VT110A Midterm

Where are hazards associated with specific chemicals described?
OSHA Pathogen Standard
Material Safety Data Sheets
OPIM Guidelines
Hazard Communication Standard
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Terms in this set (166)
Where are hazards associated with specific chemicals described?
OSHA Pathogen Standard
Material Safety Data Sheets
OPIM Guidelines
Hazard Communication Standard
Material Safety Data Sheets
The bacterial agent that causes toxoplasmosis is classified as having which biohazard level?
IV
III
II
I
II
What agency mandates regulations related to the safe shipment of potentially hazardous or infectious materials?
U.S. Department of Transportation
Federal Aviation Administration
U.S. Department of Agriculture
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
U.S. Department of Transportation
True or False: Chemicals transferred into secondary containers always require special hazard labeling.
f
True or False: The use of personal protective equipment (e.g., lead-lined x-ray gloves) is optional.
f
Which regulation describes the scope and extent of worker training and the documentation of that training?
Chemical Hygiene Plan
Procedural Control Listing
OSHA PPE Standard
CDC Biosafety Standard
Chemical Hygiene Plan
True or False: Most diagnostic samples from veterinary patients sent to outside laboratories for analysis fall into Category B.
t
Infectious canine hepatitis is classified as which biohazard level?
IV
III
I
II
I
Which government agency is responsible for enforcing safety regulations in the workplace?
FAA
CDC
DOT
OSHA
OSHA
The use of a fume hood when handling chemicals is an example of which approach to minimizing workplace hazards?
Procedural controls
Personal protective equipment
Engineering controls
Administrative controls
Engineering controls
Which is used to calibrate the refractometer? Refractometer standard Normal saline Distilled water Control serumDistilled waterWhat designation is used to describe a pipette that has a double-etched or frosted band at the top? "To contain with rinsing" "To deliver with blow-out" "To contain" "To deliver""To deliver with blow-out"Which type of pipette is used only to add liquid to another liquid and must then be rinsed with the first liquid? Transfer Volumetric "To contain" "To deliver with blow-out""To contain"What is used to clean the optical surface of the refractometer immediately after use? Xylene Soap and water Kimwipes Lens paperLens paperWhat type of tube is used to prepare a urine sample prior to centrifugation? Sterile Conical Microhematocrit Blood collectionConicalWhat item is required for the processing of blood components? Refrigerated centrifuge Standard clinical centrifuge Flat-head centrifuge Angled-head centrifugeRefrigerated centrifugeWhich of the following does not require an adapter for use with different sizes of test tubes? Simple standard water baths Heat blocks Circulating water baths Waterless bead bathsWaterless bead bathsWhich term is used to describe flat field objective lenses? Planachromatic High-eyepoint Abbe ApochromaticPlanachromaticWhich component of the microscope functions to aim and focus the light that is illuminating the specimen? Nosepiece Iris diaphragm Aperture diaphragm CondenserCondenserWhich component of the microscope regulates the amount of light that is illuminating the specimen? Condenser Nosepiece Iris diaphragm Coarse adjustment knobIris diaphragmWhat is the preferred cleaning solution to be used for the routine cleaning of microscope lenses? Methanol Ammonia Xylene Mineral oilMethanolWhat is the preferred cleaning solution to be used for the removal of excess oil from the microscope lenses? Mineral oil Xylene Ammonia MethanolXyleneWhich measurement is equal to 1 kg? 1000 g 100 mg 100 g 1000 mg1000 gWhat is the final dilution of a solution that contains 20 mg/dL of a substance that is diluted 1 : 20? 