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Pathology Mid-Term Study Guide
Terms in this set (273)
what is any abnormal disturbance of the function or structure of the human body as a result of some type of injury?
what is an objective manifestation that is detected by the physician during exam? what is an example?
what is a group of signs and symptoms that characterizes a specific abnormal disturbance?
what is a disease that is acquired from the environment? what is an example?
nosocomial; staph infection
what reactions are adverse responses to medical treatment itself? what is an example?
iatrogenic; collapsed lung from line placement
what diseases usually have a quick onset and last for a short period? what is an example?
what diseases have a gradual onset and last for a very long time? what is an example?
chronic; multiple sclerosis
what is the identification of a disease an individual is believed to have?
what disease is classified by a decrease in normal tissue density that occurs when tissue makeup is altered by a decrease in the atomic number or compactness of the cells? does this disease require an increase or decrease in technique?
what is the investigation of disease in larger groups?
what is the average number of deaths caused by a particular disease in a population?
what is the incidence of sickness sufficient to interfere w/ an individual's normal daily routine?
who receives death certificates from each state and processes and publishes them online for statistics and trends?
National Center for Heath Statistics (NCHS)
what diseases are present at birth and result from genetic or environmental factors?
what diseases are caused by developmental disorders genetically transmitted from either parent to child through abnormalities of individual genes in chromosomes? what is an example?
what is a disease that results from the body's reaction to a localized injurious agent?
What type of disease is pneumonia?
what refers to the ease with which an organism can overcome body defenses?
All of the following are diseases that are commonly associated w/ the aging process except? - atherosclerosis, osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis
what disease is caused by the disturbance of the normal physiologic function of the body?
what process occurs when cancerous cells spread into surrounding tissue by virtue of proximity of the areas?
what process occurs when cancerous cells travel to a distant site or distant organ system?
what neoplastic disease is a type of cancer derived from epithelial tissue?
what neoplastic disease arises from connective tissue?
what is it called when a patient has been disease free for 5 years or more?
what does the "t" mean in the staging of cancer, known as TNM?
the size of the tumor
what is specific to the cancellous bone located in the skull?
what is responsible for production of erythrocytes (RBC) and leukocytes (WBC)?
red bone marrow
what are bone forming cells that line the medullary canal and are interspersed throughout the periosteum, and are responsible for bone growth and thickening, ossification and regeneration?
what refers to the shaft of the long bone and is the primary center of ossification?
what is a rare but serious skeletal system disease? what is it also called?
osteogenesis imperfecta; brittle bone disease
how would you alter technique for osteogenesis imperfecta?
decrease technique (subtractive)
what type of disease is osteogenesis imperfecta?
how would you alter technique for osteopetrosis?
increase technique (additive)
what is a congenital malformation of the foot that prevents normal weight bearing? what is it also called?
club foot; talipes
what takes on the characteristics of both vertebrae on each side of a major division of the spine?
question: relation to 7th cervical rib
what is a congenital abnormality that is a neural tube defect in which the brain and cranial vault do not form, resulting in death shortly after birth?
what is TB of the spine called?
what is an inflammatory disease that is a progressive form of arthritis, mainly involving the spine where joints and articulations become ankylosed? what is it also called (2 names)?
ankylosing spondylitis; marie-strumpell disease and bamboo spine
how would you alter technique for ankylosing spondylitis?
increase technique (additive)
what is an inflammatory disease that is the most common type of arthritis?
what are large sodium urate crystalline deposits in joints and other sites called? what type of arthritis is it commonly associated w/?
tophi; gouty arthritis
what refers to the slipping of the body of the vertebra? (slipped disk)
what is the erosion of vertebral bodies? what is it also called?
spondylolysis; pars defect (broken neck of scotty dog)
what neoplastic disease is characterized by the presence of numerous, multinucleated osteoclatic giant cells? how does it appear on xray?
giant cell tumor (GCT); soap bubble
what neoplastic disease is a primary malignant bone tumor that occurs between ages 5-15 and arises from the medullary canal and can affect entire shaft of long bones? how does it appear on xray?
ewing's sarcoma (extremely malignant); onionskin or laminated
what neoplastic disease is a malignant tumor of atypical cartilage and makes up less than 10% of malignant skeletal tumors?
