Study sets, textbooks, questions
Upgrade to remove ads
pathology test3 lecture2 (immune)
Terms in this set (82)
neutrophils do what?
what is the order of abundance of leukocytes?
NEVER LET MONEYS EAT BANANAS
Neutrophils > lymphocytes > monocytes > eosinophils >basophils
CD4 T-helper cells bind to MHC____
CD8 cytotoxic T cells bind to MHC ___
what are the different kinds of lymphocytes?
CD8 cytotoxic T cells
role of NK cells?
lyse tumor cells and virally infected cells
how do macrophages present antigen?
macrophages phagocytose things that are covered in antibodies or ______
eosinophils are involved in ____
allergies / parasites
MHC1 is made of HLA _____
MHC1 = hla-A,B,C
MHC2 is made of HLA ______
MHC2 = hla-Dr, Dp, Dq
MHC2's are only present on _______ cells
MHC1's are present on ____ cells
Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with what allele?
classical complement pathway is activated by IgM/IgG and _____
alternative complement pathway is activated by antigen binding to _____
MHC2's bind antigen from _____ and present it to ______
-outside the cell
-CD4 T helpers
MHC1's bind antigen from ____ and present it to ______
-inside the cell
-CD8 cytotoxic T cells
how would you test for general B cell function?
look at immunoglobulin levels
how would you test for general T cell function?
delayed hypersensitivity testing
how would you test for both T cell and B cell function at the same time?
forward scatter of flow cytometery indicates what?
forward scatter = cell size
side scatter of flow cytometry indicates what?
side scatter = cell's internal complexity
what is "gating" in terms of flow cytometry?
visualizing the cells of interest while eliminating unwanted debris and dead cells from the final results
Nitroblue tetrazolium test looks for what kind of cells?
what antibody is associated with Type 1 reactions?
what is a type 1 reaction?
-mediated by IgE
What is a type 2 reaction?
-mediated by IgG, IgM
-"you make antibodies to something that you shouldnt"
what is a type 3 reaction?
goodpasteurs syndrom is a Type ____ reaction
lupus is a type ____ reaction
type 3 (antigen-antibody complexes)
what is a type 4 reaction?
type 1 diabetes is a type ____ reaction
multiple sclerosis is a type ___ reaciton
what cell types mediate type 1 anaphylatic reactions?
basophils and mast cells
Bruton's, CVID, Selective IgA deficiency, and hyper IgM are all _____ cell defect disorders
Digeorge syndrome, and chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis are _____ cell defect disorders
Ataxia telangictasia, WAS, severe combined immunodeficiency, and X-linked lympohproliferative disorder are all ____ cell defects deisorders
both T-cell and B-cell
what is Bruton agammaglobulinemia?
genetic defect of "bruton's tyrosin kinase" which causes
B-cell maturation to stop after initial heavy chain rearrangement
what are the symptoms of bruton agammaglobulinemia?
recurrent encapsulated bacterial infections (normally cleared by antibody opsonization)
in bruton's agammaglobulinemia, which types of immunoglobulins are decreased?
in bruton's agammaglobulinemia lymph nodes are missing what part?
no germinal centers!
what is CVID?
common variable immunodeficiency
-B cell defect
insufficient stimulus for B cell activation
to become plasma cells
-normal amount of B-cells,
NO PLASMA CELLS
what are the symptoms of CVID?
impaired response to antigen
what is selective IgA deficiency?
-B cell defect
-most common immunodeficiency
defect in B-cell or cytokines that drive IgA response
, normal amounts of others
symptoms of selective IgA deficeincy?
-recurrent infections of mucous membranes
-anaphylactic reaction during blood transfusion
what is hyper IgM syndrome?
failure of B-cells to isotype switch
-high levels of IgM, low of the others
what are symptoms of hyper IgM syndrome?
recurrent pyogenic infections
what is Digeorge syndrome?
-3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches are malformed
-no t cells!
what are the symptoms of digeorge syndrome?
-cardiac defects, abnormal face, thymus hypoplasia, cleft palate, Hypo Ca++
-vulnerable to viral, fungal, parasite, bacterial
what is chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?
-T-cells cant attack Candida!
-chronic recurrent candida infections
what is X-linked lymphoproliferative disease?
