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lecture exam 3

Terms in this set (100)

Which of the following are functions of the circulatory system? Select all that apply.
​
​A) Sensation​
​B) Transport
​C) Regulation
​D) Protection
​E) Mineral storage
​B)Transport, ​C)Regulation, ​D)Protection
Which of the following are true regarding the functions of the blood? Select all that apply.
​
​A) It helps maintain fluid balance.​
​B) It picks up oxygen from body cells and transports it to the lungs to be expelled.
​C) Shifts in its flow can help regulate body temperature.
​D) Its proteins act as pH buffers.
​E) It drains excess fluid from tissues to prevent swelling.
​
​A) It helps maintain fluid balance.,​C)Shifts in its flow can help regulate body temperature,D) Its proteins act as pH buffers.
Endocrine glands secrete substances __________.
​
​A) that have no metabolic effects​
​B) into ducts
​C) into a lumen
​D) into the blood
​E) onto the body surface
​
D) into the blood
What makes a cell responsive to a particular hormone?
​
​A) The chemical properties of the hormone​
​B) The presence of a receptor for that particular hormone
​C) The location of the gland that secretes the hormone
​D) The location of the target cells in the body
​E) The site where the hormone is secreted
B) The presence of a receptor for that particular hormone
The nervous system reacts to stimuli __________ compared to the endocrine system, adapts __________ compared to the endocrine system, and has __________ effects compared to the endocrine system.
​
​A) slowly; slowly; widespread​
​B) quickly; slowly; specific
​C) quickly; quickly; widespread
​D) quickly; quickly; specific
​E) slowly; quickly; specific
​D) quickly; quickly; specific
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone targets the __________.
​
​A) thyroid gland​
​B) thymus gland
​C) hypothalamus
​D) posterior pituitary gland
​E) anterior pituitary gland
​E) anterior pituitary gland
The hormone __________ stimulates uterine contractions, and the hormone __________ stimulates water retention.
​
​A) ADH; OT​
​B) OT; ADH
​C) PRL; GH
​D) TSH; ADH
​E) OT; TSH
​B) OT; ADH
Which of the following is not a hypothalamic hormone?
​
​A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)​
​B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
​C) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
​D) Somatostatin
​E) Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)
​
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Growth hormone is secreted by the __________.
A) hypothalamus
B) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
C) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
D) thyroid gland
E) adrenal glands
C) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases __________ and __________.
A) prolactin (PRL); growth hormone (GH)
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH); thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) thyroid hormone (TH); oxytocin (OT)
E) growth hormone (GH); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.
A) adrenal medulla; epinephrine
B) pancreas; cortisol
C) kidneys; corticosterone
D) adrenal cortex; aldosterone
E) thyroid; calcitonin
D) adrenal cortex; aldosterone
The __________ secrete(s) a hormone as a response to hypocalcemia.
A) thymus
B) thyroid gland
C) parathyroid glands
D) pineal gland
E) pituitary gland
C) parathyroid glands
13) The __________ secretes a hormone that increases the body's metabolic rate, promotes alertness, quickens reflexes, and stimulates the fetal nervous system.
A) thyroid gland
B) pancreas
C) adrenal gland
D) parathyroid gland
E) thymus
A) thyroid gland
14) The __________ secretes hormones that regulate the development and activity of T cells, a type of white blood cell.
A) thyroid
B) thymus
C) adrenal gland
D) spleen
E) parathyroid
B) thymus
15) __________ are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands into the blood.
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Neuromodulators
C) Enzymes
D) Acids
E) Hormones
E) Hormones
__________ enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes.
A) Insulin
B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Estrogen
D) Glucagon
E) Oxytocin (OT)
C) Estrogen
Hydrophilic hormones require a(n) __________ to stimulate metabolic activity in their target cells.
