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patho mod 6, patho mod 5, unit 4 patho, unit 3 patho, pathology unit 2 hw, pathology
Terms in this set (384)
an acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid
A brain abscess is usually the result of a:
Chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection
What is the most common cause of a subdural empyema?
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
Which of the following is the most common type of glioma?
What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain?
Lung and breast
Most common form and is most often caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young children and by meningococci and pneumococci in adolescents and adults
Can be caused by mumps, poliovirus, and occasionally the herpes simplex virus
Can be caused by tuberculous infection
Viral inflammation of the brain and meninges in which roughly 30% occur in children.
Pus-filled swelling in the brain that is typically the result of chronic infections of the middle ear, paranasal sinuses, or mastoid air cells, or of systemic infections such as pneumonia, bacterial endocarditis, and osteomyelitis.
Suppurative process in the space between the inner surface of the dura and the outer surface of the arachnoid.
Infectious process is outside the dural membrane and beneath the inner table of the skull and almost always associated with osteomyelitis in a cranial bone originating from an infection in the ear or paranasal sinuses
Highly malignant and predominantly cerebral.
Slow-growing and can form large cavities or pseudocysts.
Most commonly arise from the walls of the fourth ventricle in children, and from the lateral ventricles in adults.
Rapidly growing tumors that typically spread throughout the spinal fluid
Slow-growing lesions that usually arise in the cerebrum and have a tendency to calcify
benign tumors that arise from arachnoid lining cells and are attached to the dura. They make up 25% of all spinal tumors.
Noncancerous and usually very slow-growing tumor that develops on the vestibular nerve leading from the inner ear to the brain.
Benign tumors that contain both cystic and solid components and generally originate above the sella turcica, from embryonic remnants.
Most common tumors of the pineal gland that typically occur in males younger than 25.
Germinomas and Teratomas
Sinus infections can spread to the brain and cause an empyema or abscess. T/F
MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors. T/F
The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma.
A floating palate (horizontal). Involves a horizontal maxillary fracture leaving the teeth are separated from the upper face.
Le Fort I
A floating maxilla (pyramidal). Involves a pyramidal fracture, with the teeth at the pyramid base, and nasofrontal suture at its apex.
Le Fort II
A floating face (transverse). Craniofacial disjunction with a transverse fracture line that passes through nasofrontal suture, maxillo-frontal suture, orbital wall, and zygomatic arch/zygomaticofrontal suture
Le Fort III
Caused by acute arterial bleeding
Venous bleeding most commonly from ruptured veins between the dura and meninges
Injury to brain tissue that occurs when the brain contacts rough skull surfaces, such as the superior orbital roof and petrous ridges as a result of blunt trauma
Bleeding or hemorrhage into the parenchyma
Bleeding into the ventricular system
The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones. T/F
Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury. T/F
Bilateral fractures are common in the mandible. T/F
Paralysis on one side of the body is termed:
A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a:
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is:
Any process that is caused by an abnormality of the blood vessels or blood supply to the brain is termed:
The mildest type of epilepsy that occurs primarily in children is termed:
Petit mal epilepsy
Radiographic imaging of the sinuses requires a _______________ beam.
An abnormal buildup of fluid in the ventricles that occurs when the flow of cerebrospinal fluid is blocked after it exits the ventricles is referred to as a:
Match the sinus to the age of developmentAt birth as a slitlike space
Match the sinus to the age of development
6 years of age
Match the sinus to the age of development
10 years of age
Match the sinus to the age of development
Aside from head trauma, the principal cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage is hypertensive vascular disease. T/F
Huntington disease is a disabling disease of the central nervous system in which the immune system attacks the protective sheath. T/F
The only natural iodine-containing substance in the body is:
Which modality is superior for imaging of the thyroid gland?
Exophthalmos is a major physical finding in:
Excess thyroid hormone production from the entire gland results in:
Enlargement of the thyroid gland not associated with inflammatory or neoplastic processes and not initially associated with hyperthyroidism and myxedema is known as:
What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
There are _____ parathyroid glands in the body.
