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Hemetology / UA/ Coag extern study set

Terms in this set (191)

Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A.A false increase in hematocrit
B. A false decrease in Hct Value
C. No effect on HCT value
D. All of these options, depending on patient
A. A false increase in hematocrit
Variation in RBC size observed on the peripheral blood smear is described as

A. Anisocytosis
B. Hypochromia
C. Poikilocytosis
D. Pleocytosis
A. Anisocytosis
Which of the following is the preffered site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?

A. Iliac crest
B. Sternum
C. Tibia
D. Spinous process of a vertebrae
A. Iliac crest
Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the following formula

A. (HGB / RBC) X 10 where Hgb is hemoglobin in dl/ml
B. (HCT / RBC) X 10
C. (HCT / Hgb) x 100
D. (HGB / RBC) x 100
B. (HCT / RBC) X 10
What term describes the change in the shape of erythrocytes seen on a wright-stained peripheral blood smear?

A. Poikilocytosis
B. Anisocytosis
C. Hypochromia
D. Polychromasia
A. Poikilocytosis
Calculate the MCHC using the following values: HGB: 15.0 g/dl ( 150 g/L) HCT: 47 ml/dl ( 0.47) RBC: 4.5 x 10^6/uL

A. 9.5%
B. 10.4%
C. 31.9 %
D. 33.3 %
C. 31.9 %

MCHC = (HGB/HCT) x 100
Ref range: 32% - 36%
A manual WBC count was performed. In total 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm^2 cells of a Neubauer-ruled hemocytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used what is the WBC count?

A. 0.4 x 10^9/L
B. 2.5 x 10^9/L
C. 4.0 x 10^9/L
D. 8.0 x 10^9/L
A. 0.4 x 10^9/L

formula for counting: Number of cells X dilution factor X depth of chamber (10).
When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a

A. Spherocyte
B. Leptocyte
C. Schistocyte
D. Siderocyte
D. Siderocyte
A 7..0 ml EDTA tube is received in the lab containing only 2.0 ml of blood. If the lab is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?

A. RBC Count
B. Hgb
C. Hct
D. WBC count
C. Hct
A 1:200 dilution of a ptient's sample was made and 336 RBCs were counted in an area of 0.2 mm^2. What is the RBC count?

A. 1.68 x 10^12/L
B. 3.36 x 10^12/L
C. 4.47 x 10^12/L
D. 6.66 x 10^12/L
B. 3.36 x 10^12/L

RBC count: # of cells counted dilution factor depth (10)
What Phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are bactericidal?

A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. PLTs
D. Neutrophils
D. Neutrophils
If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and Hct of 20%, what is the corrected retic count?

A. 1.4%
B. 3.1%
C. 3.5%
D. 14%
B. 3.1%

Correct reticulocyte count =
Retic percentage * ( Hct / 45%)
A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
D. Aquired hemolytic anemia
A. Sickle cell anemia
What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a wright-stained smear?

A. RBCs would be stained too pink.
B. WBC cytoplasm would be stained too blue.
C RBCs would be stained to blue.
D. RBCs would lyse on the slide.
A. RBCs would be stained too pink.
Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a wright-stained blood smear?

A. Basophillic stippling
B. Heinz Bodies
C. Howell- Jolly bodies
D. Siderotic Granules
B. Heinz Bodies
A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will NOT be effected.

A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. RDW
B. MCH

MCH = Hgb * 10 / RBC count
A miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:

A. PLT
B. Retics
C. Sickle Cells
D. Nucleated RBCs
B. Reticculocytes
SITUATION: RBC indices obtained on an anemic patient are as follows: MCV 88 μm3 (fL); MCH 30 pg; MCHC 34% (.340). The RBCs on the peripheral smear would appear:
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Microcytic, normochromic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
D. Normocytic, hypochromic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
All of the following factors may influence the ESR except

A. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube.
B. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
C. Plasma proteins
D. Caliber of the tube.
A. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube.
What staining method is used most frequently to stain and manually count reticulocytes?

A. Immunofluorescence
B. Supravital Staining
C. Romanowsky Stain
D. Cytochemical Staining
B. Supravital Staining
The coulter principle for counting of cells is based on the fact that:

A. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better then cells do.
B. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells.
C. Cells conduict electricity better than saline does.
D. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
A. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better then cells do.
A correction is necessary for WBC counts when NRBCS are seen on the peripheral blood smear becase:

A. The WBC count would be falsely Lower
B. The RBC count is too low
C. NRBCs are counted as leukocytes
D. NRBCs are confused with giant PLTs.
C. NRBCs are counted as leukocytes
Using an electronic cell counter analyyzer. An increased RDW should correlate with

A. Spherocytosis
B. Anisocytosis
C. Leukocytosis
D. Presence of NRBCs
B. Anisocytosis
Given the following values, which set of RBC indicies suggests spherocytosis?

A. MCV: 76 um^3 MCH: 19.9 pg MCHC: 28.5%
B. MCV: 90 um^3 MCH: 30.5 pg MCHC: 32.5%
C. MCV: 80 um^3 MCH: 36.5 pg MCHC: 39.0%
D. MCV: 81 um^3 MCH: 29.0 pg MCHC: 34.8%
C. MCV: 80 um^3 MCH: 36.5 pg MCHC: 39.0%
Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two complete blood count parameters?