A) transport protein
B) ion channel
C) second messenger
D) nuclear receptor
E) thyroid hormone
C) second messenger
Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclastic activity. Calcitonin stimulates osteoblastic activity. These hormones have a(n) __________ effect.
A) permissive
B) synergistic
C) reciprocal
D) agonistic
E) antagonistic
E) antagonistic
Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via __________.
A) negative feedback inhibition
B) positive feedback inhibition
C) direct nervous stimulation
D) spinal reflexes
E) antagonistic regulation
A) negative feedback inhibition
Hormones are removed from the body by the __________.
A) liver and kidneys
B) spleen
C) sweat glands
D) lungs
E) pancreas
A) liver and kidneys
The hypothalamus controls the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland via __________.
A) ADH
B) OT
C) nervous stimulation
D) the brainstem
E) the hypophyseal portal system
E) the hypophyseal portal system
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the __________.
A) kidneys
B) adrenal gland
C) anterior pituitary
D) hypothalamus
E) pancreas
A) kidneys
_________ has more target cells in the body than any of the others.
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
D) Growth hormone (GH)
E) Oxytocin (OT)
D) Growth hormone (GH)
The gland that secretes glucocorticoids can be found __________.
A) in the neck
B) near the brain
C) superior to the kidney
D) draped over the heart
E) posterior to the stomach
C) superior to the kidney
The gland that secretes two antagonistic hormones that regulate blood glucose levels can be found __________.
A) near the brain
B) in the neck
C) superior to the kidney
D) posterior to the stomach
E) draped over the heart
D) posterior to the stomach
The zona fasciculata and reticularis in the adrenal gland secrete __________.
A) glucagon
B) epinephrine
C) estradiol
D) aldosterone
E) cortisol
E) cortisol
Alpha (α) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) secrete __________.
A) glucagon, which lowers blood glucose
B) glucagon, which raises blood glucose
C) insulin, which lowers blood glucose
D) insulin, which raises blood glucose
E) glucocorticoids, which raise blood glucose
B) glucagon, which raises blood glucose
__________ is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets.
A) Insulin
B) Cortisol
C) Testosterone
D) Calcitriol
E) Glucagon
A) Insulin
The __________ has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
A) adrenal gland
B) salivary gland
C) ovary
D) pineal gland
E) thymus
C) ovary
Absence of iodine in the diet leads to __________.
A) hypoparathyroidism
B) hypothyroidism
C) hypocalcemia
D) hypoglycemia
E) hypoxemia
B) hypothyroidism
The pancreas secretes __________ in response to high blood glucose levels.
A) glucagon
B) glucocorticoids
C) insulin
D) aldosterone
E) growth hormone
C) insulin
Most of the thyroid hormone release is in the form of __________.
A) T4
B) T3
C) Triiodothyronine
D) TSH
E) Thyrotropin
A) T4
Diabetes insipidus causes excessive urine production, but the urine has no glucose in it. What might cause this symptom?
A) Insulin hyposecretion
B) Glucagon hypersecretion
C) Lack of insulin receptors
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion
E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hypersecretion
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion
Type II diabetes mellitus causes hyperglycemia (high blood glucose), but the beta cells of the pancreas still function. What is the cause?
A) Glucagon hypersecretion
B) Glucagon hyposecretion
C) Insulin hypersecretion
D) Insulin hyposecretion
E) Deficiency of insulin receptors
E) Deficiency of insulin receptors
The __________ is not traditionally thought of as an endocrine gland, but it has a role in endocrine function.
A) kidney
B) pancreas
C) thyroid gland
D) parathyroid gland
E) adrenal gland
A) kidney
The initial response to stress is called __________ and is mediated mainly by __________.
A) the resistance stage; cortisol
B) the resistance stage; aldosterone and cortisol C) the alarm reaction; norepinephrine and epinephrine
D) the alarm reaction; cortisol
E) the exhaustion stage; norepinephrine and epinephrine
C) the alarm reaction; norepinephrine and epinephrine
During the exhaustion stage of the stress response, stress overwhelms homeostasis. A characteristic of this stage is that __________.
