Main structural members of a ladder supporting rungs?
Lowest and widest section of extension ladder
Bed section (also Base section)
Bottom end of ladder
Butt(or heel r base)
Metal spurs, spikes, or cleats attached to butt
Upper section of extension or some combo ladders
Swivel plates attached to butt of ladder, usually have rubber bottoms
Wood or metal strips, sometimes in form of slots or channels on extension ladder
Rope or cable used for hoisting or lowering the fly
Label affixed to inside of each beam to indicate exposure to significant heat
Heat sensor label
Curved metal devices near top of roof ladder
Bottom section of ladder
Strips of metal attached to ladders at chaffing points
Small grooved wheel through which halyard is drawn
2 lengthwise members of a trussed ladder beam that are separated by truss or separation blocks
Cross members that provide the foothold for climbing
Wooden or metal pieces that prevent fly from being extended too far
Metal rods extending from one beam to the other
Extreme top of ladder
Spacers set between rails of trussed ladders, sometimes used to support rungs
Single ladders can also be called what
Wall ladders or straight ladders
Single ladders are often identified by what
Overall length of beams
Lengths of single ladders vary from ___ to ___ feet
6 to 32
Common lengths of single ladders are ____ to ____ feet
12 to 24
Roof ladders are a type of what ladder
In position, roof ladders are placed
Flat on the roof
Placing the ladder flat on the roof does what
Folding ladders also called
Coommon lengths of folding ladder
8 to 16 feet
Most common length of a ladder
NFPA standard requiring footpads on ladders
Unlike single ladders, extension ladders can be
Adjusted in size for the blowjob
General range in length of extension ladder
12 to 39 feet
I just keep repeating lengths of ladders
Pole ladders are also called
Penis ladders (or Bangor ladders)
The poles attached to the
top of bed section (this card doesnt make sense)
Poles on a pole ladder add
leverage and stability
I love poles
What NFPA regulates stay poles
NFPA 1931 requires all extension ladders __ feet or longer to have stay poles
Pole ladders are manufactured with __ to ___ sections
2 to 4
Most modern pole ladders do not exceed __ feet inlength
Combination ladders are used as A-Frame ladders and/or
Combination lengths range from
8 to 14 feet
Most popular length of a combo ladder is
Pompier ladders are also
Pompier ladders have a large metal ______ to insert into a window or other opening
Pompier ladders ranger from
10 to 16 feet
Advantages of metal construction
Easy to repair, widest range of size
Disadvantages of metal construction
Good conductor of heat, cold, and electricity
Advantages of wood const.
Retains strength when exposed to heat, very durable
Disadvantages of wood const.
High cost, heaviest per unit length
Advantages of fiberglass const.
Poor conductor of electricity
Disadvantages of fiberglass const.
Sudden failure when overloaded and burns in flame
Maintenance is to keep a ladder in state of
usefulness or readiness
Some abuse ladders may take is
Sudden overloading, exposure to high temps.
Poles, beams, butts and butt spurs excite me
Ground ladders should be kept free of?
Keep the ladder away from the vehicle?
Ladders should not be painted except for?
the top and bottom 18"
What is the NFPA standard the requires ladders to be inspected after each use?
What NFPA gives the guidelines for ground ladder service testing
What are things to look for when inspecting metal ladders?
rungs that are damaged or loose
What are 3 things to look for when inspecting a wooden ladder?
dark spots, cracks and water damage
When inspecting a roof ladder made sure?
the roof hooks open fully and with ease
NFPA standard for automotive fire apparatus?
How many straight ladders with roof hooks must a pumper carry?
How many extension ladders must a pumper carry?
How many attic ladders must a pumper carry ?
How many 10ft or longer attic ladders must an aerial truck carry?
How many roof ladders of at least 16ft or more carry?
How many combination ladders must an aerial truck carry?
How many extension ladders 24ft or be carried on a aerial truck?
how many extension ladders 35ft or greater be carried by an aerial truck?
A ladder cannot be raised within how many feet of a power line?
Not overloading the ladder is very important, there should be at least how many feet between FF?
What angle should thee ladder be to the ground?
The length of a 1st story roof, ladder is?
16 - 20ft
The 2nd story window, ladder length is ?
20 - 28ft
The 2nd story roof, ladder length is?
The 3rd story window, ladder length is?
The 4th story roof, ladder length is?
When 2 or more FF are lifting/moving a ladder the FF at which end is in charge?
The FF at the butt of the ladder
If a FF is not ready to lift then he/she should make it known when?
the lifting of a ladder needs to be done in?
Where should one avoid placing ladders?
- near or at overhead obstructions - in front of doors - on uneven terrain
To determine the proper climbing angle divide the working length by?
Before raising the ladder one should always look for?
One FF can safely move a single ladders that is what size?
20ft or less
If personnel are available to butt/heel the ladder then?
it should be tied off
When it is necessary to work with both hands when on the ladder one should utilize the?
Conscious victims can be lowered how?
feet first, facing the building.
How should an unconscious victim be lowered on a ladder?
feet first, facing the building and supported by your knee
Small victims can be lowered down the ladder how?
cradled in the arms of a FF
How should very large victims be taken down a ladder?
With two ladders side by side
It is when transporting an unconscious patient down a ladder to watch for?
if they regain consciousness
Hose should be carried what shoulder when climbing the ladder?
The opposite from which you are going to be working from.
When positioning or raising a ladder make sure that you?
never lose contact with the ladder.
During salvage, what is considered primary damage
damage caused by the fire
These consist of those operations involved in searching for and extinguishing hidden fires
These are the methods and operating procedures associated with fire fighting. Attempt to prevent further damage from water, smoke, heat and exposure during or immediately after a fire by removing property or covering it
This consist of those operations associated with fire fighting that aid in reducing primary and secondary damage during fire fighting ops
The philosophy of______ is to minimize damage and provide customer service thru effective mitigation and recovery efforts before, during and after an incident
What is at the core of everything the Fire Department does
Fires and bales of clothes, hay cotton
break them apart
Overhaul tools and equipment used to open ceilings and check fire extension
pike poles & plaster hooks
Dewatering devices that are best suited for salvage ops
trash type pumps
Salvage covers with holes.......
they should be repaired
Which overhaul tool and equipment are used to open walls and floors
Routing part of overhaul ops
wearing PPE & respiratory protection
Indicator of hidden fire
popping or cracking of fire burning
OPS involved in searching and extinguishing hidden fires
Where does overhaul typically begin
area of most severe fire involvement
Cleaning for canvas salvage cover
rinse with hose stream & scrub with a broom
When concealed spaces below floors are above ceilings or within walls must be opened during the search for hidden fires
remove only enough to ensure complete extinguishment
Safety consideration during overhaul OPS
continue to work in teams of 2
Overhaul OPS should be delayed until
fire scene investigator authorizes
Insulation material is....
as necessary to remove so it can be properly checked and extinguished
How should furnishings be grouped when arranging for salvage
center of room
Damage caused by fire
Most effective way to extinguish larger furnishings during overhaul
Refers to damage caused by suppression efforts
Final part of salvage OPS
Covering openings to prevent further damage
Indicator of loss of structural integrity
Hang on edge, not driven in....
Driven into walls, used to hang things
How should stock be stored to prevent water damage
Synthetic covers are....
less maintenance that canvas salvage covers
Used to construct a catchall
Water chutes may be constructed to drain runoff through window or doors on the.....
floor below fire fighting OPS
Most common method for 2 FF to deploy a large salvage cover
OPS performed during overhaul
determine cause of fire recognize arson evidence search & extinguish hidden fires
1 FF can unroll and cover the top of an object and unfold it
1 FF spread with rolled salvage cover
Most effective way to extinguish burning objects uncovered during salvage
submerge in water container
Characteristic of synthetic salvage cover
Tools in automatic sprinkler kit
stop flow of water to open sprinkler
Salvage starts as soon as adequate personnel are available and....
may be done simultaneously with fire attack if resources permit
Philosophy of loss control
minimize damage and provide customer service through effective mitigation & recovery efforts before, during and after incident
Most common and dangerous threat to FF during overhaul
Operations associated with firefighting that aid in reducing primary & secondary damage during firefighting OPS..
Objects too large to be covered by a single cover it will be necessary to..
splice covers with water-tight joints
Why protect computers and valuable documents in commercial occupancies
vital to business survival
Fire Department salvage efforts before fire incident by working with....
loss control reps for local businesses
Use of wetting agents such as class A foam
valuable for extinguishing hidden fires
Why wipe off tables with disposable cloths
if left on may ruin finish
Where can you locate salvage covers
readily accessible on apparatus
Designed to protect floor coverings
What should be developed for buildings with high value contents & susceptible to water and smoke damage
Used to carry debris, catch falling debris, provide water basin to submerge burning objects..
When extinguishing hidden fires, use wetting agent
Class A Foam
true or false.... Small items still retaining on fire may be submerged entirely
check....First when dealing...with balloon construction
true or false..Fire around windows and doors may remain within frames
In order to check for hidden fire you might have to remove..
Looking for hidden fires begin ASAP after fire has declared...
Overhaul begins at area of fire involvement
Signs of hidden fire
discoloration of materials bubbling paint smoke from cracks ripped wall paper
Indicators of possible loss of structural integrity
2 important factors that affect the condition of building
intensity of the fire amount of water used
Safety consideration during overhaul
use of par monitor for rehab
What extinguishing method may be use during minor overhauls
water extinguisher booster hoses
...inch cotton forestry lines in 100' lengths for overhaul
true or false....Hose line use for fire fighting are different than those used for overhaul
Tools used to open ceilings and check fire extensions
pike poles;plaster hooks
Tools used to move baled or loose materials
shovels, bale hooks, pitchfork
Overhaul OPS are directed by a supervisor...engaged in OPS
true or false...Exhausted Firefighters are more susceptible to injury
Potential hazardous areas are identified by..
marked & barricaded immediately
Wearing appropriate PPE & SCBA is responsibility/enforced by:
incident safety OFC
Most common and dangerous threat to Firefighters during overhaul
Steps needed to establish safe conditions during overhaul
inspect premise operational plan needed tools mitigate hazards
Injuries that can be prevented with physical conditioning, safe lifting, good body mechanics
sprains & strains
Prepared chutes are approximately
10 ft long
arrangement of chutes that channels water
removing water with chutes
As soon as water enters catchall it is drained outside
splice a chute to catchall
Final step of salvage cover
cover openings to prevent further damage or vandalism
When objects are too large to be covered with 1 salvage cover, it may be necessary to
Salvage cover that is placed on floor to hold small amounts of water
constructing a catchall
Most common firefighter deployment of salvage cover
true or false..Salvage cover carry should have open edges opposite neck
Devises best suited for salvage OPS
trash type pumps
Tool used to stop water flow from a sprinkler
automatic sprinkler kit
Fastest way to dewater floors and carpets where water is not deep
Used to remove water from basements and elevator shafs, sumps
Driven into walls to hang things
synthetic one don't need much maintenance should be easily accessible on apparatus holes marked with masking tape do not dry in direct sunlight
true or false...Canvas covers should be mostly dry before folding to prevent mildew
false, completely dry
Salvage covers should be cleaned
scrubbed with detergent solution
Common floor runner widths
24 in 27 in 30 in 36 in
Covers that have reinforced corners and edge hemms, grommets for hanging, synthetic covers are lightweight, economical, can be used for indoor and outdoor
tarp salvage taurplin
Salvage covers can be used for
protect building from heat protect unaffected furniture protect against water damage as a catchall
Salvage covers are made of
What type of occupancy presents challenges for Firefighters who are trying to preform salvage
furniture in middle room furniture of ground cover furniture salvage covers to catch debris
true or false..Salvage OPS should start after fire is under control
Pre-incident plans for salvage OPS should include
protect art cover bedding protect computers, accounts upholstered furniture
Can secondary damages during salvage be avoided
Do not find overhaul OPS until...
