A drug that bind to a receptor and but doesn't elicit a response is called an ________
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. InducerB. AntagonistA competitive antagonist binds at _____ site as agonist:
A. Different
B. SameB. SameDrug A has an EC50 of 10mg while drug B has EC50 of 1 mg. Therefore:
A. Drug A > potent than B
B. Drug B> potent than drug A
C. Drug A> safer than drug B
C. Drug B> safer than drug AB. Drug B> potent than drug AA drug has a therapeutic index of 100 while B has a therapeutic index of 2. Therefore:
A. Drug A > potent than B
B. Drug B> potent than drug A
C. Drug A> safer than drug B
C. Drug B> safer than drug AC. Drug A> safer than drug BA non-selective antagonist will block____ receptors of a kind:
A. Many
B. OneA. Many___ drugs will have the most side effects
A. Selective
B. Non-selectiveB. Non-selectiveA substance that causes abnormal development of fetus
A. Haematotoxin
B. Teratogen
C. Prodrug
D. AbortifacientB. TeratogenWhich of the following is likely to occur in an elderly patient:
A. Difficulty swallowing
B. Delayed absorption
C. Delayed absorption
D. Choices A and BD. Choices A and BA receptor is considered____ when a small amount is required to activate the receptor
A. Sensitive
B. Not sensitiveA. Sensitive1. Indirect acting cholinergic drugs inactivate:
A. Cholinergic receptors
B. Nicotinic receptors
C. Acetylcholinesterase enzyme
D. AcetylcholineC. Acetylcholinesterase enzyme1. Direct acting cholinergic drugs increase heart rate
A. True
B. FalseB. FalseSide effects of direct cholinergic drugs include all listed below EXCEPT:
A. Uterine contraction
B. Urinary urgency
C. Constipation
D. NauseaC. ConstipationSide effects of anticholinergic drugs include all listed below EXCEPT:
A. Tachycardia
B. Urinary retention
C. Diarrhea
D. MydriasisC. DiarrheaCan't pee, Can't see, Can't poo and Can't cry best describes the side effects of:
A. Cholinergic agonists
B. Cholinergic antagonists
C. Sympathetic agonists
D. Sympathetic antagonistsB. Cholinergic antagonistsSympathetic NS releases_____ & _____ as neurotransmitters at the postganglionic neurons:
A. Acetylcholine & muscarine
B. Norepinephrine and epinephrineB. Norepinephrine and epinephrineA patient who just received a dose of their "Epipen" will experience:
A. Sedation
B. Bradycardia
C. Anxiety and headache
D. BronchoconstrictionC. Anxiety and headacheOTC decongestants like Sudafed are not recommended in hypertension because of their effect on:
A. Beta-1 receptors
B. Beta-2 receptors
C. Alpha-1 receptors
D. Alapha-2 receptorsC. Alpha-1 receptorsThe sympathetic neurotransmitters released from the adrenal medulla:
A. Epinephrine only
B. Dopamine only
C. Norepinephrine only
D. Epinephrine and norepinephrineA. Epinephrine onlyA patient taking phenoxybenzamine (non-selective Alpha agonist) is likely to experience:
A. Nasal decongestion
B. Postural hypotension
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. ConstipationB. Postural hypotension1. Local anesthetics can be given by both inhalation and Intravenous routes
A. True
B. FalseB. False1. A patient that just received ______ will experience drowsiness during PT:
A. Local anesthetic
B. General anestheticB. General anesthetic1. Stage III Anesthesia is most desirable. Past this stage we can expect side effects such as:
A. Local anesthetic
B. Agitation
C. Delirium
D. Cardiovascular & respiratory failureD. Cardiovascular & respiratory failure1. A direct correlation between anesthetic potency & lipid solubility can be explained by
A. Specific receptor theory
B. General perturbation theoryB. General perturbation theory1. The ideal Anesthetic agent should stimulate Sensory & Autonomic reflexes.
A. True
B. FalseB. False1. The 3rd stage of Anesthesia in characterized by excitement
A. True
B. FalseB. False1. A patient receiving Tubocurarine and Streptomycin may experience:
A. shortened neuromuscular blockage
B. have no change in neuromuscular blockage
C. not experience any neuromuscular blockage
D. prolonged neuromuscular blockageD. prolonged neuromuscular blockage1. Treatment with succinylcholine could potentially induce elevation in intraocular pressure
A. True
B. FalseA. True1. The most common side effect of dantrolene is
A. Diarrhea
B. drowsiness
C. generalized muscle weakness
D. uncontrolled spasmsC. generalized muscle weakness1. Tom ingested alcohol after taking Baclofen (CNS spasmolytic). What side effects will be potentiated?
A. nausea & constipation
B. rhabdomyolysis
C. dizziness & drowsiness
D. increased spasticityC. dizziness & drowsiness1. Diazepam, Baclofen & Gabapentin all work at the ______ receptor
A. glutamate
B. nicotinic
C. muscarinic
D. GABAD. GABA1. α-2 agonist, Tizanidine has the advantage of causing less weakness than Diazepam
A. True
B. FalseA. True1. Treatment with muscle relaxants can be both synergistic or interfere with physical therapy
A. True
B. FalseA. True1. Autacoids are produced by the tissues they act on
A. True
B. FalseA. True1. Inflammation is a protective response, thus in excess it can be good for the body
A. True
B. FalseB. False1. A patient is bitten by a bee during a PT session, the redness and itching is likely due to
A. Serotonin
B. Angiotensin
C. Neuropeptide
D. HistamineD. Histamine1. Histamine is released by____ cells when an allergen is encountered
A. White blood cells
B. Mast cells
C. Enterocytes
D. HepatocytesB. Mast cells1. A patient with an allergic response mediated by histamine will have all the following except?
A. Decreased Blood pressure
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. increased cardiac output
D. Urticaria & ItchingC. increased cardiac output1. The decline in blood pressure and cardiac output due to Histamine is controlled by ___receptors
A. H2+H4
B. H1+H2
C. H1+H3
D. H3+H4B. H1+H21. Your patient took a 1st generation antihistamine Benadryl, you would most worry about
A. Itching and redness
B. Excessive salivation
C. Sedation
D. DiarrheaC. Sedation1. Sumatriptan(5HT agonist) used to treat migraines causes these side effects except
A. Dizziness
B. Muscle weakness
C. Neck pain
D. Blurred visionD. Blurred vision