-both B-cell and T-cell defect
-Xq25 mutation leads to
overactive interferon-gamma production
overwhelming T-cell response to epstein barr virus
what is WAS?
-both T-cell and B-cell defect
mutation of WASP which affects cytoskeleton of B and T cells
what are the symptoms for WAS?
Was = Immunodeficiency (T and B cell), Purpura(splotchy red skin), Eczema
what is Ataxia telangictasia?
-B and T cell defect
-mutated ATM gene (dna repair)
-recurrent sinus/pulmonary infections
-higher risk of cancer
what is SCID?
-Severe combined immunodeficiency (bubble boy)
50% x linked, 50% autosomal recessive
-X linked is a mutation in
for IL-2,4,7,9,15 which help B-cells and T-cells mature in the bone marrow
-autosomal recessive is a mutation in
causing buildup of ATP byproducts, toxic to B and T cells
what is MPO deficiency?
-NADPH oxidase dysfunction (cant produce oxidative burst to kill stuff)
C1, C2, and C4 deficiencies cause _______
pyogenic infections and autoimmune diseases
C5-C9 deficiencies cause ________
what is a primary immunodeficiency?
T cell / B cell defects due to genetics
what is a secondary immunodeficiency?
Drugs, malnutrition, or acquired disease cause B cell and T cell dysfunction
which complement factor opsonizes things?
which complement factor starts the formation fof the membrane attack complex?
The core of HIV has ___ copies of its genomic ____
2 copies of its genomic RNA
the core of HIV is surrounded by matrix protein ____
GP41, one of the proteins that will confirm and HIV infection, comes from what part of the HIV?
screening for HIV is done via what test? confirming?
screening = ELISA
confirming = western blot
HIV targets what cells?
CD4's and macrophages and dendritic cells
How does HIV bind to CD4's?
gp120 protein on the HIV envelope binds to CD4 receptor
90% of initial HIV infections are via the ____ type, but the more virulent ____ type eventually accumulates and starts the worst parts of the disease
initial = R5
more virulent = X4
what is the role of gp41 in HIV?
it inserts itself into the host plasma mebrane, allowing the insertion of viral DNA
the viral genome of HIV undergoes _______ to form cDNA
Which sites of the body serve as reserviors for infected T cells?
spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,
3 phases of HIV infection?
acute (cold-like symptoms)
crisis (opportunistic infections, <500CD4 count)
when does the HIV infection technically become "AIDS"?
<200 CD4 count
usually after 7-10 years
HIV causes an inversion of ______
the CD4:CD8 ratio
normal = 1 or higher
HIV = 0.5 or lower
HIV infected macrophages tend to be located where?
tissue (as opposed to blood like the T-cells)
What purpose do macrophages serve for the HIV?
Late phase, when most T cell are gone, there are still plenty of macrophages to act as viral reserviors
what "type" of HIV is found in brain?
R5 (the less virulent kind)
How does HIV achieve its neurological symptoms?
does NOT infect neurons
-cytokines cause neurological effects
most common AIDs associated opportunistic infections?
-Toxoplasmosis (CNS infection)
Most common AIDS associated neoplasm?
-Human herpes virus 8
Recommended textbook explanations
Campbell Biology (AP Edition)
Cain, Jackson, Minorsky, Reece, Urry, Wasserman
Lisa A. Urry, Michael L. Cain, Peter V Minorsky, Steven A. Wasserman
Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry
David L Nelson, Michael M. Cox
Biocalculus: Calculus, Probability, and Statistics for the Life Sciences
Sets found in the same folder
Pathology test1 lecture1
Pathology test1 lecture2
pathology test1 lecture3
Pathology test1 lecture4
Sets with similar terms
Adaptive Immunity Readings
Microbiology Chapter 24
First Aid Immunology
Other sets by this creator
special care clinic
NBDE pt2 - oral path stuff
NBDE pt2 random stuff
Other Quizlet sets
PHC6110 Week 8: Germany
National Review Quiz 5
Atoms and Periodic Table
How can the resistance become widespread?
Describe how a cell's chromosomes change as a cell prepares to divide.
Give an example in which scientist might calculate the mean of a data set.
Eukaryotic transcription differs from prokaryotic in that a. eukaryotes have only one RNA polymerase. b. eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases. c. prokaryotes have three RNA polymerases. d. both a & c