fire under control cause determined evidence identify IC or fire investigator orders
During salvage, what is secondary damage
damage by suppression activities
Event that brought about changes in the fire service because of the textile and steel industries. (11)
Majority of firefighters in North America are what type? (13)
Citizens of the Old World & North America were required to keep? (11)
Containers of water to extinguish fires & a ladder to reach the roof
Who organized one of the first fire fighting groups and also founded the first successful fire insurance company in North America? (12)
Distinctive metal marker once produced by insurance companies for identifying their policyholders' buildings? (12)
4 Categories that most firefighters serve in public departments? (13)
Volunteer, pain-on-call, career, or combination
Volunteer fire departments protect what? (13)
Communities of a few hundred to tens of thousands of residents
"Obedience to the unenforceable" - doing the right thing simply because its right? (13)
Characteristic behavior that means truthfulness and honesty? (13)
What characteristic and behavior of firefighters refers to "doing what needs to be done"? (14)
Mission of the fire service? (15)
To save lives and protect property
2 programs used by fire departments to prevent fires? (15)
Fire prevention and code enforcement & public education
Most fire departments operate with what tactical priorities? (18)
Life safety, Incident Stabilization, & Property Conservation
The first and highest tactical priority in an emergency operation? (18)
The joint consideration of the life and physical well being of individuals, both civilians and firefighters? (18)
A tactical priority that prevents an incident from getting any worse? (18)
Activities involved in responding to the scene of an incident and performing assigned duties in order to mitigate the emergency? (18)
Order of rank and authority in the fire service & the proper sequence of information and command flow as described in the incident command system? (19)
Chain of command
Organizational principle that refers to the number of individuals or groups that one person can effectively supervise or manage? (19)
Span of control
Organizational principle that refers to the concept that a person can report to only one supervisor? (19)
Unity of command
Organizational principle that refers to the process of dividing large jobs into small jobs to make them more manageable? (20)
Division of labor
Organizational principle that is intended to educate and train and correct inappropriate behavior? (20)
Setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them? (20)
Fire company that deploys hoselines for structural fire attack and exposure protection? (21)
Fire company that performs forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation, salvage and overhaul, and utilities control and provides access to upper levels of a structure? (21)
Fire company that extinguishes wildland fires and protects structures in the wildland/urban interface? (21)
Fire company responsible for the removal of victims from areas of danger or entrapment? (21)
Responds to and mitigates hazardous materials incidents? (21)
Hazardous Materials Company
Provides emergency medical care to patients? (21)
Emergency medical/ambulance company
Responds to and performs technical rescues? (21)
Special rescue company
NFPA standard requirements that FF I & FF II meet? (24)
Fire service personnel that makes presentations and conducts seminars to inform the public about fire hazards, fire causes, precautions, and actions to take during a fire? (30)
Public fire and life safety educator
Personnel that stabilizes the victims of accidents or illnesses until more highly trained medical personnel arrive? (30)
Personnel that oversees a fire department's occupational safety and health program? (24)
Fire dept health and safety officer
Personnel responsible for all operations within the fire dept? (26)
Personnel that receives emergency and non emergency phone calls, process the info, dispatch units, establish and maintain communications link to in-service companies, and complete incident reports? (27)
Communications personnel (telecommunications)
Personnel that maintains municipal fire alarm systems? (27)
Fire alarm maintenance personnel
Personnel that handles hazardous materials and chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) emergencies? (28)
Hazardous materials technician
Personnel that protects life and property, controls fire hazards, and performs general duties related to airport operations and aircraft safety? (28)
Provides basic life support (BLS) for the victims of accidents or illnesses? (30)
Emergency medical technician (EMT)
Provides advanced life support (ALS) for the victims of accidents or illnesses? (30)
A written communication closely related to a policy? (33)
Based upon a policy or procedure and compliance is mandatory? (33)
Provides a standard set of actions that is the basis of every incident action plan (IAP)? (33)
Standard Operating Procedures
A guide to decision making within an organization? (33)
A request or suggestion that is generally considered as an order on the fireground? (33)
Personnel that directs the tactical operations to meet the strategic goals and tactical objectives listed in the IAP? (37)
Operations Section Chief
Personnel that is responsible for all support requirements needed to facilitate effective and efficient incident management? (37)
Logistics section chief
ICS term for resources currently committed to an assignment? (39)
ICS term for resources that have checked in at the incident and are not currently assigned? (39)
ICS term for the organizational level between Divisions/Groups and the IC and Operations that are implemented to reduce difficulties of span of control problems? (39)
ICS term for the location from which all incident operations are directed? (39)
Personnel that is ultimately responsible for all incident activities? (40)
Personnel responsible for the collection, documentation, evaluation, and dissemination of incident situation information and intelligence to the IC? (37)
Planning section chief
Personnel that is the point of contact for other governmental and nongovernmental agencies and private-sector organizations involved in the incident? (36)
ICS term that refers to a geographic designation assigning responsibility for all operations within a defined area? (39)
ICS Term for functional designations? (39)
ICS term that refers to the function of directing, ordering, and controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority? (39)
ICS term that refers to someone in command of a Division or Group? (40)
ICS term that refers to a written or unwritten plan for managing the emergency? (39)
Incident Action Plan (IAP)
ICS term that refers to any combination of resources assembled in support of a specific mission or operational need? (40)
ICS term that determines the positions for companies operating on scene? (40)
Organization responsible for scene security? (42)
Organization that can play an important role in the delivery of news based on an incident? (43)
what is the definition of a hazardous material?
Any material that possesses an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of persons and/or the environment if it is not preoperly controlled during handling, storage, manufacture, processing, packaging, use, disposal, or transportation
what is a weapon of mass destruction?
any particularly dangerous hazardous material such as certain chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive materials being used as weapons
what are the two levels of training required for first responders in reguard to hazardous materials and WMD incidents?
awareness level and operations level
personnel responding to a hazmat incident must protect themselves with what?
PPE appropriate to their mission at the incident
what may PPE consist of in reguards to a hazmat or WMD incident?
Standard fire fighting protective clothing to chemical protective clothing (CPC) or body armor
will one set of PPE protect you during ANY type of hazmat incident?
No; no one set of PPE will protect you from all hazards
where can firefighters find information pertaining to the level of PPE appropriate for specific hazardous materials?
what is the primary concern of exposures for first responders responding to a scene with a hazardous substance?
respiratory protection; inhalation is one of the major routes of exposure to hazardous substances
what are the basic types of protective breathing equipment used by responders at terrorist incidents?
-SCBA *closed circuit scba *open circuit scba -Supplied air respirators (SARs) -air purifying respirators (APRs) *particulate removing *vapor and gas removing *combination particulate removing and vapor and gas removing -powered air purifying respirators (PAPRs) pg.1062
breathing apparatus must meet the design and testing criteria of NFPA ____?
what are some limitations regarding a SAR apparatus?
-length of airline (no more than 300 ft)
-vision and communications
when should APRs not be used?
in oxygen deficient or oxygen rich atmospheres, and in IDLH atmospheres
firefighters must consider the following limitations of equipment and air supply:
- limited visibility -decreased ability to communicate -increased weight -decreased mobility -inadequate oxygen levels - chemical specific pg. 1068
the following physical, medical, and mental limitations affect first responders ability to use respiratory proctection equipment effectively:
what are the two basic types of high temperature clothing?
-proximity suits pg. 1071 -fire entry suits
*permit close approach to fires for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities such as in aircraft rescue and fire fighting or other fire fighting operations involving flammable liquids. these suits provide greater heat protection than standard structural fire fighting protective clothing.
allow a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time; they provide short duration and close proximity protection at radiant heat temperatures as high as 2,000° F (1,093° C). each suit has a specific use and it is not interchangable. fire entry suits are not designed to protect the wearer against chemical hazards.
-fire entry suits
when used as part of a protective ensemble, liquid splash protective ensembles may use what kind of respiratory protection?
SCBA, SAR, or full face, air purifying, canister equipped respirator
what kind of respiratory protection should be used with vapor protective clothing
positive pressure SCBA or combination SCBA/SAR
what are the levels of protective equipment to be used at incidents involving CBR materials?
Level A, B, C, D pg. 1073-1077
*Highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection that can be afforded by personal protective equipment. Consists of positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, totally encapsulating chemical-protective suit, inner and outer gloves, and chemical-resistant boots.
*Personal protective equipment that affords the highest level of respiratory protection, but a lesser level of skin protection. Consists of positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, hooded chemical-resistant suit, inner and outer gloves, and chemical-resistant boots.
*Personal protective equipment that affords a lesser level of respiratory and skin protection than levels A or B. Consists of full-face or half-mask APR, hooded chemical-resistant suit, inner and outer gloves, and chemical-resistant boots.
*Personal protective equipment that affords a lesser level of respiratory and skin protection than levels A or B. Consists of full-face or half-mask APR, hooded chemical-resistant suit, inner and outer gloves, and chemical-resistant boots.
what level of protective equipment provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles for the respiratory tract, eyes, and ski
what level of protective equipment provides protection against splashes from a hazardous material?
what is level C protective equipment composed of?
splash protecting garment and an air purifying device
when can level D protection be worn?
ONLY when no atmospheric hazards exist
what NFPA was established for performance requirements for 3 classes of PPE ensembles that are used in situations involving chemical or biological terrorism agents?
NFPA 1994: PPE ensemble classifications
what are the three classes of PPE that meet NFPA 1994 requirements?
Class 1, class 2, and class 3
what are MOPP ensembles used for?
to protect against chemical, biological, and radiological hazards
who typically uses MOPP ensembles?
the U.S. military
how many times can JLIST protective garment be laundered?
up to 6 times for personal hygiene
how many consecutive days can the JLIST ensemble be worn?
45 consecutive days with a total out of the bag available usage of 120 days
what is heat cramps?
Heat illness resulting from prolonged exposure to high temperatures; characterized by excessive sweating, muscle cramps in the abdomen and legs, faintness, dizziness, and exhaustion.
what is heat exhaustion?
Heat illness caused by exposure to excessive heat; symptoms include weakness, cold and clammy skin, heavy perspiration, rapid and shallow breathing, weak pulse, dizziness, and sometimes unconsciousness.
what is heat rash?
Condition that develops from continuous exposure to heat and humid air; aggravated by clothing that rubs the skin; reduces the individual's tolerance to heat
what is heat stroke?
Heat illness caused by heat exposure, resulting in failure of the body's heat regulating mechanism; symptoms include high fever of 105° to 106° F (40.5° C to 41.1° C); dry, red, hot skin; rapid, strong pulse; and deep breaths, convulsions. May result in coma or possibly death. Also called Sunstroke.
what is hypothermia?
Abnormally low or decreased body temperature.
what is frost bite?
Local freezing and tissue damage due to prolonged exposure to extreme cold
what is ionizing radiation?
Radiation that has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms resulting in a chemical change in the atom
what are three ways to provide protection from external radiation during an emergency?
-time *the shorter the exposure time the smaller the total radiation dose
-distance *the farther from the source the less the exposure
-shielding *certain materials such as lead, earth, concrete, and water prevent penetration of some types of radiation
pg. 1088 - 1089
what are the two types of asphyxiants?
- simple asphyxients
*gases that displace oxygen necessary for breathing
*substances that prevent the body from using oxygen
what are the 4 main routes of entry through which hazardous materials can enter the body and cause harm?
the likelihood of an adverse health effect occuring and the severity of the effect depend on what factors?