Failure of the pancreas to secrete insulin or a failure of target organs to respond to this hormone causes:
Which of the following is a major complication of diabetes mellitus?
A diabetic patient is NPO for an upper GI exam. While waiting for the radiologist to arrive, the patient complains of feeling lightheaded, and you notice the patient is trembling. What is indicated, and what should be done?
Hypoglycemic shock; patient should be given sugar in the form of candy or orange juice.
What is the most common type of hyperparathyroidism?
What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Androgens are secreted by the parathyroid glands.
Thyroxine is the only natural iodine-containing substance in the body.
The pituitary gland is often called the master gland of the body because the hormones it secretes control most glandular activity throughout the body.
Cushing's syndrome is caused by a malfunction of the pituitary gland.
Primary adrenocortical insufficiency resulting from progressive cortical destruction is termed:
Which of the following results from excessive growth hormone?
Which of the following is caused by the excessive secretion of androgenically active substances by the adrenal gland.
Cushing Syndrome causes generalized skeletal demineralization and osteoporosis which may require which of the following?
Decrease in kVp
If hyperpituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth has ceased, then _____ results.
If hyperpituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth is still active, then _____ results.
Cushing's syndrome is caused by:
an excess of glucocorticoid hormones.
Which of the following radiographic characteristics is highly suggestive of acromegaly?
Thickening of the heel pad
Hypopituitarism in children causes a type of:
Vasopressin acts to protect a person from:
excessive water loss.
Which of the following diseases may be caused by an adrenal carcinoma?
Cushing's syndrome and aldosteronism
The gonadotropins are secreted by the:
anterior lobe of pituitary.
Gradual marked enlargement and thickening of the bones of the hands, feet and face is termed:
Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in children?
What is an aortic dissection?
Disruption of the intima allowing blood to flow between the layers of the wall
What is a thrombus?
An intravascular clot
What is an embolism?
A piece of a blood clot that enters the bloodstream
An autoimmune disease that results from a reaction of a patient's antibodies against antigens from a previous streptococcal infection is called:
Which of the following conditions are complications of rheumatic fever?
Mitral valve and aortic valve stenosis and Aortic valve insufficiency
Which imaging modality is the most sensitive and specific noninvasive method for diagnosing mitral valve stenosis?
A disease in which the growth of nodules or vegetations on the heart valves is caused by deposits of bacteria or fungi is known as:
The accumulation of fluid in the membrane surrounding the heart is termed:
Which of the following is a major source of fatal pulmonary emboli?
Deep vein thrombosis
Dilated and tortuous superficial veins of the leg are called:
Which of the following is a noninvasive technique used for diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis?
Color-flow Doppler ultrasound
How is cardiomegaly evaluated on a PA chest radiograph?
Measurement of the cardiothoracic ratio
Fatty material deposits on inner arterial walls
Clot material in the circulating blood
Dead heart muscle cells
Rheumatic fever is a primary cause of valvular disease.
Regurgitation of blood through a heart valve means that blood is flowing backward from an opening that is too large or through cusps that do not close properly.
Deep vein thrombosis is a primary source of pulmonary embolism.
A thrombus is a piece of an embolism that has broken free into the circulating bloodstream.
What is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
Tetralogy of Fallot
Constriction of the aorta at the distal arch is termed:
coarctation of the aorta.
Which of the following shows up clinically as normal blood pressure in the upper extremities and low blood pressure in the lower extremities?
Coarctation of the aorta
Rib notching is a radiographic characteristic of:
coarctation of the aorta.
What is atherosclerosis?
Fatty deposits on the inner lining of arteries.
Fatty deposits along the lining of arterial walls is termed:
What is a myocardial infarction?
Death of myocardial cells
Death of myocardial cells caused by a lack of blood supply is known as a:
The inability of the heart to propel blood at a rate and volume sufficient to provide an adequate supply to the tissues is called:
congestive heart failure.
