BIOL 455 Exam #1 Practice Questions

Rank the elements of the cytoskeleton from largest to smallest:

A. Microfilament ->neurofilament -> microtubules
B. Neurofilament -> microtubules -> microfilament
C. Microtubules ->neurofilament -> microfilament
D. Microtubules -> microfilament ->neurofilament
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Rank the elements of the cytoskeleton from largest to smallest:

A. Microfilament ->neurofilament -> microtubules
B. Neurofilament -> microtubules -> microfilament
C. Microtubules ->neurofilament -> microfilament
D. Microtubules -> microfilament ->neurofilament
C (Microtubules -> neurofilament -> microfilament)
What does tumor necrosis factor-alpha produce when it interacts with cell surface receptors on astrocytes?

A. PGE2
B. NMX
C. Action potential
A (PGE2)
All of the below are examples of substances moved by slow anterograde transport EXCEPT:

A. Neurons
B. Actin
C. Tubulin
D. Calmodulin
A (Neurons)
Which of the following is true about the falling phase of an action potential?

A. Voltage-gated sodium channels enter the resting state, which prevents sodium from flowing in.
B. Voltage-gated potassium channels quickly close, allowing the cell to return to resting membrane potential.
C. Re-polarization occurs during the falling phase.
D. There is increased permeability to sodium during "undershoot".
C (Re-polarization occurs during the falling phase)
Which 2 of the following will inhibit voltage-gated sodium channels?

I. Tetraethylammonium (TEA)
II. 4-aminopyridine (4-AP)
III. Tetrodotoxin (TTX)
IV. Lidocaine

A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. II only
D. III and IV
D. (III and IV)
While multiple sclerosis and Guillan-Barre syndrome both result from demyelination, what allows for recovery from Guillan-Barre exclusively?

A. Axon regeneration
B. Pain management techniques
C. Oligodendrocyte regeneration
D. Schwann cell regeneration
D (Schwann cell regeneration)
What contributes to hyperpolarization of an action potential?

A. Activation of sodium channels
B. Presence of intracellular chloride
C. Delayed rectifier potassium channels
D. Calcium influx
C (Delayed rectifier potassium channels)
An adult patient presents with signs of exaggerated motor reflexes including twitching and spastic tendencies. Upon stimulation of the bottom of the foot the Babinski's sign is noted.

A. Guillan-Barre
B. Alzheimers
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Cystic fibrosis
C (Multiple sclerosis)
Which function is associated with the Cerebellum?

A. Oculomotor control
B. Conscious movement
C. Speech comprehension
D. Balance
D (Balance)
What is the main function of the inferior temporal gyrus?