-toxicity of the chemical -pathway or route of exposure - nature and extent of exposure pg. 1090
what is a systemic effect?
Something that affects an entire system rather than a single location or entity
what is a lethal dose?
Concentration of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of a certain percentage of the test population; the lower the dose the more toxic the substance; an oral or dermal exposure expressed in milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg)
what is a lethal concentration?
Concentration of an inhaled substance that results in the death of a certain percentage of the test population; the lower the value the more toxic the substance; an inhalation exposure expressed in parts per million (ppm), milligrams per liter (mg/liter), or milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)
what is a threshold limit value (TLV)?
Concentration of a given material in parts per million (ppm) that may be tolerated for an 8-hour exposure during a regular workweek without ill effects
what is a Threshold Limit Value/Ceiling (TLV®/C)?
Maximum concentration of a given material in parts per million (ppm) that should not be exceeded, even instantaneously
what is the Threshold Limit Value/Short-Term Exposure Limit (TLV®/STEL)?
Fifteen-minute time-weighted average exposure that should not be exceeded at any time nor repeated more than four times daily with a 60-minute rest period required between each STEL exposure. These short-term exposures can be tolerated without suffering from irritation, chronic or irreversible tissue damage, or narcosis of a sufficient degree to increase the likelihood of accidental injury, impair self-rescue, or materially reduce worker efficiency. TLV/STELs are expressed in parts per million (ppm) and milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)
what is a corrosive material?
Gaseous, liquid or solid material that can burn, irritate, or destroy human skin tissue and severely corrode steel
what is a convulsant?
Poison that causes an exposed individual to have convulsions
what is a carcinogen?
what is an allergen?
Material that can cause an allergic reaction of the skin or respiratory system
what are the 4 types of etiological/biological hazards?
Measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate; pressure at which a vapor is in equilibrium with its liquid phase for a given temperature
what is a boiling point?
Temperature of a substance when the vapor pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. At this point, more liquid is turning into gas than gas is turning back into a liquid
what is vapor density?
Weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. Vapor density less than 1 indicates a vapor lighter than air; vapor density greater than 1 indicates a vapor heavier than air
what is a BLEVE?
a boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion. can occur when a liquid in a container is heated, causing the material inside to boil or vaporize
what is water solubility?
Ability of a liquid or solid to mix with or dissolve in water
what is a polar solvent fuel?
Flammable liquids that have an attraction for water, much like a positive magnetic pole attracts a negative pole
what is a materials specific gravity?
Weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature. Specific gravity less than 1 indicates a substances lighter than water; specific gravity greater than 1 indicates a substance heavier than water
what is the meaning of persistence?
Length of time a chemical agent remains effective without dispersing
what is the meaning of reactivity?
ability of two or more chemicals to react and release energy and the ease with which this reaction takes place
what is activation energy?
Amount of energy that must be added to an atomic or molecular system to begin a reaction
what is a strong oxidizer?
Material that encourages a strong reaction (by readily accepting electrons) from a reducing agent (fuel)
what are the 3 sides of the reactivity triangle?
-oxidizing agent -reducing agent (fuel) -activation energy pg. 1106
what are the steps that usually lead to a hazardous incident?
what are the seven clues to the presence of hazardous materials?
-location and occupancies -container shapes -transportation placards, labels, and markings -other markings and colors (nontransportation) -written resources -senses -monitoring and detection devices pg. 1114-1115
what are the two types of intermediate bulk containers (IBCs)?
flexible and rigid
what is the capacity of ton containers?
1 short ton or approximately 2,000 pounds (907 kg or 0.9 tonne)
what are the most common types of nonbulk packaging?
-bags -carboys and jerry cans -cylinders -drums -dewar flasks (cryogenic liquids) pg.1133
what are the 4 basic types of containers radioactive materials are transported in?
-type A -type B -industrial -excepted pg. 1133
what are the 9 hazard classes used to catagorize hazardous materials, in the UN system?
-class 1 *explosives - every -class 2 *gases - good -class 3 *fire - fire -class 4 *flammable solids - fighter -class 5 *oxidizing substances and organic peroxides - ot -class 6 *toxic and infectious substances - to -class 7 *radioactive - recite -class 8 *corrosive substances - classes -class 9 *miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles - monthly pg. 1137
what is the four digit UN identification number usually displayed on?
placards, labels, orange panels, and/or white diamonds in association with materials being transported in cargo tanks, portable tanks, tank cars, or other containers and packages
what are initialand numbers used for?
used to get information about the car's contents from the railroads computer or shipper
what is a capacity stencil?
Number stenciled on the exterior of tank cars to indicated the volume of the tank
what are specification markings?
Stencil on the exterior of tank cars indicating the standards to which the tank car was built
what is NFPA 704?
standard system for the identification of the hazards of materials for emergency response
what is the rating system for NFPA 704?
0-4 0 indicating minimal hazard while 4 indicates severe hazard pg. 1159
what are the 4 categories the rating system is divided into?
arranged in a diamond shaped marker -flammability *red -instability *yellow -special hazards *no specific color but white is most common -health *blue pg. 1160
what are the four manufactures labels and signal words?
-caution *indicates minor health effects -warning *indicates moderate hazards -danger *indicates the highest degree of hazard -poison *indicates highly toxic materials pg. 1161-1163
what is a bill of lading?
Shipping paper used by the trucking industry (and others) indicating origin, destination, route, and product; placed in the cab of every truck tractor. This document establishes the terms of a contract between shippers and transportation companies; serves as a document of title, contract of carriage, and receipt for goods
what is a waybill?
Shipping paper used by a railroad to indicate origin, destination, route, and product. Each car has a waybill that the conductor carries
what must hazardous waste shipments be accompanied by?
uniform hazardous waste manifest document
what is the material safety data sheet (MSDS)?
Form provided by the manufacturer and blender of chemicals that contains information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response procedures, and waste disposal procedures of a specified material
what is a materials lower explosive limit (LEL)?
Lower limit at which a flammable gas or vapor will ignite; below this limit the gas or vapor is too lean or thin to burn (too much oxygen and not enough gas)
what is a materials upper explosive limit (UEL)?
Upper limit at which a flammable gas or vapor will ignite. Above this limit, the gas or vapor is too rich to burn (lacks the proper quantity of oxygen)
what is the ERG used for?
primarily a guide to aid emergency responders in quickly identifying the specific or generic hazards of materials involved in an emergency incident and protecting themselves and the general public during the initial response phase of the incident
what is considered are small and a large spill?
-small spill is one that involves a single small package (up to a 55-gallon drum), small cylinder, or a small leak from a large package
-large spill is one that involves a spill from a large package or multiple spills from many small packages pg. 1177
what is the initial isolation zone?
Circular zone (with a radius equivalent to the initial isolation distance) within which persons may be exposed to dangerous concentrations upwind of the source and may be exposed to life-threatening concentrations downwind of the source
what is considerded a shelter in place?
Having occupants remain in a structure or vehicle in order to provide protection from a rapidly approaching hazard
what is an exothermix reaction?
Chemical reaction between two or more materials that changes the materials and produces heat, flames, and toxic smoke
what is olfactory fatigue?
Gradual inability of a person to detect odors after initial exposure; may be extremely rapid in the case of some toxins such as hydrogen sulfide
what are some symptoms of a chemical exposure?
-changes in respiration -changes in LOC -abdominal distress -changes in activity level -visual disturbances -skin changes -changes in excretion or thirst -pain pg. 1181
what is a chemical warfare agent?
Chemical substance that is intended for use in warfare or terrorist activities to kill, seriously injure, or seriously incapacitate people through its physiological effects
what is a Toxic Industrial Material (TIM)/Toxic Industrial Chemical (TIC)?
Industrial chemical that is toxic at certain concentration and is produced in quantities exceeding 30 tons per year at any one production facility; readily available and could be used by terrorists to deliberately kill, injury, or incapacitate people.
what is a radiological dispersal device (RDD)?
Device that spreads radioactive contamination over the widest possible area by detonating conventional high explosives wrapped with radioactive material
what is a choking agent?
Chemical warfare agent that attacks the lungs causing tissue damage
Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) pg.926
Any location or facility at which 9-1-1 calls are answered either by direct calling, rerouting, or diversion is known as what?
-Radio codes & procedures -procedures for reporting an emergency -completing a basic incident report -relaying information pg.925
What are 4 requirements by which NFPA 1001 requires FF's to know about Fire Dept. Communications?
Costumer service and communicating with those under stress pg.926
Telecommunicators need to be skilled in what?
1 minute pg.926
How much time does a telecommunicator have to initiate dispatch?
Full-time professional communications specialist, not FF's pg.926
In MOST jurisdictions, telecommunicators are usually what?
The on duty officer pg.927
In some cases, the PSAP forwards emergency calls to the station, who then performs the role of dispatcher?
Dispatch emergency responders needed to stabilize the incident pg.927
Once the necessary info has been gathered from the caller, what must the telecommunicator do?
The unit closest to the incident pg. 927
Whenever possible, who should the telecommunicator dispatch to the incident scene?
Incident Commander (IC) pg.928
Who must the telecommunicator stay in contact with during an incident?
To receive requests for additional resources and info pg.928
Why must the telecommunicator stay in contact with IC throughout an incident?
Keep records of each request for assistance pg.928
Once an incident has been terminated, what must a telecommunicator do?
The general public pg.928
Who are the consumers of emergency services?
Transfer to another number to have service request processed pg.928
What should a telecommunicator do if a non-emergency call comes on a 9-1-1 system?
NFPA 1061 pg.928
Which standard contains the minimum job performance requirements for fire alarm dispatchers?
-Handle multitasking -Maintain composure -Function under stress -Handle criticism pg.929
What are 4 personal traits that a telecommunicator should have?
-Basic reading skills -Basic writing skills -Abilility to speak clearly -Ability to follow written and spoken directions pg.929
Telecommunicators are required to have these 4 skills?
In townships, ranges & sections pg.930
Telecommunicators that have wildland responsibilities must be able to read a map laid out how?
Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) pg.930
This is a newer system that displays maps on a screen to help advise the telecommunicator which unit to dispatch?
Automatic Vehicle Locating (AVL) pg.930
This system uses technology to locate a fire dept. unit on a map as the vehicle moves along the streets?
Communications Center pg.930
This is where all the personnel and equipment to receive alarms and dispatch resources are located?
Public alerting systems and private alarm systems pg.931
In what ways may fire alarms be received from the public?
To transmit voice messages, computer info, and documents pg.931
What is the telephones role in communications?
Public telephone systems pg.931
What is the most widely used method of transmitting fire alarms?
They dont have access to the public switch network and they dont have a dial tone. They connect point A to point B pg.932
Who do direct lines differ from normal phone lines?
TDD/TTY/ Text phones pg.932
This device was designed for low hearing and speech impaired communities to communicate over the telephone?
Fax machine pg.932
This machine converts images, texts, and diagrams into digital signals?
1-2 inches pg. 945
Hold the radio/mic __ inches away from your mouth when transmitting?
This feature of the 9-1-1 system allows a telecommunicator to call back a caller's phone after he/she hangs up?
Voice recorders pg.934
These devices can be used to protect depts. and its members in case of litigation?
Chronologically & for each and every activity dispatched over the radio pg.935
Radio logs should be kept how? And for what?
Allow the caller to hang up first pg.936
What is a major basic telephone courtesy?
This is the primary means of communications for all elements of the fire dept.?
Cell phones pg.933
These devices rely on wireless technology to receive & transmit info?
Called party hold pg.937
This feature allows the telecommunicator to maintain access to a callers phone line?
