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BLOCK 3 EXAM

Terms in this set (220)

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:
Select one:
A. is significantly hyperglycemic.
B. has overdosed on her insulin.
C. has a low blood glucose level.
D. has a urinary tract infection.
A. is significantly hyperglycemic.
Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
Select one:
A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.
B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.
C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.
D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
Select one:
A. abnormally high blood glucose level.
B. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys.
C. lack of insulin production in the pancreas.
D. disorder of glucose metabolism.
D. disorder of glucose metabolism.
Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:
Select one:
A. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose.
B. blood glucose levels rapidly fall.
C. the pancreas produces excess insulin.
D. insulin is not available in the body.
D. insulin is not available in the body.
Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:
Select one:
A. dysphasia.
B. dyspepsia.
C. polydipsia.
D. polyphagia.
D. polyphagia.
Hemoglobin is:
Select one:
A. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body.
B. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs.
C. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection.
D. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.
D. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.
In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:
Select one:
A. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex.
B. has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL.
C. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes.
D. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.
D. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.
Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:
Select one:
A. various cancers.
B. hemorrhagic stroke.
C. pulmonary embolism.
D. acute arterial rupture.
C. pulmonary embolism.
Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. tolbutamide (Orinase).
B. supplemental insulin.
C. glyburide (Micronase).
D. diet and exercise.
B. supplemental insulin.
Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:
Select one:
A. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration.
B. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.
C. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.
D. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration.
B. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.
Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. checking the medication's expiration date.
B. assessing the patient's mental status.
C. requesting permission from medical control.
D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:
Select one:
A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
B. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.
C. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.
D. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.
A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
The normal blood glucose level is between:
Select one:
A. 160 and 200 mg/dL.
B. 60 and 80 mg/dL.
C. 130 and 150 mg/dL.
D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.
D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.
To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
Select one:
A. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
B. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
D. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
Type 1 diabetes:
Select one:
A. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.
B. is typically treated with medications such as metformin.
C. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
D. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age.
C. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
Select one:
A. presence of a medical identification tag.
B. rate of the patient's pulse.
C. rate and depth of breathing.
D. patient's mental status.
C. rate and depth of breathing.
When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
B. approximately how much water the patient drank that day.
C. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.
D. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.
A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?
Select one:
A. Depression
B. Alcoholism
C. Hepatitis B
D. Blindness
D. Blindness
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Select one:
A. Total lack of appetite
B. Weight gain and edema
C. Weight loss and polyuria
D. Low blood glucose level
C. Weight loss and polyuria
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
Select one:
A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.
B. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.
C.Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.
D. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
D. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A. aortic aneurysm.
B. strangulated hernia.
C. kidney stones.
D. acute pancreatitis.
A. aortic aneurysm.
A strangulated hernia is one that:
Select one:
A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
Chronic renal failure is a condition that:
Select one:
A. causes dehydration from excessive urination.
B. can be reversed with prompt treatment.
C. occurs from conditions such as dehydration.
D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:
Select one:
A. ileus.
B. cholecystitis.
C. an ulcer.
D. appendicitis.
C. an ulcer.
Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:
Select one:
A. have weak immune systems.
B. have uncontrolled diabetes.
C. have a history of esophagitis.
D. consume a lot of alcohol.
D. consume a lot of alcohol.
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
Select one:
A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:
Select one:
A. visceral pain.
B. referred pain.
C. remote pain.
D. radiating pain.
B. referred pain.
Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:
Select one:
A. cholecystitis.
B. gastroenteritis.
C. appendicitis.
D. pancreatitis.
C. appendicitis.
Solid abdominal organs include the:
Select one:
A. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.
B. stomach and small intestine.
C. gallbladder and large intestine.
D. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
D. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
Select one:
A. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.
B. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.
C. removing sodium and water from the body.
D. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.
C. removing sodium and water from the body.
The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:
Select one:
A. peritonitis.
B. high fever.
C. internal bleeding.
D. severe pain.
A. peritonitis.
The parietal peritoneum lines the:
Select one:
A. walls of the abdominal cavity.
B. surface of the abdominal organs.
C. lungs and chest cavity.
D. retroperitoneal space.
A. walls of the abdominal cavity.
The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:
Select one:
A. dysuria.
B. high fever.
C. vomiting.
D. diarrhea.
D. diarrhea.
Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?