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the extravascular pulmonary tissues is termed:
The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
elevated pulmonary venous pressure.
The leading cause of strokes and CHF is:
What is an aneurysm?
An area of an artery in which the walls are dilated.
A localized dilatation of an artery is termed a(n):
When an artery is dilated, or bulging, on only one side of the arterial wall, it is termed a:
When the entire circumference of the vessel wall is bulging, it is called a:
Tetralogy of Fallot involves four abnormalities.
Rib notching demonstrated on chest radiographs is a characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.
A fusiform aneurysm is a localized weakness that bulges out on only one side of the artery wall.
Which of the following are causes of enlarged kidneys?
Polycystic renal disease
Calcium deposits within the renal parenchyma are termed:
Which imaging modality is the safest and most accurate in detecting renal calculi?
Noncontrast helical CT
What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood?
Blockage above the level of the bladder causes dilatation of the renal pelvicalyceal system, which is called:
The medical term that means to void or empty the bladder of urine is:
The most common renal neoplasm is a:
radiographic finding-Pronounced distortion and displacement of the pelvicalyceal system
Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)
radiographic finding- One or more polypoid defects arising from the bladder wall or as focal bladder wall thickening
radiographic finding- Localized bulging or generalized renal enlargement and elongation of adjacent calyces
Renal Cell Carcinoma
radiographic finding- Displaced kidney laterally and downward
radiographic finding- Enlarged kidneys with mottled presence of multiple lucent lesions
Polycystic kidney disease
radiographic finding- Beak Sign
Blockage above the level of the bladder causes unilateral dilatation of the ureter and renal pelvicalyceal system.
A miniature replica of a kidney is termed:
A rare anomaly in which a kidney fails to develop is called:
unilateral renal agenesis.
What is an ectopic kidney?
A kidney that is not located in the normal location
When the kidneys are fused at their lower poles, they are termed a(n):
A cystic dilatation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder is called a:
Which type of severe infection occurs almost exclusively in diabetic patients and causes acute necrosis of the entire kidney?
What is the most common hospital-acquired infection?
What term is used to describe an abnormally positioned kidney?
Which urinary disease occurs almost exclusively in males and is defined as a thin transverse membrane that causes bladder outlet obstruction and may lead to severe hydronephrosis, hydroureter, and renal damage?
Posterior urethral valves
Inflammation of the urinary bladder
Ectopic kidney describes when a kidney fails to develop.
Chronic cystitis is evidenced radiographically by a decrease in bladder size and wall irregularity.
Iron deficiency anemia usually results from:
chronic blood loss.
Which type of hemolytic anemia occurs preponderantly in persons of Italian, Greek, or Sicilian descent?
Which form of hemolytic anemia causes the most severe radiographic changes?
Aplastic anemia results from:
failure of bone marrow to function.
A neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells is termed:
An inherited anomaly in blood coagulation that appears clinically only in males is termed:
Neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells
Which imaging modality has become the primary modality for imaging of both the male and female reproductive systems?
Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly performed today?
Mammography and Hysterosalpingography
A _____ is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis.
chancre on the genitals
Which stage of syphilis is incurable?
Which of the following body systems may be affected by the tertiary stage of syphilis?
Skeletal, cardiovascular and CNS
Which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease?
Which of the following is a serious complication of gonorrhea in females?
Fibrous scarring of fallopian tubes
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be demonstrated via:
ultrasound (US) or CT.
Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in men?
Carcinoma of the prostate
Transrectal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for detection of:
carcinoma of the prostate.
Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma?
Cryptorchidism is associated with increased risk of malignancy in the affected testis.
What is a common cause of an inability to empty the urinary bladder in males?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Which of the following is used to diagnose cervical cancer?
A painful condition in which endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus is termed:
Which of the following most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women?
Which of the following are causes of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women?
Venereal disease, complication of intrauterine devices, multiple sexual partners
The preferred imaging modality for demonstration of testicular torsion depends upon:
age of patient.
