain of command to the employee's assistant chief. The packet shall be forwarded to the Chief of Police, if:

A. any party in the crash died or sustained serious bodily injury.
B. the employee refuses to submit to drug and alcohol testing.
C. the crash is classified as At-Fault, or Double-Fault or the employee was not wearing a seat restraint.
D. All of the above.

C. the crash is classified as At-Fault, or Double-Fault or the employee was not wearing a seat restraint.

If an officer is required to and fails to activate the Mobile Video Recorder, the officer shall:

A. notify the supervisor and document the reason for not activating the MVR in the incident report or call history.
B. ensure that the officer's BWC is activated.
C. notify the Office of Technology Services.
D. request a supervisory response.

A. notify the supervisor and document the reason for not activating the MVR in the incident report or call history.

All of the following statements about the use of CEDs are correct except:

A. red dotting can be an effective psychological tool.
B. unless exigent circumstances exist, no more than one officer should activate a CED against a suspect at a time.
C. extreme caution must be exercised when activating a CED against a fleeing suspect, especially if fleeing is the sole justification for activation of the CED.
D. officers shall not discharge a CED at a person suspected of possessing or wearing an improvised explosive device (IED).

C. extreme caution must be exercised when activating a CED against a fleeing suspect, especially if fleeing is the sole justification for activation of the CED.

Which of the following may operate a drone equipped with a deadly weapon or explosive?

A. SWAT Unit members.
B. Authorized personnel assigned to the
Tactical Operations Division.
C. Any personnel with authorization from Special Operations Division or Tactical
Operations Division.
D. Only personnel assigned by the Chief of Police on a case-by-case basis.

B. Authorized personnel assigned to the
Tactical Operations Division.

A prisoner who initially appears to be in little or no distress after being interlocked may still develop respiratory difficulties. Therefore, whenever the interlocking technique is used:

A. a supervisor shall be dispatched to ensure the technique conforms to department policies.
B. ensure there are at least 12 inches between the interlock (wrist to ankle).
C. the prisoner shall be transported by only a two-officer unit unless otherwise approved by a supervisor.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

A person can refuse to consent to a search.
However, if consent is granted:

A. once consent is granted, the rights of the searching officers are the same as conditions stated in a warrant authorizing a search.
B. the person remains in control of the search and may limit the scope of the search or revoke the consent entirely.
C. the search shall be limited in time.
D. the search shall not commence if an application for a search warrant has been processed.

B. the person remains in control of the search and may limit the scope of the search or revoke the consent entirely.

A Drug Recognition Expert (DRE) shall be called for all fatal crashes when the at-fault driver is not deceased. Once a determination has been made that a DRE is needed at the scene:

A. a supervisor from Vehicular Crashes shall be called to the scene.
B. the driver/suspect shall be arrested.
C. the driver/suspect shall be detained as a possible criminal suspect.
D. a supervisor for the Traffic Accident Division shall be notified.

C. the driver/suspect shall be detained as a possible criminal suspect.

Which of the following statements about
Undocumented Immigrants is correct?

A. Officers shall not detain or arrest persons solely on the suspicion that they are in this country illegally.
B. Officers shall not make inquiries as to the citizenship status of any person unless that person has been legally detained or placed under arrest.
C. Officers shall contact ICE if a background check through NCIC/TCIC returns a possible hit from ICE regarding a wanted or detained person.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

If an officer feels that the appropriate charge was not accepted by the assistant district attorney, the officer shall:

A. ascertain from the assistant district attorney what the appropriate charge would be.
B. notify a supervisor.
C. submit a written request for clarification to the office of the District Attorney.
D. All of the above.

B. notify a supervisor.

An investigative hold shall apply only to:

A. prisoners who have not been charged with an offense and the filing of a criminal charge is considered imminent.
B. prisoners who are believed to have committed a violent crime.
C. prisoners who have not been charged with an offense and are considered to be a flight risk.
D. All of the above.

A. prisoners who have not been charged with an offense and the filing of a criminal charge is considered imminent.

Which of the following is not an example of Brady material that may be subject to disclosure?

A. The failure of any proposed witness to make a positive identification of a defendant.
B. Evidence that a proposed witness has a racial, religious, or personal bias against a defendant individually or as a member of a group.
C. Any statement or claim made in reference to any potential witness that would put into question the veracity, credibility or integrity of that potential witness.
D. An inconsistent statement made orally or in writing by any proposed witness.

C. Any statement or claim made in reference to any potential witness that would put into question the veracity, credibility or integrity of that potential witness.