20 mg/dL 2 mg/dL 10 mg/dL 1 mg/dL1 mg/dLWhich term refers to how close a test result is to the actual patient value? Accuracy Sensitivity Specificity PrecisionAccuracyWhich term refers to the reproducibility of a test result? Sensitivity Specificity Accuracy PrecisionPrecisionWhich term describes a product that is analyzed in the same manner as a patient sample and used to verify test results? Reagent Control Calibrator StandardControlWhich term describes the ability of a testing method to be accurate and precise? Precision Reliability Accuracy ReproducibilityReliabilityCollecting a blood sample from a patient that is not properly fasted is an example of which type of error? Nonbiologic Postanalytic Analytic PreanalyticPreanalyticAn improperly maintained analyzer can introduce which kind of error into a test result? Analytic Nonbiologic Postanalytic PreanalyticAnalyticHemoglobin formation begins during the __________ stage of erythrocyte maturation and ends during the __________ stage. Rubricyte; reticulocyte Rubriblast; reticulocyte Metarubricyte; reticulocyte Rubricyte; metarubricyteRubricyte; metarubricyteWhat is the primary cytokine involved in the stimulation of erythrocyte production? Leukopoietin Erythropoietin Thrombopoietin HematopoietinErythropoietinWhat is the primary cytokine involved in the stimulation of platelet production? Thrombopoietin Erythropoietin Leukopoietin HematopoietinThrombopoietinWhat is the primary cytokine involved in the stimulation of leukocyte production? Thrombopoietin Erythropoietin Hematopoietin LeukopoietinLeukopoietinThe cells in the erythrocyte maturation series in order from most immature to most mature are: Proreticulocytes, metarubricytes, rubricytes, reticulocytes Rubricytes, rubriblasts, proreticulocytes, reticulocytes Rubriblasts, prorubricytes, metarubricytes, rubricytes, reticulocytes Rubriblasts, prorubricytes, rubricytes, metarubricytes, reticulocytesRubriblasts, prorubricytes, rubricytes, metarubricytes, reticulocytesThe cells in the granulocyte maturation series in order from most immature to most mature are: Myeloblast, myelocyte, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cell Myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, band cell Promyeloblast, myeloblast, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cell Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cellMyeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cellAfter a granulocyte matures to the __________ stage, it begins to exhibit granules that are characteristic of the neutrophil, the eosinophil, or the basophil. Correct! Myelocyte Myeloblast Metamyelocyte PromyelocyteWhich cells are part of the granulocyte proliferation pool? Promyelocytes and metamyelocytes Metamyelocytes and band cells Correct! Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, and myelocytes Myeloblasts and metamyelocytesWhich term describes a decrease in the numbers of all blood cells and platelets? Reticulocytosis Polycythemia Erythropenia Correct! PancytopeniaWhat is meant when a sample is described as having a left shift? A leukemoid response Correct! An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood A shift in the neutrophil-lymphocyte ratio in favor of neutrophils NeutrophiliaThe Vacutainer that is most suitable for collection of blood for hematology usually has a __________ colored top. Green Correct! Purple or lavender Red BlueWhich anticoagulant is preferred for routine hematologic studies because it preserves cell morphology? Correct! EDTA Sodium citrate Ammonium oxalate HeparinWhich anticoagulant provides the best preservation of glucose? Correct! Sodium fluoride Heparin EDTA Ammonium oxalateWhat can occur if a tourniquet is left in place for an excessive amount of time? Hemolysis Icterus Lipemia Correct! HemoconcentrationWhen collecting samples from a patient who requires hematology, chemistry, and coagulation testing, the first sample collected will be the one that requires __________ anticoagulant. Fluoride EDTA Correct! Citrate NoWhen collecting samples from a patient who requires hematology and chemistry testing, the first sample collected will be the one that requires __________ anticoagulant. EDTA Fluoride Correct! No CitrateWhat is contained in the "tiger-top" blood collection tube? Oxalate EDTA Silicone Correct! Gel separatorWhich type of analyzer counts particles on the basis of their size? Quantitative buffy coat analyzer Refractometer Correct! Impedance counter Laser flow cytometerWhich type of instrument counts particles on the basis of their relative size and density? Quantitative buffy coat analyzer Impedance counter Correct! Laser flow cytometer RefractometerWhich instrument provides an estimate of cell counts on the basis of differential centrifugation? Impedance counter Correct! Quantitative buffy coat analyzer Laser flow cytometer RefractometerRunning the electrolyte solution through the impedance counter to identify the presence of small particles so that the analyzer does not count them is referred to as the: Histogram output Correct! Background count Agglutinin zero point Threshold control testSamples from __________ may not be adequately evaluated with impedance analyzers as a result of the size similarities between red blood cells and platelets. Correct! Cats Horses Dogs CowsWhat is the volume of each of the nine squares of the hemocytometer with the Neubauer ruling? 