A. Mean
B. Median
C. Coefficient of Variation.
D. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation.
Which of the following is considered a normal Hgb?

A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Methemoglobin
C. Suflhemoglobin
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?

A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Multiple Blood Transfusions
D. Increased quantities of Hgb S or C
A. Acidosis
What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Segmented neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil
B. Lymphocyte
What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage in the adult population.

A. 5-10 %
B. 10-20%
C. 20-44%
D. 50-70%
C. 20-44%
In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?

A. 6 months - 2 years
B. 4-6 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 40 - 60 years
A. 6 months - 2 years
Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral blood smear should be reviewed manually?

A. Segs= 70%
B. Bands= 6%
C. Monos = 15%
D. Eos = 2%
C. Monos = 15%
Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink because of the formation of Hgb?

A. Retic
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast
Which of the following can shift the Hgb oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

A. Increase in 2,3- DPG
B. Acidosis
C. Hypoxia
D. All of the above
A. Increase in 2,3- DPG
B. Acidosis
C. Hypoxia
D. All of the above- Answer
Which of the following Hgb configuations is characteristic of Hgb H?

A. Y4 ( Gamma 4)
B. Alpha 2- Gamma 2
C. Beta 4
D. Alpha 2, Beta 2
C. Beta 4
Autoagglutination of RBCs at room temperature can cause which of the following abnormal test results?

A. Low RBC count
B. High MCV
C. Low Hct
D. All of these options
A. Low RBC count
B. High MCV
C. Low Hct
D. All of these options
Hypersplenism is characterized by

A. Polycythemia
B. Pancytosis
C. Leukopenia
D. Myelodysplasia
C. Leukopenia
Which of the following organs is responsible for the "pitting process" in RBCs

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Lymph Nodes
B. Spleen
Spherocytes differ from normal RBCs in all of the following except:

A. Decreased Surface to volume
B. No central pallor
C. Decreased resistance to hypotonic Saline
D. Increased deformability.
D. Increased deformability.
Which of the Following is NOT associated with Hereditary Spherocytosis

A. Increased osmotic fragility.
B. MCHC greater than 36%
C. Intravascular hemolysis
D. Extravascular hemolysis
C. Intravascular hemolysis
Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility?

A. Iron dificiency anemia
B. Hereditary elliptocytosis
C. Hereditary Stomatocytosis
D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually:

A. Microcytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, Hypochromic
C. Normocytic, Normochromic
D. Normocytic, Hypochromic
C. Normocytic, Normochromic
Which is the major Hgb found in RBCs of patients with sick cell trait?

A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A
D. Hgb A
Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia.

A. Lysine is substituted for Glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha-chain.
B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the Beta-chain.
C. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain.
D. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta- chain.
B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the Beta-chain.
All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease EXCEPT?

A. Hgb C crystals
B. Target Cells
C. Lysine substitution for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta- chain
D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6
D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6
Which of the following Hgbs migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6

A. Hgb H
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb C
D. Hgb S
C. Hgb C
Which off the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%
B. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2%
C. Hgb A: 40% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%
D. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%
B. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2%
In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?

A. Thalassemia major
B. Hgb C disease.
C. Hgb SC disease.
D. Sickle Cell disease.
D. Sickle Cell disease.
which of the following is most true of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinura (PNIH).

A. It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in hemolysis
B. it is inherited as a sex-linked trait
C. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
D. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
A. It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in hemolysis
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following.

A. Hemorrhage
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. reticulocytopenia
D. reticulocytopenia
The autohemolysis test result is positive in all of the following conditions EXCEPT.

A. G6PD deficiency.
B. HS
C. Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
D. PNH
D. PNH
Which Antibody is associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria ( PCH).

A. Anti- I
B. Anti- i
C. Anti- M
D. Anti- P
D. Anti- P
All of the following are associated with intravascular hemolysis EXCEPT.

A. Methemoglobinemia
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Hemoglobinemia
D. Decreased Haptoglobin
A. Methemoglobinemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) is best characterized by which of the following?

A. Increased levels of Plasma C3
B. Spherocytic RBCs
C. Decreased Osmotic Fragility
D. Decreased unconjugated Bilirubin
B. Spherocytic RBCs
"Bite Cells" are usually seen in patients with:

A. Rh Null trait.
B. Chronic granulomatous disease.
C. G6PD deficiency.
D. PK deficiency
C. G6PD deficiency.
The morphological classification of Anemias is based on which of the following?

A. Myeloid: erythroid ratio
B. Prussian blue stain.
C. RBC indices
D. Retic count
C. RBC indices
Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia.

A. A monoclonal disorder.
B. Tumor infiltration
C. Peripheral blood pancytopenia.
D. Defective DNA synthesis
C. Peripheral blood pancytopenia.
Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by:


A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
B. Cytogenic disorders
C. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
D. An elevated M:E ratiosnn
A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by

A. Target Cells and cabot rings
B. Toxic granulation and Dolhe bodies
C. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
D. Schistocytes and Nrbcs
D. Schistocytes and Nrbcs
Which antibiotic(s) is ( are) most often implicated in the development of Aplastic Anemia?