Forced disconnect pg.938
This is used when the telecommunicator hangs up after receiving a 9-1-1 call, the caller can keep the line open for a short period of time?
Automatic Location Identification (ALI) pg.938
Some basic 9-1-1 systems have this feature that displays the address of the party calling 9-1-1 on a screen?
Citizens Band Radio (CB) pg.938
A lower powered radio transceiver that operates on frequencies authorized by the FCC for public use with no license requirement?
CB Channel 9 pg. 938
The universal frequency for reporting emergencies, and the most commonly monitored by emergency providers?
-Reporting party's name -address -telephone # (cell phone) pg.938
For walk-in emergency reports by citizens into the station, what should be obtained from them other than location and type of incident?
Wired Telegraph Circuit Box pg.939
This box is connected to a wired telegraph circuit that is connected to all fire stations in the jurisdiction and terminated at the alarm comm. center?
Wired Telegraph Circuit Boxes pg.939
These systems are extremely reliable but also limited and notorious for false alarms?
Telephone Fire Alarm Box Pg.939
This system is equipped with a telephone on each box for direct voice contact with a telecommunicator?
Radio Fire Alarm Box pg.938
This system contains an independent radio transmitter with a battery power supply?
Radio Fire Alarm Box pg.939
Activating this alarm alerts the telecommunicator by an audible signal, visual light indicator, and a printed record indicating the location?
Radio Fire Alarm Box pg.939
These boxes may be found on the highway or on the streets?
Give the nearest cross street or describe landmarks pg.940
If someone reporting an emergency doesn't know the address of the incident what should they do?
If safe to do so, stay at the box to direct FF's to emergency. pg940
If you activate a Fire Alarm Telegraph Box what should you do?
Cell phones, pagers, or home electronic monitors pg.942
In an unstaffed station, what is the best way to facilitate a quick response from personnel?
Sirens, whistles, and air horns pg.943
In smaller communities, what types of devices would be used to alert firefighters?
Federal Communications Commission (FCC) pg.943
In the U.S., all radio communication is under the authority of who?
Clear Text pg.943
The uses of plain English, including certain standard words and phrases in radio communication transmission is known as what?
Clear text pg.943
Wildland communities often use this for radio transmissions?
Make a routine call sound like an emergency pg.943
If a telecommunicator shows excitement in their voice, it can ___?
Transmit accurate and as quickly as possible pg.944
This is the guiding principle in transmitting information?
Use a moderate rate of speaking pg.943
This is a guideline for radio communications?
Use the radio to provide a description of the conditions found pg.945
What should the first arriving company on scene of an emergency do?
A description of conditions found upon arrival pg. 945
What does a situation report provide?
-Situation found -Action(s) taken/actions to be taken -Command status pg. 946
Some depts. initial reports include what?
Progress reports pg946
Once firefighting operations have begun, what should be done?
-Transfer of command -Change in command post location -Progress(or lack of) toward incident stabilization -Direction of fire spread -Exposures -Any problems or needs pg.946
What are the components of a progress report?
During large incidents such as structure fires pg.947
When are tactical channels most often used?
No , only large incidents require a tactical channel pg. 947
Would a small routine incident such as a fire alarm investigation and vehicle fire require the use of a tactical channel?
Incident Commander pg.947
Normally , who is the only person who can strike multiple alarms or order additional resources?
Alarm Assignment pg.947
This is the predetermined # of fire units assigned to respond to an emergency?
Use a radio-equipped, mobile communications vehicle pg.947
What can be done to reduce the load on the communications center when multiple alarms are struck on a single fire?
Telecommunicators at communication centers pg.948
Who is best equipped to hear weak signals from portable radios?
Any unit working at the emergency scene pg.945
Who has priority over any routine radio transmissions?
Give an attention tone and advise other units to stand by, then ask caller to proceed with emergency message pg.948
When it is necessary to transmit emergency traffic, what should the telecommunicator do after they have made the urgency clear?
When the IC decides that all FF's should immediately withdraw from a burning building or other hazardous area because conditions are unsafe. pg948
When should an evacuation signal be used?
Broadcast a radio message and sound an audible warning device on the apparatus pg. 948
What are the two most common ways to issue an evacuation signal?
When working in a large building pg.948
When would using air horns and sirens as an evacuation signal not be a good idea?
Might be confused with other units arriving on scene pg.948
Why would air horns and sirens not be a good method of evacuation signal?
Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) pg.948
This is a systematic way of confirming the status of any unit operating at an incident?
Every supervisor pg.948
Who must verify the status of those under his or her command and report it when a PAR is requested?
Touch (physical contact) or hearing (voice contact-NOT radio) pg.949
In smokey or dark environments, company officers and team leaders may have to rely on what to verify each member's status?
At any time pg.949
When can Command request a PAR?
-Once incident is under control -When there is a change in strategy -sudden catastrophic event -emergency evacuation -a firefighter is reported as missing or in distress pg.949
When is a PAR usually requested?
Nation Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) pg.949
Who outlines the necessary information needed to complete incident reports?
United States Fire Administration (USFA) pg.949
Who developed the NIFRS?
-Fire dept. name, incident #, shift #, number of alarms -Names and addresses or occupants -How emergency was reported -Type of construction -Type of call (Fire, Rescue, medical) -Actions taken -Property use information -Number of injuries or fatalities -# of personnel who responded and apparatus that responed -How and where fire was started -Method used to extinguish fire -Estimated cost of damage -Remarks / Comments
What should be included in an incident report?
what is a fire stream
stream of water or other water based extinguishing agent after it leaves the fire hose and nozzle until it reaches the desired point
applying water or foam directly onto burning material does what?
to change a substance from a liquid to a gas phase, what is needed? what is this called?
energy. latent heat of vaporization
at 212* F water expands ___ times its original volume when coverted to steam.
the efficiency at which fire stream absorbs heat depends on what component?
surface area of the heated environment
effective extinguishment generally requires what production?
which state of water does it absorb more heat at?
____ slows water flow and reduces pressure
when a nozzle is ___ the fire pump there is a pressure loss
when the nozzle is below the pump, there is a pressure ___.
when the flow of water the fire hose is suddenly stopped, such as suddenly closing the nozzle, a shock wave is produced when the moving water reaches the end of the hose and bounces back. this is called____.
to prevent water hammer when water is flowing, nozzles, hydrants, vlalve and hose clamps show be shut ____.
what two components make up a fire stream?
size and type
what stream discharges less than 40 gpm
what stream flows water from 40 to 350 gpm?
a mater stream flows how many gpm?
more than 350 gpm
volume of water is determined by what 2 factors of the nozzle?
design of the nozzle and the water pressure of the nozzle
what are the three types of fire stream patterns?
solid, fog, and broken
all fire streams must have a pressuring device, hose and what other 2 components?
an agent, and a nozzle.
solid stream are designed to produce a stream as compact as possble with with ___ shower or spray
what is a fog stream?
fine spray composed of tiny water droplets
the operating pressure for most combination nozzles is ___ psi.
nozzle pressure is the ___ pressure at which ater is discharged from the nozzle.
T or F : fog streams do not have as much reach or penetrating power as solid streams
what is a broken stream?
broken into coarsely divided drops
three main types of nozzle control valves are:
ball, slide, and rotary control
which nozzle is the most common nozzle control valves and used minimum of effort to use
this nozzle consist of an exterior barrel guided by a screw that moves it forward or bacckward, rotating around an interior barrel.
rotary control valve
one main maintenance control of nozzles is looking for ease of operation of nozzle parts. clean and lubricate parts according to ___ ___.
fire fighting foam extinguishes fire in what 4 ways:
separating, cooling, smothering, and penetrating.
the act of excluding oxygen from fuel is called...
the reduction of heat by quenching action or heat absorption is called...
flammable liquids that have an attraction to water.
foam concentrate is raw foam liquid before the introduction of ___
water and air
mixture of foam concentrate and water before introduction of air is called foam __.
what is needed to produce an adequate amount of foam bubbles to form an effective blanket.
aeration (mixed with air)
proper aeration produces uniform sized bubbles to provide a __ ___ __.
longer lasting blanket
an extinguishing agent formed by mixing foam concentrate with water and aerating solution for expansion. used on class A and B fires
foam specially designed to be used on class A combustibles. this foam is hydrocarbon-based surfactants, is a wetting agent that reduces surface tension or water.
class A foam
foam fire suppression agent designed for use on un-ignited or ignited flammable or combustible liquids.
class B foams
foam concentrate that combines the qualities of fluoroprotein foam with those of aqueous film forming foam.
film forming fluroprotein foam
to be most effective, a blanket of foam _ inches thick should be applied to the fuel surface
class B foams are manufactured from either a __ or __ base
synthetic or protein
class A foam concentrate has solvent characteristics and is midly__.
standard for low-, medium- and high expansion foam
standard for fire fighting professional qualifications
mixing of water with an appropriate amount of foam concentrate to form a foam solution is called..
T or F : most foam concentrates can be mixed with fresh water and salt water??
foam concentrate must be proportioned with at the specific percentage at which they are designed.
3% or 6%
most fire fighting foam is made up of what 94 to 99.9% of __.
4 basic methods by which foam may be proportioned is:
induction injection batch mixing premixing
process used to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner; concentrate is drawn into the water stream by the Venturi method.
Induction, also called eduction
method of proportioning foam that uses an external pump or head pressure to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the correct ratio for the flow desired
simplest and most accurate method of mixing foam concentrate and water
mixing pre-measured portions of water and foam concentrate in a container.
physical law stating that when a fluid such as water or air is forced under pressure through a restricted orifice, there is an increase in velocity of the fluid passing through the orifice and a decrease pressure in the sides of the constriction.
many newer structural engines are equipped with what system?
CAFS. compressed air-foam systems
3 various types of apparatus mounted foam proportioning systems are
in-line eductors, around- the-pump proportioners, and balanced pressure proportioners
any nozzle that can safely be handled by one to three firefighters and flows less than 350 gpm is called what type of nozzle
this nozzle is limited to certain types of class A application, it provides an effective fire stream with max reach capabilities
nozzle that can provide either a fixed or variable spray pattern. nozzle breaks the foam solution into small droplets that mix with air to form finished foam
this nozzle inducts air into the foam solution by a venturi action, it provides max expansion of the agent. the reach of the stream is less than that of a fog nozzle
air-aspirating foam nozzle
3 types of applying foam to a liquid fuel fire or spill include, roll on method, bank down method, and the ___ method
rain- down method
this method directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid spill.
roll on method
this method when an elevated object is new or within the area of a burning pool or liquid or an unignited pool or spill
bank down method
is used when other two methods are not feasible with the size of the spill area of the lack of an object from which to bank the foam.
rain down method.
form provided by the manufacturer and blender of chemicals that contains info about chemical compostion, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency and response procedures, and waster disposal
MSDS material safety data sheet
the __ environmental impact is the effect of the finished foam after it has been applied to a fire or liquid fuel spill
a mechanical blower is used to produce __ - expansion foam
pressure of water stream flowing through a restriction creates a __ action that inducts foam concentrate into the water stream
__ proportioning device that injects foam concentrate into the water stream at a specified ratio and a higher pressure than that of the water
two pieces of equipment needed to produce a foam fire stream:
a foam proportioner, and a delivery device
this valve control seats a moveable cylinder against a shaped cone to turn off the flow of water
rate of discharge from a manual fog nozzle can be changed by rotating the selector ring-usually located directly behind the nozzle tip- to a specific gpm
manually adjustable nozzle
constant pressure nozzle that automatically vary the rate of flow to maintain a reasonably constant nozzle pressure
a primary disadvantage of the fog stream is:
does not have much reach or penetrating power as a straight stream
5 factors that affect reach of a fog stream:
gravity, water velocity,fire stream pattern,water droplet friction, wind
the flow rate from a solid stream depends on velocity of the stream and the size of the __.
definition of friction loss is..
part of the total pressure that is lost while forcing water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters
a hose stream that stays together as a solid mass as opposed to a fog or spray stream
water stream of finely divided particles used for fire control
stream of water broken into coarsely divided drops
process of evolution that changes a liquid in a gaseous state.
vaporization depends on substance involved, heat and__.
quantity of heat absorbed by a susbstance at the point at which it changes from a liquid to a vapor
latent heat of vaporization
32 to 212 F
volume of steam is mainly dependent on the amount of __ applied
heat absorbed by the water spray causes the __ __ layer to contract
converting water t steam is the basis of the __ attack method.
water application can be used to assist the __ process.
to measure friction loss between pumper and the nozzle, insert an __ ___ pressure gauge at intervals in the hoseline
water hammer can be very __ to hose
solid stream nozzles incorporate a slight__ near the __.
to change the flow rate of a solid stream the tip __ must be changed
a solid stream operates at __ pressures than other types of streams
a wide angle __ pattern provides protection to the nozzle operator
stream reach varies with __ selected
a __ nozzle is useful for providing a broken stream
What is the NFPA standard on protective equipment for structural fire fighting?
