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Networking Chap 9-15

Terms in this set (390)

Match each wireless signaling method on the left with its definition on the right. (Not all of the signaling methods match a definition.)

Uses a narrow frequency band and hops data signals in a predictable sequence.: FHSS
Breaks data into pieces and sends the pieces across multiple frequencies in a defined range.: DSSS
Breaks data into very small data streams in order to send the information across long distances.: OFDM

An access point that conforms to the IEEE 802.11ac standard handles network traffic similarly to which other networking device?

Hub

All of the 802.11 standards for wireless networking support which type of communication path sharing technology?

CSMA/CA

Which IEEE standard describes wireless communication?

802.11

You are designing a wireless network for a client. Your client would like to implement the highest speed possible.
Which 802.11 standard will work best in this situation?

802.11ac

A user on your network has moved to another office down the hall. After the move, she calls you to complain that she has only occasional network access through her wireless connection. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?

The client system has moved too far away from the access point.

Which of the following is true of a wireless network SSID?

Groups wireless devices together into the same logical network.

Which wireless networking component is used to connect multiple APs together?

Which of the following allows devices to find a specific access point within an extended service set that has multiple access points?

BSSID

Which of the following is the backbone or local area network that connects multiple access points (and basic service sets) together?

Which IEEE wireless standards specify transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps? (Select two.)

1. 802.11g
2. 802.11a

You have been contacted by OsCorp to recommend a wireless internet solution. The wireless strategy must support a frequency range of 5 GHz and provide the highest possible transmission speeds.
Which of the following wireless solutions would you recommend?

802.11ac

Which of the following are frequencies defined by 802.11 committees for wireless networking? (Select two.)

1. 2.4 GHz
2. 5.75 GHz

Your organization uses an 802.11b wireless network. Recently, other tenants installed the following equipment in your building:

A wireless television distribution system running at 2.4 GHz.
A wireless phone system running at 5.8 GHz.
A wireless phone system running at 900 MHz.
An 802.11a wireless network running in the 5.725 - 5.850 GHz frequency range.
An 802.11j wireless network running in the 4.9 - 5.0 GHz frequency range.

Since this equipment was installed, your wireless network has been experiencing significant interference. Which system is to blame?

The wireless TV system

How many total channels are available for 802.11a wireless networks?

Which technologies are used by the 802.11ac standard to increase network bandwidth? (Select two.)

1. 160 MHz bonded channels
2. Eight MIMO radio streams

You are troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue in a small office. You determine that the 2.4GHz cordless phones used in the office are interfering with the wireless network transmissions.

If the cordless phones are causing the interference, which of the following wireless standards could the network be using? (Select two.)

1. 802.11b
2. Bluetooth

Infrared operates in which of the following modes? (Select two.)

1. Diffuse
2. Line of sight

What is Channel bonding?

Combines two non-overlapping channels into a single channel, resulting in slightly more than double the bandwidth.

Which of the following modes are used for Near Field Communications? (Select three.)

1. Card Emulation
2. Reader/writer
3. Peer-to-peer

You have a small wireless network that uses multiple access points. The network uses WPA and broadcasts the SSID. WPA2 is not supported by the wireless access points.

You want to connect a laptop computer to the wireless network. Which of the following parameters will you need to configure on the laptop? (Select two.)

1. TKIP encryption
2. Preshared key

You are an administrator of a growing network. The network you have created is broadcasting, but you cannot ping systems on different segments of your network. Which device should you use to fix this issue?

Network bridge

You are configuring a wireless network with two wireless access points. Both access points connect to the same wired network. You want wireless users to be able to connect to either access point and have the ability to roam between the two access points.
How should you configure the access points?

Same SSID, same channel

You have configured a wireless access point to create a small network. You have configured all necessary parameters.
Wireless clients seem to take a long time to find the wireless access point. You want to reduce the time it takes for the clients to connect.
What should you do?

Decrease the beacon interval.

You have configured a wireless access point to create a small network. For security, you have disabled SSID broadcast.
From a client computer, you try to browse to find the access point. You see some other wireless networks in the area, but you cannot see your network.
What should you do?

Configure a profile on the wireless client.

You are designing an update to your client's wireless network. The existing wireless network uses 802.11b equipment, which your client complains runs too slowly. She wants to upgrade the network to run up to 600 Mbps.
Due to budget constraints, your client wants to upgrade only the wireless access points in the network this year. Next year, she will upgrade the wireless network boards in her users' workstations. She has also indicated that the system must continue to function during the transition period.
Which 802.11 standard will work best in this situation?

802.11n

You are an IT technician for your company. Your boss has asked you to set up and configure a wireless network to service all of the conference rooms.
Which of the following features lets you allow or reject client connections by hardware address?

MAC address filtering

Which of the following wireless network protection methods prevents the broadcasting of the wireless network name?

SSID broadcast

Which of the following is considered the strongest encryption method?

AES

Which of the following are features of Hotspot 2.0? (Select two.)

1. Uses WPA2 Enterprise for authentication and encryption.
2. Is enabled by default on Windows 10.

You are setting up a wireless hotspot in a local coffee shop. For best results, you want to disperse the radio signals evenly throughout the coffee shop.
Which of the following antenna types would you use on the AP to provide a 360-degree dispersed wave pattern?

Omni-directional

Your wireless network consists of multiple 802.11n access points that are configured as follows:
SSID (hidden): CorpNet
Security: WPA2-PSK using AES
Frequency: 5.7 GHz
Bandwidth per channel: 20 MHz
This network is required to support an ever-increasing number of devices. To ensure there is sufficient capacity, you want to maximize the available network bandwidth.
What should you do?

Double the bandwidth assigned per channel to 40 MHz.

To optimize your network, you want to configure your wireless AP to use a channel that meets the following criteria:
Non-overlapping
Low utilization
Low interference
You performed a spectrum analysis to identify 2.4 GHz wireless channel utilization, as shown in the exhibit. (To read the spectrum analysis, imagine a line coming down from the center of the highest point of each wave. For example, the four waves whose crests are over channel 11 belong to channel 11.)
Based on the results, which channel should you configure your wireless AP to use?

Channel 1

What purposes does a wireless site survey fulfill? (Select two.)

1. Identify existing or potential sources of interference.
2. Identify the coverage area and preferred placement of access points.

You need to implement a wireless network link between two buildings on a college campus. A wired network has already been implemented within each building. The buildings are 100 meters apart.
Which type of wireless antennae should you use on each side of the link? (Select two.)

1. High-gain
2. Directional

Which protocol is well known for its use in the the home security and home automation industry, uses a mesh topology, makes devices act as repeaters, and has a low data transfer rate?

Z-Wave

What is the least secure place to locate an access point with an omni-directional antenna when creating a wireless cell?

Near a window

Which of the following best describes a site survey?

A process of planning and designing a wireless networ

Which of the following best describe a spectrum analyzer?

A tool used to determine the noise floor in the desired frequency range.

Which of the following should you include in your site survey test equipment? ( Select two.)

1. A spectrum analyzer
2. A tall ladder

Match each wireless networking term or concept on the left with the appropriate description on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Moving a wireless device between access points within the same wireless network.: Roaming
Used by Cisco wireless equipment to route frames back and forth between the wireless network and the wired LAN.: LWAPP
Specifies the number of clients that utilize the wireless network.: Device density
Automatically partitions a single broadcast domain into multiple VLANs: VLAN pooling
Connects two wired networks over a Wi-Fi network.: Wireless bridge
The number of useful bits delivered from sender to receiver within a specified amount of time.: Goodput

Which of the following enterprise wireless deployment models uses access points with enough intelligence to allow the creation of guest WLANs for keeping public wireless traffic separate from private traffic?

Distributed wireless mesh infrastructure

Which enterprise deployment has limited mobility and is difficult to manage?

Independent access points

What is a lightweight access point used for?

To route frames between the wireless and wired networks.

As the user moves out of the range of one access point, their wireless device must re-associate with a new access point as it comes within range. What is this process known as?

Roaming

You need to add security for your wireless network. You would like to use the most secure method.
Which method should you implement?

WPA2

Match each type of access point on the left with the wireless network architecture where it is commonly used on the right. Each type of access point may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Independent access point infrastructure: Intelligent AP
Hub-and-spoke infrastructure: Lightweight AP
Distributed wireless mesh infrastructure: Intelligent AP

To enable roaming, network administrators have to configure all access points in the network to comply with which of the following criteria? (Select three.)

1. To have the same SSID.
2. To function on the same IP subnet.
3. To use the same channel.

Which of the following best describes a hub-and-spoke infrastructure deployment model?

A wireless controller is connected to all access points through wired links. The individual APs contain very little embedded intelligence and are sometimes referred to as lightweight access points (LWAPs).

For home or small business implementations, you typically use a consumer-grade access point that combines many functions into a single device. What is the maximum number of clients that can be supported at a time?

5-10 wireless clients

A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router.
Which of the following is the first thing the technician should do to secure the router?

Change the router's default password.

A technician is installing a SOHO router at an after-school community center. The customer would like to keep children from accessing inappropriate content while browsing the web.
Which of the following actions would help accomplish this goal?

Enable content filtering

A technician receives notification from a SOHO router manufacturer of a specific vulnerability that allows attackers to exploit SNMP traps to take over the router. The technician verifies the settings outlined in the notification.
Which of the following actions should the technician take next?

Check for and apply firmware updates.

A SOHO customer finds that their VoIP conversations frequently break up and become unintelligible. This happens most often when one person in the office streams video from the internet.
Which of the following configuration changes on the SOHO router is most likely to improve VoIP performance?

Change QoS settings to give VoIP traffic more priority.

A technician is replacing a SOHO router and has configured DHCP to assign private IP addresses to hosts on the local network. These hosts can communicate with each other, but users can't browse the internet.
Which of the following changes to the SOHO router is most likely to restore internet connectivity?

Configure the SOHO router for NAT.

Which of the following locations will contribute the greatest amount of interference for a wireless access point? (Select two.)

1. Near backup generators
2. Near cordless phones

A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router in a home office. The customer wants to secure the wireless network so only a smartphone, tablet, and laptop can connect.
Which of the following router settings should the technician change?