A. Sulfonamides
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol
D. Chloramphenicol
Sickle Cell disorders are?

A. Hereditary, intracopuscular RBC defects
B. Hereditary, extracopuscular RBC defects
C. Acquired, intracopuscular RBC defects
D. Acquired, extracopuscular RBC defects
A. Hereditary, intracopuscular RBC defects
Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral blood smear?

A. Pelger-Huet Anomaly
B. Pernicious anemia
C. AIHA
D. Sideroblastic Anemia
C. AIHA
A patients peripheral blood smear reveals numerous Nrbcs, marked variation of RBC morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In addition to decrease Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated?

A. Reduced PLTs
B. Increased MCHC
C. Increased MCV
D. Decreased RDW
C. Increased MCV
What RBC inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient postsplenectomy?

A. Toxic Granulation
B. Howell-Jolly Bodies
C. Malarial parasites
D. Siderotic Granules
B. Howell-Jolly Bodies
Reticulocytosis usually indicates:

A. Response to inflammation
B. Neoplastic Process
C. Aplastic Anemia
D. RBC regeneration
D. RBC regeneration
Hereditary Pyropoikilocytosis is an RBC membrane defect characterized by.

A. Increased Pencil- shaped cells
B. Increased Oval Macrocytes
C. Misshapen budding fragmented cells
D. Bite Cells
C. Misshapen budding fragmented cells
The osmotic fragility test result in a patient with thalassemia major would most likely show:

A. Increased hemolysis
B. Decreased Hemolysis
C. Normal resistance to hemolysis
D. Decreased hemolysis after incubation at 37 C
B. Decreased Hemolysis
All of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with IDA EXCEPT?

A. Microcytic, hypochromic rbc morphology
B. Decreased serum iron and ferritin levels
C. Decreased total Iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D. Increased RBC protoporphyrin.
C. Decreased total Iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
IDA may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by

A. Serum iron level
B. RBC morphology
C. RBC indices.
D. TIBC
D. TIBC
Which anemia has RBC morphology similiar to that seen in IDA?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia syndrome
C. Pernicious anemia
D. HS
B. Thalassemia syndrome
IDA is characterized by:

A. Decreased Plasma Iron, Decreased % saturation, Increased TIBC
B. Decreased Plasma Iron, Decreased plasma ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin.
C. Decreased Plasma Iron, Decreased % saturation, decreased TIBC
D. Decreased Plasma Iron, increased % saturation, decreased TIBC
A. Decreased Plasma Iron, Decreased % saturation, Increased TIBC.
Storage iron is usually best determined by:
A. Serum transferrin levels
B. Hgb values
C. Myoglobin values
D. Serum ferritin levels
D. Serum ferritin levels
All of the following are associated with sideroblastic anemia except:

A. Increased serum iron
B. Ringed sideroblasts
C. Hypochromic Anemia
D. Decreased serum ferritin
D. Decreased serum ferritin
What is the basic hematological defect seen in patients with thalassemia major?

A. DNA synthetic defect
B. Hgb Structure
C. Beta- chain synthesis
D. Hgb phosphorylation
C. Beta- chain synthesis
Which of the following is the primary Hgb in patients with thalassemia major?

A. Hgb D
B. Hgb A
C. Hgb C
D. Hgb F
D. Hgb F
A patient has an Hct of 30%, an Hgb of 8 g/dl, and an RBC count of 4.0 x 10^12/L. What is the morphological classification of this anemia.

A. Normocytic, Normochromic
B. Macrocytic, hypochromic
C. Microcytic, hypochromic
D. Normocytic, hyperchromic
C. Microcytic, hypochromic

calculated indices to figure this out.
In which of the following conditions is Hgb A2 elevated?

A. Hgb H
B. Hgb SC disease
C. Beta-thalassemia minor
D. Hgb S trait
C. Beta-thalassemia minor
Which of the following parameters may be similar for the anemia of inflammation and IDA?

A. Normocytic indices
B. Decreased serum iron concentration
C. Ringed sideroblasts
D. Pappenheimer bodies
B. Decreased serum iron concentration
Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?

A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hypochromic
D. Macrocytic, normochromic.
D. Macrocytic, normochromic.
Which anemia is characterized by the lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption?

A. Tropical Sprue
B. Transcobalamin deficiency
C. Blind loop syndrome
D. Pernicious Anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia
All of the following are characteristics of megaloblastic anemia EXCEPT:

A. Pancytopenia
B. Elevated retic count
C. Hypersegmented neutrophils
D. Macrocytic erythrocyte indices
B. Elevated retic count
A person with a vitamin B12 anemia is prescribed a high dosage of folate. Which of the following is expected as a result of this treatment?

A. Ann improvement in neurological problems
B. An improvement in hematological abnormalities
C. No expected improvement
D. Toxicity of the liver and kidneys.
B. An improvement in hematological abnormalities
Which of the following disorders is associated with ineffective erythropoiesis?

A. G6PD deficiency
B. Liver Disease
C. Hgb C disease
D. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
A 50 Year old patinet is suffering from pernicious anemia. Which of the following lab data are most likely for this patient.