A. Visual perception of moving object
B. Primary auditory cortex
C. Face recognition
D. Eye movement coordination
C (Face recognition)
In terms of neuronal injury recovery (structural integrity) and the formation of scar tissue, in the PNS, what is responsible for this? A. Microglia B. Fibroblasts C. Macrophages D. AstrocytesB (Fibroblasts)Would hypokalemia (low extracellular K+) make a neuron more or less likely to fire an action potential? A. More B. Less C. Equal D. None of the aboveB (Less)Which of the following is a characteristic of hydrocephalus? A. Stiff neck B. Ventricular dilation C. Excessive glutamate release D. Demyelination in CNSB (Ventricular dilation)From which of the following locations should CSF be aspirated during a spinal tap? A. Epidural space B. Conus medullaris C. Lumbar cistern D. Spinal cordC (Lumbar cistern)A cell's resting membrane potential is -65mV. If permeability of Cl- (equilibrium potential: -65mV) is increased, what will happen to the membrane potential? A. Membrane potential will become more positive B. Membrane potential will become more negative C. Membrane potential will not change D. None of the aboveC (Membrane potential will not change)Which of the following are true regarding active transport molecules in CSF? A. Na+ and Mg2+ flow out of CSF B. K+ and Mg2+ flow into of CSF C. K+ and Ca2+ flow out of CSF D. Na+ and Ca2+ flow into CSFC (K+ and Ca2+ flow out of CSF)What does the Mesencephalon develop into? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Medulla oblongataC (Midbrain)A patient has difficulty repeating statements made by the examiner, but is able to follow instructions. Which part of the brain is most likely affected? A. Precentral sulcus B. Postcentral sulcus C. Wernicke's area D. Broca's areaD (Broca's area)A patient is able to speak fluently, but he appears to have trouble following instructions provided by the examiner. Which part of the brain is most likely affected? A. Frontal eye field B. Angular gyrus C. Wernicke's area D. Broca's areaC (Wernicke's Area)Where is cerebrospinal fluid secreted? A. Central canal B. Cerebral aqueduct C. Choroid plexus D. Caudate nucleusC (Choroid Plexus)Which type of channel is responsible for reaching the threshold? A. Ligand gated B. Mechanically gate. C. Voltage gated. D. Ligand and mechanically gatedD (Ligand and mechanically gated)Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of Wallerian degeneration? A. Changes occurs at a site distal to damage B. Axon swells C. Soma swells D. Axon gets fragmentedC (Soma swells)Which type of axon innervates the viscera? . Type A Type B Type C None of the aboveB (Type B)What is the role of the amygdala? A. strong emotions B. balance and movement C. vision D. auditoryA (Strong emotions)Which nervous structure leads to the Olfactory bulb? A. Olfactory nerve B. Olfactory tract C. Olfactory junction D. Olfactory pathA (Olfactory nerve)Loss of speech in a patient can be due to damage of the: A. Superior frontal cortex B. Inferior temporal gyrus C. Inferior frontal gyrus D. Occipital cortex E. Medial aspect of the parietal cortexC (Inferior frontal gyrus)A magnetic resonance image scan taken of a 60-year-old woman revealed the presence of a tumor on the base of the brain that was situated just anterior to the pituitary and that impinged upon the adjoining neural tissue. A likely deficit resulting from this tumor includes: A. Loss of movement of upper limbs B. Speech impairment C. Difficulties in breathing D. Changes in emotionality E. Loss of ability to experience painD (Changes in emotionality)The structures on the dorsal side of the brainstem which connect to the cerebellum are the cerebellar: A. Colliculi B. Decussations C. Peduncles D. CerebriC (Peduncles)What is the function of the Nissl substance? A. rRNA/protein synthesis B. Degradation of lipid molecules C. Cell transport D. Maintenance of neuritesA (rRNA/protein synthesis)Which spinal level is the conus medullaris located? A. L5/S1 B. L1/L2 C. L3/L4 D. T12/L1B (L1/L2)Which primary brain vesicle will eventually develop into the cerebral aqueduct? A. Telencephelon B. Rhombencephalon C. Metencephalon D. MesencephelonD (Mesencephelon)Ronald McDonald works as a landscaper. A pesticide he sprays may contain a molecule that can inhibit the Na/K ATP transporter. What would be the effect of this molecule should this prove true? A. Increased extracellular calcium B. Increased intracellular sodium C. Increased intracellular potassium D. Decreased intracellular sodiumB (Increased intracellular sodium)Where is spinal anesthesia injected? A. Epidural space B. Dura mater C. Arachnoid mater D. Pia materA (Epidural space)Which of the following is a symptom of meningitis? A. Headache B. Vomiting C. Seizures D. All of the aboveD (All of the above)Which meninge is the closest to the spinal cord? A. Dura Mater B. Arachnoid Mater C. Mater Mater D. Pia MaterD (pia mater)The extracellular space around axons generally has which of the following concentrations of ions (relative to intracellular concentrations)? A. Low K+, high Na+, high Cl- B. Low K+, high Na+, low Cl- C. High K+, low Na+, low Cl- D. High K+, low Na+, high Cl-A (Low K+, high Na+, high Cl-)What is function of the basal ganglia? A. Visual processing B. Auditory processing C. Motor regulation D. Emotional processingC (Motor regulation)The limbic system is associated with what major function? A. Motor function B. Vision C. Somatosensation D. EmotionD (Emotion)Which gyrus controls voluntary movement along with the premotor cortex anterior to it? A. Fusiform gyrus B. Precentral gyrus