Enable MAC filtering

Which of the following is used on a wireless network to identify the network name?

SSID

Which of the following is true when the DHCP setting is disabled in a wireless network?

Wireless clients must use a static IP address within the correct IP address range to connect to the network.

Match each wireless device on the left with its corresponding characteristics on the right. Each device may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Manages all of the APs that are connected to it.: Wireless controller
Supports 30 to 50 wireless clients per access point.: Wireless controller
Provides NAT routing and an Ethernet switch in one device.: Consumer-grade (SOHO) wireless router
Supports a maximum of 5-10 wireless clients.: Consumer-grade (SOHO) wireless router
Pushes wireless configuration settings to connected access points.: Wireless controller

Which of the following wireless security methods uses a common shared key configured on the wireless access point and all wireless clients?

WEP, WPA Personal, and WPA2 Personal

You want to implement 802.1x authentication on your wireless network. Which of the following will be required?

RADIUS

You need to configure a wireless network. You want to use WPA2 Enterprise. Which of the following components will be part of your design? (Select two.)

1. AES encryption
2. 802.1x

Which of the following specifications identifies security that can be added to wireless networks? (Select two.)

1. 802.11i
2. 802.1x

You want to connect your client computer to a wireless access point that is connected to your wired network at work. The network administrator tells you that the access point is configured to use WPA2 Personal with the strongest encryption method possible. SSID broadcast is turned off.
Which of the following must you configure manually on the client? (Select three.)

1. Preshared key
2. SSID
3. AES

You are the wireless network administrator for your organization. As the size of the organization has grown, you've decided to upgrade your wireless network to use 802.1x authentication instead of using preshared keys.
To do this, you need to configure a RADIUS server and RADIUS clients. You want the server and the clients to mutually authenticate with each other.
What should you do? (Select two. Each response is a part of the complete solution.)

1. Configure all wireless access points with client certificates.
2. Configure the RADIUS server with a server certificate.

You are concerned that wireless access points may have been deployed within your organization without authorization.
What should you do? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.)

1. Check the MAC addresses of devices connected to your wired switch.
2. Conduct a site survey.

An attacker is trying to compromise a wireless network that has been secured using WPA2-PSK and AES. She first tried using AirSnort to capture packets, but found that she couldn't break the encryption.
As an alternative, she used software to configure her laptop to function as an access point. She configured the fake access point with the same SSID as the wireless network she is trying to break into. When wireless clients connect to her access point, she presents them with a web page that asks them to enter the WPA2 passphrase. When they do, she uses the password to connect a wireless client to the real access point.
Which attack techniques did the attacker use in this scenario? (Select two.)

1. Pharming
2. Evil twin

Your company security policy states that wireless networks are not to be used because of the potential security risk they present to your network.
One day, you find that an employee has connected a wireless access point to the network in his office.
What type of security risk is this?

Rogue access point

Which of the following measures makes your wireless network invisible to the casual attacker performing war driving?

Disable SSID broadcast.

You need to place a wireless access point in your two-story building. While trying to avoid interference, which of the following is the best location for the access point?

On the top floor

You have physically added a wireless access point to your network and installed a wireless networking card in two laptops running Windows. Neither laptop can find the network, and you have concluded that you must manually configure the wireless access point (AP).
Which of the following values uniquely identifies the network AP?

SSID

Your wireless network consists of multiple 802.11n access points that are configured as follows:
SSID (hidden): CorpNet
Security: WPA2-PSK using AES
Frequency: 5.75 GHz
Bandwidth per channel: 40 MHz
Because of the unique construction of your organization's facility, there are many locations that do not have a clear line of sight between network clients and access points. As a result, radio signals are reflected along multiple paths before finally being received. The result is distorted signals that interfere with each other.
What should you do?

Implement antenna diversity.

You are implementing a wireless network inside a local office. You require a wireless link to connect a laptop in the administrator's office directly to a system in the sales department. In the default configuration, the wireless AP uses a 360-dispersed RF wave design. After installation, the signal between the two systems is weak, as many obstacles interfere with the signal.
Which of the following strategies could you try to increase signal strength?

Replace the omni-directional antenna with a directional antenna.

While configuring a new 802.11g wireless network, you discover another wireless network within range that uses the same channel ID that you intend to use. Which of the following strategies are you most likely to adopt in order to avoid a conflict between the networks?

Use a different channel ID.

You have been hired to troubleshoot a wireless connectivity issue for two separate networks located within a close proximity. Both networks use a WAP from the same manufacturer, and all settings remain configured to the default with the exception of SSIDs.
Which of the following might you suspect as the cause of the connectivity problems?

Overlapping channels.

Which of the following recommendations should you follow when placing access points to provide wireless access for users within your company building?

Place access points above where most clients are.

A user calls to report that she is experiencing intermittent problems while accessing the wireless network from her laptop computer. While talking to her, you discover that she is trying to work from the coffee room two floors above the floor where she normally works.
What is the most likely cause of her connectivity problem?

The user is out of the effective range of the wireless access point on her floor.

After installing a new 2.4Ghz cordless phone system in your office, you notice that wireless network performance is adversely affected. Which of the following wireless networking standards are you most likely using? (Select two.)

1. 802.11g
2. 802.11b

You have decided to conduct a business meeting at a local coffee shop. The coffee shop you chose has a wireless hotspot for customers who want internet access.
You decide to check your email before the meeting begins. When you open the browser, you cannot gain internet access. Other customers are using the internet without problems. You are sure your laptop's wireless adapter works because you use a wireless connection at work.
What is the likely cause of the problem?

A mismatched SSID.

When implementing a Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) WAN, which data unit is managed by the routers at different sites?

Packets

Which of the following is true of Multiprotocol Label Switching? (Select two.)

1. MPLS can carry ATM, SONET, and Ethernet traffic.
2. CEF is required for all MPLS-enabled Cisco routers.

Which VSAT component provides data transmission capabilities over a satellite link?

Block Upconverter (BUC)

Which of the following describe the channels and data transfer rates used for ISDN BRI? (Select two.)

1. Two channels operating at 64 Kbps each
2. One channel operating at 16 Kbps

Which of the following services are available regardless of whether the telephone company network is available?

Cable modem

Which WAN connection types use digital communications over POTS? (Select two.)

1. ISDN
2. DSL

Match each WAN topology to its description. Each topology will only be used once.

Connects multiple network locations to each other via WAN links. Each location has a direct link to all other locations.: Full mesh
Connects multiple remote networks via WAN links. One site is the main location.: Hub and spoke
A single, pre-established path from one network location, through a carrier network, and to a remote network location.: Point-to-point
Provides two separate physical connects to a single ISP.: Dual-homed
A network connected to an ISP using a single line.: Single-homed

Which switching network type allows data connections that can be initiated when needed and terminated when communication is complete?

Circuit

Which of the following is an example of a public WAN?

Cable internet

Which cellular network type can, theoretically, provide speeds up to 10Gbps?

Which is the default Layer 2 encapsulation method for serial interfaces on a Cisco router?

HDLC

Drag each leased line component on the left with its corresponding description on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Connects the WIC in the router to the telecom equipment.: Serial cable
Controls the speed and timing of the router's serial interfaces.: CSU/DSU
Provides the clocking function on the link.: CSU/DSU
The equipment at the customer site.: CPE
Provides a Layer 1 interface between the router and the telecom provider's equipment.: CSU/DSU

Which of the following is true regarding WAN leased lines?

1. The speed is symmetric.
2. Each router runs in full-duplex.

What is the removable card that contains the serial interface on a router called?

WIC

Which of the following is a type of line supported by a leased line?

1. T3
2. T1

You are configuring a serial connection and need to configure the DCE to provide a clocking signal.
Given that you have leased a 128 Kbps line from the WAN service provider, which command should you use to accomplish this task?

clock rate 128000

You are troubleshooting problems with a serial interface on a router that is connected to a leased line WAN interface.
You need to view the type of serial cable that has been used on the s0/0/1 interface and which end of the cable is connected to the DCE or DTE.
Which command should you use to do this?

sh controllers s0/0/1

You need to assign an interface on the router with the IP address 192.168.1.250 and subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
Which command will accomplish this task?

ip address 192.168.1.250 255.255.255.0

What is the router that provides clocking when connecting two routers in a back-to-back configuration through their serial ports called?

DCE

Which command will allow you to see a consolidated message about each IP interface?

sh ip int brief

Which of the following is a benefit of using network address translation (NAT)?

NAT provides a measure of network security.

You have a small network as shown. Router2 is connected to the internet through a fiber optic FastEthernet connection and will be configured with NAT to provide internet connectivity to your private network.
What type of address would you assign to the Fa0/1 interface on Router2?

Outside global

You are designing a new network that will support 6,000 computers. You only have eight registered IP addresses that can be allocated to the employees for external network communication, so you decide to implement NAT and share the addresses. You want all of these computers to be able to access the internet at the same time if necessary.
Which method of NAT translation should you implement?

Overloading

You have a small network connected to the internet as shown.
Which of the following statements is true? (Select two.)

1. Internet hosts can reach Srv2 without NAT.
2. The router must be configured for NAT for Srv1 to communicate on the internet.

You have a small business network with a single subnet connected to the internet through a Cisco router (RouterA). IP addresses are assigned as shown.
A browser session on the workstation tries to connect to the www.westsim.com web server.
What IP address and port number will the web server use as the destination address when responding to the workstation's request?

IP address 199.67.111.89 and a dynamic port assigned by RouterA

You have a small business network with a single subnet connected to the internet. Your ISP has assigned your router an IP address of 199.211.77.5 for its serial interface. You have chosen to use a network address of 172.15.1.0/24 on your private network.
You use the SDM interface to configure basic NAT on the router with a single default route to the ISP. What is the most likely result of this configuration?

Your network has internet connectivity, but some websites might be unreachable.

You have an office network connected to the internet as shown. The network has three subnets, all with client computers.
The Web1 server on Subnet1 hosts a small website used for traveling employees. Employees must be able to contact the web server from the internet. All other hosts on the private network need to have full internet connectivity for browsing the web and sending email.
On which routers should you configure NAT?