Select one:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Cystitis
C. Hepatitis
D. Cholecystitis
B. Cystitis
Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
Select one:
A. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants
C. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood
D. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating
D. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating
Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
Select one:
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas
C. Spleen
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Select one:
A. Gallbladder
B. Spleen
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
C. Pancreas
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?
Select one:
A. Stomach
B. Gallbladder
C. Appendix
D. Liver
D. Liver
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
Select one:
A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
B. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
D. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?
Select one:
A. Heart failure
B. Seizures
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
A. Heart failure
A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:
Select one:
A. place her supine with her legs elevated.
B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.
C. perform a rapid secondary assessment.
D. locate the area where the fire ants bit her.
B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.
A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:
Select one:
A. a pustule.
B. purpura.
C. a wheal.
D. urticaria.
C. a wheal.
Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:
Select one:
A. the bee venom itself.
B. leukocytes and epinephrine.
C. histamines and leukotrienes.
D. adrenaline and histamines.
C. histamines and leukotrienes.
Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. drying of the eyes.
B. persistent dry cough.
C. flushing of the skin.
D. abdominal cramps
A. drying of the eyes.
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:
Select one:
A. the patient is anxious and tachycardic.
B. the reaction produces severe urticaria.
C. wheezing and hypotension are present.
D. a paramedic is present at the scene.
C. wheezing and hypotension are present.
Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:
Select one:
A. properly dispose of the syringe.
B. notify medical control of your action.
C. reassess the patient's vital signs.
D. record the time and dose given.
A. properly dispose of the syringe.
The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration.
Select one:
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):
Select one:
A. leukotriene.
B. histamine.
C. antibody.
D. allergen.
D. allergen.
The stinger from a honeybee should be:
Select one:
A. irrigated with copious amounts of water.
B. squeezed with tweezers and removed.
C. left in place and covered.
D. scraped away from the skin.
D. scraped away from the skin.
Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:
Select one:
A. expiratory stridor and tachycardia.
B. watery eyes and localized itching.
C. hypertension and swollen hands.
D. urticaria and angioedema.
D. urticaria and angioedema.
Urticaria is the medical term for:
Select one:
A. hives.
B. a wheal.
C. burning.
D. swelling.
A. hives.
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:
Select one:
A. 15 seconds.
B. 10 seconds.
C. 3 seconds.
D. 8 seconds.
C. 3 seconds.
When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:
Select one:
A. medial part of the buttocks.
B. medial portion of the thigh.
C. lateral portion of the arm.
D. lateral portion of the thigh.
D. lateral portion of the thigh.
Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance
B. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance
C. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance
D. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance
A. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance
Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?
Select one:
A. Diffuse urticaria
B. Severe hypotension
C. Upper airway swelling
D. Systemic vasodilation
C. Upper airway swelling
Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
B. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
C. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen
D. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee
B. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Rales
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Rhonchi
C. Stridor
Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?
Select one:
A. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis.
B. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.
C. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.
D. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face.
C. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.
Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. The patient's family history
B. The patient's general physical appearance
C. The time of year in which the exposure occurred
D. The environment in which the patient is found
D. The environment in which the patient is found
While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:
Select one:
A. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli.
B. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.
C. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs.
D. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues.
B. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.
A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:
Select one:
A. epilepsy.
B. intracranial bleeding.
C. a brain tumor.
D. a serious infection.
A. epilepsy.
A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:
Select one:
A. unable to produce or understand speech.
B. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke.
C. not able to swallow without choking.
D. usually conscious but has slurred speech.
A. unable to produce or understand speech.
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
Select one:
A. has bleeding within the brain.
B. is older than 60 years of age.
C. has had a prior heart attack.
D. has a GCS score that is less than 8.
A. has bleeding within the brain.
A patient with an altered mental status is:
Select one:
A. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
B. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
C. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
D. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
A. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:
Select one:
A. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
B. speech, pupil reaction, and memory.
C. arm drift, memory, and grip strength.
D. facial droop, speech, and pupil size.
A. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
Febrile seizures:
Select one:
A. often result in permanent brain damage.
B. occur when a child's fever rises slowly
.C. are usually benign but should be evaluated.