0.1 µL 0.4 µL 0.9 µL 1.1 µL0.1 µLWhich term describes an increase in the number of circulating erythrocytes? Polycythemia Pancytopenia Erythropenia ReticulocytosisPolycythemiaWhich of the following is a possible cause of relative polycythemia? Excess EPO in the blood Tumors Splenic contraction Lung diseaseSplenic contractionWhich of the following is a common cause of increased plasma protein levels? Renal disease Overhydration Dehydration Liver diseaseDehydrationWhich instrument is used to measure the total protein content of a sample? HemoCue Impedance counter Centrifuge RefractometerRefractometerThe normal packed cell volume in dogs is about: 32% 52% 45% 35%45%What is the MCV in a canine patient with a PCV of 38% and a RBC count of 6.5 × 106/µL? 5.8 fL 58 fL 1.7 pg 17 pg58 fLWhat is the unit of measure for MCHC? % fL pg g/dLg/dLAn estimate of the total red blood cell count can be obtained by dividing the __________ by 6. MCHC PCV MCH Hemoglobin levelPCVWhen making a blood smear with a sample that is very thick and that contains some small clots, you should do which of the following? Increase the spreader slide angle to about 45 degrees. Decrease the spreader slide angle to about 20 degrees. Dilute the sample 2 : 1 with EDTA. Make the smear from a fresh sample.Make the smear from a fresh sample.What is the predominant white blood cell type in ruminants? Neutrophil Monocyte Eosinophil LymphocyteLymphocyteWhich cell type is characterized by amoeboid nuclear material and abundant, blue-gray, vacuolated cytoplasm? Neutrophil Eosinophil Monocyte LymphocyteMonocyteWhich white blood cell is the predominant one that responds to allergies and parasitic disease? Monocyte Neutrophil Eosinophil LymphocyteEosinophilWhich cell type can be identified by its dark, irregular, lobulated nucleus and its colorless or pale-pink cytoplasm? Neutrophil Monocyte Eosinophil LymphocyteNeutrophilThe cell with a rounded or slightly indented nucleus that almost completely fills the cell is the mature __________. Lymphocyte Eosinophil Neutrophil MonocyteLymphocyteWhich of the following best describes the granules of feline eosinophils? Rod-shaped Small and round Large and oval Varying sizeRod-shapedWhich is the largest white blood cell in the peripheral blood? Neutrophil Monocyte Lymphocyte EosinophilMonocyteIf a patient has 70% neutrophils on the differential blood cell film and a white blood cell count of 12,000, what is the absolute number of neutrophils present per µL? 8400 20,400 840 24008400Phagocytosis is the primary function of which cell? Lymphocyte Eosinophil Neutrophil BasophilNeutrophilWhich of the following best describes the morphology of canine erythrocytes? Biconcave disc Round Elliptical NucleatedBiconcave discWhich of the following best describes the morphology of avian erythrocytes? Round Biconcave disc Nucleated EllipticalNucleatedA platelet estimate that is performed with the use of a differential blood cell film requires the counting of platelets in a minimum of _____ microscopic fields. 6 10 20 1510Multiply the platelet estimate obtained from the blood film by _____ to get the platelet estimate per µL of blood. 50,000 10,000 20,000 5,00020,000Which of the following can be seen in lead poisoning? Basophilic stippling Echinocytosis Spherocytosis AnisocytosisBasophilic stipplingWhich abnormality is characterized by grapelike clusters of red blood cells that do not break up when the sample is diluted with saline? Heinz bodies Rouleaux Howell-Jolly bodies AgglutinationAgglutinationWhich red blood cell abnormality is often seen in healthy horses? Rouleaux Howell-Jolly bodies Heinz bodies AgglutinationRouleauxWhich term describes pale or bluish round areas attached to the red blood cell membrane that are caused by chemical- or drug-induced oxidative injury? Heinz bodies Howell-Jolly bodies Agglutination RouleauxHeinz bodiesWhich abnormality is characterized