RouterC

You are the network administrator for a company that has a small block of registered IP addresses ranging from 24.1.2.32 to 24.1.2.47. You want to assign these addresses to a dynamic pool in NAT. Which command should you use?

ip nat pool net-1 24.1.2.32 24.1.2.47

You want to configure static NAT so that packets from host 192.168.2.100 will always be assigned the registered IP address 24.1.2.11 as shown. Match the missing lines with the required commands.

Router(config)#: ip nat inside source static 192.168.2.100 24.1.2.11
Router(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router(config-if)#: ip nat inside
Router(config-if)# interface serial 0
Router(config-if)#: ip nat outside

You want to configure NAT so that packets from all hosts on network 192.168.2.0 will share the registered IP address 24.1.2.8 as shown. You have already identified the inside and outside NAT interfaces on the router. Which of the following command options will translate all inside host addresses to the single registered IP address?

access-list 1 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0 overload

What is the first step when troubleshooting a serial link?

Isolate the fault domain

Which tool can be used to verify Network layer connectivity?

Ping

A failed ping or traceroute test might indicate a problem on which layers? (Select three.)

1. Layer 1
2. Layer 2
3. Layer 3

You are troubleshooting connectivity issues. You had a successful ping test, but your Telnet test failed. What does this tell you?

The Network layer has connectivity.

On which layer of the OSI model does routing occur?

Network

Which of the following would cause a TCP/IP connectivity issue between two routers?

Both routers have an IP address of 192.168.1.100.

Which of the following commands will show you the most information about each interface?

show interfaces

You need to view the type of serial cable that has been used on the s0/0/1 interface and which end of the cable is connected to the DCE or DTE.
Which command should you use to do this?

show controllers s0/0/1

A connection or communication problem on the Data Link Layer could be indicated by which interface status?

Line Status up and Protocol Status down

There is a connection or communication problem, such as:
No clock rate provided by the DCE device.
Mismatched encapsulation.
Incorrect authentication parameters for PPP.
What would the line and protocol status show?

Line status: Up
Protocol status: Down

Which of the following are reasons to configure VLANs on a switch as opposed to using switches without VLANs? (Select two.)

1. Increased number of broadcast domains
2. Increased security

You have two VLANs connected as shown. How many broadcast domains are in this network?

Which of the following benefits only applies to creating VLANs with switches and not to segmenting the network with regular switches?

You can create multiple broadcast domains.

Which of the following statements describe how VLANs affect broadcast traffic within an internetwork? (Select two.)

1. Devices on the same VLAN have the same subnet address.
2. Broadcast traffic is only transmitted within a VLAN.

Which of the following are true regarding using multiple VLANs on a single switch? (Select two.)

1. The number of collision domains remains the same.
2. The number of broadcast domains increases.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a VLAN ID?

Switches append a VLAN ID to the header of each frame to identify the virtual network to which the frame belongs.

You want to make interface fa0/2 a member of VLAN2 on a Catalyst 2950XL switch. Which commands must you enter? (Select two.)

1. int fastethernet 0/2
2. switchport access vlan 2

You want to show a list of VLANs on your system. Which command would you use?

show vlan brief

Which command would you use to delete a VLAN?

no vlan [1-1005]

Which of the following commands would you use to set the priority value for voice traffic?

switchport priority extend cos [0-7]

Computers A and B are on the same VLAN and are separated by two switches as shown. Computer A sends a frame to Computer B.
Which of the following best describes the composition of the frame as it travels from A to B?

Computer A sends a normal frame. The first switch appends a VLAN ID to the frame. The second switch removes the VLAN ID before forwarding it to Computer B.

What primary advantages does the 802.1Q Trunking Protocol have over ISL? (Select two.)

1. Can be used with a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco devices.
2. Is an IEEE standard.

Which of the following is true concerning the default VLAN and VLAN trunking? (Select two.)

1. With 802.1Q trunking, frames from the default VLAN are not tagged.
2. If the default VLAN on one end of the trunk is different from the default VLAN on the other end, the traffic of the native VLANs on both sides cannot be transmitted correctly on the trunk.

You are implementing a static VLAN trunking configuration on a Catalyst 3550 switch. You would like to keep the switch from tagging packets from VLAN 3 as they leave FastEthernet 0/1. Which command(s) would you use?

Switch(config)#int fa 0/1Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSwitch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 3

Which command disables the trunking configuration on a switch interface?

switchport mode access

You have implemented VLAN trunking on your network. You have two switches that are both configured to use dynamic auto mode. You discover that they are not trunking.
Which of the following trunking configuration options can be used to make these two switches trunk successfully? (Select two.)

1. Manually configure trunking on at least one of the switches.
2. Configure at least one of the switches to use dynamic desirable mode.

Review the image to answer the following question.
You would like to manually configure the trunk status on each port for switch A so that the appropriate type is selected and so that a trunking protocol is not used. Match the command on the left with the correct port on switch A. (Commands on the left can be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Interface Fa0/1: switchport mode access
Interface Fa0/2: switchport mode access
Interface Fa0/3: switchport mode trunk
Interface Fa0/4: switchport mode access

You have entered the following command to enable dynamic trunking configuration:
Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable
If the switch interface is connected to another switch, what will it attempt to do?

Negotiate a link using the desired trunking protocol.

You have two Cisco 2960 switches with 12 FastEthernet ports and 2 GigabitEthernet ports on each switch.
You connect Fa0/1 on SwitchA to Fa0/1 on SwitchB with a crossover cable. A partial configuration for both switches is shown below.

You notice that VLAN traffic for VLAN 2 is not being carried from SwitchA to SwitchB. What should you do?

For Fa0/1 on SwitchA, set the switchport mode to dynamic desirable.

You want to verify that trunking is enabled between the Catalyst 2950XL switch and the Cisco 2600 router. Which command must you enter?

show interface fa0/1 trunk

Which of the following are advantages of using the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in network segmented bridges? (Select two.)

1. STP identifies the most efficient path through a bridged network.
2. STP prevents message loops from forming.

Which problem does the Spanning Tree Protocol prevent?

It prevents message loops from developing when a switch or bridge is connected to the same location more than once.

You have three switches configured as shown.
How could you guarantee that switch C becomes the root bridge?

Configure switch C with a lower priority value.

You have four switches configured as shown.
Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A switch running STP is a backup bridge. What state is it in?

Blocking

You have three switches configured as shown.
For each port, identify the port role and status after spanning tree convergence by matching the port states on the left with the ports on the graphic. (Port states on the left can be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

A Gi0/1: Root and Forwarding
A Gi0/2: Designated and Forwarding
B Gi0/1: Root and Forwarding
B Gi0/2: Backup and Blocked
C Gi0/1: Designated and Forwarding
C Gi0/2: Designated and Forwarding

STP uses two timers to monitor connections, the hello timer and the max age timer. Which of the following describes the hello timer?

Measures the amount of time between the hello packets sent from the root bridge.

Which advanced Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) feature prevents certain switch ports from connecting to other switches to prevent switching loops and unauthorized connections?

BPDU Guard

What is the effect of using the channel-group 3 mode desirable interface configuration command? (Select two.)

1. The command configures the interface to actively negotiate the EtherChannel for PAgP channel group 3.

2. A channel is formed with another port group interface in either the auto or desirable mode.

You have configured an EtherChannel between two switches. To verify the EtherChannel, you use the show etherchannel summary command and receive the output as shown.
Which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. The EtherChannel is using the 802.3ad standard.
2. GigabitEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 are part of channel group 1.

Which three statements about creating VLANs with Cisco switches are true? (Select three.)

1. All devices connected to the same switch port are on the same VLAN.
2. By default, all Cisco switches run the Spanning Tree Protocol.
3. Each VLAN runs an independent copy of the Spanning Tree Algorithm.

You use PVST+ on your Cisco switches. You'd like to start using rapid spanning tree instead.
Which of the following actions would you take? (Select two.)

1. On each switch, use no spanning-tree uplinkfast.
2. On each switch, configure the mode with the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst command.

You need to configure spanning tree on a Cisco 2960 switch. You'd like to use a Spanning Tree Protocol that uses the 802.1w standards. You'd like to take advantage of fast convergence when the trunk link goes down and fast transition to the forwarding state for edge links.
Which commands will be part of your configuration? (Select two.)

1. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
2. switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

You are verifying the configuration of spanning tree on a switch. You run the show spanning-tree command on switch A and see the following output:
VLAN0001Spanning tree enabled protocol ieeeRoot ID Priority 32768Address 000e.8411.68c0Cost 19Port 26 (GigabitEthernet0/2)Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 secBridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1)Address 0030.1940.8b80Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 secAging Time 300Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type------------ ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------Fa0/5 Altn BLK 19 128.5 P2pGi0/1 Desg FWD 19 128.25 P2pGi0/2 Root FWD 19 128.26 P2p
Why isn't this switch the root bridge?

The VLAN number was added to the configured bridge priority.

You are verifying Spanning Tree configuration on a switch. You run the show spanning-tree command on switch A and see the following output:
VLAN0001Spanning tree enabled protocol ieeeRoot ID Priority 32768Address 0030.1940.8b80Cost 19Port 26 (GigabitEthernet0/2)Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 secBridge ID Priority 61441 (priority 61440 sys-id-ext 1)Address 000e.8411.68c0Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 secAging Time 300
What can you tell from this command output? (Select two.)

1. The MAC address for switch A is 000e.8411.68c0.
2. The root port on switch A is Gi0/2.

You are verifying Spanning Tree configuration on a switch. You run the show spanning-tree command on switch A and see the following output:
VLAN0001
Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID Priority 32768
Address 000e.8411.68c0
Cost 19
Port 26 (GigabitEthernet0/2)
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Bridge ID Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1)
Address 0030.1940.8b80
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Aging Time 300
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
------------ ---- --- --------- -------- -------------------
Fa0/5 Altn BLK 19 128.5 P2p
Gi0/1 Desg FWD 19 128.25 P2p
Gi0/2 Root FWD 19 128.26 P2p
What is Spanning Tree mode for VLAN 1?