D. are also referred to as absence seizures.
C. are usually benign but should be evaluated.
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:
Select one:
A. pancreas.
B. liver.
C. kidneys.
D. brain.
B. liver.
Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
Select one:
A. cerebral cortex.
B. cerebrum.
C. cerebellum.
D. brain stem.
C. cerebellum.
Status epilepticus is characterized by:
Select one:
A. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
B. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
C. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.
D. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
A. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:
Select one:
A. brain stem.
B. cerebral cortex.
C. cerebrum.
D. cerebellum.
A. brain stem.
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Select one:
A. severe stress.
B. heavy exertion.
C. hypertension.
D. diabetes mellitus.
C. hypertension.
The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:
Select one:
A. cauda equina.
B. vertebral foramen.
C. foramen lamina.
D. foramen magnum.
D. foramen magnum.
The three major parts of the brain are the:
Select one:
A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.
B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
C. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:
Select one:
A. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
B. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.
D. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side.
B. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
Select one:
A. respiratory distress.
B. an acute stroke.
C. a seizure.
D. a febrile convulsion.
C. a seizure.
Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?
Select one:
A. Sudden, severe headache
B. Confusion and weakness
C. Nasal discharge of blood
D. Unilateral hemiparesis
A. Sudden, severe headache
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Select one:
A. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
B. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
C. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?
Select one:
A. Neck stiffness or pain
B. History of migraines
C. Slow onset of symptoms
D. Sinus congestion
A. Neck stiffness or pain
Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?
Select one:
A. Generalized twitching of all muscles
B. Normal level of consciousness
C. Absence of breathing
D. No change in vision, smell, or taste
B. Normal level of consciousness
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?
Select one:
A. Blockage of a cerebral artery
B. Narrowing of a carotid artery
C. Rupture of a cerebral artery
D. Acute atherosclerotic disease
A. Blockage of a cerebral artery
A hypnotic drug is one that:
Select one:
A. increases the pulse.
B. prevents amnesia.
C. increases the senses.
D. induces sleep
D. induces sleep.
A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:
Select one:
A. cocaine.
B. ibuprofen.
C. aspirin.
D. acetaminophen.
C. aspirin.
A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:
Select one:
A. addiction.
B. tolerance.
C. dependence.
D. withdrawal.
B. tolerance.
Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:
Select one:
A. aspirin.
B. iron.
C. methanol.
D. ethanol.
A. aspirin.
After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is most important to:
Select one:
A. be alert for vomiting.
B. document the intervention.
C. monitor the patient's blood pressure.
D. call medical control.
A. be alert for vomiting.
Airborne substances should be diluted with:
Select one:
A. syrup of ipecac.
B. oxygen.
C. an alkaline antidote.
D. activated charcoal.
B. oxygen.
An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:
Select one:
A. contact poison control immediately.
B. administer the appropriate antidote.
C. recognize that a poisoning occurred.
D. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.
C. recognize that a poisoning occurred.
Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A. LiquiChar.
B. InstaChar.
C. Fructose.
D. Actidose.
C. Fructose.
Heroin is an example of a(n):
Select one:
A. cholinergic.
B. hypnotic.
C. sympathomimetic.
D. opioid.
D. opioid.
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:
Select one:
A. crack cocaine.
B. ecstasy.
C. oxycodone (Percocet).
D. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine).
C. oxycodone (Percocet).
If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:
Select one:
A. encourage the patient to drink milk or water.
B. keep the patient supine and elevate his legs.
C. try to find the container the substance was in.
D. administer naloxone via the intranasal route.
C. try to find the container the substance was in.
Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.
Select one:
A. inhalation
B. absorption
C. ingestion
D. injection
C. ingestion
Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:
Select one:
A. hypotension.
B. tachycardia.
C. hypothermia.
D. slurred speech.
B. tachycardia.
Substance abuse is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness.
B. unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol.
C. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.
D. knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs.
C. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.
The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:
Select one:
A. headache.
B. black stools.
C. abdominal pain.
D. ringing in the ears.
B. black stools.
The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:
Select one:
A. knows the location of the closest hospital.
B. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug.
C. is aware of the substance that is involved.
D. is aware of the patient's age and gender.
C. is aware of the substance that is involved.
What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?
Select one:
A. Injected poison.
B. Plant poisoning.
C. Inhaled poison.
D. Alkaline poison.
D. Alkaline poison.
Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?
Select one:
A. How much of the substance was taken?
B. Why was the substance ingested?
C. How long ago was the substance taken?
D. What type of substance was taken?
B. Why was the substance ingested?
Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?