by coinlike stacks of red blood cells? Howell-Jolly bodies Rouleaux Agglutination Heinz bodiesRouleauxWhich term describes round basophilic nuclear remnants in the red blood cells of animals with regenerative anemia? Howell-Jolly bodies Heinz bodies Agglutination RouleauxHowell-Jolly bodiesWhich of the following is a toxic change that may be observed in neutrophils? Heinz bodies Nuclear hyposegmentation Döhle bodies Howell-Jolly bodiesDöhle bodies. The presence of basophilic macrocytes on a peripheral blood cell film usually indicates increased numbers of: Reticulocytes Metarubricytes Dacrocytes CodocytesReticulocytesWhich term describes cells with regular cytoplasmic projections around the periphery that give the cell the appearance of a scalloped border? Keratocytes Acanthocytes Echinocytes SchistocytesEchinocytesSmall round or rod-shaped structures that are found as single organisms or pairs on the periphery of a red blood cell are: Döhle bodies Ehrlichia Mycoplasma Heinz bodiesMycoplasmaWhich type of stain is used to prepare a reticulocyte count smear? Diff-Quik Wright's Supravital RomanowskySupravitalHow is the reticulocyte count recorded if a reticulocyte smear from a cat has 5 punctate reticulocytes and 15 aggregate reticulocytes per 1000 red blood cells? 2.0% 2.5% 0.5% 1.5%1.5%How is the reticulocyte count recorded if a reticulocyte smear from a dog has 25 reticulocytes per 1000 red blood cells? 2.0% 0.5% 1.5% 2.5%2.5%. What is the absolute value of reticulocytes if 200 reticulocytes are counted per 1000 red blood cells and the total red blood cell count is 2.2 × 106/µL? 220,000 440,000 22,000 44,000440,000The presence of basophilic macrocytes on a peripheral blood cell film usually indicates increased numbers of: Reticulocytes Metarubricytes Dacrocytes CodocytesReticulocytesWhich term describes cells with regular cytoplasmic projections around the periphery that give the cell the appearance of a scalloped border? Keratocytes Acanthocytes Echinocytes SchistocytesEchinocytesSmall round or rod-shaped structures that are found as single organisms or pairs on the periphery of a red blood cell are: Döhle bodies Ehrlichia Mycoplasma Heinz bodiesMycoplasmaWhich type of stain is used to prepare a reticulocyte count smear? Diff-Quik Wright's Supravital RomanowskySupravitalWhat is the corrected reticulocyte percentage if a canine patient has 10% reticulocytes and a packed cell volume of 32%? 4.2% 8.6% 3.2% 7.1%7.1%What is the corrected reticulocyte percentage if a feline patient has 10% reticulocytes and a packed cell volume of 32%? 9.1% 7.1% 4.2%9.1%What is the minimum number of nucleated cells that are counted and classified to calculate the ratio of myeloid cells to erythroid cells in bone marrow? 500 200 1000 100500How would a bone marrow sample from an adult animal be described if it contains 80% fat? Hypercellular Normal Aplastic HypocellularHypocellularWhat stain is used to evaluate the presence of hemosiderin in a bone marrow sample? Diff-Quik Wright's Prussian blue Wright-GiemsaPrussian blueWhat is the common term that is used to describe the presence of neoplastic blood cells in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood? Myeloproliferative Lymphoproliferative Leukemia PyogranulomatousLeukemiaWhich of the following is likely to cause microcytic anemia? Hypothyroidism Ehrlichiosis Drug toxicity Iron deficiencyIron deficiencyWhich term describes chronic bone marrow inflammation that is characterized by increased numbers of macrophages? Fibrinous Hypoplastic Pyogranulomatous GranulomatousGranulomatousWhich term describes chronic bone marrow inflammation that is characterized by increased numbers of macrophages and neutrophils? Hypoplastic Pyogranulomatous Fibrinous GranulomatousPyogranulomatousThe classification of anemia according to __________ distinguishes between regenerative and nonregenerative anemia. Bone marrow response Erythrocyte indices Morphology EtiologyBone marrow responseWhat is the molecule that platelets express on their surface when they are activated? Von Willebrand factor Microparticles Thrombin PhosphatidylserinePhosphatidylserineWhich molecule binds to tissue factor in the plasma to initiate the coagulation reactions? Factor VIII Thrombin Von Willebrand factor ProthrombinFactor VIIIWhich of the following functions to stabilize the platelet plug? Thrombin Prothrombin Factor VIII Von Willebrand