Rapid PVST+

You are verifying Spanning Tree configuration on a switch. You run the show spanning-tree command on switch A and see the following output. What is true concerning the role and state of interface Fa0/5 for VLAN 1? (Select two.)

1. If Gi0/2 stops receiving configuration BPDUs, Fa0/5 will transition to the STP root port state.
2. The interface is in the Rapid PVST+ blocking state.

Multiple VLANs exist on a switched internetwork.
How will these VLANs affect the function of the Spanning Tree Protocol?

A separate Spanning Tree exists for each VLAN.

You have just connected four switches as shown.
Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch will become the root bridge?

You have three switches configured as shown.
Which of the following ports listed below are designated ports following STP convergence? (Select two.)

1. Fa0/1 on switch A
2. Fa0/2 on switch A

Use the image to answer this question.
To create separate broadcast domains, you enabled four VLANs on your Catalyst 2950 switch. Then you placed a single host computer in each VLAN. Now the computer in VLAN1 cannot communicate with the computers in the other VLANs.
What must you do to enable communication between VLANs?

Add a router on a stick.

Use the image to answer this question.
A Catalyst 1900 switch with multiple VLANs is connected to a single physical interface on a Cisco 2600 router. The switch is using ISL trunking. You want to permit interVLAN routing between each of the VLANs.
What should you do? (Select two.)

1. Encapsulate ISL on each router subinterface for the VLAN it supports.
2. Configure a subinterface for each VLAN and assign a unique IP network address for each VLAN.

Use the image to answer this question. Your network has four VLANs with multiple computers in each VLAN. You want to enable interVLAN routing.
How must you assign the IP addresses for each VLAN?

All the computers within the same VLAN must belong to the same IP subnet.

You are configuring an 1841 Cisco router for interVLAN communication. You would like to use one physical interface to handle the incoming VLANs 2 and 10. The VLANs are encapsulated with 802.1Q tags.
Which commands would you use to configure the physical interface for VLAN 2? (Select three.)

1. router(config-if)#int fa 0/1.2
2. router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 2
3. router(config-subif)#ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0

You are configuring an 1841 Cisco router for interVLAN communication. You would like to use one physical interface to handle the incoming traffic from VLANs 2 and 10. The switch connected to the router is sending 802.1Q encapsulated traffic for VLAN 2, but is not encapsulating VLAN 10.
Which command would you use to ensure that the router correctly handles traffic coming from the switch?

router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10 native

You are implementing interVLAN routing using a router-on-a-stick configuration as shown.
You configure the router as follows:
A(config)#int fa 0/1A(config-if)#no shutdownA(config-if)#int fa 0/1.1A(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 1 native A(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0A(config-subif)#int fa 0/1.2A(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 2 A(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. The router will not use 802.1Q to encapsulate VLAN 1 traffic.
2. The hosts in VLAN 2 will have 192.168.2.1 as the default gateway IP address.

You are implementing interVLAN routing using a multi-layer switch as shown.
You configure the switch as follows:
A(config)#int vlan 1A(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0A(config-if)#no shutdownA(config-if)#int vlan 2A(config-if)#ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0A(config-if)#no shutdown
Which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. The switch can route between VLAN interfaces 1 and 2 as if the interfaces were physical links.
2. The hosts in VLAN 1 will use 192.168.1.1 as the default gateway IP address.

You are configuring a Catalyst 3550 switch for interVLAN routing. You are adding VLAN 11 to the switch. The VLAN 1 and 2 interfaces already have a configuration on the switch, and now you need to configure the VLAN 11 interface. Which commands would you use?

Switch(config)#int vlan 11Switch(config-if)#ip address 172.16.11.1 255.255.255.0Switch(config-if)#no shut

You have configured interVLAN routing on a Catalyst 3550 switch. Hosts belonging to VLAN 2 cannot contact servers belonging to VLAN 3. To troubleshoot the issue, you enter the show ip route command and receive the output as shown.
Which of the following may be true? (Select two.)

1. The VLAN 2 interface is not enabled with the no shutdown command.
2. VLAN 2 does not have an interface IP address.

You implemented a trunking configuration between two switches. On switch A, you have used the show interface fa 0/1 switchport command and received the output as shown.
If the other switch has default configurations, which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. Traffic from VLAN 5 will not be forwarded from switch A.
2. Both switches in the trunk configuration negotiated 802.1Q as the encapsulation method.

You have a Layer 3 switch that is capable of interVLAN routing. Which process must you complete to allow interVLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch interface?

Configure the interface as a switch virtual interface.

Which of the following statements about Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) characteristics are true? (Select three.)

1. The IP address associated with the SVI is the default gateway of the workstation.
2. An SVI is configured with an IP address and associated with a single VLAN.
3. A Layer 3 switch treats each interface as a physical link through which it can route traffic.

Which of the following is required before you can create an SVI?

A VLAN must be created in the VLAN database.

Which of the following best describes a switch virtual interface (SVI) on a multi-layer switch? (Select two.)

1. A multi-layer switch treats an SVI as a physical link through which it can route traffic.
2. An SVI is most commonly implemented to interconnect the VLANs between distribution and access switches in a multi-switch network.

You want to verify that interface FastEthernet 0/2 is a member of VLAN0002. Which command displays the output shown here?
VLAN Name Status Ports---- --------------------- --------- -------------------------------1 default active Fa0/3, Fa0/4, Fa0/5, Fa0/6,Fa0/7, Fa0/8, Fa0/9, Fa0/10,Fa0/11, Fa0/12, Gi0/1, Gi0/22 VLAN0002 active Fa0/21002 fddi-default active1003 token-ring-default active1004 fddinet-default active1005 trnet-default active...(output suppressed)

show vlan brief

You have implemented a trunking configuration between two switches. On switch A, you used the show interface fa 0/1 trunk command and received the output as shown.
If the other switch has default configurations, which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. Traffic on the native VLAN will not transmit correctly.
2. Traffic from VLAN 5 will not forward from Switch A.

You have implemented a trunking configuration between two switches. On switch A, you have used the show interface fa 0/1 trunk command and received the output as shown.
If the other switch has default configurations, which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. FastEthernet 0/1 is configured to trunk unconditionally.
2. VLAN 3 is not configured on the switch.

You have a Catalyst 2950 switch with three defined VLANs: VLAN 1, VLAN 3, and VLAN 5.
You connect the switch to another switch using the Fa0/1 interface and use the switchport mode trunk command for Fa0/1.
Assuming that the other switch has the default configuration, what will now pass through Fa0/1 on the switch?

Traffic for all VLANs defined on the switch.

You have configured interVLAN routing on a Catalyst 3550 switch. You enter the show run command and receive the output as shown.
Which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. Interface VLAN 2 is enabled with the no shutdown interface configuration command.
2. Traffic sent from VLAN 2 to VLAN 3 will not reach VLAN 3.

You have two configured switches as shown in the diagram. Each switch has hosts from two separate VLANs.
How would you connect the switches so that hosts in VLAN1 on one switch can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on the other switch?

Connect both switches with a crossover cable.

A 5-port hub is attached to interface fa 0/1 on your switch. Users of the workstations attached to the hub are complaining that their pings are erratic.
When you run the show interfaces fa 0/1 command, you receive the following output.
FastEthernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up (connected)Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0019.e744.7401 (bia 0019.e744.7401)MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec,reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not setKeepalive set (10 sec)Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, media type is 10/100BaseTX
What is the problem?

Duplex mismatch

You are troubleshooting Physical layer issues with the Gi0/1 interface in a router. You need to view and analyze the number of collisions detected on the interface.
Which command should you use?

show interfaces gi0/1

You are troubleshooting physical layer issues with the Gi0/1 interface in a router. You suspect that a duplex mismatch error has occurred, and you need to determine the duplex settings configured on the interface.
Which commands could you use? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.)

1. show interfaces gi0/1
2. show interfaces gi0/1 status

Review the output from the show interfaces fa0/1 command on the switch2 switch in the image.
What is wrong with the fa0/1 interface in this example?

A duplex mismatch exists with the device on the other end of the connection.

Consider the network shown.
When you run the show interfaces command on Switch1, you observe a significant number of runts on the Gi0/1 interface.
What does this statistic indicate?

Collisions are occurring.

You are reviewing the output of the show interfaces command for the Gi0/1 interface on a switch.
Which interface statistic displays the number of collisions that occurred after the 64th byte of the frame was transmitted?

Late collisions

You are reviewing the output of the show interfaces command for the Gi0/1 interface on a switch. You notice a significant number of CRC errors displayed.
What are the most likely causes? (Select two.)

1. Collisions are causing frame contents to arrive at this interface in a corrupted state.
2. EMI, or cross-talk, on the UTP cabling is damaging frames in transit to this interface.

Wrk1 is connected to port Fa0/16 on your Cisco 2960 switch. A cable has been plugged in to the port and is connected to a device. The port should be using full-duplex communication at 100 Mbps.
You press the Mode button to select Stat, Duplex, and Speed. The results are:
Stat = Solid green
Duplex = Off
Speed = Solid green
Which command(s) should you use for the interface to configure the appropriate settings?

duplex full

You have two Cisco 2960 switches with 12 FastEthernet ports and 2 GigabitEthernet ports on each switch.
You connect Fa0/1 on SwitchA to Fa0/1 on SwitchB with a crossover cable. A partial configuration for both switches is shown below.
hostname SwitchA!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport mode dynamic autospanning-tree link-type point-to-point !--output omitted!interface GigabitEthernet0/1switchport mode dynamic desirable!--output omitted
hostname SwitchB!interface FastEthernet0/1switchport mode dynamic auto!--output omitted!interface GigabitEthernet0/1switchport mode dynamic desirablespanning-tree link-type point-to-point !--output omitted
You notice that VLAN traffic for VLAN 2 is not being carried from SwitchA to SwitchB. What should you do?

For Fa0/1 on SwitchA, set the switchport mode to dynamic desirable.