The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following except? - nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea
what adheres directly to lung tissue?
what does the bony thorax include?
ribs, sternum, thoracic vertebrae (All of the above answer)
which is not part of the mediastinum?
what is the term for depressed sternum? what position best visualizes this?
pectus excavatum; Lt lateral
what occurs when there has been a disruption in the esophagus or airway and air is trapped in the mediastinum?
what is a large plastic tube inserted through the patient's nose or mouth into the trachea that helps to manage the patient's airway, allows frequent suctioning, and allows mechanical ventilation?
endotracheal (ET) tube ** matching answer on test
what is a large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs that allows drainage of air or fluid from the thoracic cavity and allows the lungs to inflate to help the patient breathe normally?
chest tube ** matching answer on test
what serves to evaluate cardiac function and is usually inserted via the subclavian vein, but other injection sites include the antecubital, jugular, or femoral vein?
pulmonary artery catheter (AKA swan-ganz) ** matching answer on test
what denotes low oxygen levels within arterial blood and results from a failure of the gas exchange function?
what refers to failure of ventilation resulting in the inability to move air into and our of the lungs, with consequent increased blood CO2 causing the pt to usually end up on a ventilator?
what type of disease is cystic fibrosis?
what is the 6th leading cause of death in the U.S and most common lethal nosocomial infection?
what is the most common bacterial pneumonia because this type of bacteria is often present in healthy throats and generally affects the alveoli of an entire lobe w/o affecting the bronchi themselves?
pneumococcal; lobar pneumonia
what results when excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity that may be caused by inflammation, a pulmonary embolism, or a neoplasm?
pleural effusion * answer: fluid in the chest cavity
How do you alter technique for pleurisy?
you don't, its none (neither additive or subtractive)
How do you alter technique for sinusitis?
increase technique (additive)
what modality is best for staging neoplasms?
CT, MRI, PET (all of the above on test)
referred to a boys knee and an avulsion fx, what modality was best?
what modality is best for vertebral fx?
what is the most common area for metastasis of osteosarcoma?
what are the 2 types of COPD?
chronic bronchitis and emphysema
what position is better to increase the hearts shadow?
AP chest (because it magnifies the heart and increases OID)
what does not cause respiratory failure?
what allows for multiple tapping for injection of various agents, typically chemotherapeutics?
access catheters ** matching answer on test
what allows for infusion of massive volume of fluids by providing an alternate injection site to compensate for loss of peripheral sites?
CVP lines ** matching answer on test
hyaline membrane disease AKA respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) affects infants and is a disorder of premature infants or those born at less than a 37 week gestation that are in need of what?
surfactant (lowers alveoli surface tension)
what transports blood between the heart and lungs for exchange of blood gases?
what is the muscular, THICK, middle layer of the heart?
what is the contraction of the myocardium called?
systole (top # in blood pressure)
what is the internal tubular structure of the artery?
what is the term for enlarged heart?
what echocardiography technique allows for spatially correct, REAL-TIME imaging of the heart and provides multiple tomographic projections of the heart and great vessels in a cinelike (dynamic) presentation and visualizes the ascending and abdominal aorta in cases of suspected aneursym?
cardiac scoring is a CT procedure that is performed w/o contrast and evaluates the amount of calcium (____ _____) present in the coronary arteries
Angiography is the most commonly performed procedure for cardiovascular disease, and it may be performed for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons (T/F)
what is a procedure in which a high intensity anticoagulant such as streptokinase is dripped over a period of hours directly onto a clot to dissolve and break down a clot?
a temporary vessel is used during utero life to shunt blood from the pulmonary artery into the systemic circulation b/c the pulmonary circulation is not needed, if it doesn't close at birth what will result?
patent ductus arteriosus
although the ductus arteriosus may close normally at birth, a narrowing of the aorta may occur at the junction site, what is this called? radiographic indication?
coarctation of the aorta; rib notching
what is the most common congenital heart defect?