factorVon Willebrand factorWhich factor is activated as a result of the formation of coagulation complexes? Factor X Factor IX Factor VIII Factor IIFactor XWhich of the following is involved in the breakdown of the clot? Tissue plasminogen activator D-Dimers Tissue factor ThrombinTissue plasminogen activatorWhich anticoagulant is preferred for platelet testing? Sodium citrate Heparin EDTA Ammonium oxalateEDTAWhich is the preferred anticoagulant for most plasma assays of coagulation? Heparin Ammonium oxalate EDTA Sodium citrateSodium citrateWhat type of technology is used in the Coag Dx™ analyzer to evaluate coagulation? LED detector Collagen-coated membrane Mechanical Wire movementLED detectorWhat type of technology is used in the PFA-100 analyzer to evaluate coagulation? Wire movement Mechanical Collagen-coated membrane LED detectorCollagen-coated membraneWhich term describes the average size of the individual platelets in a sample? Plateletcrit Platelet-large cell ratio Platelet distribution width Mean platelet volumeMean platelet volumeWhich term refers to the percentage of the total blood volume that is comprised of platelets? Platelet-large cell ratio Platelet distribution width Mean platelet volume PlateletcritPlateletcritWhich test evaluates the variability in the size of platelets? Platelet-large cell ratio Platelet distribution width Plateletcrit Mean platelet volumePlatelet distribution widthWhich test provides a measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal? Platelet distribution width Plateletcrit Platelet-large cell ratio Mean platelet volumePlatelet-large cell ratioWhich term describes newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA? Reticulated platelets Platelet bands RNA-rich platelets Granulated plateletsReticulated plateletsWhich coagulation test uses a tube containing diatomaceous earth? ACT Bleeding time PT APTTACTWhich coagulation test evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway? APTT PT Bleeding time ACTPTWhat are D-Dimer and FDP tests used to evaluate? Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity Secondary (chemical) hemostasis Tertiary hemostasis Primary (mechanical) hemostasisTertiary hemostasisWhat is the PIVKA test used to evaluate? Primary (mechanical) hemostasis Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity Secondary (chemical) hemostasis Tertiary hemostasisAnticoagulant rodenticide toxicityWhich test represents a primary assay for the evaluation of platelet number and function? Lee-White bleeding time Platelet estimate Buccal mucosa bleeding time Clot retractionBuccal mucosa bleeding timeWhich coagulation assay is a good screening test for rodenticide ingestion? Prothrombin time Activated partial thromboplastin time Von Willebrand antigen assay Platelet countProthrombin timeWhat is the most common inherited coagulation disorder of domestic animals? Thrombocytopenia Hemophilia Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity Von Willebrand diseaseVon Willebrand diseaseWhich term refers to the presence of pinpoint hemorrhage? Purpura Petechia Ecchymoses EpistaxisPetechiaWhich of the following is often found on a blood smear from patients with DIC? Myeloproliferation Schistocytes FDPs PolycythemiaSchistocytesDeficient or defective production of which coagulation factor results in hemophilia A? Factor VII Prothrombin Christmas factor Factor VIIIFactor VIIIWhat is the most common coagulation disorder of domestic animals? Hemophilia Thrombocytopenia Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity Von Willebrand diseaseThrombocytopeniaWhich of the following are the vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors? Factors II, VIII, XI, and XII Factors I, VII, X, and XII Factors IV, IX, X, and XX Factors II, VII, IX, and XFactors II, VII, IX, and XWhat is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors? Liver Bone marrow Bile duct SpleenLiverThe type of hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE is: Type I Type II Type III Type IVType IThe type of hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells is: Type IV Type I Type II Type IIIType IVImmune complex disorders are __________ hypersensitivity disorders. Type III Type I Type II Type IVType IIIAtopy is an example of __________ hypersensitivity. Type I Type II Type III Type IVType IAntibodies are produced by: B lymphocytes Neutrophils Complement T lymphocytesB