What does NFPA 1971 include?
helmet, protective hood, protective coat and trousers, gloves, and safety boots.
Part of NFPA 1500 but not 1971?
eye protection, hearing protection, SCBA, and PASS device
What is the wide brim on a helmet particularly useful for?
Preventing hot water and embers from reaching the ears and neck.
What is provided on helmets to provide secondary protection for face and eyes?
Firefighters who wear prescription safety glasses should select frames and lenses that meet what standard for severe exposure to impact and heat?
ANSI standard Z87.1
What is the maximum noise exposure level in the US?
What is the maximum noise exposure level in Canada?
In order to comply with NFPA 1500, FD's are required to initiate hearing protection programs that do what?
identify, control, and reduce potentially harmful noise and/or provide protection from it
Whay do you pull your hood up after your SCBA mask?
so that you don't compromise the facepiece-to-face seal.
NFPA 1971 requires that structural firefighting coats and trousers be made of what three components?
outer shell, moisture barrier, and thermal barrier
True/ False- Structural PPE provides limited protection against chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, explosive (CBRNE)?
False- it provides no protection
Turnout coats and pants need to be cleaned according to what?
What is the most important characteristics of gloves?
the protection that they provide against heat, steam, or cold penetration, and their resistance to cuts, punctures, and liquid absorption
Many safety boots incorporate what to protect against punctures?
a stainless steel sole plate
What is the NFPA standard on Wildland PPE?
What are wildland fire fighting gloves made of?
What must wildland gloves provide?
What type of material should underwear worn under brush gear be made out of?
What must be worn for head protection according to NFPA 1977?
hard hats or helmets with chin straps
How tall must wildland boots be?
What NFPA standard is for station and work uniforms?
NFPA 1975 requires that no garment components will ignite, melt, drip, or separate when exposed to what heat and for how long?
500 degrees for 5 minutes
NFPA 1500 requires that protective clothing be cleaned to manufacturer's specifications by who?
a cleaning service or FD facility equipped to handle contaminated clothing
Whatn is the NFPA standard for FD infection control program?
NFPA 1581 requires that PPE be cleaned and dried how frequently?
at least every 6 months according to manufacturer's recommendations
What are the four common respiratory hazards associated with fires and other emergencies?
oxygen deficiency, smoke, elevated temperatures, and toxic atmospheres
Both OSHA and NFPA define and oxygen-deficient atmosphere as one containing less than what percent oxygen?
What does the size of a smoke particle determine?
how deeply into an unprotected lung it will be inhaled
The type and amount of toxic gases released at a fire vary according to what four factors?
nature of combustible, rate of heating, temperature of the evolved gases, and oxygen concentration
What gas causes the most firefighter deaths?
what is a combination of oxygen and hemoglobin?
oxyhemoglobin; when carbon monoxide saturates hemoglobin it creates carboxyhemoglobin, which prevents the hemoglobin from absorbing needed oxygen
what are physical limitations of wearing an SCBA?
physical conditioning, agility, and facial features
Rescues in confined spaces require what?
the use of SCBA's b ecause of the likely presence of toxic gas or lack of oxygen
Medical factors that limit the user of an SCBA include what?
neurological functioning, muscular/skeletal condition, cardiovascular conditioning, and respiratory functioning.
Mental factors that limit and SCBA user are what?
adequate training in equipment use, self-confidence, emotional stability
equipment limitiations include what?
limited visibility, decreased ability to communicate, increased weight, and decreased mobility
How heavy are typuical SCBA's?
25-35 pounds, depending on the model
What are the six limitations of air supply?
physical conditioning of the user, degree of physical exertion, emotional stability of the user, condition of the apparatus, cyliunder pressure before use, and training and experience of the user
When does the low-alarm bell sound?
when 25% of the cylinder remains
What are the three basic elemtns of effective air management?
1. know your point of no return (beyond 50% of the air supply of the team member with the lowest gauge reading). 2. know how much air you have. 3. make a concious decision to stay in the area, or leave the area when your air is down to 50%.
When are you required to check your air supply?
1. at the beginning of your shift 2. when donning the SCBA and opening the cylinder valve 3. while working (5-10 minute intervals and when changing locations or finishing assignemtns) 4. during egress from the hazard zone 5. when refilling or replacing a cylinder
what is available fir atmospheres that contain normal levels of oxygen but are contaminated with airborne particulates?
filter masks; but they must be certified for the specific type of hazard they are required to protect against
what is the difference between open and closed circuit SCBA's?
open circuit uses compressed air and exhaled air is vented outisde the system; closed circuit uses compressed oxygen and exhaled air stays within the sytem, it is also called a rebreather.
What are the four basic SCBA compnent and what does each do?
1. harness assembly- holds the cylinder on the firefighters back 2. air cylinder assembly- includes cylinder, valve, pressure gauge, and PASS device 3. regulator assemblyhigh-pressure hose with a low-pressure alarm, bypass valve and a pressure reducing device 4. facepiece assemblyfacepiece lens, exhalation valve, and low-pressure hose.
what constitutes the main weight of the breathing apparatus?
air cylinder assembly
how close should the remote pressure gauge and cylinder gauge be in terms of psi?
within 100 psi
What is the NFPA standard for open-circuit SCBA's?
WHat is the NFPA standard for PASS devices?
What is the NFPA standard for fire service respiratory protection training?
When is it ok to don your SCBA en route to an incident?
when it can be safely accomplsihed without the firefighter having to unbuckel their seatbelt
seat-mounting hardware comes in what three main types?
lever clamp, spring clamp, and flat hook
NFPA 1404 and 1500 require SCBA's to be inspected how frequently?
weekly, monthly yearly, and after each use
when should steel/aluminum cylinders and composite cylinders be tested?
steel/aluminum- every 5 years; composite- every 3 years
what must be stamped or labeled on air cylinders?
date of manufacture and the date of last hydrostatic test
what three safety precautions must be met to fill air cylinders?
1. place the cylinder in a shielded fill station 2. prevent the cylinder from overheating by filling it slowly 3. ensure that the cylinder is completely full but not overpressurized
all firefighters who wear SCBA's must be fit tested how frequently?
annually or when new face pieces are issued.
where should you position yourself if you feel exhausted or feel like you may lose conciousness?
on the floor close to a wall
firefighters in IDLH atmospheres must work in teams of two or more and have what?
a tagline that the can follow back to the point of entry.
What NFPA requires those qualified at the FF1 level to know necessary precautions for the advancement and operation of hoselines on the fireground.
The size of the hose refers to?
It's inside diameter. pg.633
Fire hose is most commonly cut and coupled into pieces of?
50 or 100 feet. pg.633
Intake hose is used to?
connect a FD pumper or a portable pump to a water source. pg.633
soft intake hose is used to?
transfer water from a pressurized water source, such as a fire hydrant, to the pump intake. pg.633
Hard intake hose is used to?
primarily to draft water from a static source. Also to siphon water from one portable tank to another. pg.633
standard on fire hose, lists specifications for fire hose. pg.633
standard for fire hose connections, lists specifications for fire hose couplings and screw threads. pg.633
standard for automotive fire apparatus, requires pumpers to carry 15 ft of large soft intake hose or 20 ft of hard intake hose, 800 ft of 2 1/2 inch or larger fire hose, and 400 ft of 1 1/2, 1 3/4, OR 2 inch attack hose. pg.633
Hose ramps or bridges are used to?
protect hoes from vehicles running over them. =) pg.634
Thermal damage is?
exposing fire hose to excessive heat or direct flame contact can char, melt, or weaken the outer jacket and dehydrate the rubber lining. pg.634
to prevent thermal damage, FF should conform to the following recommended practices:
Run water through hose that has not been used for some time to keep the liner soft.
Thats the only one I'm writing out, look at page 635 for the rest. =)
Rubber jacket hose is not subject to damage caused by living organisms such as mildew and mold. pg.636
When fire hose is exposed to petroleum products, paints, acids, or alkalis, it may be weakened to the point of bursting under pressure. pg 363
Dispose of hose according to departmental SOP is it has been exposed to?
hazmats and cannot be decontaminated. pg.637
hard rubber booster hose, hard intake hose, and rubber jacket collapsible hose require little more than rinsing with clear water, although a mild soap may be used if necessary. pg.637
After a woven jacket hose is used?
any dust and dirt should be thoroughly brushed or swept from it.
when a fire hose has been exposed to oil?
it should be washed with a mild soap or detergent using common scrub brushes or straw brooms with a stream of water from a garden hose.
what kind of machine is designed to be used in a station that washes, rinses, and drains fire hose?
a cabinet type machine.
Hose racks should be located where?
in a clean, well ventilated room in or close to the apparatus room for easy access. Racks can be freestanding on the floor or mounted permanently on the wall. Mobile hose racks can be used to both store hose and move hose from storage rooms to the apparatus for loading.
The male coupling has?
sexless coupling is called?
What is a shank?
the portion fo the coupling that serves as the point of attachment to the hose.
What do the lugs do?
aid in tightening and loosening the couplings
What are rocker lugs?
majority of the new threaded couplings have rounded rocker lugs. they are less prone to getting snagged than are those with pin lugs, and rocker lugs tend to slide over obstructions when the hose is moved on the ground or around objects.
What lugs do booster hose normally have?
recessed lugs, which are simply shallow holes drilled into the coupling.
What is the Higbee cut?
a special type to thread design in which the beginning of the thread is "cut" to provide a positive connection between the first threads of opposing couplings, which tends to eliminate cross threading.
to mark where the higbee cut begins. aids in matching the male coupling thread to the female coupling thread, which is not readily visible.
storz couplings are sometimes referred to as?
sexless couplings, there are no distinct male or female components as threaded couplings have.
Storz couplings are designed to be connected and disconnected with a _____ turn.
Simple rules for the care of fire hose couplings are?
-do not drag or drop the coupling (stop being lazy and pick it up) -don't run it over with vehicles -inspect coupling when being washed and dried. -inspect gasket swivel in warm, soapy water. -clean threads -inspect gasket, and replace if cracked or creased.
the swivel part should be _________ to thoroughly clean the swivel.
submerged in a container of warm, soapy water and worked forward and backward
the swivel gasket is used to?
make the connection watertight when female and make ends are connected.
How can you make the gasket inspection?
by simply pinching the gasket together between thumb and index finger.
the flow of water is controlled by?
various valves in hoselines, at hydrants, and at pumpers.
