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Terms in this set (181)
There are _____ federal Courts of Appeals
13
Mala in se offenses are defined as being
illegal and immoral
Congress can overturn a Presidential Executive Order
true
The government is permitted to regulate the time, place, and manner of speech
true
A law which prohibits people who identify as Satanists from purchasing paint at the hardware store without a legitimate purpose will be reviewed under which standard of review
Strict scrutiny, because believing in Satan is a protected classification which requires the government to have a compelling purpose and the statute to be narrowly tailored to that compelling purpose.
Using a standard of strict scrutiny means what
That the state has to have a compelling state interest for the classification
That the classification has to be narrowly tailored to meet that interest
A test of whether a law is unconstitutional due to ex post facto is
Whether the law applies to events that occurred before the law's enactment
The Supreme Court's decision in Obergefell vs. Hodges was based on which Constitutional right(s)
due process
equal protection
right to privacy
Peter Allam, 18 years old, pleaded no contest to a charge of possession of marijuana by a person under the age of 19. Peter was found, along with three of his friends, at a park with marijuana. Allam was arrested under an Alaska state law which made it a crime for 18 year-old people to possess marijuana, while people over the age of 18 could possess up to four ounces of marijuana and people under the age of 18 were handled by the juvenile justice system.
If Mr. Allam challenges his conviction, which of the following standards will the court use to review his conviction?
The court will review Mr. Allam's conviction using a rational basis standard of review, asking whether the statute is rationally related to a legitimate government purpose.
A _____ is not a criminal violation and, as such, is adjudicated in civil court.
tort
Federal criminal law will most likely apply to the following
A burglary committed at the US Capitol
An arson committed on an American Indian Reservation in North Dakota.
A robbery committed at the Washington Navy Yard
a test for whether a law can be declared void for vagueness?
Does the law give fair warning to the public as to what constitutes a criminal act?
Does the law allow for unfair discretion on the part of law enforcement?
Does the law allow the arbitrary punishment of socially marginalized groups?
elements of the definition of obscenity
Speech that describes or depicts sexual conduct
Speech that has no literary, artistic, political, or scientific value
Speech that appeals to the prurient interest
Freedom of Assembly is protected under which amendment
1st amendment
The holding in Roper vs. Simmons makes it unconstitutional to
Execute someone who was under the age of 18 when the crime occurred.
what elements are part of the test to determine that a law is void-for-vagueness
Does the law fail to give fair warning to individuals as to what the law means?
Does the law allow arbitrary and discriminatory criminal justice administration?
what was the decision in Eisenstadt vs. Baird
The right to privacy was extended to every individual's right to purchase and use contraception.
Which Amendment to the Constitution guarantees equal protection of the law
14th amendment
Hate speech is protected when it is directed at a specific person, even when it is likely to create a breach of the peace.
false
What was the Supreme Court's ruling in Stanley vs. Georgia?
there is a right to posses obscene material in one's own home
Actus reus refers to
a voluntary act
Possession with intent to distribute would be considered a ______ crime.
specific intent
In general, the American Bystander Rule allows criminal liability for people who choose not to act when observing a criminal act.
false
John wants to collect insurance money for the destruction of his warehouse so he hires Jim to set the fire. In the dark, Jim gets confused and sets fire to the wrong warehouse, burning it to the ground.
Which type of mens rea can be used to hold Jim guilty of setting the fire?
transferred intent
general intent
Matt has been diagnosed with epilepsy and has been prescribed medication to control his seizures. Because of his diligence in taking his prescribed medication, Matt has been seizure free for two years. However, due to an error at the pharmacy, Matt received a lower dosage of medication than he was supposed to receive when his last prescription was filled. While driving to work, Matt has a seizure and kills another driver.
If Matt is convicted of involuntary manslaughter and chooses to appeal his conviction, what is the most likely outcome of the appeal?
Matt's conviction will be overturned. Matt's actions were involuntary because he did not take any known risk when he drove the car.
Which of the following limitations on criminal law are based in the 5th Amendment right to due process?
ex post facto
void for vagueness
The case of Brandenberg vs. Ohio found that:
A defendant who is a member of the Ku Klux Klan cannot be arrested for inciting violence because it is symbolic speech for the Ku Klux Klan to advocate for violence.
Which of the following was the impact of NY State Rifle & Pistol Assoc. vs. Bruen
The Supreme Court established a one part test to assess the Constitutionality of gun regulations
The 2nd Amendment has been extended to the right to bear arms outside of the home.