All of the following statements about Persons
Exhibiting a Mental Health Crisis without Criminal
Charges are correct except:

A. When a person is apprehended under a
NED, consent of the person is not required.
B. The consent of a parent is required to bring a juvenile to a mental health treatment facility, even when the juvenile meets the elements of emergency detention.
C. If the District Attorney's Office does not accept Class B or higher charges, then the officer shall take the person into custody without a warrant.
D. If the District Attorney's Office does not accept Class B or higher charges, and the person is admitted to a treatment facility, officers shall not file Class C misdemeanor charges.

B. The consent of a parent is required to bring a juvenile to a mental health treatment facility, even when the juvenile meets the elements of emergency detention.

Prior to the execution of any search warrant (other than low risk or administrative search warrant), the supervisor in charge shall ensure that a Threat Assessment/Operation Plan form is completed. The supervisor shall also determine the level of threat to personnel, and:

A. determine if a No-Knock warrant is appropriate.
B. determine if forced entry is required.
C. refer the warrant service to SWAT, if required.
D. confirm that the warrant was issued not more than three days prior to the planned execution of the warrant.

C. refer the warrant service to SWAT, if required.

Not later than
whole days after executing
a search warrant, the affiant officer shall ensure return of the search warrant.

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

A. 3

Which of the following statements about the execution of search and arrest warrants is not correct?

A. Officers should make reasonable efforts to contact the division concerned if the wanted person is listed as a suspect in other case so as not to interfere with on-going investigations.
B. Officers shall contact the Narcotics
Operations Control Center to avoid any blue-on-blue incidents.
C. Officers shall notify their supervisor and request permission to execute an arrest or search warrant prior to serving the warrant.
D. Employees of the HPD shall no longer serve arrest or search warrants outside Houston city limits.

D. Employees of the HPD shall no longer serve arrest or search warrants outside Houston city limits.

A life threatening delayed report, property crime just occurred, is a Priority
call with a
queue standard of
minutes.

A. 2; 5
B. 3; 5
C. 3; 18
D. 4; 23

C. 3; 18

Priority Two calls for service represent in-progress property crimes and/or a potential threat to human welfare, and assume that if not in-progress, the event occurred or response to the scene is urgent. The Queue Standard for Priority Two calls iS:

A. 1 minute.
B. 2 minutes.
C. 5 minutes.
D. 10 minutes.

C. 5 minutes.

When the CIRT is called to assist at a scene with a person exhibiting a mental health crisis, which of the following shall make the final determination as to disposition of the call?

A. The senior officer at the scene
B. the CIRT.
C. The responding supervisor, if a crime is committed.
D. The responding supervisor, if a crime is committed.

B. the CIRT.

Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Patrol Sergeant with respect to Beat
Accountability?

A. Assess how often and how well officers identify and address beat problems in their assigned beats.
B. When necessary, preempt the assignment of a call for service or event to an officer working on beat problems, provided another officer in the district is available to handle the call for service.
C. Provide their shift commander regular updates regarding the status of beat problems being addressed by their officers.
D. Ensure crime prevention and crime reduction strategies and traffic enforcement are implemented.

D. Ensure crime prevention and crime reduction strategies and traffic enforcement are implemented.

Which of the following statements about General Broadcasts/Lookout Information and probable cause is correct?

A. Information shall not be broadcast until probable cause has been established.
B. Information for General Broadcasts shall not be used to establish probable cause.
C. Information needed to establish probable cause need not be included in a General Broadcast.
D. Information from General
Broadcast/Lookouts or preliminary pickup information shall not be considered probable cause to arrest.

D. Information from General
Broadcast/Lookouts or preliminary pickup information shall not be considered probable cause to arrest.

A motor vehicle pursuit occurs when an officer operating an emergency vehicle attempts to stop or apprehend a suspect while operating a motor vehicle. The suspect must exhibit a willful disregard for personal safety or the safety of others in an attempt to avoid arrest or:

A. proceeds in a reckless manner and in disregard of motor vehicle laws.
B. fails to reduce the speed of the vehicle after being signaled to stop.
C. exhibits a refusal to obey an officer's repeated signal to stop.
D. Any of the above.

C. exhibits a refusal to obey an officer's repeated signal to stop.

The designated on-duty field supervisor shall be in command of pursuits. The field supervisor shall immediately:

A. advise the dispatcher if the pursuit should continue based on communication and assessment of the circumstances.
B. establish communication with the primary vehicle and provide initial instructions.
C. notify the dispatcher of the supervisor's location and request air support.
D. All of the above.

A. advise the dispatcher if the pursuit should continue based on communication and assessment of the circumstances.

When the field supervisor approves additional units, the primary and secondary units shall be the only police vehicles authorized to pursue a fleeing vehicle. A field supervisor may approve additional units if any of the following situations exists except:

A. there are insufficient numbers of officers in the authorized units to safely effect an arrest.
B. the PIT Maneuver is authorized.
C. there is a likelihood that the suspect has a deadly weapon.
D. a tactical flight unit is not available to track the pursuit or the field supervisor's vehicle is deemed to be at too great a distance from the pursuit.