A) glycogen supplies are depleted
B) energy demands are met primarily by fat metabolism
C) fermentation is not enough to provide the necessary ATP
D) energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
E) energy demands are met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism
D) energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
The resistance stage in the stress response is dominated by __________.
A) cortisol
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) angiotensin
E) aldosterone
A) cortisol
Which of the following is a function of cortisol?
A) Inhibits fat digestion
B) Stimulates protein synthesis
C) Promotes glycogen synthesis
D) Stimulates glucose intake by most organs
E) Promotes the breakdown of fat and protein
E) Promotes the breakdown of fat and protein
Thyroxine belongs to what class of hormones?
A) Monoamines
B) Peptide hormones
C) Steroids
D) Glycoproteins
E) Carbohydrates
A) Monoamines
How are hormones eliminated from the body?
A) In bile and urine
B) In sweat and urine
C) In urine and feces
D) In bile and feces
E) In sweat and bile
A) In bile and urine
A normal hematocrit is approximately __________ of the total blood volume.
A) less than 1%
B) 17% to 23%
C) 25% to 31%
D) 62% to 75%
E) 37% to 52%
E) 37% to 52%
Blood does not __________.
A) transport a variety of nutrients
B) help to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids
C) participate in the initiation of blood clotting
D) produce plasma hormones
E) help to regulate body temperature
D) produce plasma hormones
The buffy coat does not contain __________.
A) lymphocytes
B) granulocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) agranulocytes
E) platelets
C) erythrocytes
A patient's blood is found to be abnormally viscous. This could be due to abnormally high ___________ concentration, as this component is the main contributor to blood viscosity.
A) fibrin
B) albumin
C) sodium
D) erythrocyte
E) nitrogenous waste
D) erythrocyte
What would happen If all the hemoglobin contained in RBCs was released into the plasma?
A) It would considerably increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
B) It would facilitate the delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries
C) It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.
D) It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
E) It would drastically increase blood pressure.
D) It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?
A) Glycogen
B) Fibrinogen
C) Glucose
D) Urea
E) Albumin
A) Glycogen
What is the most abundant protein in plasma?
A) Insulin
B) Creatine
C) Bilirubin
D) Albumin
E) Creatinine
D) Albumin
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.
A) blood clots
B) nitrogenous wastes
C) platelets
D) glucose
E) albumin
A) blood clots
When doing blood analysis of a sample taken from an ill patient, a lab technician discovers the protein called __________ that is not normally found in plasma. This could be due to abnormal rupturing of RBCs.
A) albumin
B) hemoglobin
C) transferrin
D) globulin
E) fibrinogen
B) hemoglobin
Erythrocytes function to transport oxygen and __________.
A) defend the body against pathogens
B) initiate blood clotting
C) regulate erythropoiesis
D) transport nutrients
E) transport some carbon dioxide
E) transport some carbon dioxide
Most oxygen is transported bound to __________.
A) the plasma membrane of erythrocytes
B) alpha chains in hemoglobin
C) beta chains in hemoglobin
D) delta chains in hemoglobin
E) heme groups in hemoglobin
E) heme groups in hemoglobin
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
A) Biliverdin
B) Bilirubin
C) Globin
D) Heme
E) Iron
B) Bilirubin
What is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below?
A) High altitude
B) Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide
C) Renal disease
D) Smoking
E) Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia
C) Renal disease
Which of the following is not a consequence of anemia?
A) Blood viscosity is increased.
B) The individual is lethargic.
C) Blood osmolarity is reduced.
D) Blood resistance to flow is reduced.
E) More fluid transfers from the bloodstream to the intercellular spaces.
A) Blood viscosity is increased.
Where do most RBCs die?
A) Stomach
B) Red bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) Lymph nodes
E) Pancreas
C) Spleen
A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.