The twisting of the gonad on its pedicle is known as:
What condition is associated with cryptorchidism?
What is cryptorchidism?
The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis
Esophageal atresia and TE fistula are often associated with other congenital malformations of the skeletal, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems.
GERD is a common complication of hiatal hernia.
Esophageal varices are most commonly caused by a malfunction of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Hiatal hernia is the most common disorder diagnosed on upper GI exams.
Peptic ulcer disease most commonly occurs in the duodenum.
Crohn's disease most commonly occurs in geriatric patients.
Which of the following is the most common cause of esophagitis?
gastroesophageal reflux disease
Which of the following is described as replacement of the normal squamous lining of the esophagus by columnar epithelium similar to that of the stomach and has high propensity to develop into Adenocarcinoma (malignancy)?
Varices are usually caused by portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis
Esophageal Varices can be described as:
Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus
The most common cause of esophageal varices is:
Portal hypertension from cirrhosis of the liver
What is the most common abnormality seen on an Upper Gastrointestinal series?
Functional obstruction of the distal esophagus with proximal dilation caused y incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter is termed:
Thickening and swelling of the pylorus as a result of the two muscular layers of the pylorus becoming hyperplastic and hypertrophic describes which of the following:
The imaging modality of choice to demonstrate a pyloric stenosis is:
Which of the following is the most common cause of Gastrointestinal bleeding?
Where is the most common location of gastric ulcers?
Where in the stomach do most gastric cancers occur?
Which imaging modality is used to stage gastric carcinoma?
A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause characterized by diseased segments of bowel separated by healthy bowel (skip lesions) is termed:
The distended abdomen from a small bowel obstruction is considered a/an____________pathological condition in terms of beam attenuation and may require a/an _________ in technical factors.
A common disorder of intestinal motor activity in which fluid and gas do not progress normally through an unobstructed bowel is called:
A disorder characterized by defective absorption of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats from the small bowel is termed:
Telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another is called volvulus.
The twisting of the bowel on itself is called a volvulus.
A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed:
Where in the colon do most primary cancers arise?
In preexisting polyps
What is one of the most common causes of obstruction in the large bowel?
primary colon cancer
Progressive shortening and rigidity of the colon and absent haustral patterns are radiographic evidence of:
chronic ulcerative colitis
A condition of acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through muscular layers at points of weaknesses of the bowel wall is known as:
Which of the following would best demonstrate diverticulosis?
Outpouchings that represent acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layers at points of weakness in the bowel wall are termed:
Which of the following is the modality of choice when diagnosing an appendicitis?
CT abdomen and pelvis
Which of the following are symptoms of gall stones?
RUQ pain after eating
A rare condition in which the growth of gas-forming organisms in the gallbladder is facilitated by stasis and ischemia caused by cystic duct obstruction is referred to as:
The condition of having abnormal calcifications or stones in the gallbladder
What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?
obstruction of the cystic duct by an impacted gallstone
Ascites is considered to be a/an ______________disease as it relates to beam attenuation and requires an ____________ in technical factors.
imaging modality of choice for cholelithiasis?
Which of the following refers to an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity and is commonly associated with cirrhosis of the liver.
required in diagnosing hepatocellular carcinoma?
Α condition in which the inner gallbladder wall is encrusted with calcium causing the wall to become brittle, hard, and bluish in color.
which hepatitis virus Can only occur with Hepatitis B
which hepatitis virus is transmitted via blood, semen, other bodily fluids. It can lead to acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma. It is preventable with a vaccine.
which hepatitis virus: Recently isolated, may cause chronic hepatitis, no vaccine
which hepatitis virus is found in stool and blood and transmitted in contaminated water and food. The disease is typically mild and is preventable with a vaccine.
which hepatitis virus is More common in developing countries where it is transmitted by contaminated water. There is no current vaccine.
which hepatitis virus is Transmitted via sharing needles or other equipment used to prepare and inject drugs. It can cause acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. There is no current vaccine.