Douglas Metzgar was convicted of violating a city ordinance that prohibits any person from committing any "indecent, immodest, or filthy" act in the presence of any person. Mr. Metzgar was convicted after someone, standing in the parking lot of Mr. Metzgar's apartment complex, observed Mr. Metzgar standing naked in the front window.
Which of the following is the best Constitutional argument for Mr. Metzgar?
Mr. Metzgar was denied his right to due process under the 5th Amendment to the Constitution because the words of the statute were too vague to be enforceable.
A mens rea of strict liability means that the prosecutor has to prove that the defendant knew of the action that he was committing and did not have information that would contradict his knowledge.
false
John wants to collect insurance money for damage to his warehouse so he hires Jim to set the fire. In the dark, Jim gets confused and sets fire to the wrong warehouse, burning it to the ground.
Which type of mens rea is described by the fact pattern above?
general intent
constructive intent
transferred intent
Abby is receiving hypnotherapy from a psychiatrist as treatment for trauma suffered as a child. Unknown to Abby, the psychiatrist has had several complaints lodged again her for unethical behavior. The psychiatrist believes that the only way for Abby to receive true justice is for Abby to kill the person who is responsible for the trauma. While in a state of hypnosis, Abby kills her uncle.
If Abby is charged and convicted of murder, which is the most likely decision of the court on appeal?
Abby's conviction will be overturned. A person who commits a crime under hypnosis is not committing an actus reus voluntarily.
Clara hates Judy so she puts poison in her drink intending to kill her. Judy dies.
Which type of mens rea is described in the sentence above?
specific intent
The formal description of a guilty state of mind is
mens rea
Intervening acts can break the causal chain.
true
Belinda acts with an awareness that her behavior is a gross deviation from the standard of a law-abiding citizen, and with an awareness that the risk is substantial and unjustifiable.
Belinda is acting with which level of mens rea?
recklessness
Justin and Will are in the woods hunting for deer. They are best friends and have a history of playing practical jokes on each other. During one such joke, Will snuck up on Justice from behind, sticking the hunting rifle in his side. Justice suddenly flinched, causing Will to accidentally pull the trigger, killing Justin.
Will will most likely be acquitted of 2nd degree murder charges because his actions were involuntary.
false
A person who acts knowingly wants or hopes for a particular result of their action.
false
To commit a crime and want and hope for a particular harmful result, you have a mens rea of
purpose
Which of the following is the most accurate statement of the holding in Robinson vs. California?
Punishment of status is cruel and unusual punishment, since status is involuntary.
The person who assists another in the commission of a crime after the crime is committed is the ______________:
accessory
The mens rea of accessory liability is:
purpose
The level of mens rea of accomplice liability is:
purpose
In the State vs. Ulvinen case, the mother of the defendant (Mrs. Ulvinen) was guilty as an accomplice to the crimes committed by her son.
false
Accessory liability is a specific intent crime.
true
In the Model Penal Code definition of solicitation, the solicitation to commit a crime does not have to reach anyone to be deemed illegal.
true
Which of the following are part of the test for determining whether an attempt has met the definition of physical proximity:
has the actor come dangerously close to committing the crime?
In the case of Commonwealth vs. McCloskey, the defendant was convicted of trying to break out of prison. Defendant climbed a wall inside the prison, which triggered a silent alarm. Correctional officers found a laundry bag filled with clothes and cut barbed wire. Several hours after the incident happened, the defendant voluntarily approached one of the guards and told him that he attempted to escape.
Which of the following is the most accurate holding of the court?
The court held that the defendant could not be liable for attempt to escape because he voluntarily abandoned the crime sufficiently in advance of the completion.