A. RBC= 2.5 x10^12/L WBC= 12,500/ul PLT= 250k/ul
B. RBC= 4.5 x10^12/L WBC= 6,500/ul PLT= 150k/ul
C. RBC= 3.0 x10^12/L WBC= 5,000/ul PLT= 750k/ul
D. RBC= 2.5 x10^12/L WBC= 2,500/ul PLT= 50k/ul
D. RBC= 2.5 x10^12/L WBC= 2,500/ul PLT= 50k/ul
Which of the following may be seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient with obstructive lung disease?

A. Schistocytes
B. Macrocytes
C. Howell- Jolly bodies
D. Microcytes
B. Macrocytes
The macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic processes are.

A. Crescent shaped.
B. Teardrop shaped
C. Oval Shaped
D. Pencil shaped
C. Oval Shaped
Which of the following are most characteristic of the RBC indices associated with megaloblastic anemias.

A. MCV= 99fL MCH= 28 pg MCHC= 31%
B. MCV= 62fL MCH= 27 pg MCHC= 30%
C. MCV= 125fL MCH= 36 pg MCHC= 34%
D. MCV= 78fL MCH= 23 pg MCHC= 30%
C. MCV= 125fL MCH= 36 pg MCHC= 34%
A patient has 80 Nrbcs per 100 leukocytes. In addition to increased polychromasia on the peripheral blood smear, what other finding may be present on the CBC?

A. Increased PLTs
B. Increased MCV
C. Increased Hct
D. Increased RBC count
B. Increased MCV
Which of the following is an unusual complication that may occur in infectious mono?

A. Splenic infarctions
B. Dactylitis
C. Hemolytic Anemia
D. Giant PLTs
C. Hemolytic Anemia
In a patient with HIV infection, one should expect to see.

A. Shift to the left in WBCs
B. Target Cells
C. Reactive lymphs
D. Pelgeroid Cells.
C. Reactive lymphs
Which inclusions may be seen in leukocytes

A. Dohle Bodies
B. Basophilic Stippling
C. Malarial Parasites
D. Howell- Jolly bodies
A. Dohle Bodies
Which of the following in contained in the primnary granules of a neutrophil.

A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine.
D. Alkaline Phosphatase
B. Myeloperoxidase
What is the typical reference range for relative lymph percentage in the peripheral blood smear from a 1 year old child..

A. 1-6%
B. 27-33%
C. 35-58%
D. 50-70%
D. 50-70%
Qualitative and quantitative neutrophil changes noted in response to infection include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Neuytrophilia
B. Pelgeroid hyposegmentation
C. Toxic Granulation
D. Vacuolization
B. Pelgeroid hyposegmentation
Neutropenia is present in patients which which absolute neutrophil count?

A. Less than 1.5 x 10^9/l
B. Less than 5.0 x 10^9/l
C. Less than 10.0 x 10^9/l
D. Less than 15.0 x 10^9/l
A. Less than 1.5 x 10^9/l
The morphological characteristics associated with Chediak-higashi syndrom eis

A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions.
B. Giant lysosomal granules
C. Small, Dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei
D. Nuclear Hyposegmentation
B. Giant lysosomal granules
The familial condition of pelger-huet anomaly is important to recognize because this disorder must be differentiated from.

A. Infectious mono
B. May-hegglin anomaly
C. A shift to the left increase in immature grans
D. G6PD deficiency.
C. A shift to the left increase in immature grans
Situation: A differential shows reactive lymps, and the physician suspects that a viral infection is the cause. What is the expected Lab findings in a patient with a cmv infection.

A. Heterophile Antibody: pos
B. EBV IgM positive
C. DAT: Positive
D. CMV- IgM: positive
D. CMV- IgM: positive
Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are associated with an increase in O2 utlization called respiratory burst. What aare the two most important products of this biochemical reaction.

A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion
B. Lactoferrin and NADPH oxidase.
C. Cytochrome B and collagenase
D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid.
A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion
Which of the morphological findings are characteristic of reactive lymphs?

A. High N:C ration
B. Prominent Nucleoli
C. Basophillic Cytoplasm
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except:
A. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4)
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation (M1)
D. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia?

A. Microcytic, Hyperchromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic
C. Normocytic, Normochromic
D. Macrocytic, normochromic
C. Normocytic, Normochromic
In leukemia, which term describes the peripheral blood findings of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, accompanied by Nrbcs?

A. Myelopthisis.
B. Dysplasia
C. Leukoerythroblastosis
D. Megaloblastosis
C. Leukoerythroblastosis
The basic pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for producing signs and symptoms in leukemia include all of the following except:

A. Replacement of normal marrow precursors by leukemic cells causing anemia
B. Decrease in functional leukocytes causing infection
C. Hemorrhage secondary to thrombocytopenia
D. Decreased erythropoietin production.
D. Decreased erythropoietin production.
Which type of acute m,yeloid leukemia is called true monocytic leukemia and follows an acute or subacute course characterized by monolbasts, promonocytes, and monocytes?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia, minimally differentiated.
B. Acute Myeloid leukemia, without maturation
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
In which age group does ALL occur with the highest frequency?