Pneumoperitoneum is a sign of perforation of the GI tract.
About 60% of pancreatic cancers occur in the tail of the pancreas.
Most pancreatic cancers occur in the head of the pancreas.
A patient suspected of having a small pneumoperitoneum should be in the upright position for ___________ minutes prior to taking the upright image.
Which of the following is an inflammatory process in which protein- and lipid-digesting enzymes become activated within the pancreas and begin to digest the organ?
Small, oval, and irregular calcifications in the head of the pancreas may appear on an abdominal X-Ray in which of the following?
The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are:
alcoholism and gallstones
Which imaging modality is the best for detecting cancer in any section of the pancreas?
Which of the following should be performed if the patient is unable to stand upright when a pneumoperitoneum is suspected?
Left lateral decubitus
A pneumoperitoneum is best demonstrated in which of the following?
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Excessive alcohol consumption
Obstruction of cystic duct by an impacted gallstone
A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause characterized by diseased segments of bowel separated by healthy bowel (skip lesions) is termed
Partial loss of continuity of the joint surfaces
A defect in the pars interarticularis without displacement of the vertebra is termed:
Demonstration of which of the following is indicative of joint effusion or fracture.
posterior fat pad
Rupture and protrusion of which of the following indicates an HNP?
Defect in the pars interarticularis with forward displacement (subluxation) of the lumbar vertebra.
incomplete fracture in children in which one side of the cortex remains in tact.
comminuted fracture of the atlas
fracture in the arch of C2 anterior to the facet
avulsion fracture of the spinous process of lower cervical or upper thoracic spine
transverse avulsion fracture base (tuberosity) of the 5th metatarsal
Bone separated into two or more fragments
fracture runs at roughly 45 degree angle to the long axis of the bone
bone penetrating the skin also called a compound fracture
fracture encircles the shaft and is generally longer than an oblique fracture
Partial discontinuity with a portion of the cortex remaining intact
skin remains in tact; also called simple fracture
horizontal fracture; at a right angle to the long axis of the bone
Fracture caused by disease or as the result of weakening of the bone due to a disease process
compacts trabeculae which decreases length or width of bone
bone is splintered or crushed into more than two fragments
A vertebra with characteristics of vertebrae above/below a major division.
Congenital disease in which there is a failure of the posterior encasement of the spinal cord to close; essentially the lamina fail to unite.
A generalized disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures and blue coloring of the sclerae of the eye is termed:
Osteoclastic (removal) process occuring faster than the Osteoblastic (replacement) process resulting in accelerated bone resorption and a loss of bone mass describes which of the following:
Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton as a result of a vitamin D deficiency causing softened and weak bones is termed:
Long bones appear short and thick with a widened metaphysis
Hip dislocation superiorly and posteriorly
congenital hip dysplasia
_______ occurs primarily in the first metatarsophalangeal joint
Loss of blood supply
splitting of the bony neural canal at the L5/S1 junction; mild and insignificant form.
Spina Bifida Occulta
a protrusion of the meninges through the spinal canal opening. Typically includes clubfoot, gait disturbances, and bladder incontinence.
severe type in which the membranes and the spinal nerves protrude through the spinal canal opening. Typically includes neurological deficits at the affected level and below and hydrocephalus is a frequent complication.
A chronic metabolic disease of the skeleton marked by destruction of bone, followed by a rapid reparative process resulting in weakened, deformed, and thickened bony structures that tend to fracture easily describes which of the following:
A metabolic disorder of purine causing an increase in uric acid resulting in uric acid crystals depositing in the joints, cartilage, and kidneys is termed:
Insufficient mineralization of the infant or child skeleton as a result of a vitamin D deficiency causing softened and weak bones is termed:
The most widely used exam used to identify a pulmonary embolism today is:
High resolution CT
What is the treatment for a pleural effusion?
Ultrasound guided thoracentisis
Air trapped within the skin is referred to as a:
A pateint presents with a pleural effussion in the left lung. Which of the following would best demonstrate this?