Used in pumper discharges and gated wyes. they are open when the handle is in line with the hose and closed when it is at a right angle to the hose. also used in fire pump piping systems.
used to control the flow from a hydrant. Have a baffle that is moved by a handle and screw arrangement.
used on large pump intakes and incorporate a flat baffle that turns 90 degrees. most are operated by a quarter turn handle, but some can also be operated remotely by an electric motor. the baffle is in the center or the waterway and aligned with the flow when the valve is open.
used in siamese appliances (as well as pump piping) to allow water to flow in one direction only. they prevent water from flowing out of unused ports when one intake hose is connected and charged before the addition of more hose. flat disk hinged at the top or one side and that swings in a doorlike manner.
allow the number of hoselines operating on the fire ground to be increased or decreased.
Valve devices include?
wye appliances, siamese appliances, water theif appliances, large diameter hose appliances, and hydrant valves.
divide a single hoseline into two or more lines. all wyes have a single female inlet connection and two male outlets.
usually consist of two female inlets, with either a center clapper valve or two clapper valves (one on each side) and a single male outlet. siamese are triamese appliances are commonly used with LDH is not available to overcome friction loss in exceptionally long hose lays or those that carry a large flow.
Water thief appliances.
water thieves are most often used in wildland fire fighting operations.
Large diameter hose appliances
LDH water thief can be used in operations that require that water be distributed at various points along the main supply line.
these valves are used when a forward lay is made from a low pressure hydrant to the fire scene.
hardware accessories called fittings are available for?
connecting hose of different diameters and thread types.
what is an adapter used for?
connecting hose couplings with dissimilar threads and the same inside diameter. -connect a female to female or male to male.
Reducers are used to?
connect a smaller hoseline to the end of a larger one.
what are elbows?
they provide support for intake or discharge hose at the pumping apparatus.
Hose caps do what?
protect the threads on pump make discharge outlets.
hose plugs do what?
female inlets on some FDC are capped with them.
what are intake strainers?
devices attached to the drafting end of a hard intake (suction) to keep debris from entering the fire pump.
what is a hose roller used for?
to protect hose from getting damaged when dragged over sharp corners such as roof edges and windowsills.
what can be placed when a section of hose ruptures, and the entire hoseline is out of service until the section is replaces or the rupture temporarily closed.
a hose jacket
what can be used to stop the flow of water in a hoseline?
what are some reasons to use a hose clamp?
to prevent charging the hose bed during a forward lay from hydrant. to allow replacement of a burst section w/o shutting down the water supply. to allow extension of the hoseline w/o shutting down the water supply. to allow advancement of a charged hoseline up stairs.
what are three types of hose clamps?
screw down, press down, and hydraulic press.
general rules that apply when using a hose clamp are?
apply the hose clamp at least 20 ft behind the apparatus. apply the hose clamp within 5 feet from the coupling on the incoming water side.
what are hydrant wrenches used for?
to remove caps from fire hydrant outlets and to open fire hydrant valves.
rubber mallet can be used to?
strike the lugs to tighten or loosen intake hose couplings.
hose bridges aka hose ramps are used to?
help prevent damage to hose when vehicles must drive over it. they should also be used wherever a hoseline is laid across a street or other area where it might be run over.
____ are devices that are used to protect fire hose where the hose is subjected to rubbing from vibrations?
one of the most useful tools to aid in carrying or handling a charged hoseline is a?
what are hose straps and hose chains used for?
to carry and pull fire hose, but their primary value is to provide a more secure means to handle pressurized hose when applying water. they also are used to secure hose to ladders and other fixed objects.
simplest of all hose rolls?
when the straight roll is completed what coupling is on the inside of the roll?
the male, to protect the threads.
donut roll is commonly used in situations where?
hose is likely to be deployed for use directly from a roll.
what are some advantages of the donut roll?
-the ff has control of both couplings. -hose rolls out easier with fewer twists or kinks -holding both couplings facilitates connecting to other couplings (even in the dark)
what is the twin donut roll?
it permits both the male and female couplings to be available for connection when deployed.
what is the purpose of the twin donut roll?
to create a compact roll that can be easily transported and carried for special applications such as high rise operations.
how do you roll a twin donut roll?
race track the hose, fold the end into a triangle and just roll. it.
what roll is the self locking donut roll?
the one that looks like it has a purse strap. or according to eddie a "urban shoulder back" aka man purse.
What hose bed is that part of the compartment closest to the front of the apparatus?
The hose beds on some fire apparatus are divided or separated by a vertical panel that runs from the front to the rear of the hose compartment and are called what?
a split bed
what does a split bed allow the apparatus to do?
have hose loaded for both forward and reverse lays at the same time.
reguardless of the type of hose load used you should always?
check gaskets and swivel before connecting any coupling.
during an accordion load where should the first coupling be placed in the bed?
to the rear
what is the primary advantage of the horseshoe load?
it has fewer sharp bends in the hose than the accordion or flat loads.
A disadvantage of a horseshoe load is?
the hose is loaded on the edge (as with the accordion load) which promotes wear on the hose edges.
the horseshoe load does not work for _____ because why?
large diameter hose, because the hose remaining in the bed tends to fall over as the hose pays off, which can cause the hose to become entangled.
out of the three supply hose loads, what is the easiest to load?
the flat load
out of the three supply hose loads, what is the best way to load large diameter hose?
out of the three supply hose loads, what load makes the hose less subject to wear from the apparatus vibration during travel?
the flat load
what does a straight finish load consist of?
the last length or two of hose flaked loosely back and forth across the top of the hose load.
what load finisher is normally associated with forward lay operation?
in this load finish a hydrant wrench, gate valve, and any necessary adapters are usually strapped to the hose at or near the female coupling
what load finish is made of one or two 100 ft lengths of hose, each connected to one side of a gated wye?
the reverse horseshoe finish
what does a skid load finish consist of?
folding the last three lengths (150 ft) of 2 1/2 inch hose into a compact bundle on top of the rest of the load.
Preconnected flat load is?
adaptable for varying widths of hose beds and is often used in transverse beds.
Triple layer load gets its name because?
the load begins with hose folded in three layers.
the minute man load is designed to?
be pulled and advanced by one person
what hose load is particularly well suited for narrow hose beds?
booster hose should be wound onto the reel?
one layer at a time in an even manner
when laying hose, drive the apparatus at a speed no greater than one that allows?
the couplings to clear the tailboard as the hose leaves the bed, generally between 5 and 10 mph.
what should you do with the hose while laying it with the apparatus moving?
lay the hose to one side of the road way (not in the guttler) so that the apparatus are not forced to drive over it.
This method is often used when the water source is a hydrant and the pumper must be positioned near the fire?
hose beds set up for forward lays should be loaded so that the first coupling to come off the hose bed is?
one disadvantage of forward lay is?
one member of the crew is temporarily unavailable for ff assignment bc that person must stay at the hydrant long enough to make the connection and open the hydrant.
what lay extends from the water source to the fire scene?
this method is used when a pumper must first go to the fire location so a size up can be made before laying a supply line?
what method is the most expedient way to lay hose if the apparatus that lays the hose must stay at the water source such as when drafting or boosting hydrant pressure to the supply line?
what is a disadvantage of reverse lay?
that essential fire fighting equipment including attack hose must be removed and placed at the fire scene before the pumper can proceed to the water source.
what method causes some delay in the initial attack?
the reverse lay
making hydrant connections with some ___ intake hose is considerably more difficult then making connections with a ___ intake hose.
the term split lay can refer to?
any one of a number of ways to lay multiple supply hose with a single engine.
what hose load is intended to be deployed without dragging any hose on the ground?
advancing what hose load involves placing the nozzle and the fold of the first tier on the shoulder and walking away from the apparatus?
the ___ finish and other wyed lines are normally used in connection with a reverse layout because the wye connection is fastened to the 2 1/2 or 3 inch hose.
what is one of the quickest and easiest ways to move fire hose at ground level?
working line drag
ff should observe the following general safety guidelines when advancing a hoseline into a burning structure?
look at pg 673 =)
hoselines should be advanced ___ up stairways when conditions allow.
regardless of how the hose is brought up, fire crews normally stop ___ floor ___ the fire floor and connect to the standpipe.
to avoid overloading the ladder, only __ person is allowed on each section of the ladder.
the firefighter on the nozzle takes the line into the window and the other ff support the hose by?
securing it to the ladder rungs with hose straps or utility straps.
secure the hose to the ladder with a hose strap at a point _______ the one on which the nozzle operator is standing.
several rungs below
How do you put a kink in a hose?
form a loop in the line, press down on the top of the loop and apply body weight to the beds in the hose.
how many sections of hose should be used to replace any one bad section?
except during overhaul after a fire or for very small outdoor nuisance fires such as smoldering bark or a fire in a small trash can, ff are?
never assigned to operate an attack line alone.
whenever one ff is required to operate a small hose and nozzle, the hoseline should be straight for at least ___ ft behind the nozzle.
except for booster lines, two ff are usually needed when the nozzle______.`
must be advanced.
whenever a nozzle connected to a large handline is used, a minimum of __ ff and preferably __ should be used to operate the line.
the backup ff must serve as an _____ at a position about ___ft behind the nozzle operator.
two types of tests for fire hose
acceptance testing and service testing
_____ testing is tested by the manufacturer before the hose is shipped.
standard for the inspection, care, and use of fire hose, couplings, and nozzles and the service testing of fire hose.
FD hose should be tested after being _____ and after ________.
repaired, being run over by a car.
the following equipment is needed to service test hose?
pg. 681 bullet points
use a ______ when testing hose to permit pressurizing the hose but does not allow water to surge through the hose if it fails.