A. 1-15 years
B. 20-35 years
C. 45-60 years
D. 60-75 years
A. 1-15 years
Disseminated intravascular coag (DIC_ is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (PML)
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (PML)
An M:E ration of 10: 1 is most often seen in

A. Thalassemia
B. Leukemia
C. Polycythemia Vera (PV)
D. Myelogibrosis
B. Leukemia
Which of the following is characteristic of auer rods?

A. They are composed of azurophillic granules
B. They stain positive on periodic acid- schiff (PAS) staining
C. They are predominantly seen in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
D. They are nonspecific esterase positive.
A. They are composed of azurophillic granules
SITUATION: The following laboratory values are seen:
WBCs = 6.0 × 109/L Hgb = 6.0 g/dL RBCs = 1.90 × 1012/L Hct = 18.5% Platelets = 130 × 109/L Serum vitamin B12 and folic acid: normal

WBC Differential
6% PMN, 40% lymps, 4% monocytes, 50% Blasts
Bone marrow differential
40% myeloblasts, 60% promyeloblasts. 40 megaloblastoid NRBCs/100 WBCs

These results are most characteristic of:

A. Pernicious Anemia
B. Acute myeloid leukemia, without maturation
C. Acute erythroid leukemia
D. Acute Myelomonocytic leukemia.
C. Acute erythroid leukemia
A 24 year old man with down syndrome presents with fever, pallor, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. HIS CBC results are as follows

WBCs = 10.8 × 10^9/L Hgb =3.3 g/dL RBCs = 1.56 × 10^12/L Hct = 11% Platelets = 2.5 × 10^9/L. 8% pmns, 25% lymphs, 67% PAS-positive Blasts.

These findings are suggestive of

A. Hodgkins lymphoma
B. Myeloproliferative disorder
C. Leukemoid reaction
D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
SITUATION: A peripheral blood smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both sudan black B (SBB) and peroxidase. Given these values, which of the following disorders is most likely?

A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
B. CML
C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL)
D. ALL
A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies phospholipid in the membranes of both primary and secondary granules is.

A. PAS
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. SBB
D. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase ( TdT)
C. SBB
Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a positive reaction with:

A. Megakaryocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Erthrocytes
D. Granulocytes
B. Monocytes
Leukemic lymphoblasts reacting with anti-common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen ( anti-calla) are characteristically seen in?

A. B-cell ALL
B. T-Cell ALL
C. Null Cell ALL
D. Common ALL
D. Common ALL
Which of the following reactions are often positive in ALL but negative in AML

A. TdT and PAS
B. Chloroacetate esterase and nonspecific esterase
C. SBB and Peroxidase
D. New methylene Blue and acid phosphatase
A. TdT and PAS
A patients peripheral blood smear and bone marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells are negative on SBB staining . Given this data, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. AML
B. CLL
C. Acute PML
D. ALL
D. ALL
Which of the following leukemias are incluided in the 2008 WHO classification of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs)?

A. CML
B. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (CNL)
C. Chronic Eosinophilic Leukemia ( CEL)
D. All of these are Classified as MPNs
D. All of these are Classified as MPNs
In addition to morphology, cytochemistry, and immunophenotyping, the who classification of the myelo- and lymphproliferative disorders is based on which characteristic?

A. Proteomics
B. Cytogenetic abnormalities
C. Carbohydrate- associated tumor antigen production.
D. Cell signaling and adhesion markers
B. Cytogenetic abnormalities
The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?

A. At least 30%
B. At least 20%
C. At least 10%
D. Any percentage.
B. At least 20%
What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for AML M2 by the FAB classification.


A. AML with t(15;17)
B. AML with mixed lineage
C. AML with t(8;21)
D. AML with inv(16)
C. AML with t(8;21)
What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for AML M3 by the FAB classification?

A. AML with t(15;17)
B. AML with mixed lineage
C. AML with t(8;21)
D. AML with inv(16)
A. AML with t(15;17)
Which AML cytogenetic abnormality is associated with acute myelomonocytic leukemia with marrow eosinophilia under the WHO classification of AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities?

A. AML with t(15;17)
B. AML with mixed lineage
C. AML with t(8;21)
D. AML with inv(16)
D. AML with inv(16)
What would be the most likely classification by the WHO for AML M7 by the FAB classification?

A. Acute myeloid leukemias with recurrent genetic abnormalities
B. Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia
C. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia classified under AML ( not otherwise caegorized) .
D. Acute leukemias of ambiguous lineage.
C. Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia classified under AML ( not otherwise caegorized) .
Repeated phlebotomy in patients with polycythemia vera (PV) may lead to the development of:
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
In ET, PLTs are

A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal.
B. Normal in number and functionally abnormal
C. Decreased in number and functional.
D. Decreased in number and functionally abnormal
A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal.
Which of the following cells is considered pathognomomonic for Hodgkin disease?

A. Niemannn- pick cells
B. Reactive Lymphs
C. Flame Cells
D. Reed-sternberg (RS) Cells
D. Reed-sternberg (RS) Cells
In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal RBC morphology is that of:

A. Target Cells
B. Schistocytes
C. Teardrop-shaped Cells
D. Ovalocytes
C. Teardrop-shaped Cells
PV is characterized by:

A. Increased plasma volume
B. Pancytopenia
C. Decreased oxygen saturation
D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass
D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass
Features of secondary polycythemia include all of the following except:

A. Splenomegaly
B. Decreased Oxygen saturation
C. Increased RBC mass
D. Increased erythropoietin
A. Splenomegaly
Erythrocytosis in relative polycythemia occurs because of:

A. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation
B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood
C. Increased erythropoietin levels
D. Increased erythropoiesis in bone marrow.
B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood
in PV, what is characteristically seen in peripheral blood?