The crime of trying to complete a crime is known as:
attempt
The traditional approach to the mens rea of conspiracy is:
There has to be the intent to commit the conspiracy and a meeting of the minds on what the crime is
The majority rule pertaining to the mens rea of accomplice liability is that the defendant has to have only the intent to commit the acts of aiding or helping in the commission of the crime.
true
Being guilty of accomplice liability means being guilty of the crime of the principal.
true
Accomplice liability requires that there be an affirmative act to assist the principal.
true
To be a conspiracy, the agreement between the actors has to be formal and documented in writing.
false
A solicitation requires that there be an overt act in furtherance of the crime.
false
What is the actus reus of solicitation?
asking someone else to commit a crime
elements of false pretenses
Intent to deprive someone of their property permanently
Through the use of a material lie or omission
Taking of property
Burglary is a general intent crime.
false
not one of the elements of the crime of identity theft?
use of someone's driver's license or real ID
The modern interpretation of arson includes burning a home or dwelling of one's own rather than only the property of another.
true
The mens rea of arson is:
general intent of purpose
The element of "carrying away" or "moving" property is called:
asportation
The mens rea for the crime of false pretenses is:
purpose
Justin is in class with Dave. Through friends, Justin knows that Dave has a reputation for aggressive behavior. During the break, Justin goes to the bathroom and leaves his wallet on the desk. While he is in the restroom, Dave takes the wallet.
What crime, if any, was committed in the above fact pattern?
larceny
The mens rea of the crime of false pretenses is:
specific intention of purpose
At modern law, false pretenses is often included as which larger crime:
theft
In People vs. Davis, the defendant entered a department store carrying a shopping bag from the department store. He took a shirt from one display, put it in the shopping bag (without paying for it), went to a check-out counter, and returned the shirt for store credit. After signing his name to the credit receipt, he was arrested. Defendant appeals his conviction claiming that (1) his act of putting the item in the shopping bag and carrying it to the register did not have the specific intent of permanently depriving the department store of the item and (2) the act of signing the credit voucher was not a taking because the store consented to the issuance when the security guard called the clerk and told her to issue the credit.
Which of the following best describes the court's opinion in this case
The defendant's conviction will be affirmed because the defendant's intent was to deprive the store of the value of the property, even if not the property itself.
Which of the following accurately describes elements of modern burglary?
The entering of property by a person's body or with tools
With an intention to commit a felony within the structure.
Entering of a dwelling that is likely to have people in it, even though not necessarily used for the purpose of a residence
Endangering another's monetary or property interests by deception or threat is part of the elements of which crime?
criminal mischief
What is the mens rea of criminal trespass:
knowledge
purpose
Based on the common law definition of burglary, if someone unlawfully entered into a house during the daytime, their crime was not burglary.
true
Criminal mischief is a general intent crime.
true
The means by which a defendant gains control of property in the crime of embezzlement is:
Through an illegal conversion of property after a legal possession was granted
The historical definition of rape allows a woman's husband to consent to sex for her.
true
The most common mens rea required for the modern definition of rape is:
with knowledge
Steve is angry at Kristin for not returning his phone calls. He waits for her outside of her home. When she comes home from work, Kristin sees Steve standing outside of her home holding a baseball bat. They argue, during which time, Steve repeatedly swings the bat near her car and her body, but never touches either.
Which of the following crimes is committed in the above fact pattern?
assault
Which of the following are elements of assault?
Actions are committed by the defendant for the purpose of putting the victim in fear
Threatened harmful or offensive touching
The actions of the defendant caused actual fear
Which of the following best describes the difference between intrinsic force and extrinsic force?
Extrinsic force means more force than necessary to accomplish the actus reus; intrinsic force means only the force necessary to accomplish the actus reus
Extrinsic force in the definition of rape or robbery is:
Some act of force in addition to the force necessary to complete the act of penetration or taking.
Withdrawal of consent is permitted at any point during a sexual encounter.
true
Sexual assault is:
An umbrella term that refers to any type of violence with the element of sex used as a weapon.
The definition of asportation means the movement of a person or property.
true
In People vs. Allen, the defendant was convicted of the kidnapping of a person under the age of 14. The defendant approached the victim's mother while she was in her driveway. Her car was running and her 7-year-old daughter was in the car. The defendant jumped into the driver's side, released the brake, put the car in reverse, and backed the car out of the driveway. The car crossed the street and hit the opposite curb, a total movement of 30-40 feet. The defendant exited the vehicle and ran down the street with the victim's mother's purse.
Which of the following is the most accurate statement of the decision in the above-referenced case?
The defendant's conviction was upheld because the quality and character of the movement was sufficient to sustain a kidnapping conviction.
