BIOL Final Exam

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The building blocks of nucleic acids are ________.
a. sugars
b. nitrogenous bases
c. peptides
d. nucleotides
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Terms in this set (54)
The building blocks of nucleic acids are ________.
a. sugars
b. nitrogenous bases
c. peptides
d. nucleotides
d. nucleotides
How many neutrons do carbon-12 and carbon-13 have, respectively?
a. 6; 7
b. 6; 8
c. 7; 8
d. 4; 6
a. 6; 7
Each carbon molecule can bond with as many as________ other atom(s) or molecule(s).
a. one
b. two
c. six
d. four
d. four
Which of the following is not a functional group that can bond with carbon?
a. sodium
b. hydroxyl
c. phosphate
d. carbonyl
a. sodium
What makes ionic bonds different from covalent bonds?
a. Ionic bonds share electrons equally, covalent bonds donate electrons.
b. ionic bonds donate electrons, covalent bonds share electrons equally.
c. ionic bonds do not donate or share electrons, covalent bonds donate electrons.
d. none of the above.
b. ionic bonds donate electrons, covalent bonds share electrons equally.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Water is polar.
B. Water stabilizes temperature.
C. Water is essential for life.
D. Water is the most abundant molecule in the Earth's atmosphere.
D. Water is the most abundant molecule in the Earth's atmosphere.
Potassium has an atomic number of 19. What is its electron configuration?
A. shells 1 and 2 are full, and shell 3 has nine electrons
B. shells 1, 2 and 3 are full and shell 4 has three electrons
C. shells 1, 2 and 3 are full and shell 4 has one electron
D. shells 1, 2 and 3 are full and no other electrons are present
C. shells 1, 2 and 3 are full and shell 4 has one electron
Which type of bond represents a weak chemical bond?
A. hydrogen bond
B. atomic bond
C. covalent bond
D. nonpolar covalent bond
A. hydrogen bond
toms that vary in the number of neutrons found in their nuclei are called ________.
A. ions
B. neutrons
C. neutral atoms
D. isotopes
D. isotopes
If xenon has an atomic number of 54 and a mass number of 108, how many neutrons does it have?
A. 54
B. 27
C. 100
D. 108
A. 54
Which of the following statements is false? A. Molecules with the formulas CH3CH2COOH and C3H6O2 could be structural isomers. B. Molecules must have a double bond to be cis-trans isomers. C. To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least three different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon. D. To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least four different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon.C. To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least three different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon.The α-helix and the β-pleated sheet are part of which protein structure? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternaryb. secondaryWhat is the mass number of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons? a. 15 b. 16 c. 30 d. 31d. 31Lactose is a disaccharide formed by the formation of a ________ bond between glucose and ________. a. glycosidic; lactose b. glycosidic; galactose c. hydrogen; sucrose d. hydrogen; fructoseb. glycosidic; galactoseSaturated fats have all of the following characteristics except: a. they are solid at room temperature b. they have single bonds within the carbon chain c. they are usually obtained from animal sources d. they tend to dissolve in water easilyd. they tend to dissolve in water easilyPhospholipids are important components of ________. a. the plasma membrane of cells b. the ring structure of steroids c. the waxy covering on leaves d. the double bond in hydrocarbon chainsa. the plasma membrane of cellsCholesterol is an integral part of plasma membranes. Based on its structure, where is it found in the membrane? a. on the extracellular surface b. embedded with the phospholipid heads c. within the tail bilayer d. attached to the intracellular surfacec. within the tail bilayerThe monomers that make up proteins are called ________. a. nucleotides b. disaccharides c. amino acids d. chaperonesc. amino acidsMad cow disease is an infectious disease where one misfolded protein causes all other copies of the protein to begin misfolding. This is an example of a disease impacting ____ structure. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternaryb. secondaryA nucleotide of DNA may contain ________. a. ribose, uracil, and a phosphate group b. deoxyribose, uracil, and a phosphate group c. deoxyribose, thymine, and a phosphate group d. ribose, thymine, and a phosphate groupc. deoxyribose, thymine, and a phosphate groupHow does the double helix structure of DNA support its role in encoding the genome? a. The sugar-phosphate backbone provides a template for DNA replication. b. tRNA pairing with the template strand creates proteins encoded by the genome. c. Complementary base pairing creates a very stable structure. d. Complementary base pairing allows for easy editing of both strands of DNA.c. Complementary base pairing creates a very stable structure.Cellulose and starch are examples of: a. monosaccharides b. disaccharides c. lipids d. polysaccharidesd. polysaccharidesAn example of a monosaccharide is ________. a. fructose b. glucose c. galactose d. all of the aboved. all of the aboveDuring the breakdown of polymers, which of the following reactions takes place? a. hydrolysis b. dehydration c. condensation d. covalent bonda. hydrolysisWhich of the following molecules is likely to have the most potential energy? a. sucrose b. glucose c. ATP d. ADPa. sucroseWhich of the following is the best way to judge the relative activation energies between two given chemical reactions? a. Compare the values between the two reactions. b. Compare their reaction rates. c. Compare their ideal environmental conditions. d. Compare the spontaneity between the two reactions.b. Compare their reaction rates.DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands, and releasing the parent and daughter DNA. Which of the following accurately describes this process? a. This is an anabolic process. b. This is a catabolic process. c. This is both anabolic and catabolic. d. This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic nor catabolic.a. This is an anabolic process.Which of the following comparisons or contrasts between endergonic and exergonic reactions is false? a. Endergonic reactions have a positive ∆G and exergonic reactions have a negative ∆G. b. Endergonic reactions consume energy and exergonic reactions release energy. c. Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require a small amount of energy to overcome an activation barrier. d. Endergonic reactions take place slowly and exergonic reactions take place quickly.d. Endergonic reactions take place slowly and exergonic reactions take place quickly.Energy is stored long-term in the bonds of _____ and used short-term to perform work from a(n) _____ molecule. a. ATP : glucose b. an anabolic molecule : catabolic molecule c. glucose : ATP d. a catabolic molecule : anabolic moleculec. glucose : ATPAttachment of the mitotic spindle fibers to the kinetochores is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphaseUnpacking of chromosomes and the formation of a new nuclear envelope is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis? a. prometaphase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophased. telophaseSeparation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis? a. prometaphase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophasec. anaphaseThe chromosomes become visible under a light microscope during which stage of mitosis? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphasea. prophaseThe fusing of Golgi vesicles at the metaphase plate of dividing plant cells forms what structure? a. cell plate b. actin ring c. cleavage furrow d. mitotic spindlea. cell plateWhich of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis? a. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. b. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides. c. The kinetochore becomes attached to the cohesin proteins. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore breaks down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides. d. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides.d. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides.At which of the cell-cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence? a. G1 checkpoint b. G2 checkpoint c. M checkpoint d. G0 checkpointa. G1 checkpointWhat is the main prerequisite for clearance at the G2 checkpoint? a. cell has reached a sufficient size b. an adequate stockpile of nucleotides c. accurate and complete DNA replication d. proper attachment of mitotic spindle fibres to kinetochoresc. accurate and complete DNA replicationWhich statement best describes the genetic content of the two daughter cells in prophase II of meiosis? a. haploid with one copy of each gene b. haploid with two copies of each gene c. diploid with two copies of each gene d. diploid with four copies of each geneb. haploid with two copies of each geneHow do telophase I and telophase II differ during meiosis in animal cells? a. Cells remain diploid at the end of telophase I, but are haploid at the end of telophase II. b. Daughter cells form a cell plate to divide during telophase I, but divide by cytokinesis during telophase II. c. Cells enter interphase after telophase I, but not after telophase II. d. Chromosomes can remain condensed at the end of telophase I, but decondense after telophase II.d. Chromosomes can remain condensed at the end of telophase I, but decondense after telophase II.Which type of life cycle has both a haploid and diploid multicellular stage? a. asexual life cycles b. most animal life cycles c. most fungal life cycles d. alternation of generationsd. alternation of generationsA diploid, multicellular life-cycle stage that gives rise to haploid cells by meiosis is called a ________. a. sporophyte b. gametophyte c. spore d. gametea. sporophyteThe part of meiosis that is similar to mitosis is ________. a. meiosis I b. anaphase I c. meiosis II d. interkinesisc. meiosis IIMeiosis usually produces ________ daughter cells. a. two haploid b. two diploid c. four haploid d. four diploidc. four haploidAt which stage of meiosis is sister chromatids separated from each other? a. prophase I b. prophase II c. anaphase I d. anaphase IIAt metaphase I, homologous chromosomes are connected only at what structures? a. chiasmata b. recombination nodules c. microtubules d. kinetochoresWhat phase of mitotic interphase is missing from meiotic interkinesis? a. G0 phase b. G1 phase c. S phase d. G2 phasec. S phaseIf the sequence of the 5'-3' strand is AATGCTAC, then the complementary sequence has the following sequence: a. 3'-AATGCTAC-5' b. 3'-CATCGTAA-5' c. 3'-TTACGATG-5' d. 3'-GTAGCATT-5c. 3'-TTACGATG-5'How did Meselson and Stahl support Watson and Crick's double-helix model? a. They demonstrated that each strand serves as a template for synthesizing a new strand of DNA. b. They showed that the DNA strands break and recombine without losing genetic material. c. They proved that DNA maintains a double-helix structure while undergoing semi-conservative replication. d. They demonstrated that conservative replication maintains the complementary base pairing of each DNA helix.a. They demonstrated that each strand serves as a template for synthesizing a new strand of DNA.In eukaryotes, what is the DNA wrapped around? a. single-stranded binding proteins b. sliding clamp c. polymerase d. histonesd. histonesThe experiments by Hershey and Chase helped confirm that DNA was the hereditary material on the basis of the finding that: a. radioactive phage were found in the pellet b. radioactive cells were found in the supernatant c. radioactive sulfur was found inside the cell d. radioactive phosphorus was found in the celld. radioactive phosphorus was found in the cellThe initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA is ________. a. mismatch repair b. DNA polymerase proofreading c. nucleotide excision repair d. thymine dimersb. DNA polymerase proofreadingWhich feature of promoters can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? a. GC box b. TATA box c. octamer box d. -10 and -35 sequencesb. TATA boxwhen two genes are located on different chromosomes, _____ of the offspring should have a recombinant phenotype a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25%c. 50%The RNA components of ribosomes are synthesized in the ________. a. cytoplasm b. nucleus c. nucleolus d. endoplasmic reticulumc. nucleolus