A. Panmyelosis
B. Pancytosis
C. Pancytopenia
D. Panhyperplasia
B. Pancytosis
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) Staining performed on a patient gives the following result:

10(0), 48(+1), 38(+2), 3(3+), 1(4+)
Calculate the LAP score

A. 100
B. 117
C. 137
D. 252
C. 137
CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which of the following?
A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP
B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP
C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC
D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC
A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP
Which of the following occurs in idiopathic myelofibrosis (IMF)?

A. Myeloid metaplasia
B. Leukoerythroblastosis
C. Fibrosis of bone marrow
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What influence does the philadelphia chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with CML?

A. It is not predictive
B. The prognosis is better if it is present.
C. The prognosis is worse if it is present
D. The disease usually transforms into AML if it is present.
B. The prognosis is better if it is present.
which of the following is ( are) commonly found in CML

A. Many tear-drop shaped cells
B. Intense LAP staining
C. A decrease in granulocytes
D. An increase in basophils
B. Intense LAP staining
In which of the following conditions does LAP show the least activity?

A. Leukomoid reaction
B. IMF
C. PV
D. CML
D. CML
A striking feature of the peripheral blood of a patient with CML is

A. Profusion of bizarre blast cells
B. Normal number of typical granulocytes
C. Presence of granulocyutes at different stages of development
D. Pancytopenia
C. Presence of granulocyutes at different stages of development
Which of the following is often associated with CML but not with AML

A. Infections
B. WBCs greater than 20.0 x 10^9/L
C. Hemorrhage
D. Splenomegaly
D. Splenomegaly
Multiple myeloma and waldenstroms macroglobulinemia have all of the following in common except:

A. Monoclonal gammopathy
B. Hyperviscosity of blood
C. Bence-jones protein in urine
D. Osteolytic lesions.
D. Osteolytic lesions.
What is the characteristic finding seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient with multiple myeloma.

A. Microcytic hypochromic cells
B. Intracellular inclusion bodies
C. Rouleaux
D. Hypersegmented Neutrophils
C. Rouleaux
All of the following are associated with the diagnosis of mulitple myeloma except:

A. Marrow plasmacytosis
B. Lytic Bone lesions
C. Serum and/or urine M component
D. Philedelphia chromosome.
D. Philedelphia chromosome.
Multiple myeloma is most difficult to distinguish from:

A. CLL
B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy
D. Benign Adenoma
C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy
The pathology of multiple myeloma includes which of the following?

A. Expanding plasma cell mass
B. Overproduction of monoclonal Immunoglobulins
C. Production of osteoclast activating factor (OAF) and other cytokines
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia is a malignancy of the:

A. Lymphoplasmacytoid cells.
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Myeloblastic cell lines
D. Erythroid cell precusors
A. Lymphoplasmacytoid cells.
Cells that exhibit positive staining with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited by tartaric acid are characteristically seen in.

A. Infectious mono
B. Infectious lymphocytosis
C. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
D. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
The JAK2 ( V617F0 mutation) may be positive in all of the following chronic myeloproliferative disorders except:

A. ET
B. IMF
C. PV
D. CML
D. CML
All of the following are major criteria for the 2008 WHO diagnostic criteria for ET except:

A. PLT count 450 x 10^9/L or greater
B. Megakaryocyte proliferation with large and mature morphology and no or little granulocyte or erythroid proliferation
C. Demonstration of JAK2(V617f) or other clonal markers
D. Evidence of clonality
D. Evidence of clonality
A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department with severe joint pain, fatigue, cough, and fever. Review the following lab results:

WBC: 21.0 X10^9/L, RBC: 3.23 x10^12/L, Hgb: 9.6 g/dl, PLT: 252 x 10^9/L

Differential: 17 bands, 75 pmns, 5 lymphs, 2 monos, 1 eos, 26 Nrbcs

What is the corrected WBC count
A. 8.1 x 10^9/L
B. 16.7 x 10^9/L
C. 21.0 x 10^9 /L
D. 80.8 x 10^9/L
B. 16.7 x 10^9/L

Corrected WBC = total WBC X 100 / ( wbc counted ( usually 100) + number of nrbcs)
A manual WBC count is performed. Eighty WBCs are counted in the four large courner squares of a neubauer hemocytometer. The dilution is 1:100. What is the total WBC Count?

A. 4.0 * 10^9/L
B. 8.0 * 10^9/L
C. 20.0 * 10^9/L
D. 200.0 * 10^9/L
C. 20.0 * 10^9/L
A manual RBC count is performed on pleural fluid. The RBC count in the large center square of the neubauer hemacytometer is 125 and the dilution is 1:200. What is the total RBC count

A. 27.8 * 10^9/L
B. 62.5 * 10^9/L
C. 125.0 * 10^9/L
D. 250.0 * 10^9/L
D. 250.0 * 10^9/L
Review the scatterplot of the WBCs shown. which section of the scatterplot denotes the number of monocytes.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A. A
Review the following automated CBC Values

WBC: 17.5 * 10^9/L ( flagged), RBC: 2.89 x 10^12/L, Hgb: 8.1 g/dl, Hct: 25.2%.