The mens rea of rape when a victim is under the age of consent is with knowledge.
false
The modern interpretation of arson includes a shed or another collateral structure on a person's property intended for storage.
false
At common law, rape was a general intent crime.
true
Consent for the crime of rape means:
affirmative and freely given permission
The mens rea of robbery is:
purpose
specific intent
Voluntary incapacitation as the result of drugs or alcohol renders the victim's ability to consent to sexual conduct valid, despite the incapacitation, because the incapacitation was voluntary.
false
At common law, the mens rea of assault was:
purpose
Which of the following statements is the most accurate holding of the Court in Garnett vs. State:
Mr. Garnett is guilty of the crime of 2nd degree rape because the statute criminalizing sexual intercourse with a person under the age of consent requires no mens rea.
Which of the following is the most accurate statement?
A question of fact is presented to the jury for a decision; questions of law are determined by the judge.
Which of the following are considered mala prohibita offenses:
Laws requiring the use of seat belts
Laws prohibiting littering
The determination of what actual actions are criminal and what actions are not criminal is determined by people, rather than laws, in the US criminal justice system.
true
Judge made common law is the basis of modern statutory law.
true
Mala in se offenses are defined as being:
illegal and immoral
Freedom of Assembly is protected under which amendment:
1st amendment
The government is permitted to regulate the time, place, and manner of speech:
true
Which Amendment protects an individual from cruel and unusual punishment:
8th amendment
Congress passed a law which prohibits men from purchasing coffee between the hours of 5 am and 8 am, allowing for women to purchase the first coffee of the day. If Mr. John challenges this law, which of the following standards of review would the court use to analyze his challenge?
The court will use an intermediate scrutiny review because gender or sex is a semi-protected class
Douglas Metzgar was convicted of violating a city ordinance that prohibits any person from committing any "indecent, immodest, or filthy" act in the presence of any person. Mr. Metzgar was convicted after someone, standing in the parking lot of Mr. Metzgar's apartment complex, observed Mr. Metzgar standing naked in the front window.
Which of the following is the best Constitutional argument for Mr. Metzgar?
Mr. Metzgar was denied his right to due process under the 5th Amendment to the Constitution because the words of the statute were too vague to be enforceable.
Under the 14th Amendment, the government is permitted to classify similarly situated people differently and treat those classifications differently.
true
The 2nd Amendment addresses which of the following:
right to bear arms and form militia
Which of the following was the impact of NY State Rifle & Pistol Assoc. vs. Bruen:
The Supreme Court established a one part test to assess the Constitutionality of gun regulations
The 2nd Amendment has been extended to the right to bear arms outside of the home.
Words which create imminent lawless action are words directed at a specific person and that would cause a reasonable person to retaliate.
false
While driving his car, a defendant experienced a medical event, struck and killed six girls on their way home from school. Defendant was convicted of involuntary manslaughter and appealed. Defendant's history was such that he had medical issues since the age of 7 when he was diagnosed with epilepsy. During this period, the defendant experienced periodic convulsions and seizures. The medical issues began when he was struck by an automobile at age 7, and after which he was treated for an illness during which he experienced convulsions. He experienced between 4-20 seizures per year in the years immediately preceding the accident.
Which of the following will be the decision of the appellate court?
The defendant's conviction will be affirmed. The defendant's actions were voluntary because the defendant deliberately took a risk knowing the possible consequences of his actions.
The doctrine of causation states that mens rea and actus reus have to occur at the same time.
false
Garnett v. State is an example of which legal principle:
strict liability
The American Bystander Rule states that when a person witnesses another person in peril, they are required to act.
false
The formal description of a guilty state of mind is:
mens rea
Actus reus refers to:
a voluntary act
Accomplice liability is a specific intent crime.
true
Being guilty of accessory liability means being guilty of the crime of the principal.
false
Mere preparation towards committing a crime is not sufficient enough to prove attempt.
true
Attempt is a general intent crime.
false
Wheel conspiracy is often used by organized crime, or traditional "mafia" crime families.
true
The mens rea required for a conviction of conspiracy is:
purpose
Inchoate crimes are:
Crimes that have not yet been completed
In the Model Penal Code definition of solicitation, the defendant has to send a communication which is received by the intended recipient for there to be a completed solicitation.
false
Which of the following are elements of embezzlement?
Intent to deprive the victim of the crime permanently
conversion of property
Which of the following are elements of false pretenses?
Through the use of a material lie or omission
Taking of property
Intent to deprive someone of their property permanently
Criminal trespass is a general intent crime.
true
Which of the following is an example of criminal mischief?