Select one:
A. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.
B. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.
C. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
D. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning.
C. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:
Select one:
A. decontaminate the patient's skin.
B. obtain and maintain a patent airway.
C. move the patient to a safe area.
D. avoid contaminating yourself.
D. avoid contaminating yourself.
____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment.
Select one:
A. Affect
B. Neurosis
C. Psychosis
D. Behavior
D. Behavior
A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:
Select one:
A. traumatic brain injury
B. seizure
C. functional disorder
D. drug and alcohol abuse
C. functional disorder
A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:
Select one:
A. passive listening.
B. active listening.
C. reflective listening.
D. intuitive listening.
C. reflective listening.
After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
Select one:
A. assess the patient's response to his or her environment.
B. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.
C. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility.
D. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment.
A. assess the patient's response to his or her environment.
Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. schizophrenia.
B. mind-altering substance use.
C. intense stress.
D. Alzheimer's disease.
D. Alzheimer's disease.
General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:
Select one:
A. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
B. placing the patient between yourself and an exit.
C. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes.
D. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider.
A. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. reassess the patient's airway and breathing.
B. advise the patient why restraint was needed.
C. inform medical control of the situation.
D. document the time the restraints were applied.
A. reassess the patient's airway and breathing.
In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient?
Select one:
A. With arms and legs bound together
B. With hands tied behind the back
C. Supine
D. Prone
C. Supine
Organic brain syndrome is defined as:
Select one:
A. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ.
B. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.
C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
D. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. children with parents addicted to alcohol.
B. substance abusers.
C. married males older than 30 years.
D. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness.
C. married males older than 30 years.
Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after:
Select one:
A. alcohol withdrawal.
B. extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia.
C. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.
D. a bout with depression.
C. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.
Signs of excited delirium include:
Select one:
A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever.
C. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts.
D. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.
A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
Select one:
A. take vital signs.
B. ensure your safety.
C. restrain the patient.
D. obtain proper consent.
B. ensure your safety.
The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
Select one:
A. drug abuse.
B. a chronic illness.
C. advanced age.
D. depression.
D. depression.
The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications.
B. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member.
C. a medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning.
D. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior.
D. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior.
When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:
Select one:
A. spend as little time with the patient as possible.
B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety.
C. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons.
D. be direct and clearly state your intentions.
D. be direct and clearly state your intentions.
Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse?
Select one:
A. Dimly lit environment
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Limited physical contact
D. Elevated blood glucose
B. Alcohol withdrawal
Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?
Select one:
A. Head trauma
B. Drug addiction
C. Schizophrenia
D. Alzheimer's disease
C. Schizophrenia
Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?
Select one:
A.The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent.
B.Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field.
C.Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.
D.It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained.
C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations
You may not be able to determine whether a person has a mental illness, but you can predict the person's likelihood of becoming:
Select one:
A. diabetic.
B. violent.
C. psychotic.
D. suicidal.
B. violent.
As a woman approaches menopause:
Select one:
A. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.
B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.
C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding.
D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.
D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.
Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:
Select one:
A. cervical os.
B. vagina.
C. uterus.
D. fallopian tube.
D. fallopian tube.
EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that:
Select one:
A. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia.
B. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.
C. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say.
D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.
B. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.
General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.
B. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.
C. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina.
D. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine.
A. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.
In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:
Select one:
A. becomes engorged with blood.
B. thins and begins to separate.
C. diverts blood flow to the vagina.
D. sheds and is expelled externally.
A. becomes engorged with blood.
In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:
Select one:
A. can be controlled in the field.
B. often presents with acute pain.
C. may be relatively painless.
D. is typically not as severe.
C. may be relatively painless.
It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:
Select one:
A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.
C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.
D. have a false positive home pregnancy test result.
A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:
Select one:
A. uterus.
B. urinary bladder.
C. fallopian tubes.
D. ovaries.
B. urinary bladder.
Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include:
Select one:
A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia.
B. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.
C. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea.
D. uterine rupture with severe bleeding.
B. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.
The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:
Select one:
A. between 11 and 16 years of age.
B. between 25 and 28 years of age.
C. between 18 and 23 years of age.
D. between 8 and 10 years of age.
A. between 11 and 16 years of age.
The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:
Select one:
A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.