MCV: 86.8 fL, MCH: 28.0 pg, MCHC= 32.3%, PLT: 217 x 10^9/L
Many sickle cells were observed on review of the peripheral blood smear. On the basis of this finding and the patient is most likely inaccurate, and what follow-up test should be done to accuractely assess this parameter?

A. MCV/Perform retic count
B. Hct/Perform manual Hct
C. WBC/ Perform manual WBC count
D. Hgb/ perform serum-saline experiment
C. WBC/ Perform manual WBC count
Review the following

WBC: 15.2 * 10^9/L , RBC: 5.30 x 10^12/L, Hgb: 18.5 g/dl, Hct: 57.9%.

MCV: 105 fL, MCH: 34.0 pg, MCHC= 33.5%, PLT: 213 x 10^9/L

These results indicate

A. Macrocytic Anemia
B. Microcytic Anemia
C. Liver Disease
D. Normal values for a 2 day old infant
D. Normal values for a 2 day old infant
Review the following scatter plots, histograms, and automated values for a 21-year-old college student.

What is the presumptive diagnosis?

A. Infectious mono
B. Mononucleosis
C. CLL
D. Beta-thalassemia
A. Infectious mono
Review the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 61 year old woman.

What is the presumptive diagnosis
A. Leukomoid reaction
B. CML
C. AML
D. Megaloblastic leukemia
B. CML
Review the automated results , which parameters can be released without further follow-up verification?

A. WBC and relative percentages of WBC population
B. RBC and PLTs
C. HgB and Hct
D. None of the automated counts can be released without follow-up verification.
D. None of the automated counts can be released without follow-up verification.
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 45-year-old man. What follow-up verification procedure is indicated before these results can be released?

A. Redraw blood sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply plts by 1.11
B. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply by 10
C. Perform plasma blank Hgb to correct for lipemia
D. War specimen at 37 degrees C for 15 mins; then rerun specimen
A. Redraw blood sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply PLTsby 1.11
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 52-year-old Woman. What follow-up verification procedure is indicated before these results can be released?

A. Redraw blood sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply plts by 1.11
B. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply by 10
C. Perform plasma blank Hgb to correct for lipemia
D. War specimen at 37 degrees C for 15 mins; then rerun specimen
D. War specimen at 37 degrees C for 15 mins; then rerun specimen
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 33-year-old Woman. What follow-up verification procedure is indicated before these results can be released?

A. Redraw blood sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply plts by 1.11
B. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply by 10
C. Perform plasma blank Hgb to correct for lipemia
D. War specimen at 37 degrees C for 15 mins; then rerun specimen
C. Perform plasma blank Hgb to correct for lipemia
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 48-year-old Woman. What follow-up verification procedure is indicated before the five-part WBC differential results can be released?

A. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply x 10
B. Redraw the sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply WBC x 1.11
C. Prepare buffy coat peripheral blood smears, and perform a manual differential
D. Warm speciman at 37 degrees C for 15 mins, rerun specimen
C. Prepare buffy coat peripheral blood smears, and perform a manual differential.
Review the following CBC results from a 70 year old man.

WBC: 58.2 * 10^9/L , RBC: 2.68 x 10^12/L, Hgb: 8.5 g/dl, Hct: 26.5%.

MCV: 98 fL, MCH: 31.7 pg, MCHC= 32.6%, PLT: 132 x 10^9/L

Differential: 96 lymphs, 2 bands, 2 segs, 25 smudge cells/100 WBCs.

What is the most likely diagnosis on the basis of these values?

A. ALL
B. CLL.
C. Infectious mono
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
B. CLL
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 28-year-old woman who had undergone preoperative laboratory testing. A manual WBC differential was requested by her physician. The WBC differential was not significantly different from the automated five-part differential; however, the medical lab scientists noted 3+ elliptocytes/ovalocytes while reviewing the RBC morphology. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

A. DIC
B. HE ( ovalocytosis)
C. Cirrhosis
D. Hgb C disease
B. HE ( ovalocytosis)
A 25-year-old woman presented with symptoms of jaundice, acute cholecystitis and an enlarged spleen. On investigation, numerous gallstones were discovered. Review the following CBC results

WBC: 11.1 * 10^9/L , RBC: 3.33 x 10^12/L, Hgb: 11.5 g/dl, Hct: 31.6%.

MCV: 100 fL, MCH: 34.5 pg, MCHC= 37.5%, PLT: 448 x 10^9/L

Differential: 15 lymphs, 13 bands, 65 segs, 6 monos, 1 eos
RBC morph: 3+ spherocytes, 1+ polychromasia.

What follow-up lab test would provide valuable information for this patient?