hose test gate valve
portable fire extinguishers are meant to be used on fire in what stage
whats a portable fire fighting device designed to combat small fires
what is the NFPA standard for fire extinguishers
how does smothering put out a fire
reducing the burning material below its ignition temperature
how does cooling put out a fire
interrupting the chemical chain reaction
how does chain breaking put out a fire
it forms a oxygen excluding soapy foam
how does saponification put out a fire
any substance used for the purpose of controlling or extinguishing a fire is a
standard for automotive fire apparatus
manual pump, stored pressure, pressure cartridge
what are the three ways that extinguishers expell agent onto a fire
a fire with ordinary combustables such as paper, plastics, rubber, and wood
a fire that has flammable and combustible liquids, gases and greases
a fire that is class A or B that was created by electrical energy is
a fire that has combustible metals and a alloys such as lithium, magnesium, potassium and sodium
whats the most common agent for extinguishing a fire
shut the fuel off
whats the best way to treat a pressurized liquid or gas fire
carbon dioxide, dry chemical, class b foam
what agents are used to treat class b fires
disconnect power then treat appropriate class
how do you treat a class c fire
bright white emissions from combustion
how can you tell if its a class d fire
whats the best extinguishing agent for class d
what type of fire is from combustible cooking oils and fats
what extinguishing agent is used for class k fires
single or double acting pump
pump type water extinguisher are equipped with what type of pump
air pressurized or pressurized water extinguishers
stored pressure water extinguishers are also called
water mist extinguishers
what type of water extinguisher is safe to use on electrical equipment
whats a synthetic foam concentrate that is effective at extinguishing and blanketing hydrocarbon fuels
gently rain down or deflect it off of a surface
when using foam to put out a fire you should
clean agent extinguishers
extinguishers that are designed as a replacement for halon 1211
what extinguisher has limited reach because the gas can be dispersed by wind
dry chemicals are used on what classes
None, no single agent will control all metal fires
what agent can control or extinguish fires in all combustible metals
UL & ULC
for extinguishers the classification and numerical rating system is based on tests conducted by
1 1/4 gallons of water / the amount of agent
the number in the class A rating represents
the approx square ft area of fire that can be extinguished
the numerical rating in class B represents
will not conduct electricity
the class C rating means that the extinguishing agent
a,b,c + a,b + b,c
the 3 most common multiple marking extinguishers are
geometric shapes of specific colors and class letter shown within a shape
portable fire extinguishers are identified in 2 ways
Question 37 continued
what color and shape is class A
what color and shape is class B
what color and shape is class C
what color and shape is class D
what color and shape is class K
where there is highly sensitive computer equipment do not use
which extinguishers do you use around computer equipment
what is the method for operating a fire extinguisher
P-pull pin A-aim the nozzle S-squeeze handle S-sweep nozzle back and forth
what does pass method stand for
withdraw and reassess the situation
if extinguishment is not achieved after all agent is used
when fire is outdoors make sure to approach from
once a year
fire extinguishers are required to be inspected at least
property owner or building occupant
servicing of portable fire extinguishers is the responsibility of
its serviceability its accessibility its simplicity
what 3 factors determine the value of an extinguisher
discarded or returned to manufacturer
leaking, corroded or damaged extinguisher shells should be
leaking hoses, gaskets, nozzles and loose labels
if allowed by SOPs, FFs can replace
removed from service
obsolete fire extinguishers should be
american manufacturers stopped making inverting type fire extinguishers in
chemical compounds that contain carbon + 1 or more elements from halogen series
total flooding system
fire suppression system design to protect hazards within enclosed structures by filling it with foam
Montreal protocol of substances that deplete the ozone layer of 1987
because of the ozone depleting potential halogenated agents were included in
SCBA because of the toxicity
in an area where halon was used FFs must wear
halon is a genetic term for
halon 1211 + halon 1301
the most common halon agents are
interrupting the chain reaction of combustion
halon agents extinguish by
the ability of a substance to conduct an electrical current
substance or mixture composed of 2 or more metals fused together and dissolved into each other
air aspirating foam nozzle
foam nozzle designed to provide the aeration required to make the highest quality foam possible
AFFF are ineffective on
class C or D
AFFF extinguishers are not suitable for what class fires
this agent is corrosive and can remove paint from tools and apparatus
gases, liquid or solid materials that can burn, irritate or destroy human skin tissue and corrode steel
portable fire extinguishers
whats the most common fire protection appliance
how does water primarily put out a fire
how does carbon dioxide put out a fire
how does foam put out a fire
how does wet chemical put out a fire
how does dry chemical put out a fire
how does dry powder put out a fire
water type extinguishers
what type of extinguishers need to be protected against freezing if exposed to temp under 40 degrees
place in warmer compartment or add antifreeze to water
how can you protect water type extinguishers from freezing
At what location do firefighter injuries most commonly occur?
What is the most common cause of firefighter fatalities?
overexertion (pg 50)
Which NFPA standard specifically addresses firefighter occupational safety and heath?
1500 (pg 52)
A written plan that identifies and analyzes exposurses to hazzards is known as a ?
risk managment plan (pg 58)
which federal agency is responsible for work and heath safety regulations?
OSHA (pg 56)
What is required for a fd safety program to be effective?
the program must br practiced at all levels (pg 55)
what does PAR stand for?
personal accountability report (pg 71)
All companys working in the hot zone must have at least how many portable radios?
one (pg 71)
The highest priority on all defensive fires is?
firefighter safety (pg 71)
Firefighter must wear hearing protection in noise levels exceed ___
90 decibels (pg63)
Strains and spains acount for __% of firefighter injuries.
50% (pg 50)
How many firefighter injures are reported each year?
100,000 (pg 50)
what is the percentage of fire ground injures?
52% (pg 50)
What is one of the most dangerous parts of a firefighters job?
driving . (pg 50)
Most firefighter injuries are in direct result of?
preventable accidents (pg 50)
What area on a fire can a firefighter rest and recover?
what is the most common injurie in firefighting .
back strains (pg 60)
PPE should be cleaned at least how many times annually?
twice (pg 60)
Firefighters should use precautions to avoid exposure to airborne and ____
bloodborne pathogens (pg 60)
If it is necessary to ride in an unenclosed jumpseat you should protect yourself by using ?
safety bars (pg 63)
the most widley used tools in firefighting
When mounting or dismounting the apparatus you should use?
steps and hand rails (pg 63)
Any electrical tool not marked " double insulated" should have a ?
three prong plug (pg 66)
Never force a saw beyond its_____
Avoid using power tools in _____
Electronic lack-of-motion sensor that sounds a loud tone when a firefighter becomes motionless. It can also be manually triggered to operate.
Firefighter or emergency responder death resulting from the performance of fire department duties.
General overview and critique of the incident by members of all responding agencies that should take place within two weeks of the actual incident.
What is the difference between a SCBA and a supplied air respirator?
The source of air for the supplied air respirator is not carried by the user.
what is the main goal of a fire department safety program?
To prevent death, injuries, and illnesses, and exposures to hazardous atmospheres
what is the function of an Employee Assistance Program?
To offer support to firefighters and their families
NFPA safety standards require apparatus operators to ________.
Be securely belted inside the cab or body of the vehicle when it is in motion
Equipment used in training ________.
Should be tested and maintained according to the manufacturer's instructions
Structure acquired by the authority having jurisdiction from a property owner for the purpose of conducting live fire training or rescue training evolutions.
Acquired Building (Structure)
A disease that is transmissible from one person to another
a system by which facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications are organized to operate within a common organizational structure designed to aid in the management of resources at emergency incidents.
Incident Command System
Limiting access to an emergency scene by curious spectators and other non-emergency personnel.
Two or more fully equipped and immediately available firefighters designated to stand by outside the hazard zone to enter and effect rescue of firefighters inside, if necessary. Also known as Rapid Intervention Team.
Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)
Program that sets standards, policies, procedures, and precautions to safely purchase, operate, and maintain the department's equipment and to educate employees on how to protect themselves from personal injury.
Respirator worn by the user that supplies a breathable atmosphere that is either carried in or generated by the apparatus and is independent of the ambient atmosphere. Respiratory protection is worn in all atmospheres that are considered to be Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH).
lf-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
how many lanes should be closed on an incident ?
At least One
Another term for restricted zone
The best way to maintain scence control is ?
establish control zones
Rcommendeded Practice in Emergency Service Organization Risk Management
NFPA 1250 (pg 55)
Recommended Practice for Fire Service Training Reports and Records
NFPA 1401 (pg 55)
Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions
NFPA 1403 (pg 55)
Standard for Fire Service Respiraotry Protection Training
NFPA 1404 (pg 55)
Standard on Training for Initial Emergency Scene Operations
NFPA 1410 (pg 55)
Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program
NFPA 1451 (pg 55)
Standard for Fire Department Safety officer
NFPA 1521 (pg 55)
Stadard on Emergency Services Incident Management System
NFPA 1561 (pg 55)
Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program
NFPA 1581 (pg 55)
Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments
NFPA 1582 (pg 55)
Standard on Health -Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members
NFPA 1583 (pg 56)
Recommended Practice on the Rehabilitation of Members Operating at Incident Scene Operations & Training Exercises
NFPA 1584 (pg 56)
Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural and Proximity Fire Fighting
NFPA 1851 (pg 56)
Standard on Protective Ensembles for Technical Rescue Incidents
NFPA 1951 (pg 56)
Standard on Station/work uniforms for Fire and Emergency Service
NFPA 1975 (pg 56)
Standard on Open Circuit Self contained Apparatus for Emergency Services
NFPA 1981 (pg 56)
Standard on Personal Alert Safety Systems (PASS)
NFPA 1982 (pg 56)
Standard on Life Safety Rope & equipment for Emergency Services
NFPA 1983 (pg 56)
Standard on Protective Clothing for Emergency Medical Operations
NFPA 1999 (pg 56)
What does CCOHS stand for?
Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (pg 57)
Do Federal OSHA regualations cover employees of state & local governments?
No, Federal OSHA authority & regulations apply mainly to the private sector. (pg 56)
What is an Industrial Fire Brigade?
Team of employees organized within a privagte company, industrial facility, or plant who are assigned to respond to fires and emergencies on that property (pg 56).
What are the two overarching duties for OSHA sets for employers?
1. Furnish to each employee a place of employment that is free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious injury. 2. Comply with the occupational safety and health standards contained within the OSHA regulations. (pg. 56)
When using tools that generate sparks you should_________ .
Have hoselines in place (pg. 67)
What are the main goals of a safety program?
1. Prevent human suffering, deaths, injuries, illnesses, and exposures to hazardous atmospheres and contagious diseases. 2. Prevent damage to or loss of equipment. 3. Reduce the incidence and severity of accidents and hazardous exposures. (pg 59)
What is EAP?
An Employee Assistance Program including any one of many programs that may be provided by an employer to employees and their families to aid in solving work or personal problems. (pg 61)
What are some areas that a wellness program can be of assistance?
Nutrition, Hypertension, cessation of tobacco use, weight control, physical conditioning program with peer fitness counselors (pg. 61).
What three techniques can help prevent back injuries?
Proper lifting, reaching and carrying (pg 60).
Allow gasoline-powered tools to _____ before refueling.
Cool (pg 67)
What are the key requirements of NFPA 1403, Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions?
Site preparation, asfety, prerequisite training, water supply, training plan, fuel, and ventilation (pg. 68-69).
All fire fighting equipment should be tested to _______.
Manufacturer's instructions and apllicable standards (pg. 69).
What does "All Clear" mean?
The primary search has been completed and all savable occupants are out of the hazard zone (pg. 71).
Define the term "Under Control"
The fire is controlled with the forward fire progress stopped, no additional units will be required, and thre is no imminent danger to firefighters (pg. 71).
"Loss Stopped" means_____________.
Property conservations is complete (pg. 71).
How should the wheels be positioned on the blocking apparatus at the scene of an emergency?
Turn front wheels away from the emergency (pg. 72).
What are the 3 control zones that help maintain emergency scene safety?
Restricted (hot) zone, limited access (warm) zone, Support (cold) zone (pg. 75).
Why is crowd control important at the scene of an emergency?
If uncontrolled, spectators can wander about the scene and interfere with firefighters trying to do their jobs (pg. 74).
Caution Tape should never be tied to ______.
Emergency vehicles (pg. 74).
Another name for a tag system is ____.
Passport System (pg. 75).
Before entering the hazard zone, firefighters should give their passports or tags to _________.
Accountability officer (pg. 75).
Define Situational Awareness.
Your knowledge of the situation or environment around you (pg. 77).
Emergency Escape is sometimes called __________.
Self-rescue (pg. 77).
What does PSS stand for?
Personal Safety System (pg. 77).
What does RIC stand for?
Rapid Intervention Crew (pg. 77).
What does IDLH stand for?
Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (pg. 77).
What NFPA standard must live fire training exercises meet?
1403 (pg. 68).
What is the percentage of firefighter fatalities by vehicle crashes?
21.7% (pg. 51).
Firedept should provide atleast how many sets of ppe?
one . preferably two (pg. 53).
NFPA 101 stands for?
life safety code (pg. 55).
What is the number 1 priority of the fire department?
Safety (pg. 60).
If a firefighter was struggling with depression, what program could he contact for help?
EAP (pg. 61).
If a firefighter needed help with diet & nutrition, what program is available for him or her?
Wellness program (pg. 61).
What does CISM stand for?
Critical Incident Stress Management (pg. 62).
Debriefing sessions should take place within what time frame?
Within 72 hours of completing work on the incident (pg. 62).
How can firefighters protect their hearing?