A) vitamin C
B) iron
C) vitamin B12
D) EPO secretion
E) folic acid
C) vitamin B12
An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.
A) decreased oxygen in the blood
B) increased blood osmolarity
C) increased RBC production
D) increased blood viscosity
E) increased hematocrit
A) decreased oxygen in the blood
Sickle-cell disease is not __________.
A) caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin
B) a hereditary hemoglobin defect
C) advantageous to protect carriers against malaria
D) a cause of malaria
E) a cause of anemia
D) a cause of malaria
Type AB blood has ____________ RBC antigen(s).
A) no
B) anti-A and anti-B
C) anti-A
D) anti-B
E) A and B
E) A and B
Type A blood can safely donate RBCs to __________ and can receive RBCs of type __________.
A) O; AB
B) AB; O
C) A; B
D) B; A
E) O; O
B) AB; O
RhoGAM is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to Rh+ children. RhoGAM is what type of plasma protein?
A) Immune globulin
B) Transferrin
C) Hemoglobin
D) Fibrinogen
E) Albumin
A) Immune globulin
The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is __________.
A) AB, Rh-negative
B) AB, Rh-positive
C) O, Rh-negative
D) O, Rh-positive
E) ABO, Rh-negative
C) O, Rh-negative
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibody(-ies).
A) A and D; B
B) B and D; A
C) B; A and D
D) A; B and D
E) D; A and B
B) B and D; A
The main reason why an individual AB, Rh-negative cannot donate blood to an individual A, Rh-positive is because __________.
A) anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
B) anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
C) anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
D) anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
E) anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
E) anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), or erythroblastosis fetalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.
A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive
B) Rh-positive; Rh-negative
C) O; AB
D) AB; O
E) O; O
A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive
___________ aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant).
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Platelets
E) Monocytes
B) Basophils
The differential count of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.
A) basophils
B) monocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) eosinophils
E) neutrophils
E) neutrophils
A total WBC count above normal is called __________.
A) Leukemia
B) Leukopenia
C) Leukocytosis
D) Lymphoma
E) Myelodysplastic syndrome
C) Leukocytosis
Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.
A) hematopoietic stem cells
B) precursor cells
C) colony-forming units
D) myeloblasts
E) lymphoblasts
A) hematopoietic stem cells
Some lymphocytes, such as those responsible for immune system memory, can live for up to __________.
A) days
B) weeks
C) months
D) years
E) decades
E) decades
All these can cause leukopenia except __________.
A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B) lead poisoning
C) radiation therapy
D) dehydration
E) immunosuppressant drugs
D) dehydration
The overall cessation of bleeding is specifically called ___________.
A) hematopoiesis
B) homeostasis
C) hemostasis
D) platelet plug formation
E) coagulation
C) hemostasis
Platelets release ____________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.
A) heparin
B) thrombin
C) thromboplastin
D) prostacyclin
E) serotonin
E) serotonin
Platelets do not secrete __________.
A) clotting factors
B) thrombopoietin
C) growth factors
D) vasoconstrictors
E) a clot-dissolving enzyme called plasmin
B) thrombopoietin
What are the most abundant agranulocytes?
A) Macrophages
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes
E) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
What are the least abundant formed elements?
A) Platelets
B) Basophils
C) Erythrocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the ____________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) ______________.
A) thrombus; embolus
B) embolism; thrombus
C) plaque; thrombus
D) thrombosis; plaque
E) plaque; embolus
A) thrombus; embolus
The structural framework of the blood clot is formed by __________.
A) thrombin
B) plasmin
C) fibrin
D) fibrinogen
E) albumin
C) fibrin
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.
A) prothrombin
B) thromboplastin
C) kallikrein
D) plasmin
E) platelet-derived growth factor
D) plasmin
Oxygen-poor blood passes through __________.