B. performed in the presence of at least two police officers.
C. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.
D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
When a female has reached menarche:
Select one:
A. menstrual periods become less frequent.
B. she is capable of becoming pregnant.
C. she usually requires hormone therapy.
D. she can no longer produce an ovum.
B. she is capable of becoming pregnant.
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:
Select one:
A. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant.
B. has formed a general impression of the patient.
C. has gathered patient history information.
D. has obtained a complete set of vital signs.
C. has gathered patient history information.
When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:
Select one:
A. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
B. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.
C. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment.
D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.
A. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to:
Select one:
A. ask questions related to her gynecologic history.
B. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum.
C. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
D. determine the underlying cause of her problem.
C. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:
Select one:
A. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical terminology.
B. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses.
C. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
D. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement.
C. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:
Select one:
A. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist.
B. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.
C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
D. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes.
C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated?
Select one:
A. Ovarian cysts
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Chlamydia
D. Genital herpes
C. Chlamydia
Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
Select one:
A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.
B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past.
D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.
B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?
Select one:
A. Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis.
B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape.
C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred.
D. Rape causes more physical than emotional harm.
A. Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis.
A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth.
Select one:
A. 5 to 10
B. 15 to 30
C. 30 to 60
D. 3 to 5
B. 15 to 30
A precipitous labor and delivery is most common in women who:
Select one:
A. are pregnant for the first time.
B. have delivered a baby before.
C. have gestational diabetes.
D. are younger than 30 years of age.
B. have delivered a baby before.
A pregnant trauma patient might lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:
Select one:
A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.
B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure.
C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.
C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
After a baby is born, it is important to:
Select one:
A. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing.
B. position it so that its head is higher than its body.
C. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.
D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.
C. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.
An infant is premature if it:
Select one:
A. weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation. B. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 pounds. C. weighs less than 5.5 pounds or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. D. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 pounds.
A. weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's:
Select one:
A. belly button.
B. superior diaphragm.
C. xiphoid process.
D. pubic bone.
A. belly button.
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A. suctioning of the upper airway.
B. thorough drying with a towel.
C. positive-pressure ventilations.
D. some form of tactile stimulation.
C. positive-pressure ventilations.
Eclampsia is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.
B. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.
C. high levels of protein in the patient's urine.
D. seizures that result from severe hypertension.
D. seizures that result from severe hypertension.
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A. low birth weight.
B. premature delivery.
C. respiratory depression.
D. profound tachycardia.
D. profound tachycardia
In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant:
Select one:
A. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation.
B. retains heat better because of excess body hair.
C. has an even proportionately larger head.
D. is often covered with excess vernix material.
C. has an even proportionately larger head.
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:
Select one:
A. might not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
B. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.
C. might present without significant abdominal pain.
D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain.
C. might present without significant abdominal pain.
Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because:
Select one:
A. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.
B. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery.
C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection.
D. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding.
A. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.
The amniotic fluid serves to:
Select one:
A. transfer oxygen to the fetus.
B. assist in fetal development.
C. remove viruses from the fetus.
D. insulate and protect the fetus.
D. insulate and protect the fetus.
The term primigravida refers to a woman who:
Select one:
A. has had more than one live baby.
B. has never been pregnant.
C. is pregnant for the first time.
D. has had only one live birth.
C. is pregnant for the first time.
The umbilical cord:
Select one:
A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth.
B. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.
C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
D. carries blood away from the baby via the artery.
C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the:
Select one:
A. start of one to the start of the next.
B. start of one to the end of the next.
C. end of one to the start of the next.
D. end of one to the end of the next.
A. start of one to the start of the next.
Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?
Select one:
A. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes
B. Crowning of the baby's head
C. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina
D. Rupture of the amniotic sac
B. Crowning of the baby's head
Which of the following is not a component of the Apgar score?
Select one:
A. Grimace
B. Pulse
C. Body size
D. Activity
C. Body size
Which of the following occurs during true labor?
Select one:
A. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.
B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable.
C. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity.
D. Uterine contractions become more regular.
D. Uterine contractions become more regular.
Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is correct?
Select one:
A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation.
C. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.
D. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting.
A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by:
Select one:
A. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color.
B. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time.
C. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
D. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact.
C. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:
Select one:
A. excessive tearing.
B. absent urine output.
C. moist oral mucosa.
D. bulging fontanelles.
B. absent urine output.
Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should:
Select one:
A. place him or her on a firm surface.
B. put padding behind his or her head.
C. rule out an injury to the spinal cord.
D. thoroughly suction his or her airway.
A. place him or her on a firm surface.
Bruising to the _________ is least suggestive of child abuse.
Select one:
A. buttocks
B. shins
C. back
D. face
B. shins
Children with N. meningitides would most likely present with:
Select one:
A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash.
B. a generalized rash with intense itching.
C. a low-grade fever and tachycardia.
D. hypothermia and an irregular pulse.
A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash.
Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include:
Select one:
A. separating the child from his or her parents.
B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation.
C. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity.
D. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible.
B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation.
Febrile seizures are most common in children between:
Select one:
A. 18 months and 10 years.
B. 6 months and 6 years.
C. 3 months and 4 years.
D. 8 months and 8 years
B. 6 months and 6 years.
Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she:
Select one:
A. has a history compatible with a serious illness.
B. is experiencing mild to moderate pain.
C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius.
D. falls from a height greater than 4 to 5 feet
A. has a history compatible with a serious illness.
Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A. stridorous breathing.
B. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal.
C. wheezing.
D. a weak cough.
C. wheezing.
Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are most commonly associated with:
Select one:
A. hyperthermia.
B. swimming pools.
C. alcohol.
D. child abuse.
C. alcohol.
The EMT should be most concerned when a child presents with fever and:
Select one:
A. a rash.
B. chills.
C. ear pain.
D. a headache.
A. a rash.
The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:
Select one:
A. neonatal period.
B. premature phase.
C. start of infancy.
D. toddler period.
A. neonatal period.
The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to:
Select one:
A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.
B. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.
C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only.
D. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits.
A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.
The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children:
Select one:
A. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion.
B. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight.
C. are typically consistent among all age and weight groups.
D. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance.
B. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight.
Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate only if:
Select one:
A. an oral airway has been inserted.
B. his or her respirations are shallow.
C. he or she is breathing inadequately.
D. his or her tidal volume is adequate.
D. his or her tidal volume is adequate.
When a child experiences a blunt chest injury:
Select one:
A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs.
B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking.
C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture.
D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall.
B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking.
When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be most appropriate to:
Select one:
A. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask.
B. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup.
C. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face.
D. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen.
B. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup.
When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should:
Select one:
A. rely solely on the parent for information.
B. use a toe-to-head assessment approach.
C. refrain from taking a blood pressure.
D. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
D. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
Which of the following is true regarding the legal implications of child abuse?
Select one:
A. A supervisor can forbid an EMT from reporting possible abuse.
B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse.
C. EMTs should document their perceptions on the run form.
D. Child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven.
B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse.
Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct?
Select one:
A. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.
B. At this age, the infant typically sleeps for up to 8 hours a day.
C. The infant is unable to turn his or her head and focus.
D. The infant should be aroused easily from a sleeping state.
A. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.
A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you most suspicious for:
Select one:
A. pneumonia.
B. bronchitis.
C. heart failure.
D. emphysema.
A. pneumonia.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm:
Select one:
A. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.
B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders.
C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.
D. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early.
C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.
An elderly patient might understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because:
Select one:
A. the nervous system has deteriorated.
B. of conditions such as dementia.
C. he or she fears hospitalization.
D. of decreased perception of pain.
C. he or she fears hospitalization.
Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A. an acute onset of dementia.
B. alcohol abuse and dependence.
C. prescription medication use.
D. chronic medical conditions.
A. an acute onset of dementia.
Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:
Select one:
A. acetabular separation and severe falls.
B. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
C. increased bone density and car crashes.
D. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma.
B. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
Good general communication techniques with the elderly include:
Select one:
A. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time.
B. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands.
C. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding.
D. explaining procedures while you are performing them.
B. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands.
Many older victims of physical abuse might make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because:
Select one:
A. they do not want to be bothersome.
B. they fear retribution from the abuser.
C. they are protective of the abuser.
D. most elderly patients have dementia.
B. they fear retribution from the abuser.
Osteoporosis is defined as:
Select one:
A. a decrease in bone mass and density.
B. decreased bone marrow production.
C. an abnormality near the growth plate.
D. increased flexibility of bone mass.
A. a decrease in bone mass and density.
Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they:
Select one:
A. have a history of Alzheimer disease.
B. do not have deformities to the skull.
C. are taking blood-thinning medications.
D. have minor abrasions to the head area.
C. are taking blood-thinning medications.
Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse.