atrial septal defect
what is an anomaly in which the pulmonary and systemic subsystems are not allowed to communicate and the aorta arises from the Rt ventricle instead of the Lt ventricle and the pulmonary trunk arises from the Lt ventricle instead of the Rt ventricle which could result in a NARROW MEDIASTINUM?
transposition of the great vessels
what anomaly consists of a combination of defects that include: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, hypertrophy of Rt ventricle
tetralogy of fallot
what is the most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart?
on a radiograph of Lt CHF, the heart is enlarged, and the hilar region of the lungs is congested w/ increased vascular markings (T/F)
what results from a lung disorder producing hypertension in the pulmonary artery and an enlargement of the Rt ventricle of the heart?
what is the MOST PREVALENT DISEASE in humans and is a degenerative condition that affects the major arteries of the body, and often termed hardening of the arteries?
Which of the following are factors of atherosclerosis? 1) cigarette smoking 2) hypertension 3)low fat diet
cigarette smoking and hypertension only!
What is another name for mitral heart valve?
what is the single most common cause of death in men and women in the U.S?
coronary artery disease (CAD)
what is most commonly caused by an acute thrombus of the coronary arteries and primarily affects the Lt ventricle of the heart?
myocardial infarction (MI)
what is a localized bulge involving one side of the arterial wall?
what results when intima tears and allows blood to flow within the vessel wall, forming an intramural hematoma?
what is the most common aneurysm?
abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
when filled w/ barium, what part of the small bowel looks feathery?
what allows abnormal areas of the GI system to be visualized, biopsied and examined histologically by use of a tubular fiber-optic device?
what is the term for difficulty swallowing?
dysphagia (please be aware of spelling.. test ? will try to trick you)
a gastric (g) tube may be placed for a variety of diagnostic and therapeutic purposes.. all of the following are reasons for placement EXCEPT? 1) aspiration of gastric contents 2) decompression & removal of contents 3) nutritional support 4) maintain patency of esophogastric tube
answer = maintain patency of esophogastric tube
esophageal atresia is an absence or closure of the esophagus as it fails to develop past a certain point, what type of disease is it?
what is the most common type of bowel atresia?
duodenal atresia is the second most common type of bowel atresia, what is the radiographic appearance?
double bubble sign
what is a disorder in which the anal opening to the exterior is absent?
what is an anomaly of the stomach in which the pyloric canal leading out of the stomach is greatly narrowed because of hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter?
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS)
what is the radiographic appearance for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
malrotation exists when the intestines are not in their normal position consisting of the small bowel on Rt, large bowel on Lt? (T/F)
what is considered the gold standard for malrotation?
hirschsprung disease refers to the absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the DESCENDING colon and represents an enlarged/distended colon? (T/F)
false (b/c it is typically in the SIGMOID COLON)
what is the abnormal outpouching of the intestines?
On test answer is: Diverticulitis!
what is celiac sprue or celiac disease formally known as?
carbohydrate intolerance is the inability to digest certain carbohydrates, including lactose, because of an acquired deficiency of what?
a peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum (T/F)
what is another name for crohns disease?
what is the radiographic appeareance associated with regional enteritis (aka crohns disease)?
skipped areas (cobblestone and string sign)
what type of hernia is tight and constricted, cutting off the blood supply?
strangulated (T/F answer was T)
what is a weakness of the esophageal hiatus that permits some portions of the stomach to herniate into the thoracic cavity?
what is the LEAST COMMON type of hiatal hernia?
rolling/paraesophageal (answer is both 1 and 3)
what is a mechanical ileus that consists of the twisting of a bowel loop about its mesenteric base?
what is a mechanical ileus that occurs when a segment of the bowel is constricted by peristalsis and telescopes into a distal segment and driven further into the distal bowel by peristalsis?
Is it normal to visualize gas in the small bowel? (T/F)
achalasia is a neuromuscular abnormality of the esophagus that results in failure of the lower esophageal sphincter of the distal esophagus to relax, leading to dysphagia, what is the radiographic appearance of the distal esophagus?
leiomyomas are smooth muscle tumors and most of them are always benign (T/F)
what is a type of colic polyp with a wide base?
colon cancer is the __ most common GI cancer
adenocarcinoma is the most common colorectal cancer, what is the radiographic appearance?
geometric factors of a PA chest radiograph include:
SID, OID, & Anode Heel Effect ( all but focal spot)
how would you alter technique for a bowel obstruction?
how would you alter technique for regional enteritis?
no change in technique
why is it best to do a CXR upright?