You want to verify that interface FastEthernet 0/2 is a member of VLAN0002. Which command displays the output shown here?
VLAN Name Status Ports
---- --------------------- --------- -------------------------------
1 default active Fa0/3, Fa0/4, Fa0/5, Fa0/6,
Fa0/7, Fa0/8, Fa0/9, Fa0/10,
Fa0/11, Fa0/12, Gi0/1, Gi0/2
2 VLAN0002 active Fa0/2
1002 fddi-default active
1003 token-ring-default active
1004 fddinet-default active
1005 trnet-default active...(remaining output suppressed)

show vlan brief

Which of the following statements apply only to extended access lists, not to standard access lists? (Select two.)

1. You can filter traffic by destination IP addresses.
2. You can filter traffic for a specific protocol.

Which of the following statements about ACLs are true? (Select two.)

1. An ACL without a permit statement does not allow any traffic.
2. Inbound ACLs are applied before the routing process.

Which of the following describes how ACLs can improve network security?

An ACL filters traffic by the IP header information such as source or destination IP address, protocol, or socket numbers.

Your router currently has two ACLs:
One list denies SAP broadcasts and allows all other traffic. This list is applied to outbound traffic on Serial0.
The second list denies Telnet traffic and allows all other traffic. This list is applied to inbound traffic on Serial1.
You also want to restrict all outbound traffic sent through Serial0 from network 192.168.2.0/24. How should you configure ACLs on the router to meet all current and new requirements with as little effort as possible?

Create a new ACL that denies traffic from network 192.168.2.0/24 and permits all other traffic. Apply the ACL to the Serial0 interface for outbound traffic.

You want to control Telnet access to your router and only allow access from within the corporate network. You have subnetted your network so that all IP addresses use subnets of the 172.18.0.0/16 network.
You want to apply the ACL to the VTY lines. Which of the following would be part of your design? (Select two.)

1. access-list 7 permit 172.18.0.0 0.0.255.255
2. ip access-class 7 in

You have used the following commands at the router console to create an IP access list and switch to interface configuration mode:
Router(config)#access-list 122 permit tcp 10.6.0.0 0.0.255.255 anyRouter(config)#int eth 0
Which of the following commands would you use to add the access list to this interface and filter incoming packets?

ip access-group 122 in

Which of the following commands can you use to see which ACL is applied to the first Ethernet interface?

sh ip int

You have just finished configuring ACL 101 and are ready to apply it to an interface. Before you do this, you would like to view the ACL to ensure there are no mistakes. Which command displays access list 101?

show access-lists 101

You are configuring ACLs for a router. You need to create a standard IP access list that permits all traffic except traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network .
To verify that the ACL is configured correctly and functioning as intended, you want to view extended information about matches for each line in the ACL as packets are processed by the router.
Which two commands would you use to view the information you need? (Select two.)

1. access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 log
2. access-list 1 permit any log

Your company has two subnets, 172.16.1.0 and 172.16.2.0, as shown in the exhibit. You want to prevent public Telnet traffic from entering your company but allow all other traffic.
Which of the following sets of statements will accomplish your goal?

access-list 101 deny tcp any 172.16.0.0
0.0.255.255 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any 172.16.2.0
0.0.255.255
interface serial 0
ip access-group 101 in

Which of the following numbering ranges are used by extended ACLs? (Select two.)

1. 100-199
2. 2000-2699

Which of the following is a good general rule regarding the placement of extended ACLs?

Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source router.

Which of the following describe the attributes that extended ACLs can use to filter network traffic? (Select two.)

1. Extended ACLs can filter network traffic based on destination hostname or host IP address.
2. Extended ACLs can filter network traffic based on source protocol (i.e., IP, TCP, UDP, etc.).

Which of the following statements are true about IPv6 ACLs? (Select two.)

1. IPv6 ACLs do not use wildcard masks.
2. IPv6 ACLs are similar to IPv4 extended named ACLs in functionality.

Which command is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to an interface?

ipv6 traffic-filter

Which command uses the correct syntax and argument to create an IPv6 ACL?

ipv6 access-list DENY_FTP

You want to create an ACL statement that allows traffic from any network. Which network address and wildcard mask value should you use?

0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

You are configuring ACLs on a router, and you want to deny traffic being sent to the 10.10.16.0/21 network.
Which wildcard mask should you use with the access-list statement?

0.0.7.255

You are configuring ACLs for a router. You need to create an extended IP access list that rejects any packets sent from a host with an IP address of 10.1.1.1 to a host with an IP address of 15.1.1.1. All other traffic should be allowed.
To verify that the ACL is configured correctly and functioning as intended, you want to view extended information about matches for each line in the ACL as packets are processed by the router.
Which two commands are needed to view the information? (Select two.)

1. access-list 101 deny ip 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 15.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 log
2. access-list 101 permit ip any any log

Your company has two subnets, 172.16.1.0 and 172.16.2.0, as shown. You want to protect your 172.16.2.0 subnet from all traffic except traffic originating from subnet 172.16.1.0. You don't want anyone to Telnet into host 172.16.2.13. You currently have no filters applied to your router. You've created the following access list:
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 host 172.16.2.13 eq 23access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255
Where should you apply this filter?

outbound side of E1

Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) are the three security components used to protect network access and communications.
Which of the following describes the authorization security component?

Permits or denies access to the network resources a user needs to perform tasks.

Two common AAA server solutions are RADIUS and TACACS+.
Match the AAA server solutions on the left with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each server solution may be used more than once.)

Combines authentication, authorization, and accounting: RADIUS
Uses TCP port 49: TACACS+
Does not transmit passwords in clear text between the client and the server: RADIUS
Provides three protocols, one each for authentication, authorization, and accounting: TACACS+
Encrypts the entire packet contents, not just authentication packets: TACACS+
Uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813 and can be vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks: RADIUS

When comparing RADIUS to TACACS+, which of the following statements are true? (Select three.)

1. TACACS+ is considered more reliable than RADIUS because of TCP.
2. TACACS+ is more secure than RADIUS because RADIUS only encrypts the password.
3. RADIUS is more interoperable because TACACS+ is Cisco proprietary software.

The Stuxnet worm was discovered in 2010 and was used to gain sensitive information about Iran's industrial infrastructure. This worm was probably active for about five years before being discovered. During this time, the attacker had access to the target. Which type of attack was Stuxnet?

APT

Which type of threat actor only uses skills and knowledge for defensive purposes?

White hat

Which statement best describes a suicide hacker?

This hacker is only concerned with taking down their target for a cause. They have no concerns about being caught.

Miguel has been practicing his hacking skills. He has discovered a vulnerability on a system that he did not have permission to attack. Once Miguel discovered the vulnerability, he anonymously alerted the owner and told him how to secure the system. Which type of hacker is Miguel in this scenario?

Gray hat

The process of analyzing an organization's security and determining its security holes is called:

Threat modeling

Your network devices are categorized into the following zone types:
No-trust zone
Low-trust zone
Medium-trust zone
High-trust zone
Your network architecture employs multiple VLANs for each of these network zones. Each zone is separated by a firewall that ensures only specific traffic is allowed.
Which of the following is the secure architecture concept used on this network?

Network segmentation

Drag the network attack technique on the left to the appropriate description or example on the right. (Each technique may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Perpetrators attempt to compromise or affect the operations of a system.: Active attack
Unauthorized individuals try to breach a network from off-site.: External attack
Attempting to find the root password on a web server by brute force.: Active attack
Attempting to gather information without affecting the flow of information on the network.: Passive attack
Sniffing network packets or performing a port scan.: Passive attack

You are a security consultant. You've been hired to evaluate an organization's physical security practices. All employees must pass through a locked door to enter the main work area. Access is restricted using a smart card reader. Network jacks are located in the reception area so employees and vendors can access the company network for work-related purposes. Users within the secured work area are trained to lock their workstations if they will leave them for any period of time.
Which of the following recommendations would you MOST likely make to this organization to increase their security?

Disable the switch ports connected to the network jacks in the reception area.

Your organization is frequently visited by sales reps. While on-site, they frequently plug their notebook systems into any available wall jack, hoping to get internet connectivity. You are concerned that allowing them to do this could result in the spread of malware throughout your network.
Which of the following would BEST protect you from guest malware infection? (Select two.)

1. Implement static IP addressing.
2. Implement MAC address filtering.

Which of the following is the most secure protocol for wireless networks?

WPA2

Which of the following features is supplied by WPA2 on a wireless network? (Select two.)

1. Authentication
2. Encryption

Which of the following measures will make your wireless network less visible to the casual attacker?

Disable SSID broadcast

What is the least secure place to locate an omnidirectional access point when creating a wireless network?

Near a window

You've just finished installing a wireless access point for a client. Which action best protects the access point from unauthorized tampering with its configuration settings?

Changing the default administrative password

You have just installed a wireless access point (WAP) for your organization's network. You know that the radio signals used by the WAP extend beyond your organization's building and are concerned that unauthorized users outside may be able to access your internal network.
Which of the following steps will BEST protect the wireless network? (Select TWO. Each option is a complete solution.)

1. Use the WAP's configuration utility to reduce the radio signal strength.
2. Configure the WAP to filter unauthorized MAC addresses.

A small business called Widgets, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following using a wireless network locator device:
Widgets, Inc. uses an 802.11n wireless network.
The wireless network is broadcasting the SID Linksys.
The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security.
Directional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building.
Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security? (Select two.)

1. Disable SSID broadcast.
2. Change the SSID to something other than the default.

A small business named BigBikes, Inc. has hired you to evaluate their wireless network security practices. As you analyze their facility, you note the following:
BigBikes, Inc. uses an 802.11a wireless network.
The wireless network SSID is set to BWLAN.
The wireless network is not broadcasting the network SSID.
The wireless network uses WPA2 with AES security.
Omnidirectional access points are positioned around the periphery of the building.
Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend your client do to increase their wireless network security?

Implement directional access points.

Which of the following attacks, if successful, causes a switch to function like a hub?

MAC flooding

Drag the description on the left to the appropriate switch attack type shown on the right.

ARP Spoofing/Poisoning: The source device sends frames to the attacker's MAC address instead of the correct device.
VLAN Hopping: Switch spoofing and double tagging are the two primary ways an attacker can execute the exploit.
MAC Flooding: Fills the forwarding table with packets consuming switch memory forcing failopen mode.
MAC Spoofing: Used to hide the identity of the attacker's computer or impersonate another device on the network.