Tampering with another person's property
Burning a shed on a person's property
According to common law, embezzlement can only occur if the victim originally had lawful possession of the property at issue in the crime.
true
Which of the following is an accurate holding in the case of Atkins vs. Virginia:
It is unconstitutional to impose the death penalty on a defendant who is unable to form the appropriate mens rea for murder and/or understand the charges and sentence as the result of a cognitive or developmental delay.
The mens rea of involuntary manslaughter is:
negligence
George Huguely was convicted of 2nd degree depraved heart murder because the jury found that his actions of breaking down the victim's door was sufficient to show that there was implied malice in his actions.
false
Bob moved in with his girlfriend, Susan, and her three small children. Weeks after moving in, Bob noticed bruises on Tony's legs and arms. He asked Susan about the bruises but she denied knowing anything about them. About one yar later, Tony died from blunt force trauma to the head, caused by being repeatedly beaten by Susan.
Which of the following is the most likely outcome for Bob?
Bob will face charges of involuntary manslaughter because he acted with gross negligence in not protecting Tony
Kennedy vs. Louisiana held that it is unconstitutional to execute individuals where there was a rape of a child, but no death occurred.
true
In the case of People vs. Murray, which crime was Dr. Conrad Murray convicted of?
involuntary manslaughter
In the case of Virginia vs. George Huguely, Huguely was convicted of which crime?
2nd degree murder
The passage of time, in and of itself, is not sufficient proof that the defendant premeditated and deliberated prior to the act of killing.
true
What is the mens rea of 2nd degree depraved heart murder?
extreme recklessness
Lucy and Kevin are married. Kevin is having an extramarital affair with Ann. Lucy comes home from work and discovers Kevin having sex with Ann. Lucy goes to the kitchen where a gun is kept, returns to the bedroom, and shoots both Ann and Kevin. Both die.
In the above-referenced fact pattern, Lucy is most likely to be convicted of which crime?
Voluntary manslaughter, if the jury finds that there was adequate provocation or the heat of passion.
Kristin goes to a bar with her friends. After 3 hours of drinking, she is legally intoxicated. She chooses to drive home. On the way home, she strikes another car, killing the driver.
Which of the following is the most likely outcome for Kristin's actions?
Kristin will be found guilty of involuntary manslaughter because she acted with gross negligence when she entered the car and decided to drive home.
The mens rea of 2nd degree depraved heart murder is:
extreme recklessness
What is the actus reus of homicide?
killing of another live human being
If a jury is able to find that a defendant intended to kill the victim, but did not premeditate or deliberate the killing, the jury will find the defendant guilty of:
2nd degree murder
Scott is angry at John. While at a bar on Friday evening, John shouts at Scott, angering him. Scott punches John. John punches Scott in return. Scott pulls a gun out of his jacket pocket and shoots John. John dies.
Of which crime is the defendant most likely to be charged and convicted in the above-referenced fact pattern?
2nd degree murder, if the jury finds that the defendant was engaged in mutual combat when the homicide took place.
When the words that are used against another are words of hate or bias towards another person, words alone can be sufficient to sustain a conviction of voluntary manslaughter.
false
Which of the following is the best description of the Alter Ego Rule in the Defense of Others?
A person is entitled to use defensive force against another is the same as the person you are trying to protect.
Which of the following best describes the Burden of Production?
The Burden of Production is the defendant's duty to demonstrate to the court that an affirmative defense is viable.
Which of the following best describes an imperfect defense?
An imperfect defense reduces the charges against the defendant or the culpability of the defendant but does not acquit the defendant.
The Common Law (and majority rule) of Defense of Property is that a person may never use deadly force to protect their property.
true
Elements defenses can be a perfect defense or an imperfect defense.
false
Which of the following are elements of self-defense?
use of proportionate force
Honest and reasonable belief that the force is necessary
Which of the following best describes the Castle Doctrine:
The Castle Doctrine means that you do not have to retreat if the attack on you is in your home.
A defense that requires a defendant to commit a crime for the purpose of avoiding a larger harm is a:
necessity defense
Which of the following are elements of the defense of duress:
The defendant has a well-grounded (or reasonable) fear that the threat would be carried out.
The defendant perceives an immediate threat of death or serious bodily injury.
The defendant has no reasonable means of escape (or ability to report to law enforcement).