AP or PA Left lateral Decubitus
Blunting of the costophrenic angle with an upward concave border of a fluid level is indicative of:
An inspiration and expiration chest -X-ray would be beneficial for which of the following?
2. Foreign Body location
3. Diaphragmatic excursion
1, 2, and 3 only
Air in the cavity surrounding the lung is known as:
A Sniff test is a procedure performed under fluoroscipy for which of the following:
Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n):
The most common pathologic process involving the lungs of hospitalized patients is:
Diminished air within the lung resulting in a partial or complete collapse of the lung or lobe is referred to as:
The Coronavirus of unknown origin that causes upper and lower respiratory infections that begin with a nonproductive cough is:
severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
The disease that attacks the lower respiratory system causing necrosis of the respiratory epithelium of the bronchi and bronchioles leading to bronchiolitis is called:
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
The general term used to describe obstruction of the airways leading to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases is:
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which of the following can demonstrated on a chest x-ray of a patient in the initial phase of tuberculosis (primary tuberculosis)
1. Lobar or segmental air-space consolidation that is homogeneous, dense, and well-defined. (can do lordotic views to see apices)
2. Enlargement of hilar or mediastinal lymph nodes
3. Ghon Lesion
4. Pleural effusion, typically unilateral
1, 2, 3, and 4
The most common cause of respiratory distress in pre-mature newborns due to a lack of surfactant is:
Hyaline membrane Disease
Monitor heart's function and blood pressures
Maintain cardiac rhythm for heart blocks or bradyarrhythmias
Transverse Cardiac Pacemaker
Imaging Recommendations for Swanz-Ganz Catheter
AP Chest X-Ray needed after insertion
Imaging Recommendations for Central Venous Catheter
Requires Chest X-Ray immediately after insertion and then periodically; inspiration/expiration chest is recommended post insertion due to risk of pneumothorax.
Imaging Recommendations for Endotracheal Tube
Requires AP Chest X-ray immediately after insertion and then daily for placement confirmation.
Select all that apply to Croup
-A viral infection of young children
-Edema causes inspiratory stridor and a barking cough
-Characterized by an inflammatory obstructive swelling of the subglottic portion of the trachea
Which of the following best describes achondroplasia?
-Most common form of dwarfism
-Caused by diminished proliferation of cartilage in the growth plate.
-Characterized by a normal trunk length with short limbs, large frontal bone bulging, saddle nose, prognathous, and prominent buttocks.
Localized area of ischemic necrosis with a tissue or organ produced by occlusion or either its arterial supply or its venous drainage.
interference with the blood supply to an organ or part of an organ, depriving the organ's cells and tissues of oxygen and nutrients.
twisting of an organ that can result in infarct
provide an alternative method of blood flow in the event of an occlusion and can develop when a slow developing occlusion occurs.
tissue death frequently the result of loss of blood supply to the tissue
Localized, usually encapsulated, collection of fluid resulting from a pyogenic infection occurring beneath the skin or in a solid organ.
Potential involvement of other organs and tissues in the body by organisms invading the blood vessels
Thick, yellow fluid called pus containing dead white blood cells, inflammatory exudate, and bacteria.
Slightly larger hemorrhage than petechiae
Minimal hemorrhages of the skin, mucous membranes or serosal surfaces
bruise or subcutaneous hematoma measuring greater than 1 to 2 cm
Escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel
Accumulation of blood trapped within body tissues
The immediate response the body tissue has to a local injury is ________________
Generalized edema that occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues through the body
Localized lymphatic obstruction resulting in localized edema
Accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body cavities
In the acute inflammatory response as hyperemia develops, the venules and capillaries become abnormally permeable. A permeable membrane:
allows fluids/cells to pass from one tissue to another tissue or location
Phagocytosis is the process by which:
leukocytes engulf and enzymatically digest infecting organisms and cellular debris
A combination of young developing capillaries and actively proliferating fibroblasts which produce connective tissue fibers (collagen) that replace dead tissue refers to ___________.