Match the common threat mitigation techniques that are used to protect against attacks, listed on the left, with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each technique may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Authentication uses usernames and passwords, smart cards, or other authentication methods.: Port authentication (802.1x)
The device responds with authentication credentials, which the switch forwards to the authentication device (such as a RADIUS server).: Port authentication (802.1x)
Protects against rogue servers being connected to the network and performing man-in-the-middle attacks.: DHCP snooping
Allows only authenticated devices to connect to the LAN through the switch.: Port authentication (802.1x)
Protects against network issues caused by an employee connecting a consumer-grade router to a network port.: DHCP snooping

In which of the following situations would you use port security?

You want to restrict the devices that can connect through a switch port.

After enabling the DHCP snooping feature, you want to apply it to your network globally.
Which command will apply DHCP snooping globally?

ip dhcp snooping

You are the network administrator for a city library. Throughout the library are several groups of computers that provide public access to the internet. Supervision of these computers has been difficult. You've had problems with patrons bringing personal laptops into the library and disconnecting the network cables from the library computers to connect their laptops to the internet.
The library computers are in groups of four. Each group of four computers is connected to a hub that is connected to the library network through an access port on a switch. You want to restrict access to the network so only the library computers are permitted connectivity to the internet.
What can you do?

Configure port security on the switch

You've just enabled port security on an interface of a Catalyst 2950 switch. You want to generate an SNMP trap whenever a violation occurs. Which feature should you enable?

restrict

You are configuring a new 2960 switch. You issue the following commands:
switch(config)#interface fast 0/15switch(config-if)#switchport mode accessswitch(config-if)#switchport port-securityswitch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitch(config-if)#switchport port-security violation protect
You connect a hub with two workstations to port Fa0/15. You power on Device1 and then Device2.
What will be the result?

Frames from Device1 will be allowed; frames from Device2 will be dropped.

Which of the following are true of port security sticky addresses? (Select two.)

1. They are placed in the running-config file and can be saved to the startup-config file.
2. They can be learned automatically or manually configured.

In which of the following situations would you use port security?

You wanted to restrict the devices that could connect through a switch port.

The program shown is a crypter. Which of the following options best defines what this program does?

A crypter can encrypt, obfuscate, and manipulate malware to make it difficult to detect.

Which of the following laws regulates emails?

CAN-SPAM Act

A virus has replicated itself throughout systems it has infected and is executing its payload. Which of the following phases of the virus life cycle is this virus in?

Launch

Heather is performing a penetration test of her client's malware protection. She has developed a malware program that doesn't require any user interaction and wants to see how far it will spread through the network. Which of the following types of malware is she using?

Worm

Which of the following parts of the Trojan horse packet installs the malicious code onto the target machine?

Dropper

Heather wants to gain remote access to Randy's machine. She has developed a program and hidden it inside a legitimate program that she is sure Randy will install on his machine. Which of the following types of malware is she using?

Trojan horse

Which of the following malware types shows the user signs of potential harm that could occur if the user doesn't take a certain action?

Scareware

Rudy is analyzing a piece of malware discovered in a penetration test. He has taken a snapshot of the test system and will run the malware. He will take a snapshot afterward and monitor different components, such as ports, processes, and event logs, and note changes. Which of the following processes is he using?

Host integrity monitoring

Analyzing emails, suspect files, and systems for malware is known as which of the following?

Sheep dipping

Which of the following best describes an antivirus sensor system?

A collection of software that detects and analyzes malware.

Daphne has determined that she has malware on her Linux machine. She prefers to only use open-source software. Which anti-malware software should she use?

ClamAV

Anti-malware software uses several methods to detect malware. One of these methods is scanning. Which of the following best describes scanning?

Scanning uses live system monitoring to detect malware immediately. This technique utilizes a database that needs to be updated regularly. Scanning is the quickest way to catch malware programs.

Which of the following is the first step you should take if malware is found on a system?

Isolate the system from the network immediately.

Daphne suspects that a Trojan horse is installed on her system. She wants to check all active network connections to see which programs are making connections and the FQDNs of locations those programs are connecting to. Which command will allow her to do this?

netstat -f -b

Part of a penetration test is checking for malware vulnerabilities. During this process, the penetration tester needs to manually check many different areas of the system. After these checks are completed, which of the following is the next step?

Run anti-malware scans

Frank, an IT tech, works for the ABC company. His friend Joe, who works for the XYZ company, informs Frank that XYZ company has been hit by a new malware attack. What is the first thing Frank should do for the ABC company?

Verify that ABC company's anti-malware software is updated and running.

Match the malware detection methods on the left with the description on the right.

Establishes a baseline of the system and will alert the user if any suspicious system changes occur.: Integrity checking
Is mainly used against logic bombs and Trojans.: Interception
Aids in detecting new or unknown malware.: Heuristic analysis
Could have live system monitoring to immediately detect malware.: Scanning
Works well against polymorphic and metamorphic viruses.: Code emulation

Put the steps for developing an anti-malware program on the left in proper order on the right.

Step 1:
Identify unique characteristics of malicious software.
Step 2:
Write the scanning process.
Step 3:
Update the anti-malware program.
Step 4:
Scan the system.

Part of a penetration test is checking for malware vulnerabilities. There are twelve steps that are followed when testing for malware vulnerabilities. Put the steps in order.

Step 1:
Scan for open ports.
Step 2:
Scan for running processes.
Step 3:
Check for suspicious or unknown registry entries.
Step 4:
Verify all running Windows services.
Step 5:
Check startup programs.
Step 6:
Look through event logs for suspicious events.
Step 7:
Verify all installed programs.
Step 8:
Scan files and folders for manipulation.
Step 9:
Verify that device drivers are legitimate.
Step 10:
Check all network and DNS settings and activity.
Step 11:
Scan for suspicious API calls.
Step 12:
Run anti-malware scans.

Which of the following malware detection methods establishes a baseline of the system and will alert the user if any suspicious system changes occur?

Integrity checking

Which of the following are all network sniffing tools?

Cain and Abel, Ettercap, and TCPDump

Which of the following is the term used to describe what happens when an attacker sends falsified messages to link their MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network?

ARP poisoning

A security analyst is using tcpdump to capture suspicious traffic detected on port 443 of a server. The analyst wants to capture the entire packet with hexadecimal and ASCII output only. Which of the following tcpdump options will achieve this output?

-X port 443

Using Wireshark filtering, you want to see all traffic except IP address 192.168.142.3. Which of the following is the best command to filter a specific source IP address?

ip.src ne 192.168.142.3

As the cybersecurity specialist for your company, you believe a hacker is using ARP poisoning to infiltrate your network. To test your hypothesis, you have used Wireshark to capture packets and then filtered the results. After examining the results, which of the following is your best assessment regarding ARP poisoning?

ARP poisoning is occurring, as indicated by the duplicate response IP address.

Using Wireshark, you have used a filter to help capture only the desired types of packets. Using the information shown in the image, which of the following best describes the effects of using the net 192.168.0.0 filter?

Only packets with either a source or destination address on the 192.168.0.0 network are captured.

You have just captured the following packet using Wireshark and the filter shown. Which of the following is the captured password?

St@y0ut!@

You have been asked to perform a penetration test for a company to see if any sensitive information can be captured by a potential hacker. You have used Wireshark to capture a series of packets. Using the tcp contains invoice filter, you have found one packet. Using the captured information shown, which of the following is the account manager's email address?

rscam@woodspecialist.com

Using sniffers has become one way for an attacker to view and gather network traffic. If an attacker overcomes your defenses and obtains network traffic, which of the following is the best countermeasure for securing the captured network traffic?

Use encryption for all sensitive traffic.

Your network administrator is configuring settings so the switch shuts down a port when the max number of MAC addresses is reached. What is the network administrator taking countermeasures against?

Sniffing

A certain attack task includes five steps as follows:
Sniff the traffic between the target computer and the server.
Monitor traffic with the goal of predicting the packet sequence numbers.
Desynchronize the current session.
Predict the session ID and take over the session.
Inject commands to target the server.
Which of the following tasks does the above list describe?

Session hijacking

Which of the following describes a session ID?

A unique token that a server assigns for the duration of a client's communications with the server.

Which of the following is characterized by an attacker using a sniffer to monitor traffic between a victim and a host?

Passive hijacking

Jason, an attacker, has manipulated a client's connection to disconnect the real client and allow the server to think that he is the authenticated user. Which of the following describes what he has done?

Active hijacking

Which of the following best describes the process of using prediction to gain session tokens in an Application-level hijacking attack?

Collect several session IDs that have been used before and then analyze them to determine a pattern.

Which term describes the process of sniffing traffic between a user and server, then re-directing the traffic to the attacker's machine, where malicious traffic can be forwarded to either the user or server?

Man-in-the-middle

While performing a penetration test, you captured a few HTTP POST packets using Wireshark. After examining the selected packet, which of the following concerns or recommendations will you include in your report?

Passwords are being sent in clear text.

Which of the following protocols is one of the most common methods used to protect packet information and defend against network attacks in VPNs?

IPsec

Which of the following are protocols included in the IPsec architecture?

IKE, AH, and ESP

Your network administrator has set up training for all users regarding clicking on links in emails or instant messages. Which of the following is your network administrator attempting to prevent?

Session fixation

Which of the following best describes the key difference between DoS and DDoS?

Attackers use numerous computers and connections.

An attacker may use compromised websites and emails to distribute specially designed malware to poorly secured devices. This malware provides an access point to the attacker, which he can use to control the device. Which of the following devices can the attacker use?

Any device that can communicate over the intranet can be hacked.

In which of the following attacks does the attacker blocks all traffic by taking up all available bandwidth between the target computer and the internet?

Volumetric attack

A hacker has discovered UDP protocol weaknesses on a target system. The hacker attempts to send large numbers of UDP packets from a system with a spoofed IP address, which broadcasts out to the network in an attempt to flood the target system with an overwhelming amount of UDP responses. Which of the following DoS attacks is the hacker attempting to use?

Fraggle attack

The ping command is designed to test connectivity between two computers. There are several command options available to customize ping, making it a useful tool for network administrators. On Windows, the default number of ping requests is set is four. Which of the following command options will change the default number of ping requests?