D. a tactical flight unit is not available to track the pursuit or the field supervisor's vehicle is deemed to be at too great a distance from the pursuit.

A barricaded suspect is any person who has demonstrated capability and/or stated the intent to cause death or serious bodily injury to any person, including himself, and:

A. has the capability and/or stated the intent to take a hostage.
B. has achieved tactical superiority by location or the use of a physical obstruction.
C. causes or attempts to cause death or serious bodily injury to other persons by discharging a firearm from an initially concealed position.
D. possesses CBRN devices or substances capable of causing death or serious bodily injury to a large number of persons in the
area.

B. has achieved tactical superiority by location or the use of a physical obstruction.

When a warrantless arrest is not made at a family violence incident, officers shall:

A. determine if any protective orders are in effect.
B. inform their supervisor that no arrest will be
made.
C. evaluate whether any other criminal offense related to family violence has been committed.
D. encourage one of the parties to temporarily leave the premises.

C. evaluate whether any other criminal offense related to family violence has been committed.

Which of the following statements about
Magistrate's Orders of Emergency Protection is not correct?

A. The purpose of the MOEP is to give a victim immediate, short-term protection from the suspect.
B. Victims with a MOEP should be encouraged to seek a protective order.
C. Officers shall not request MOEPs.
D. There is no prerequisite that a relationship ever existed between the victim and the suspect for a MOEP to be issued in stalking offenses.

C. Officers shall not request MOEPs.

The Camo Alert is designed to notify the public of a missing current or former member of the United States armed forces who suffers from a mental illness, including post-traumatic stress disorder or a traumatic brain injury. Before activating the Camo Alert, the following criterion must be met.

A. Former members of the armed forces must have received an honorable, general or medical discharge.
B. Verification from the Texas Department of Public Safety that the missing military member is registered with the Camo Alert
Program.
C. Confirmation by a member of the missing
person's family that the missing person has a diagnosed mental illness, including post-traumatic stress disorder or a traumatic brain injury.
D. The missing person has been missing for a minimum of 24 hours.

B. Verification from the Texas Department of Public Safety that the missing military member is registered with the Camo Alert Program

In general, any restraint or detention of a witness to a fatal or possible fatal crash scene that amounts to a seizure:

A. shall not exceed a reasonable time.
B. requires supervisory approval.
C. is unreasonable unless justified by reasonable suspicion or probably cause.
D. shall be undertaken if the witness refuses to provide a name, address, and/or phone number.

C. is unreasonable unless justified by reasonable suspicion or probably cause.

Patrol sergeants shall monitor burglar alarm calls for service. It is a patrol supervisor's discretion to:

A. change an alarm clearance code.
B. contact property owners or business owners or managers to verify permitting.
C. request an AED response.
D. cancel an alarm call at a site that has demonstrated a history of producing

D. cancel an alarm call at a site that has demonstrated a history of producing

High-risk vehicle situations are when suspects in a vehicle are being confronted by officers and any of the following apply: Suspects are believed to possess deadly weapons; Suspects are believed to have been involved in criminal activity involving the use of deadly weapons; and:

A. Suspects have made credible threats of death to another person.
B. Suspects have engaged in fresh pursuit as defined by GO 600-04.
C. Suspects have exited the vehicle and are making violent threats directed at arresting officers or others at the scene.
D. Any of the above.

B. Suspects have engaged in fresh pursuit as defined by GO 600-04.

Which of the following statements about Hate
Crimes is correct?

A. Incidents involving bomb threats or explosive devices shall be classified as hate crimes.
B. When in doubt about whether to classify or title an incident a hate crime, officers should consult their supervisor for a determination.
C. The mere utterance of a bias epithet by an offender does not provide sufficient evidence to title the incident as a hate crime.
D. All of the above.

C. The mere utterance of a bias epithet by an offender does not provide sufficient evidence to title the incident as a hate crime.

Patrol officers shall coordinate any search for bombs or explosives, but shall not enter a suspected area unless a suspicious object is found. Which of the following may determine if total evacuation is necessary prior to a suspected explosive device being found?

A. Only the property owner or the property agent.
B. The senior officer at the scene or the incident commander.
C. Bomb squad personnel.
D. Any of the above.

A. Only the property owner or the property agent.

A. Coordinate gang related investigations with other divisions of gang-related crime in the
DGU officer's or Supervisor's area.

B. as part the description of a specific suspect for whom an officer is searching.

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