To prevent enlargement of the heart and great vessels & to allow good inspiration (not elevate diaphragm)
percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) is a catheter used to connect the jugular vein to the portal vein to reduce the flow of blood through a diseased liver (T/F)
False (answer is TIPPS)
what do you see on a radiograph w/ mechanical bowel obstruction?
multiple air fluid levels
ulcerative colitis has a string radiographic appearance (T/F)
False, because it's lead pipe.
what is the most common cause of congestive heart failure?
what is a major complication associated w/ a pulmonary embolism?
DVT (deep vein thrombus)
what forms the common bile duct?
common hepatic duct and cystic duct
what hormone triggers the release of bile into the duodenum?
what do beta cells produce?
what digestive enzyme assists in the digestion of proteins and autodigests the pancreas during pancreatitis?
gas visualized in the biliary tree may be a result of what 3 things?
gallstone ileus, post-op biliary anastomosis, spontaneous fistula (test ? was which one is not)
what is used to visualize the biliary tree by insertion of a chiba needle into the biliary tree by puncturing through the abdominal wall?
percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)
what procedure is preferred when imaging hepatic duct bifurcation?
percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)
what procedure is performed by a GI doctor who passes a fiberoptic endoscope through the duodenal C loop to visualize the biliary system and main pancreatic duct?
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
what is the modality of choice for evaluation of the gallbladder and biliary tree and has 100% accuracy of detecting gallstones?
what is fatty infiltration of the liver?
what is a chronic inflammatory liver condition in which the liver parenchyma and architecture are destroyed, fibrous tissue is laid down, and regenerative nodules are formed?
cirrhosis is caused by what 3 things?
1) chronic alcohol abuse 2) chronic hepatitis 3) chronic biliary tract obstruction (answer is all of the above)
ascites is the accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, is it an additive or subtractive pathology?
what is the radiographic appearance for ascites?
gray, ground glass
how many viral agents causing disease are there (types of hepatitis)?
what is the most common form of hepatitis and is highly contagious?
Hepatitis B is transmitted parenterally by RNA virus and accounts for 80% of hepatitis cases that develop after blood transfusions? (T/F)
False, because it's C.
gallstones are called cholelithiasis, what are 3 major criteria?
acoustic shadowing, echogenic focus, and gravitational dependence (question on test was which is not)
Gallstones can travel anywhere in the biliary tree (T/F)
what is an acute inflammation of the gallbladder?
what is it called when a gallstone becomes impacted in the small bowel and causes an obstruction?
chronic pancreatitis does not impair the histologic makeup of the pancreas, resulting in irreversible changes in pancreatic function (T/F)
False, it does impair
what is a fluid collection in the abdomen caused by pancreatitis?
what is a build up of bilirubin in the blood stream (excess bilirubin)?
what type of jaundice is caused by hepatocellular dysfunction? (occurs because of hemolytic disease when too many RBC's are destroyed)
what is a neoplastic disease that consists of a benign tumor of the liver & deals with oral contraceptives?
what is the most common tumor of the liver?
hemangioma (port wine stain appearance)
what is classified as a benign neoplasm composed of newly formed blood vessels?
how do you alter technique for hemangioma?
Primary carcinomas are more common than metastatic liver disease (T/F)
False, metastatic liver disease is more common
how do you alter technique for metastatic liver disease?
what disease is a porcelain gallbladder associated w/?
what is the 5th most common cause of cancer death in the US and has a very poor prognosis?
what part of the pancreas do majority of pancreatic cancers arise?
head of the pancreas
what is the functional unit of the kidney?
creatinine and BUN are lab test are done for ______ failure
what is a waste product derived from a breakdown of a compound normally found in muscle tissue?
what designates the ability of the urinary system to break down nitrogenous compounds from proteins to produce urea nitrogen?