lymphocytesThe cell that can differentiate into a macrophage when in tissue spaces is the: Monocyte T lymphocyte Neutrophil BasophilMonocyteWhich of the following is a component of adaptive immunity? Complement Hydrochloric acid Skin LysozymesComplementWhich leukocytes are involved in both the adaptive and nonadaptive immune systems? Neutrophils Lymphocytes Eosinophils BasophilsNeutrophilsSubstances that are capable of generating a response from the immune system are referred to as: Antigens Antibodies NK cells TNF cellsAntigensAn antigen-antibody reaction that results in the formation of insoluble particles is: Precipitation ELISA Colloidal gold OpsonizationPrecipitationThe primary immunoglobulin involved in mucosal immunity is: IgA IgG IgM IgEIgAA test that yields a negative result on a sample that is in fact negative is said to be highly: Specific Predictive Precise SensitiveSpecificThe term __________ refers to a test that has the ability to yield positive results on a sample that is in fact positive. Sensitivity Predictive value Specificity PrecisionSensitivityThe most common type of immunologic test performed in practice is: ELISA Agglutination Immunodiffusion Colloidal goldELISAFor the detection of a specific antigen, the solid phase of an ELISA test contains: Antibody Chromagen Enzyme ControlAntibodyRapid immunomigration is also referred to as: Lateral flow assay Radialimmunodiffusion Latex agglutination ELISALateral flow assayThe most serious transfusion reactions in canine patients occur in dogs that are positive for __________ and that are given mismatched transfusions. DEA 1.1 DEA 3 DEA MikThe vast majority of cats in the United States have type _____ blood. A AB B DalA major crossmatch involves the mixing of: Recipient serum and donor cells Recipient serum and donor serum Donor cells and recipient cells Donor serum and recipient cellsRecipient serum and donor cellsAn agglutination reaction with evidence of many small agglutinates and some 1 2 3 41The primary method of blood typing in reference laboratories is: The tube method Agglutination Immunochromatography CrossmatchingThe tube methodCanine agglutination blood typing is used to determine whether dogs are positive for: DEA 1.1 DEA 3 DEA MikDEA 1.1Neonatal isoerythrolysis has been documented in kittens of type _____ queens. B A AB MikBThe card agglutination assay for blood typing requires a sample collected with: EDTA No anticoagulant Acid-citrate-dextrose anticoagulant HeparinEDTAA minor crossmatch involves the mixing of: Donor serum and recipient cells Donor cells and recipient cells Recipient serum and donor serum Recipient serum and donor cellsDonor serum and recipient cellsThe most serious transfusion reactions in feline patients occur in cats with type _____ blood that are given mismatched transfusions. B Mik AB ABAllergies are mediated by: IgE IgM IgA IgGIgEA term that can be used to describe hives is: Urticaria Angioedema Erythema PetechialUrticariaA condition that involves swelling of the dermis is: Angioedema Urticaria Erythema PetechiaAngioedemaTest sites for intradermal testing should be at least __________ apart from each other. 2 centimeters 2 inches 1 centimeter 1 inch2 centimetersThe positive control for the intradermal test is given a grade of: +4 +6 +2 0+4The Coombs tests is used to diagnose: Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia Combined immunodeficiency Systemic lupus erythematosus Feline infectious peritonitisImmune-mediated hemolytic anemiaWith regard to antibody titers, which statement is most accurate? The higher the dilution, the more antibody in the sample. Results are reported as either positive or negative. A single, high-dilution titer (i.e., 1 : 160 or more) is indicative of an active infection. The higher the dilution, the harder the immunologist had to look to find antibody in the sample.The higher the dilution, the more antibody in the sample.A type of immunologic test that is commonly used to detect and diagnose brucellosis is: Agglutination Colloidal gold Neutralization PrecipitationAgglutinationThe Coombs test is an example of a(n) __________ test. Fluorescent antibody Immunodiffusion Radial immunodiffusion NeutralizationFluorescent antibodyThe __________ test involves the addition of a sample to a plate coated with agar gel. Immunodiffusion Fluorescent antibody Radial immunodiffusion NeutralizationImmunodiffusion