A) the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve
B) the right AV (tricuspid) valve only
C) the left AV (bicuspid) valve and aortic valve
D) the left AV (bicuspid) valve only
E) the pulmonary and aortic valves
A) the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve
The __________ is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart.
A) parietal pericardium
B) visceral pericardium
C) endocardium
D) epicardium
E) myocardium
A) parietal pericardium
Pericardial fluid is found between which structures?
A) The visceral pericardium and the myocardium
B) The visceral pericardium and the epicardium
C) The parietal and visceral pericardia
D) The myocardium and endocardium
E) The epicardium and myocardium
C) The parietal and visceral pericardia
The __________ performs the work of the heart.
A) fibrous skeleton
B) pericardial cavity
C) endocardium
D) myocardium
E) epicardium
D) myocardium
The ________ on the heart surface marks the boundary between the ventricles.
A) coronary sulcus
B) interventricular septum
C) interatrial septum
D) interventricular sulcus
E) medial margin
D) interventricular sulcus
The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between the __________.
A) right atrium and the left atrium
B) right atrium and right ventricle
C) right atrium and the left ventricle
D) left atrium and the left ventricle
E) left ventricle and the right ventricle
B) right atrium and right ventricle
If the ___________ fails to adequately initiate a regular heartbeat, it is often replaced with an artificial pacemaker.
A) subendocardial conducting network
B) bicuspid valve
C) sinoatrial (SA) node
D) atrioventricular (AV) node
E) tricuspid valve
C) sinoatrial (SA) node
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
A) The sinoatrial (SA) node
B) The tendinous cords (TC)
C) The atrioventricular (AV) node
D) The atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
E) The subendocardial conducting network
B) The tendinous cords (TC)
What is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?
A) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
B) Atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV
C) Atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
D) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
E) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV
D) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV
Atrial depolarization is read as the __________ on an EKG.
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) ST segment
E) QT interval
A) P wave
When does atrial systole begin on an EKG?
A) Immediately before the P wave
B) Immediately after the P wave
C) During the Q wave
D) During the S-T segment
E) Immediately after the T wave
B) Immediately after the P wave
When the left ventricle contracts, the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.
A) bicuspid; pulmonary
B) tricuspid; pulmonary
C) tricuspid; aortic
D) mitral; aortic
E) aortic; pulmonary
D) mitral; aortic
The second heart sound is due to the __________ valve(s) closing.
A) atrioventricular
B) left AV
C) bicuspid
D) semilunar
E) right AV
D) semilunar
As the ventricles begin to contract, blood pushes against the AV valves and closes them, causing _________.
A) the first heart sound
B) the second heart sound
C) a heart murmur
D) blood to pass into the atria
E) the sounds of Korotkoff
A) the first heart sound
If stroke volume goes up and heart rate remains constant, cardiac output will __________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) stay the same
D) increase then decrease
E) decrease then increase
A) increase
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will increase heart rate and stroke volume, therefore __________ cardiac output.
A) increasing
B) decreasing
C) not affecting
D) nullifying
E) neutralizing
A) increasing
Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood?
A) The pulmonary veins and vena cavae
B) The aorta and pulmonary veins
C) The aorta and vena cavae
D) The venae cavae and pulmonary arteries
E) The pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries
D) The venae cavae and pulmonary arteries
Which of the following has the thickest tunica media?
A) Small arteries
B) Small veins
C) Large arteries
D) Large veins
E) Capillaries
C) Large arteries
The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________ and in large arteries and veins contains the __________.
A) tunica media; smooth muscle
B) tunica externa; vasa vasorum
C) tunica externa; valves
D) tunica intima; endothelium
E) tunica intima; basement membrane
B) tunica externa; vasa vasorum
Which of the following is not a possible circulatory route from the heart?
A) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → veins → heart
B) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → veins → heart
C) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
D) Heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → veins → heart
E) Heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → venous anastomosis → veins → heart
C) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
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