Some jurisdictions allow deadly force to be used to protect occupied vehicles.
true
In cases of self-defense where a defendant has used deadly force against a victim, the defendant has to prove that there was present danger which the defendant honestly and reasonably believed was likely to cause death.
false
When used, Battered Woman or Battered Spouse Syndrome is used only as an imperfect defense, mitigating the charges of murder to voluntary manslaughter.
true
The Castle Doctrine is only applicable in state's that have the Stand Your Ground Rule.
false
A perfect defense is when the jury finds the defendant guilty of a lesser crime than the original crime, i.e. the jury mitigates the level of the crime.
false
Which of the following best describes the Durham Test of Insanity:
The defendant had a mental illness and the defendant's actions were the result of the mental illness.
The attempted assassination of Ronald Reagan in 1981 precipitated changes in which area of the law.
insanity defenses
Which of the following statements best describes whether the defendant is assessed to know and understand:
The defendant can know and understand if they have the cognitive ability to assess the costs and benefits of their actions.
At common law, there was a rebuttable presumption that there is capacity to be liable for crime over the age of 14.
true
Which of the following best states the definition of legal competency:
At the time of the court proceedings, the defendant is able to understand the proceedings and assist in their own defense.
The use of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder as a defense to a crime is a:
excuse defense
affirmative defense
Which of the following best describes the M'Naughten Test of Insanity:
The defendant had a mental disease or defect that caused the defendant to not understand the nature and quality of his or her actions, or understand the difference between right and wrong.
Voluntary intoxication may be used to mitigate the mens rea of a specific intent crime.
true
The Substantial Capacity Test of legal insanity states that:
The defendant had a mental disease or defect and the defendant did not have the substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of their actions or conform the conduct to law.
Voluntary intoxication may be used to mitigate the mens rea of general or specific intent crimes.
false
The Battered Women's/Battered Spouse defenses uses the element of present danger rather than imminent danger.
true
There are _____ federal Courts of Appeals.
13
Which of the following classifications receive intermediate scrutiny:
gender
national origin
If a person commits a crime with the intent, hope, or desire to create a specific harmful result, the person has which type of mens rea?
specific intent
The mens rea of attempt is:
purpose
The historical definition of rape required utmost resistance on the part of the woman being raped before the action was considered a crime.
true
If a jury deliberates on a case of 2nd degree depraved heart murder and finds that the defendant's mens rea did not reach the level of extreme recklessness, the jury is likely to find the defendant guilty of voluntary manslaughter.
false
The most accurate definition of the Duty to Retreat (or Retreat Doctrine) in the defense of self-defense states that:
A defendant is required to retreat from an attack prior to using violence against another person.
The Irresistible Impulse test of legal insanity states that:
The defendant had a mental disease or defect that prevented the defendant from being unable to control his or her impulses or conform their conduct to law.
Congress can overturn a Presidential Executive Order.
true
The holding in Roper vs. Simmons makes it unconstitutional to:
Execute someone who was under the age of 18 when the crime occurred.
Bob moved in with his girlfriend, Susan, and her three small children, Tommy, Sarah, and Tony. Weeks after moving in, Bob noticed bruises on Tony's legs and arms. He asked Susan about the bruises but she denied knowing anything about them. About one year later, Tony died from blunt force trauma to the head, caused by being repeatedly beaten by Susan.
If there was no record of Bob contacting the police or child protective services, can Bob be held criminally liable for the death of Tony?
Yes, because Bob has an implied special relationship to Tony which creates a duty to protect.
Endangering another's monetary or property interests by deception or threat is part of the elements of which crime?
criminal mischief
Approaching her from behind, Kristin hits Lauren over the head with a crowbar.
Which of the following crimes is committed in the above fact pattern?
battery
The burden of production:
Belongs to the defendant, if the defendant wants to assert an affirmative defense
At common law, there was a irrebuttable presumption that there is no capacity to be liable for crime under the age of 7.
true
but she says its false
Jolene was walking to work on Friday morning when Peter, wearing a ski mask walked up to her, stuck a gun in her side, dragged her into an alley, and told her that he would kill her if she did not go to the nearest ATM and withdraw $1,000 from an account, using an ATM card and PIN that Peter provided her. The nearest ATM was 2 blocks away on a busy street. After she withdrew the money, she was supposed to put the money in an envelope and leave the money in a trashcan next to the bank. Peter told Jolene that he would be watching her and following her the whole time and that he would shoot her if she spoke to anyone else or if she attempted to run away. Jolene walked to the ATM, retrieved $1000, and deposited the money in the trash can specified by Peter.
Of which crime(s) is Jolene most likely to be charged?
...
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