BUN (blood urea nitrogen)
IV contrasts should not be used in patients with a BUN greater than 50 mg/dL or a serum creatinine greater than _____
what are 3 purposes of a KUB for kidney evaluation?
check for adequate bowel prep, check for proper technique selection, & visualize radiopaque calculi (answer=all of the above)
where are most kidney stones found?
cystography is the most common exam for the lower urinary tract and involves the insertion of a catheter into the urethra followed by injection of iodinated water soluble contrast, what is the most common indication?
vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
Sonography is a noninvasive method of imaging both functioning and nonfunctioning kidneys (T/F)
what type of tube connects the renal pelvis to the outside of the body that allows urine to drain directly?
what is placed surgically or via cystoscopy (in the upper portion of renal pelvis and lower portion of the bladder) to maintain patency?
what is a congenital disease that consists of the absence of a kidney on one side and an associated unusually large kidney on the other? what is it also called?
renal agenesis; aplasia
Horseshoe kidney does not impair the function of the kidney (T/F)
what consists of a kidney that is out of its normal position, usually situated lower in the pelvic/sacral area and occurs after birth?
nephroptosis (AKA kidney prolapse) is when a kidney drops too far down, what positions are best to show this?
AP Erect and AP Recumbent
What is the radiographic appearance of a uterocele?
what is a congenital familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant?
polycystic kidney disease (PKD)
Nephrocalcinosis usually results with _________ which deals with increased levels of calcium phosphate.
medullary sponge kidney
Pyuria is the presence of white cells created by the bodies reaction to infection. (T/F)
False, because it's pus.
The radiographic appearance of calyces affected by chronic pyelonephritis is blunted. (T/F)
False, because it's clubbed.
For pyelonephritis, the microorganisms involved are only:
E. Coli and Proteus (Not Staphylococcus)
what is an acute or chronic inflammation of the bladder?
Vesicoureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine out of the bladder and into the urethra? (T/F)
False (should be ureters at the end)
Nephrosclerosis is associated with hypertension and diabetes. (T/F)
Staghorn calculus is a large calculus that assumes the shape of the UV junction. (T/F)
False, because it's the pelvicalyceal junction
what is severe, intermittent pain that can be a result of a kidney calculus lodged in the UV junction?
what is an obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces w/ urine?
Renal cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of the kidney and consists of an ________ arising from the proximal convoluted tubule.
what is a malignant renal tumor found in children and usually diagnosed before age 5? (give both names)
Wilms tumor has a 95% cure rate for stages 1-3. (T/F)
Bladder carcinoma results from chronic irritation and can be caused by smoking and certain industrial chemicals. (T/F)
what is the main symptom of bladder carcinoma that is painless and consists of blood in the urine?
A chest radiograph is usually performed after renal carcinoma? (T/F)
Liver metastasis is usually to the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and breast. (T/F)
What type of reaction occurs when you inject contrast into the body?
What is a malignant tumor of the liver?
The male ______ is both reproductive and urinary.
All of the following are parts of the brainstem except?
- midbrain - pons - medulla oblongata - diencephalon
Put the three meningeal layers in order from outermost to innermost:
dura mater, arachnoid mater, & pia mater
what is a network of capillaries that secrete CSF?
what supplies most of the blood to the brain?
bilateral internal carotid & bilateral vertebral arteries
the capillaries of the brain prevent passage of unwanted substances into the brain through a special function called...
(this protects the brain by keeping toxins out, yet it allows removal of the waste products of brain metabolism)
blood brain barrier
what is the modality of choice for the CNS?
what modality is used to evaluate those w/ multiple sclerosis, autism, and a history of epilepsy?
fMRI (fucntional MRI)
what modality is useful in evaluating the brains of neonates before closure of the fontanels?
intraarterial thrombolysis and what other procedure are used to open stenotic vessels and improve blood flow w/in the vessel treated?
percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
3 factors used for diagnosis of spina bifida are fetal sonography, MRI, and what other factor?
elevated AFP level in the mother's blood
what type of spina bifida is the most common and most serious and occurs when both the meninges and spinal cord protrude?
what are the 3 possible causes of hydrocephalus?