In the earliest phase of the acute inflammation response, the arterioles, capillaries, and venules dilate resulting in a dramatic increase in blood flow in and around the injury site. The dramatic increase in blood flow is referred to as_________________ and results in __________ and ____________.
hyperemia; heat; redness
A set of characteristics known as signs or symptoms resulting from the disease process.
Measurable or objective manifestations which can be identified or observed by another person.
Subjective manifestations as described by the patient
The underlying cause of the disease is unknown.
The underlying cause of the disease.
Describes the number of deaths caused by an illness or event over a specific period of time.
Describes any condition that isn't healthy whether it be a physical or mental illness
Refers to the number of individuals who develop a specific disease or experience a specific health-related event during a particular time period.
Refers to the total number of individuals in a population who have a disease or health condition at a specific period of time, usually expressed as a percentage of the population.
The Latin word for "new growth" is:
Symptoms suggestive of esophageal or stomach cancer are:
anorexia and dysphagia.
Using a combination of cytotoxic substances to kill neoplastic cells is called:
The term derived from the Latin term for "crab" is:
When tumor cells flourish, causing the patient to become weak and emaciated, this condition is referred to as:
Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called:
The study of neoplasms or tumors is called:
benign cartilaginous tumor
malignancy of glandular tissues such as breast, liver, pancreas, and cells lining the GI tract.
benign epithelial neoplasm that grow in glandlike patterns
A benign epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or from an inner mucous membrane (polyp)
benign tumor of fibrous tissue
benign tumor composed of blood vessels
benign tumor consisting of soft fatty tissue
benign tumor of muscle
malignant tumor cells resembling stratified squamous epithelium such as the lung, head and neck regions.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Malignant tumors that have invaded the circulatory system and travel as neoplastic emboli
Occurs when neoplasms invade a natural body cavity. (Seeding)
Undifferentiated cell growth—without form (bizarre)
Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell origin
Major route by which carcinoma metastasizes
Neoplastic growth that invades and destroys adjacent structures
Highly malignant tumor originating from connective tissue
Malignant neoplasms that travel to distant sites
Study of neoplasms (tumors)
Growth that closely resembles the cells of origin in structure and function
Assessment of aggressiveness or degree of malignancy
Extensiveness of tumor at the primary site or the presence or absence of metastases to lymph nodes and distant organs
Study of determinants of disease events in given populations
Loss of uniformity of individual cells and their architectural orientation
Ungoverned abnormal proliferation of cells
Increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ
Reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, with a corresponding decrease in function
Failure of normal cell development resulting in small organ/tissue size
Increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function
The most common hereditary abnormality is:
The body has the ability to combat antigens by forming _____ in the lymphoid tissue.
antibodies and immunoglobulins
The modality of choice to demonstrate the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system is:
Hypotension and vascular collapse with urticaria, bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema are characteristics of:
A hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate spreading to the lung periphery is the early radiographic finding of:
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.
Exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses may result in alterations in the DNA called:
A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is named:
When a vaccine or toxoid is used to counteract an antigen, it is considered:
Profound and sustained impairment of cellular immunity resulting in recurrent or sequential opportunistic infections is characteristic of:
Forming antibodies to counteract an antigen by way of vaccine or toxoid
Immunoglobulins responding to the antigens to make them harmless
Foreign substance that evokes an immune response
Additional protective equipment to prevent the spread of highly infectious pathogens through contact, droplet, or airborne transmission
Treated toxin with antigenic power to produce immunity by creating antibodies
Protection used when delivering healthcare services to any person
Protected against antigens; antibodies binding with antigens to make them harmless
Form in lymphoid tissue
44 chromosomes other than X and Y
Always produces an effect
Genetic information contained in the nucleus of each cell passed to the next generation
Manifests when a person is homozygous for the trait
Alteration in the DNA structures that may become permanent hereditary change
Other sets by this creator
patho mod 6
patho mod 5
unit 4 patho