A. Osmotic fragility test
B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. G6PD assay
D. Methemoglobin reduction test
A. Osmotic fragility test
Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values for a 53-year-old man who had undergone preoperative lab testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

A. IDA
B. PV
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Beta-Thalassemia minor
D. Beta-Thalassemia minor
A 25-year-old woman presented with symptoms of jaundice, acute cholecystitis and an enlarged spleen. On investigation, numerous gallstones were discovered. Review the following CBC results

WBC: 11.0 * 10^9/L , RBC: 3.52 x 10^12/L, Hgb: 10.0 g/dl, Hct: 29.9%.
12 Nrbcs/ 100 WBCs

MCV: 85.0 fL, MCH: 28.4 pg, MCHC= 33.4%, PLT: 155 x 10^9/L


RBC morph: moderate polychromasia, 3+ target cells, few schistocytes

What follow-up lab test would provide valuable information for this patient?

A. Osmotic fragility test
B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. G6PD assay
D. Methemoglobin reduction test
B. Hgb electrophoresis
Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VII

A. Protein C
B. Tissue Factor (TF)
C. Plasmin activator
D. Thrombomodulin (TM)
B. Tissue Factor (TF)
Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in clot formation in vitro, but no in vivo

A. Factor VIIa
B. Factor IIa
C. Factor XIIa
D. Factor Xa
C. Factor XIIa
The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coag studies is

A. Sodium oxalate
B. Sodium citrate
C. Heparin
D. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
Which anticoagulant:blood ratio is correct for coagulation procedures

A. 1:4
B. 1:5
C. 1:9
D. 1:10
...
Which results would be expect for PT and APTT in a patient with polycythemia

A. Both prolonged
B. Both shortened
C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT,
D. Both normal
A. Both prolonged
Which reagents are used in the PT test

A. Thromboplastin and Sodium chloride
B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
C. Thromboplastin and Calcium
D. Actin and Calcium chloride
C. Thromboplastin and Calcium
Which test would be abnormal in a patient with Factor X deficiency

A. Pt only
B. APTT only
C. PT and APTT
D. Thrombin Time (TT)
C. PT and APTT
Which clotting factor is not measured by the PT and APTT tests

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor V
D. Factor XIII
D. Factor XIII
A modififaction of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen

A. PT
B. APTT
C. TT
D. Fibrin degradation products
C. TT
Which of the following characterizes Vitamin K

A. It is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis
B. Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy
C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coag factors
D. It is made by endothelial cells.
C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coag factors
What fragments of fibrin clot degradation are measured by the D-dimer test.

A. Fragments X and Y
B. Fibrinopeptide A and B
C. Fragments D and E
D. The D-D domains
D. The D-D domains
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?

A. Factors: II, VII, IX, X
B. Factors VII, X, V, II, I
C. Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I
D. Factors: XII, VII, X, V, II, I
C. Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

Extrinsic pathway, PT measures intrinsic
Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a patient with vitamin K deficiency?

A. PT only
B. PT and APTT
C. Fibriogen
D. TT
B. PT and APTT
Which of the following is correct regarding the International normalized ratio (INR)

A. It uses the International sensitivity ratio (ISR)
B. It standardizes PT results
C. It standardizes APTT results
D. It is used to monitor heparin therapy
B. It standardizes PT results
Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activactor of plasminogen

A. Streptokinase
B. Transamidase
C Tissue Plasminogen activator (tPA)
D. TPA inhibitor
C. Tissue Plasminogen activator (tPA)
Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system?

A. Protein C
B. Protein S
C. Alpha-2- Antiplasmin
D. Alpha-2- macroglobulin
C. Alpha-2- Antiplasmin
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the D-dimer test?

A. Levels are decreased in DIC
B. Test detects polypeptides A and B
C. Test detects fragments D and E
D. Test has a negative predictive value.
D. Test has a negative predictive value.
A Protein that plays a role in both coagulation and PLT agglutination is

A. Factor I
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI
A. Factor I

Fibrinogen
A standard 4.6 ml blue top tube filled with 3.0 mls of blood was submitted to the lab for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy which of the following is neccessary course of action by the med lab scientist?

A. Run both tests in duplicate and report average result
B. Reject sample and request a new sample
C. Report the PT result.
D. Report the APTT result
B. Reject sample and request a new sample

Tube should be 90% full for correct blood to anticoag distribution.
Which statement is correct regarding sample storage for the PT test?

A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped.
B. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is refrigerated at 4C
C. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at 4C
D. Should run within 8 hrs
A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped.
In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to

A. Increased fibrin formation
B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
C. Increased fibrin monomers
D. DIC
B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
Plasminogen deficiency is associated with

A. Bleeding
B. Thrombosis
C. Increased fibrinolysis
D. Increased Coagulation
B. Thrombosis
Which of the following clottin factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIIa)?

A. Factors XII, XI
B. Factors XII, I
C. Factors I, II
D. Factors V, VIII
D. Factors V, VIII
Which substrate is used in chromogenic factor assay?

A. p- nitroaniline (pNa)
B. Chlorophenol Red
C. Prussian Blue
D. Ferricyanide
A. p- nitroaniline (pNa)
Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-Dimer assay

A. Polyclonal AB directed against X and Y fragments
B. Polyclonal antibody directed against D-DImer
C. Monoclonal antibody against D and E fragments
D. Monoclonal antibody against D-dimer
D. Monoclonal antibody against D-dimer
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