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Whenever a company owns over 50% of another company, it is required to report the financial performance of the other company as part of its own performance.
So even though it doesn't own 100%, it reports 100% of the majority-owned subsidiary's financial performance.
In keeping with the "apples-to-apples" theme, you must add Minority Interest to get to Enterprise Value so that your numerator and denominator both reflect 100% of the majority-owned subsidiary.
So even though it doesn't own 100%, it reports 100% of the majority-owned subsidiary's financial performance.
In keeping with the "apples-to-apples" theme, you must add Minority Interest to get to Enterprise Value so that your numerator and denominator both reflect 100% of the majority-owned subsidiary.
Its basic equity value is $1,000 (100 * $10 = $1,000). To calculate the dilutive effect of the options, first you note that the options are all "in-the-money" -- their exercise price is less than the current share price.
When these options are exercised, there will be 10 new shares created -- so the share count is now 110 rather than 100.
However, that doesn't tell the whole story. In order to exercise the options, we had to "pay" the company $5 for each option (the exercise price).
As a result, it now has $50 inn additional cash, which it now uses to buy back 5 of the new shares we created.
So the fully diluted share count is 105, and the fully diluted equity value is $1,050.
When these options are exercised, there will be 10 new shares created -- so the share count is now 110 rather than 100.
However, that doesn't tell the whole story. In order to exercise the options, we had to "pay" the company $5 for each option (the exercise price).
As a result, it now has $50 inn additional cash, which it now uses to buy back 5 of the new shares we created.
So the fully diluted share count is 105, and the fully diluted equity value is $1,050.
The "official" reason: Cash is subtracted because it's considered a non-operating asset and because Equity Value implicitly accounts for it.
Another way to think about it: In an acquisition, the buyer would "get" the cash of the seller, so it effectively pays less for the company based on how large its cash balance is. Remember, Enterprise Value tells us how much you'd really have to "pay" to acquire another company.
It's not always accurate because technically you should be subtracting only EXCESS cash - the amount of cash a company has above the minimum cash it requires to operate.
Another way to think about it: In an acquisition, the buyer would "get" the cash of the seller, so it effectively pays less for the company based on how large its cash balance is. Remember, Enterprise Value tells us how much you'd really have to "pay" to acquire another company.
It's not always accurate because technically you should be subtracting only EXCESS cash - the amount of cash a company has above the minimum cash it requires to operate.
In most cases, yes, because the terms of a debt agreement usually say that debt must be refinanced in an acquisition. And in most cases a buyer will pay off a seller's debt, so it is accurate to say that any debt "adds" to the purchase price.
However, there could always be exceptions where the buyer does NOT pay off the debt. These are rare, but "never say never" applies.
However, there could always be exceptions where the buyer does NOT pay off the debt. These are rare, but "never say never" applies.
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