1) subarachnoid hemorrhage 2) overproduction of CSF 3) arnold-chiari malformation
What is the most common cause of meningitis?
What is usually used to diagnose meningitis?
Lumbar puncture - withdrawal & testing of CSF
what type of meningitis is most common in children?
What is the most common cause of encephalitis?
what is it called when pus associated w/ a brain abscess accumulates w/in the meningeal layers between the dura mater and arachnoid?
What is the most common location of a herniated disk?
L5-S1 and C6-C7 (another answer= lower cervical and lower lumbar)
what are osteoarthritic changes of the neck, with the main cause being osteophytes (aka bone spurs) referred to as?
what are numerous patchy areas of demyelinated nerves that develop, forming scar tissue or sclerotic lesions throughout the nervous system (and is a big indicator of multiple sclerosis)?
what type of stroke has a more sudden onset and occurs when a weakened blood vessel in the brain ruptures and bleeds into the adjacent brain tissues and structures?
what is a blood clot that obstructs a blood vessel?
80% of strokes are caused by small vessel disease (T/F)
Where do most hemorrhagic stroke bleeds occur?
what is the most common type of primary brain neoplasm/tumor that generates from the supporting tissues of the brain and spinal cord?
Medulloblastomas are soft infiltrating tumors of neuroepithelial tissue and recurrence is common even w/ therapy treatments (T/F)
what has a radiographic appearance of enlargement of the sella turcica on a lateral skull?
what are 3 tumors of the peripheral CNS sheath cells?
acoustic neurilemmoma, acoustic neuroma, schwannoma (answer= all of the above)
what is the most common type of primary spinal neoplasm?
what does the hemopoietic system consist of?
1) blood cells 2) lymphatic tissue 3)liver
answer= blood cells and lymphatic tissue only!
what does the total blood volume consist of?
1) blood cells 2) plasma 3) immunoglobulins
All of the above
what plasma proteins help regulate passage of water and solutes through capillaries?
which of the following are included in the 3 basic types of blood cells? 1) erythrocytes 2) leukocytes 3) lymphocytes
answer= erythrocytes and leukocytes only!
what type of blood cell contains antigens and transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the various organs of the body and does not contain a nucleus?
_______ may contain various antigens that determine blood type.
Individuals w/ a hemoglobin level of ___________ are considered anemic b/c less than normal oxygen or carbon dioxide transportation occurs in them.
LESS than 12 g per 100 mL
What lab test determines the total percentage of RBC's in blood volume?
What blood type is the universal donor?
What blood type is the universal recipient?
what type of blood cells are necessary for blood to clot properly and respond w/in seconds to initiate the coagulation process?
Platelet activation is _____ by inflammatory response.
what are the most important cells in the development of immunity?
It takes a whole body dose of about _____ to cause a detectable change in blood cells.
What is the most radiosensitive blood cell?
lymphocytes (yes contradicting but this was the answer on the test)
what is the largest lymphoid organ that is located in the LUQ?
Radiography plays a major role in the hemopoietic system. (T/F)
False, plays a limited role.
If HIV is left untreated, about 99% of infections lead to AIDS. (T/F)
Who does HIV most commonly affect?
1) heterosexual men 2) bisexual men 3) IV drug users
bisexual men and IV drug users only! (2&3 only)
The lungs are a common site for opportunistic infections associated w/ AIDS, such as ________ which has a radiographic appearance of ground glass lesions.
pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Kaposi sarcoma is most commonly associated with _____.
Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of B cells in _______ that results in cell proliferation?
What is the radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma? (to help for evaluation)
osteolytic lesions and hypercalcemia
What is often associated with multiple myeloma?
_________ is the single most significant factor in infection control.
Exposure to radiation seems to predispose individuals to developing leukemia. (T/F)
what type of leukemia develops from primitive or stem cells?
what type of leukemia predominantly affects children?
acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
How is non-hodgkin lymphoma diagnosed?
What are the 3 types of treatment for non-hodgkin lymphoma?
Chemotherapy, Radiation Therapy, & Radiolabeled antibody therapy (All of the above)
what differentiates hodgkin lymphoma from other types of lympatic diseases?
reed sternberg cells
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