-n

You suspect that an ICMP flood attack is taking place on your system from time to time, so you have used Wireshark to capture packets using the tcp.flags.syn==1 filter. Initially, you saw an occasional SYN or ACK packet. After a short while, you started seeing packets as shown in the image.
Using the information shown, which of the following explains the difference between normal ICMP (ping) requests and an ICMP flood?

With the flood, all packets come from the same source IP address in quick succession.

Which of the following best describes a DoS attack?

A hacker overwhelms or damages a system and prevents users from accessing a service.

Which of the following best describes a reverse proxy method for protecting a system from a DoS attack?

Redirects all traffic before it is forwarded to a server, so the redirected system takes the impact.

Creating an area of the network where offending traffic is forwarded and dropped is known as _________?

Black hole filtering

It is important to be prepared for a DoS attack. These attacks are becoming more common. Which of the following best describes the response you should take for a service degradation?

Services can be set to throttle or even shut down.

Which of the following statements are true regarding NTP when implemented on Cisco devices? (Select two.)

1. When NTP is enabled, NTP packets are received on all interfaces.
2. NTP runs over UDP port 123.

You check the time on a router and find that it is off by several minutes. To fix this issue, you configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet.
The time difference is large, and it is taking some time for NTP to synchronize the time on the local router. To speed synchronization, you use NTP commands to immediately synchronize the time on the router with the time on the time provider.
Which NTP term best describes this process?

Slam

You check the time on a router and find that it is off by about 10 minutes. To fix this issue, you configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet.
It is taking some time for NTP to synchronize the time on the local router. After about 15 minutes, the time finally synchronizes.
Which NTP term best describes this process?

Slew

You check the time on a router and find that it is behind by several minutes. To fix this issue, you decide to configure NTP on the router to get time from a Stratum 2 time provider on the internet with a hostname of 0.pool.ntp.org.
Which command should you use?

ntp server 0.pool.ntp.org

You check the time on a router and find that it is out of sync with the time on the other routers and switches in your network. To fix this issue, you decide to configure NTP on the router to get time from an internal authoritative (master) NTP server with an IP address of 172.17.8.254.
Which command should you use?

ntp server 172.17.8.254

Currently, all of the routers in your network are configured to use NTP to synchronize time with a public Stratum 2 time provider on the internet. To reduce redundant network traffic, you decide to configure one internal router as an authoritative NTP time provider with a stratum value of 5 and then configure all other routers to synchronize time with it. This router has an IP address of 172.17.8.254 assigned.
Which commands should you use? (Select two. Each response is a part of the complete solution.)

1. ntp master 5 on the NTP time provider router.
2. ntp server 172.17.8.254 on all routers except the time provider.

You need to verify that time is synchronized on a router.
Which commands could you use to do this? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.)

1. show ntp associations
2. show ntp status

You have noticed that every two weeks or so, a client's clock is off by two minutes, even after you have adjusted it. What is this issue known as?

Time drift

You need to set the time zone for Pacific Daylight Time. Which two of the following commands will allow you to do this?

1. Clock timezone PST
2. Clock timezone -8

How many packets per minutes are required to keep two machines synchronized to an accuracy of a millisecond of each other?

What is true regarding the following partial output in the running configuration file? (Select two.)
Router#show run!interface fa 0/0 ip address 10.2.30.2 255.255.255.224!<output omitted>!logging onlogging host 10.2.30.253logging trap 4logging source-interface fa 0/0!

1. A syslog server will receive warning messages sent from 10.2.30.2.
2. A syslog server will receive error messages sent from 10.2.30.2.

Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*Aug 8 11:18:12.081: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What facility generated this message?

%LINEPROTO

Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*Aug 8 11:18:12.081: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What is the severity level of this message?

-5-

Your router generates a log message with a severity level of 1.
What does this indicate?

Immediate action is needed.

Your router generates a log message with a severity level of 6.
What does this indicate?

An informational message only.

You want to redirect log messages from a router to a Syslog server. The IP address of the Syslog server is 172.17.8.5. You want only serious log messages with a severity level of emergency, alert, critical, error, or warning to be redirected. Notifications and informational messages as well as debug messages should not be redirected.
You just entered the logging on command. Which other commands must be used to accomplish this task? (Select two. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)

1. logging trap 4
2. logging host 172.17.8.5

You want to redirect log messages from a router to a Syslog server. The IP address of the Syslog server is 192.168.1.2. You want only serious log messages with a severity level of Emergency, Alert, or Critical to be redirected. Notification, Error, Warning, Informational, and Debug messages should not be redirected.
Which commands are used to accomplish this? (Select three. All responses are part of the complete solution.)

1. logging trap 2
2. logging host 192.168.1.2
3. logging on

You are configuring a router to redirect and consolidate log messages to a Syslog server. The router has multiple interfaces. However, you want all log messages being sent to the Syslog server to be seen as coming from the same IP address on the router, regardless of which interface the message actually exits the router from.
Which command is used to accomplish this?

logging source-interface <interface>

Consider the following log message generated by a router:
*00019: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to down
What is being used to identify when the message is generated?

Sequence number

What happens to the history table and log files when the device loses power?

The history table and log files are all lost.

Which of the following are true regarding SNMP? (Select two.)

1. SNMPv2c can be compromised because the community string for authentication is sent in clear text.
2. SNMPv3 employs the encryption of packets to prevent unauthorized sources from snooping.

Which component is responsible for collecting and consolidating data from network devices that are being monitored with SNMP?

SNMP Manager

Which SNMP component monitors individual network devices?

SNMP Agent

Which method is used by the SNMP manager when it contacts an SNMP agent and requests information about a monitored network device?

Poll

Which method is used when an SNMP agent detects that the system it monitors has exceeded a configured threshold and sends an event to the SNMP manager?

Trap

A configured threshold has been exceeded by a network host that is being monitored by an SNMP agent. The agent sends a trap to its SNMP manager with a notification that the threshold has been exceeded.
Which IP port does the agent use to send the trap?

162

You implemented SNMPv2 as a part of your overall network management plan. You configured an SNMP manager to gather traps from SNMP agents that run on monitored network devices. To secure communications between the manager and the agents, you configured a trap community name of abc123.
After running the system for some time, you notice that traps containing questionable events are being sent to the SNMP manager. Upon investigation, you discover that a malicious insider has been spoofing these events, attempting to cover her tracks as she tried to compromise several network hosts.
What could have been done to prevent this from happening?

SNMPv3 should have been implemented instead of SNMPv2.

Which SNMPv3 security level requires authentication with a username, but does not implement encryption?

noAuthnoPriv

Which SNMPv3 security level requires MD5 or SHA authentication and implements DES encryption?

authPriv

The following image shows a standard Object Identifier Tree structure. Based on this structure, what would the OID be for a Microsoft device?

1.3.6.1.4.1.311

Which fields in an IP packet header are examined by NetFlow to determine whether or not a given packet is part of a flow? (Select two.)

1. Source address
2. Type of service

You are configuring NetFlow on a router. You want to monitor both incoming and outgoing traffic on an interface.
You've used the interface command to allow you to configure the interface. What commands should you use next? (Select two. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)

1. ip flow ingress
2. ip flow egress

Currently, your NetFlow router is configured to redirect records to a NetFlow Collector with an IP address of 172.17.8.25 on UDP port 2055.
By default, NetFlow uses the IP address of the interface that packets are sent from as the source IP address for records. However, for security reasons, you want to obscure the source address of the NetFlow router by specifying that all NetFlow records originate from the loopback interface of the router.
Which command should you use?

ip flow-export source loopback 0

Consider the following output from the show ip cache flow command.
Which type of service was accessed on the destination host?

Secure HTTP web server

Consider the output from the show ip cache flow command shown.
Which statements are true regarding the flow represented in the statistics? (Select two.)

1. 255 packets were monitored.
2. Most of the packets monitored were 1536 bytes in size.

Which of the following cannot be analyzed using the data collected by NetFlow?

CPU usage

Which device does NetFlow operate on?

Network device

The storage area where NetFlow data is stored on a device is known as what?

NetFlow Cache

Your NetFlow records are currently formatted for version 5. You need to change to version 9. Which of the following commands would you use?

ip flow-export version 9

You have set up a NetFlow collector using IP address 172.17.8.25 on UDP port 2055. Which of the following commands will redirect records to the new collector?

ip flow-export destination 172.17.8.25 2055

Queue schedulers are used for congestion management and define how a device will work through its queue.
Match the names of the most commonly used queue schedulers on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each name can only be used once.)

Labels one queue as priority. Rotates through the queues and sends out multiple packets from the priority queue.: Weighted Round Robin
Rotates through each queue and processes and sends the next available packet.: Round Robin
Assigns each queue a minimum bandwidth percentage.:
Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing

Many queue schedulers are able to identify a low-latency queue. What do queue schedulers do when processing low-latency queues?

Before the scheduler moves on to other queues, the low-latency queue must first be cleared.

Quality of Service (QoS) is particularly important when implementing Voice over IP (VoIP), Video over IP, online gaming, or unified communications, in which delay or data loss make the overall experience unacceptable. QoS uses certain metrics to determine communication quality.
Match the names of the metrics on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each metric name can only be used once.)

The amount of time that passes from when a packet is sent to when it arrives.: Delay
The percentage of packets that do not arrive at their destination.: Loss
The variation in delay when sending multiple packets from the same device.: Jitter
The capacity of a connection between two or more devices.: Bandwidth

Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes traffic from different data streams by using two classification systems.
Match the name of the QoS classification system on the left with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each classification system may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Individual frames are marked and classified at Layer 2.: Class of Service (COS)
Classification occurs at Layer 3.: Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
Precedence values are inserted in the DiffServ field of an IP packet.: Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
A priority value between 0 and 7 is assigned to a 3-bit field.: Class of Service (COS)
Up to 64 different classifications are possible.: Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

Real-time voice and video communications require a minimum level of quality in order to provide adequate services. The tables shown below contain the minimum metric specifications for real-time voice and video.
From the drop-down lists below each table, select the communication type that the table pertains to.