Select one:
A. financial
B. psychological
C. emotional
D. physical
D. physical
Syncope in the older patient is:
Select one:
A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured.
C. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.
D. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction.
A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with:
Select one:
A. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
B. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema.
C. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.
D. fever and a cough that produces green sputum.
A. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to:
Select one:
A. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly.
B. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.
C. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients.
D. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderly patients.
C. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients.
The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for:
Select one:
A. stroke.
B. dementia.
C. head trauma.
D. delirium
C. head trauma.
The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called:
Select one:
A. potentiation.
B. polypharmacy.
C. drug dependency.
D. drug tolerance.
B. polypharmacy.
To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should:
Select one:
A. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient.
B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.
C. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.
D. dismiss the family members from the room or area.
B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.
When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. attempt to resuscitate the patient.
B. allow the patient to die in peace.
C. try to locate the documentation.
D. contact medical control for advice.
A. attempt to resuscitate the patient.
When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the most effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to:
Select one:
A. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.
B. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected.
C. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with.
D. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient.
C. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with.
Which of the following is the most common mechanism of injury in older patients?
Select one:
A. Suicide
B. Burns
C. Falls
D. Abuse
C. Falls
Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond?
Select one:
A. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
B. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect.
C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living.
D. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
D. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
A service dog is easily identified by its:
Select one:
A. breed.
B. size.
C. color.
D. harness.
D. harness.
A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n):
Select one:
A. gastric stoma.
B. intestinal shunt.
C. colostomy.
D. gastrostomy.
C. colostomy.
A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:
Select one:
A. G-tube.
B. shunt.
C. CS tube.
D. cerebral bypass.
B. shunt.
An obese person is ________ over ideal weight.
Select one:
A. 50% or more
B. 30% or more
C. 15% or more
D. 10% or more
B. 30% or more
Autism is defined as a:
Select one:
A. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain.
B. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications.
C. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain.
D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement.
Select one:
A. neck
B. body
C. eye
D. extremity
B. body
Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include:
Select one:
A. long hands with wide fingers.
B. a proportionately small tongue.
C. bulging eyes and a large face.
D. a round head with a flat occiput.
D. a round head with a flat occiput.
If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.
B. instill 20 mL of saline into the tracheostomy tube and suction for no longer than 20 seconds.
C. insert the suction catheter to a depth of no more than 15 cm and set the suction unit to 140 mm Hg.
D. attach a bag-valve mask to the tracheostomy tube and hyperventilate the patient for 2 minutes.
A. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.
In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker:
Select one:
A. is implanted under the skin in the left upper abdominal quadrant.
B. delivers a shock to the heart if the rate becomes exceedingly fast.
C. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.
D. will only activate if it detects rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation.
C. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.
Spina bifida is defined as:
Select one:
A. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid.
B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.
C. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae.
D. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck.
B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.
The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to:
Select one:
A. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury.
B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.
C. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain.
D. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure.
B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.
Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used?
Select one:
A. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate
B. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
C. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles
D. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms
B. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
Vagus nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with:
Select one:
A. chronic muscle pain and fatigue.
B. chronic seizure disorders.
C. certain psychiatric conditions.
D. inherently slow heart rates.
B. chronic seizure disorders.
When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should:
Select one:
A. call for ALS backup because obese patients are at high risk for heart attack.
B. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.
C. leave him or her in a supine position, as this often facilitates breathing.
D. ask the patient if he or she knows what led to his or her obesity problem.
B. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.
When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:
Select one:
A. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired.
B. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill.
C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney.
C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to:
Select one:
A. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.
B. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to.
C. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient.
D. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
D. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy?
Select one:
A. Brain tumors
B. Seizure disorder
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Paralysis
B. Seizure disorder
Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct?
Select one:
A. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.
B. Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food.
C. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place.
D. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine.
A. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.
Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct?
Select one:
A. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands.
B. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
C. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function but abnormal physical features.
D. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality.
B. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
Which of the following would be the most practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located?
Select one:
A. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem
B. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter
C. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear
D. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
D. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
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