HGST Highlighted Questions

3 negative side effects of fratricide
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Terms in this set (66)
hesitation to conduct limited-visibility operations
loss of confidence in the unit's leadership
increase of leader self-doubt
hesitation to use supporting combat systems
over supervision of units
loss of initiative
loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver
disrupted operations
needless loss of combat power
general degradation of cohesion and morale
what are the three inherent advantages of diving fire?decreased vulnerability to Small Arms fire increased accuracy smaller beaten Zonelow altitude bump maximizes the benefits of both running and Diving fire involving a low altitude run-in with a ______ to ______ foot bump about ______ to _______ meters prior to the Target300 to 1,000 / 1.5 to 2Kdescribe the four T'sTarget torque trim Targetwhat are the three types of pull-off per the ATMdescending, level, climbingneutralization knocks a Target out of action_______temporarilyfragmentation effects can be expected from the m789 HEDP 30 mm round within a______ radius4 metersWhat are the visual markings of a m789 30 mm hedp round?black with yellow bandarming of the Hellfire missile is based on a _____ acceleration and occurs between ___-____ meters after launch10Gs / 150-300 mDuring running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _____ while maintaining_____.Cyclic trimwhen Rockets are selected in the fixed mode the pylons are commanded to the fixed position of how many degrees?3.48The burst radius of the M151 the 10 pounder is ______ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of _______?10m / 50mthe m789 hedp can penetrate in excess of ______ of RHA at ____.2 in / 2.5kWhen conducting AWS harmonization, the target should be located ____ to____ meters in front of the aircraft500 to 1500 mwhat's the gun Duty cycle?the gun duty cycle is a 6-50 round burst with 5 Seconds between bursts, followed by a 10 minute cooling period. Burst settings other than 50, the duty cycle can be generalized to mean that no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle may be repeated. If 300 or more rounds have been fired and the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. aircraft crew members should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.The software range limit for the 30 mm is?4200 min the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven too _______ in elevation to prevent _____ into the ground during landing+11 / diggingIn the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected in the HMD as the site selected, the gun will remain ______, gun firing ________. When the gun is the de-actioned, it will _______.LAST COMMAND position / INHIBITED / RETURN TO STOWHow many rounds will be displayed on a 30 mm wall in the training mode?888wing stores pylons are commanded to the single fixed position of ___ degrees when the squat switch indicates Airborne for more than ___ seconds+4 / 5secThe pen button on the rocket control page may be used to default bunkers up to how many meters thick when the bunk is selected?3 m or 9.84 ftdue to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire Rockets from inboard stations. fire no more than ____ with two ____ launchers every ____ seconds or fire with only ____ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.pair / outboard / 3 / oneLabel the rocket steering cursors.What is the max range for mk66 Rockets?7500 mthe aerial rocket subsystem can be employed independently by either crew member when the active site is _____ and ____; (CPG only) ______.HMD / FCR / MTADSthe pylons articulate independently through a range of ______.+4 to -15during live fire testing shows that Rockets achieve their best Effectiveness between3000 to 5000 mwhat are the different modes the pylons can operate in?ground stow, flight stow, articulation, and fixedon preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure what?jettison will occur properlytrue or false the rocket page is crew station independent page for independent engagements.trueM151 Warhead HE is _______ and referred to as the "______"anti-personel, anti-material, 10 pounderA HF-II which does not receive in R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered a ____."Legacy HF-II"to find the 60° (preferably within 45 degrees) designator offset anglethe angle between the GTL and the LTLfor each _____ and launcher altitude above the target Rmin and Rmax must be adjusted in accordance with the table 14 in the Hellfire supplement1000ft increasewhat are the different sections/assemblies of the Hellfire missile?guidance-missile autopilot and Seeker guidance and control displacement gyro/imu precursor Warhead-control interface group, thermal battery, pneumatic accumulator, CI circuit card, Warhead infused, electronic arm/safe device Control propulsion-single stage, single thrust, minimum smoke, solid propellant, rocket motor, a motor squib, and cruciform wingwhen firing a sail missile autonomously and offset of 3° to 5° to the firing size should be used when possible to preclude the missile firing through the FOV of the tads toPrevent the video from being obscured by the missile's exhaustmatch the correct trajectory to the corresponding constraints box driver. LOBL___ LOAL DIR___ LOAL FLAT____ LOAL LOFT____ a.Selected LOS (HMD or TADS) b.ACQ WINDOW (R06) or selected LOS c.Missile SeekerC A B BFor P+ and Romeo SAL missiles, the allowable angle is ___ for LOBL and ____ for LOAL.20 deg / 30 degwhat's the definition of Ripple fire?Ripple fire mode requires at least two designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes. RIPL allows for firing of missiles coded to both the priority channel and the alternate channelwhat does the tme emulate and replicate?capability to simulate RF MSL operations. the train mode enables a training mode training Mission emulator loaded in the missile launcher that provides the capability of simulating RF missile operationshow long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed on time?30 minuteswhat symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the maximum allowable elapsed on time is exceeded?OT a training mode missile is allowed in the last on time of 30 minuteswhat is "transfer alignment"?MSL receiving updated INU data from aircraft to update IMU. Transfer alignment (transfer of aircraft inertial data to missile inertial platform) occurs automatically, at missile power up with no pilot action requiredwhat are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile Target handover?fcr, tads, IDMcan the Backscatter inhibit the overridden by the trigger's second detent?nohow long must you lay the target before the message "TARGET DATA?" blanks in the HAD?3-5 secwhat is the Doppler beam sharpening?DBS uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary Target and it's Background by flying an off-axis flight path to the Targetwhat does a flashing "R" in the missile status in the inventory field indicate?readyWhat are the three modes the RF missile operates in?STBY, PRELAUNCH, POST LAUNCHthe fcr will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ____ in roll and ____ to ___ in pitch.20 in roll / 20 to -15the gtm/rmap fov is: WFOV _____, MFOV _____, NFOV ______, and ZFOV _____.90 / 45 / 30 / 15Moving Target symbols become stale after ____ and stationary becomes stale after ___.5 secs / 30 secsa single scan burst in GTM NFOV with give ____ scans.3when the fcr detects a moving Target at distances between ___ and ____ the RF missile will always default to _____.500-8k / LOBL_______ Improves STI detection and classification and moving Target indicator classificationscan to scanThe ____ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR center line to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as detected by the RFIcued searchLabel the following FCR targets. -