1. Video
2. VoIP

During a heavy network traffic period, the maximum traffic rate is exceeded. To handle this, QoS drops all incoming traffic. Which QoS method is being used?

Policing

Data on the network is being processed as it comes in. Which QoS method is being used?

Best Effort

A user is playing an online game. When they press a key to perform an action, it takes at least one second for the action to be performed on screen.
Which QoS metric is having issues?

Delay

You have implemented a QoS model where each application must request network resources. The router will approve or deny the request based on available resources.
Which QoS model is being used?

Integrated Services

Which of the following are common network traffic types that QoS is used to manage? (Select two.)

1. Interactive applications
2. Streaming video

Match each component of the software-defined network (SDN) model on the left with the appropriate description on the right. Each component may be used more than once.

Used by the applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.: Northbound controller interface
Performs the function of monitoring network traffic.: Controller
Used to communicate with all of the physical network devices on the network.: Southbound controller interface
Used by software applications on the controller to obtain information about the network.: API
Performs the function of learning about the network topology.: Controller
Designates the accepted method of communication between the controller, network devices, and installed applications.: API

Packet switching, packet routing, and packet interpretation are examples of network communications. On which plane do these network communications occur?

The data plane

In traditional networking models, the date plane, control plane, and management plane are all contained within the firmware of networking devices.
This is known as what kind of architecture?

distributed

Enterprise networks are simplifying network management by moving away from the distributed architecture model for managing network communications.
What is the name of the network management model that replaces the distributed architecture model?

Software-defined networking (SDN)

Software-defined networking (SDN) works by using software to configure and control the network, rather than relying on device-specific static configurations. The SDN model creates a centralized architecture that replaces the distributed architecture model.
How does this shift to a centralized architecture affect the three planes of network communication?

The data plane and control plane have to be separated.

Drag each network plane on the left to the appropriate troubleshooting task on the right. Each plane may be used once, more than one, or not at all.

Determine how traffic moves from one place to another.: Control plane
Determine whether VLANs are configured on each switch.:
Data plane
Examine the forwarding logic on each device.: Data plane
Use SNMP to monitor network switches.: Management plane
Isolate filtering and port security problems.: Data plane

You have a small network as shown. You are troubleshooting connectivity issues at Wrk1.
From Wrk1, you are able to ping hosts Wrk2 and Wrk3. A ping to any host in the main office fails. From Wrk2, you can ping any host in the branch office, but you cannot ping any host in the main office.
What is the most likely cause of the problem? (Select two.)

1. Fa0/24 on the switch is bad.
2. Bad cable between the switch and the SFO router.

You have a small network as shown.
Wrk1 is unable to communicate with Wrk2. Wrk1 can ping the router and all internet hosts. Wrk2 can ping Wrk3.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Wrk1 and Wrk2 are on separate VLANs

Put the 7-step troubleshooting process in order.

1.
Define the problem
2.
Gather information
3.
Analyze information
4.
Eliminate probable causes
5.
Propose hypothesis
6.
Test hypothesis
7.
Solve the problem

Which of the following troubleshooting methods is based on the troubleshooting experience and the ability of the technician?

Educated Guess

In reference to cloud computing, what does the term cloud mean?

It is a metaphor for the internet based on the basic cloud drawing used to represent the telephone network.

Cloud resources are implemented in several ways.
Match the cloud implementations listed on the left with the appropriate descriptions on the right. (Each implementation type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Designed to be shared by several organizations.: Community cloud
Examples: Gmail and Google Docs.: Public cloud
Provides resources to a single organization.: Private cloud
Accessible to everyone.: Public cloud
Accessible only by users within the single organization. Private cloud

Cloud resource service models include Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS).
Match each service model listed on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each service model may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

Provider delivers everything a developer needs to build an application.: PaaS
Providers deliver processing, storage, networks, and virtualized environment services.: IaaS
Clients deploy and run software without purchasing servers, data center space, or network equipment.: IaaS
Provider delivers applications to the client either over the internet or on a local area network.: SaaS
Client avoids the cost and complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware and software layers.: PaaS

What type of resources offer the following advantages?
Flexibility of access
Ease of use
Self-service provisioning of resources
API availability
Metering of services
Ability to try out software applications

cloud

Which of the following allows multiple virtual machines to exist on the same physical machine and share its underlying physical resources?

Virtualization

When additional resources are needed on a virtual machine, the hypervisor increases available resources up to the maximum set amount. What is this process called?

Thin provisioning

What are the main types of cloud services? (Select two.)

1. Internal cloud services
2. External cloud services

Cloud services can also offer virtual network infrastructures, which include a variety of virtual components.
Match each virtual component on the left with the appropriate description on the right. (Each component may be used only once.)

Uses Ethernet standards to transmit and receive frames on the network.: Virtual network interface
Implemented within the hypervisor to monitor and filter traffic on the virtual network as it flows between virtual machines.: Virtual firewall
Can be defined within the virtual switch and associated with specific hosts: Virtual VLAN
Can support multiple networks on each of its interfaces, unlike the physical version.: Virtual router
Builds a table that identifies which MAC addresses are connected to each of its ports.: Virtual switch

Which of the following solutions can help with security when you are implementing an external cloud service?

VPN

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has established five characteristics that a true cloud service must have.
Match each characteristic to its description.

Seamlessly increasing and decreasing resources as needed.: Rapid elasticity
The service needs to be provided over a network and be available in multiple platforms.: Broad network access
Resources can be controlled and optimized automatically.: Measured service
On-demand self service users must be able to dynamically obtain resources.: On-demand self service
Multiple resources can be used by multiple users and can scale dynamically.: Resource pooling

You are providing a VPN solution for employees who work remotely. When these employees change locations, they lose their VPN connection, so you want them to automatically reconnect if the VPN connection is lost or disconnected.
Which VPN security protocol supports VPN reconnect functionality?

IKEv2

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is primarily used for which purpose?

Support secured communications over an untrusted network.

You need to implement a solution for the sales reps who complain that they are unable to establish VPN connections when they travel because the hotel or airport firewalls block the necessary VPN ports.
Which VPN security protocol can you use to resolve this issue?

SSTP

Which of the following provides a VPN gateway that encapsulates and encrypts outbound traffic from a site and sends the traffic through the VPN tunnel to the VPN gateway at the target site?

Site-to-site IPsec VPN

Which of the following are benefits a VPN provides? (Select two.)

1. Compatibility
2. Cost savings

In addition to AH, IPsec is composed of which other service?

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

Which IPsec subprotocol provides data encryption?

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

IPsec is implemented through two separate protocols. What are these protocols called? (Select two.)

1. ESP
2. AH

IPSec uses which method for key exchange?

Diffie-Hellman

Which of the following are IPsec methods of operation? (Select two.)

1. Transport Mode
2. Tunnel Mode

Which of the following gateway redundancy protocols are Cisco proprietary? (Select two.)

1. HSRP
2. GLBP

A router serving as the AVG in a GLBP group has which of the following responsibilities? (Select two.)

1. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each router of the GLBP group.
2. The AVG is responsible for answering Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual IP address.

What happens when an HSRP active router fails? (Select two.)

1. The HSRP standby router becomes the active router after the holdtime expires on the hello message.
2. Additional HSRP member routers transition from the listen state after the holdtime expires on the hello message.

What effect does the standby 2 track serial 0/0 25 interface configuration command have? (Select two.)

1. It decrements the HSRP group priority by 25 if the interface goes down.
2. The HSRP standby router will become the active router if both routers have default configurations.

You have two routers that should be configured for gateway redundancy. The following commands are entered for each router:
A(config)#int fa 0/2A(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.2A(config-if)#standby 2 priority 150A(config-if)#standby 2 ip 172.16.0.1
B(config)#int fa 0/2B(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.3B(config-if)#standby 2 priority 150

Which of the following is true? (Select two.)

1. Router B will serve as active router, and Router A will serve as standby router.
2. The virtual IP address is 172.16.0.1.

1. Router B will serve as the active router for HSRP group 5 and the backup router for HSRP group 2.

2. Router A will serve as the active router for HSRP group 2 and the backup router for HSRP group 5.

Which of the following best describes the various HSRP group roles? (Select two.)

1. A standby router will become the active router should the existing active router fail.

2. An active router forwards traffic destined to the virtual IP address.

How does standby preemption affect the router configured with the highest priority in the HSRP group? (Select two.)

1. If the active router fails and then regains service, it becomes the active router again if preemption is enabled.

2. If the active router fails and then regains service, it does not become the active router again when preemption is not enabled.

In which of the following scenarios would a router send a resign message?

If a preempted active router fails, the standby router becomes the active router. If the preempted active router regains service, it sends a coup message. The current active router sends the resign message after receiving the coup message.

Which effect does the standby 2 priority 110 interface configuration command have?

The group priority is increased above the default.

Which of the following are configuration management tools? (Select two.)

1. Ansible
2. SaltStack

Which data format is the following snippet in?
<root> <message>success</message> <timestamp>1560789260</timestamp><iss_position> <latitude>25.9990</latitude> <longitude>-132.6992</longitude> </iss_position> </root>

XML

Which data format is the following snippet in?
message: success timestamp: 1560789260 iss_position: latitude: '25.9990' longitude: '-132.6992'

YAML

Arranging multiple automated tasks together to create a workflow is known as what?

Orchestration

Which of the following API types can be used with no restrictions?

Open

When you request a web page from a server, which type of HTTP command is sent?

GET

Any API that follows the rules of the REST architecture is considered RESTful. Which of the following features must an API have to be considered RESTful? (Select three.)

1. Client-server
2. Cacheable
3. Stateless

A fully automated network that focuses on using software to maintain the network is known as what?

Intent-based network

Which of the following are essential functions of IBN? (Select three.)

1. Assurance
2. Translation
3. Activation

Match each Cisco DNA solution to its associated benefit.

Machine learning continually improves network intelligence to predict problems before they occur: Cisco DNA Assurance
Delivers better user experiences for applications residing on-premise or in the cloud.: SD-WAN
Enables network access in minutes for any user or device to any application without compromising security.: SD-Access
Reduces risk and protects the organization from threats - even in encrypted traffic.: Cisco DNA Security

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