C. Supramarginal gyrus D. Angular gyrusB (Precentral gyrus)What vertically oriented septa separates the two hemispheres? A. Periosteal layer B. Tentorium cerebelli C. Filum terminale D. FalxcerebriD (Falxcerebri)Secondary active transport involves which mechanism to transport molecules? A. Use of metabolic energy B. Ligand induced conformational change C. Use of potential energy from a concentration gradient D. Kinesin-microtubule transportC (Use of potential energy from a concentration gradient)If the membrane were to become more permeable to sodium, what would happen to the membrane potential? A. The membrane potential would increase B. The membrane potential will decrease C. The membrane potential will remain unchanged D. The membrane potential will oscillateA (The membrane potential would increase)What is the correct equation for the equilibrium potential for a valence electron of -1? A. E= (58) * log [ion]in/[ion]out B. E= (58) * log [ion]out/[ion]in C. E= (30.77) * log [ion]out/[ion]in D. E= (30.77) * log [ion]in/[ion]outA (E= (58) * log [ion]in/[ion]outIn neuronal injury, what is responsible for debris disbursement ___ and what is responsible for creation of recovery scar tissue _____ in the CNS? A. Macrophages & Fibroblasts B. Microglia & Astrocytes C. Macrophages & Astrocytes D. Microglia & FibroblastsB (Microglia & astrocytes)List the following cranial meningeal layers from the outermost to the innermost layer. Arachnoid Mater, Dura Mater, Pia MaterDura, Arachnoid, PiaWhich of the following channels is responsible for the absolute refractory period? A. Voltage-gated Na+ channel inactivation B. Lighted-gated Na+ channel inactivation C. Voltage-gated K+ channels activation D. Voltage-gated Na+ channel activationA (Voltage-gated Na+ channel inactivation)Which of the following statements are true regarding Wernicke's area? I. It deals with speech production II. It is usually attributed to the temporal lobe III. It is usually attributed to the occipital lobe IV. It deals with speech comprehension A. I,III B. I,II C. III,IV D. II,IVD (II, IV)List the following structures from most rostral to most caudal. 1. Medial olfactory stria 2. Olfactory bulb 3. Lateral olfactory stria 4. Olfactory tract2, 4, 1, 3Which of the following is/are NOT true of Microglia? A. Microglia derive from the ectoderm, similar to other glia B. Microglia can engulf and degrade synapses, and have been implicated in synaptic plasticity C. Microglia are phagocytic cells, similar to macrophages D. Microglia can release cytokines and chemokines, and have been implicated in neuroinflammation E. Microglia are considered the resident immune cells in the CNSA (Microglia derive from the ectoderm, similar to other glia)______ is the ATPase leveraged for fast anterograde transport, while ______ is the ATPase leveraged for slow retrograde transport A. Dynein, Kinesin B. Kinesin, Dynein C. Dynactin, Myosin D. Myosin, DynactinB (Kinesin, Dyesin)Ohm's Law is often used to relate electric potential to current and resistance. Which of the following applies Ohm's Law to demonstrate the relationship between current, conductance, and potential difference? A. I = gV B. V = IR C. I = g/V D. R = V/IA (I = gV)Which of the following is the most abundant type of lipid embedded in the cell membrane? A. Phospholipids B. Glycolipids C. Cholesterols D. Channel ProteinsA (Phospholipids)Which of the following is NOT a structure of the brainstem? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Midbrain D. CerebellumD (Cerebellum)Treatments for Guillain Barre Syndrome include: I. Antibiotics II. Chemotherapy III. Neuronal Repair IV. Plasma exchange V. Pain Management A. I and II B. II only C. II, III, IV D. IV and VD (IV and V)Which of the following blocks sodium from entering the voltage gated channels? I. Lidocaine II. TTX III. TEA IV. 4-AP A. I and II B. II and III C. Only I D. Only IIA (I and II)Functions of the astrocytes include all of the following, except A. Guiding neuronal development B. Forming a three dimensional framework for the CNS C. Maintaining the blood brain barrier D. Conducting action potentials E. Responding to neural tissue damageD (Conducting action potentials)The linings of the ventricles and central canal are formed by which cells? A. Tanacytes B. Ependymocytes C. Choroidal Epithelial Cells D. Muller CellsB (Ependymocytes)The most abundant class of neuron in the CNS is A. Bipolar B. Unipolar C. Pseudopolar D. Multipolar E. AnaxonicD (Multipolar)Which cells belong to the CNS? I. Astrocytes II. Ependymal cells III. Microglia IV. Schwann cells V. Oligodendrocytes A. I,II,V B. II,IV, V C. I,II,III,V D. All of the aboveC (I, II, III, V)In which frontal gyrus is the Broca's Area located? A. Precentral B. Middle C. Inferior D. SuperiorC (Inferior)Which medial structure in the brain is more dorsal to the fornix. A. Thalamus B. Lateral Ventricle C. Corpus callosum D. Cingulate gyrusB (Lateral ventricle)Which lobe is Wenicke's area attributed to? A. Temporal lobe B. Inferior parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Frontal lobeA (Temporal lobe)What is a Meningioma? A. Inflammation in the meninges B. Tumor in the meninges C. Inflammation in the dura mater D. Tumor in the dura materB (Tumor in the meninges)When a neuron receives an excitatory input, the neuronal membrane is ____ A. Depolarized B. Hyperpolarized C. Repolarized D. Semi-polarizedA (Depolarized)____ are fluid filled spaces within the CNS and are lined by ____ A. Vessels; epithelial B. Ventricles; Ependymal cells C. Arteries; endothelial D. Veins; blood cellsB (Ventricles; Ependymal cells)