By wearing ear muffs, ear plugs or radio communication headsets (pg. 63).
Before storing tools you should _____.
Inspect and clean (pg. 66).
what is the most common blgd construction used in north america
-wood pg 141
what is a load bearing wall?
a wall that is used for structural support pg141
what is a non load bearing wall?
a wall usually interior,that supports only its own weight pg141
what is a partition wall?
interior non-load bearing wall that separates a space into rooms pg141
the reaction of wood to fire conditions depends mainly on 2 factor what are they?
size of the wood and moisture content pg142
applying water to burning wood minimizes damage by stopping the _______ process
masonry materials do not ______
a variety of masonry walls are used in the construction of ______ walls
stones may _____ or lose small portion s of there surface when heated?
concrete blocks may ______ ,but they usually retain most of there strength and basic structural stability
crack pg 142
rapid cooling which can occur when water is used to extinguish a fire may cause masonry materials to _____
_______ is rarely used in modern construction
cast iron pg 143
_____ is the primary material used for structural support in the construction of large modern blgds
steel structural members ______when heated
if the steel is restrained from movements at the ends,it buckles and fails somewhere in the _____
the failure of steel structural members can be anticipated at temps near or above _____ degrees F
1000 pg 143
______ concrete that is internally fortified with rebar or wire mesh
reinforced concrete pg144
_____ is an inorganic product from which plaster and wallboards are constructed,also it is unique because it has high water contentand absorbs a great deal of heat
_____ is not typically used for structural support: it is used in sheet form for doors and windows
building construction and safety codepg146
nfpa ___,standard on types of blgd construction
220 pg 146
type 1 construction also known as ________ _______
fire resistive pg146
type 2 construction ASLO known as
non combustible construction pg147
type 3 construction known as
type 3 strengths
relatively easy to vertically ventalate and resists fire spread from the outside pg148
type 4 construction known as
heavy timber construction pg149
how to read existing construction?
-age of the building -construction materials -roof type -renovations -dead loads pg151
what is fire load?
is the maximum hear that can be produced if all the combustible materials in a given area burn pg152
building collapse zone
1 1/2 times the height pg155
f.f should be aware of the following indicators of building collapse and be looking for them at every fire
-cracks or separation in walls, floors, ceilings and roofs -structure instability -loose bricks, blocks, or stones -deteriorated mortar -walls that appear to be leaning -distorted structural members -fire beneath floors that support extreme weight loads -prolonged fire exposure -creaks and cracking noises -structural members pulling away from walls -excessive weight of building contents pg155
two of the most common types of light weight construction involved the use of
light weight steel or wooden trusses pg156
experience has shown that unprotected light weight steel and wooden trusses can fail after __ of exposure to fire
5 to 10 minutes pg156
type 1 construction strengths
-resist direct flame impingement -confines fire well -little collapse potential from the effects of fire alone -impervious to water damage pg146
type 1 construction weaknesses
-difficult to breath for access or escape -difficult to ventilate durin fire -massive debris following collapse -floors, ceilings, and walls retain heat pg146
type 2 construction strengths
confines fire wel - easyier to vertically ventalate that type 1 pg147
tpe 2 construction weaknesses
-difficult to breath -unprotected steel structural components can fail due to heat -roof systems less stable -steel components subject to weakening by fire -steel components subject to weakening by rust and corrosion -massive debris following collapse pg147
type 3 construction strengths
resists fire spread from the outside relatively easy to vert. ventilate pg148
type 3 construction weaknesses
interior structural members vulnerable to fire involvement -fire spread potential through concealed spaces -succeptible to water damage pg 148
type 4 construction strengths
-resists collapse due to flame impengiment of heavy beams -structually stable -easy to breach for acess or escape -managable debris following collapse pg149
type 4 construction weaknesses
succeptible for fire spread from the outside -potential for flame spread to other nearby structures -succeptible to ineterior flame spred -succeptible to water damage pg 149
type 5 construction strangths
-easily breach for acess -resistant to collapse from earthquakes due to lightweight and flexiblility -collapse debris relatively easy to manage pg150
type 5 construction weaknesse
-susceptible to fire spread from the outside -susceptible to rapid fire spread from the inside -susceptible to water damage pg150
what is heavy fire loading?
is the presence of large amount of combustible materials in a area or a blgd.
A second roof constructed over an older roof.
Form of gusset plate. These thin steel plates are punched with acutely V-shaped holes that form sharp prongs on one side that penetrate wooden members to fasten them together
Reinforcement Stars "Star Bolts"
May mean that the structure is of questionable stability. Connected by tension rods to the opposite side of the building to support from the outside
Insulation purposes mainly. Glass component is non-combustible, but the material it is bound to may be combustible and can be difficult to extinguish.
Walls that extend beyond the structure that supports them
Walls with a surface layer of attractive material laid over a base of common material.
A vertical structural member in a frame wall. Stud walls are the assemblies to which wall coverings are nailed or screwed. Studs can be made of either wood or light-gauge steel
A pitched roof that slopes in one direction only from the ridge
Plywood, OSB, Or wooden planking (Sometimes called Sheeting) applied to a wall or roof over which a weather-resistant covering is applied. Most sheathing is relatively easy to penetrate forcible entry or ventilation.
A roof with a profile of vertical and sloping surfaces that resemble a saw blade. These roofs are common on older industrial buildings, but many are still in existence. The vertical walls in the roofs usually include man windows to allow light in. In some cases the windows can be opened to provide natural ventilation. Removing these windows can sometimes provide adequate ventilation during a fire.
Beams that span from a ridge board to an exterior wall plate to support roof decking. While it is important to cut away roof decking during vertical ventilation operations, cutting rafters can seriously weaken a roof and should be avoided whenever possible.
A roof that is sloped to facilitate runoff. Pitched roofs range from those that are flat to those that are extremely steep, common on some churches.
A roof characterized by steeply sloped facets surrounding a flat or nearly flat center section. Many remodeled buildings have false mansard roofs that consist of a fascia added to an existing flat roof. in some cases, the fascia forms a concealed space in which fire can burn undetected.
An accessible or inaccessible space between layers of building materials; an attic or cockloft sometimes used to house HVAC and other machinery. Like attics and cock lofts, unless properly protected, these spaces can allow fire to burn undetected or to spread throughout a building.
Heating, Ventilating, Air Conditioning (HVAC
Unless automatically protected with automatic fire dampers, the duct work associated with these systems can allow smoke and fire to spread throughout a building.
Course of bricks laid with the ends facing outward. Because the ends of the bricks are smaller than the sides, a header course is easy to identify. Header courses are only used in un-reinforced masonry, and this makes that type of construction easy to identify.
A roof that is flat or nearly flat relative to the horizon. Many commercial buildings have flat roofs covered with tar and gravel or other weatherproof material. Flat roofs lend themselves to being opened for vertical ventilation.
An open space between the roof and ceiling of a commercial or industrial building. Usually found under flat or nearly flat roofs. In a fire, these spaces act in much the same way as attics.
A roof assembly with a curved (Arched) top chord and a horizontal bottom chord. These assemblies are very strong except when exposed to direct flame contact when catastrophic failure with out warning may occur.
A type of wood-frame construction in which the studs in exterior walls extend from the basement or foundation to the roof. This type of construction allows fires to spread undetected from the basement to the attic through the hollow walls.
combustible roof covering
allow fire to spread from one structure to another
unsupported ______ walls have a high collapse potential
parapet ealls pg 154
cracks in bearing walls are indicators of what
blgds under construction are extremely vulnerable to
Many people believe that fire is ___. (85)
A firefighter's ability to predict what will happen in the fire environment may be hampered by ___. (85)
LIMITED INFORMATION, TIME PRESSURE, AND OUR LEVEL OF UNDERSTAND OF FIRE BEHAVIOR.
As a firefighter, you need to understand the ___ process and how fire behaves in different materials and in different ___. (85)
Firefighters need an understanding of fire behavior that permits them to recognize developing fire conditions and be able to ___. (85)
RESPOND SAFELY AND EFFECTIVELY TO MITIGATE THE HAZARDS PRESENTED BY THE FIRE ENVIRONMENT.
If a building is not properly ventilated, any of the following can happen. (86)
FLASHOVER, BACKDRAFT, OR SMOKE EXPLOSION
When first arriving on scene, what are main concerns to a firefighter? (86)
a. smoke and flames may be threatening to trapped occupants b. fire may spread to another structure or group of structures c. the room in which the fire started may be close to flashover
To understand fire, basic concepts from ___ must be understood. (86)
Physical science includes the sciences of ___ and ___. (86)
According to NFPA 1001, those qualified at the Fire Fighter I level must know all of the following EXCEPT. (86)
TYPES OF BUILDING CONSTRUCTION
A physical change occurs when a substance ___. (87)
WHEN A SUBSTANCE REMAINS CHEMICALLY THE SAME BUT CHANGES IN SIZE, SHAPE, OR APPEARANCE
A chemical reaction occurs when ___. (87)
A SUBSTANCE CHANGES FROM ONE TYPE OF MATTER TO ANOTHER
An example of slow oxidation is ___. (87)
THE COMBINATION OF OXYGEN WITH IRON TO FORM RUST
An example of rapid oxidation is ___. (87)
THE COMBUSTION OF METHANE
An exothermic heat reaction is a ___. (87)
CHEMICAL REACTION BETWEEN TWO OR MORE MATERIALS THAT CHANGES THE MATERIALS AND PRODUCES HEAT, FLAMES, AND TOXIC SMOKE
An endothermic chemical reaction is a ___. (87)
CHEMICAL REACTION IN WHICH A SUBSTANCE ABSORBS HEAT ENERGY
Combustion is a ___. (87)
AN EXOTHERMIC CHEMICAL REACTION THAT IS A SELF-SUSTAINING PROCESS OF RAPID OXIDATION OF A FUEL, THAT PRODUCES HEAT AND LIGHT
Some solid fuels can undergo oxidation at the surface of the fuel. This is called ___. (87)
The fire triangle consists of all of the following. (87)
OXYGEN, FUEL, HEAT
The fire tetrahedron consists of all of the following. (87)
OXYGEN, FUEL, HEAT, SELF-SUSTAINED CHEMICAL REACTION
Energy exists in two states, ___ and ___. (89)
___ energy is stored energy possessed by an object that can be released in the future to perform work. (89)
___ energy is the energy possessed by a moving object. (89)
___ occurs when a force is applied to an object over a distance. (89)
The ___ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 degree Fahrenheit. (89)
The freezing and boiling points of water in the Celsius scale are ___ degrees and ___ degrees. (90)
___ is the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat. (90)
___ ignition occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounter an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction. (90)
___ ignition without any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases or vapors. (90)
___ ignition temperature is the temperature to which the surface of a substance must be heated for ignition and self-sustained combustion to occur. (90)
___ energy is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions. (91)
Self-heating is also known as ___. (91)
Resistance heating is defined as ___. (92)
WHEN ELECTRIC CURRENT FLOWS THROUGH A CONDUCTOR, PRODUCING HEAT
___ is generated by friction or compression. (93)
MECHANICAL HEAT ENERGY
The movement of two surfaces against each other creates ___. (93)
HEAT OF FRICTION
___ is generated when a gas is compressed. (93)
HEAT OF COMPRESSION
The principle of ___ is the reason that SCBA cylinders feel warm after they have been filled. (93)
HEAT OF COMPRESSION
Heat can be transferred from one body to another by what three mechanisms? (93)
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation
___ is the transfer of heat within a body or to another body by direct contact. (94)
___ is the transfer of heat energy from a fluid to a solid surface. (95)
___ is the transmission of energy as an electromagnetic wave without and intervening medium. (95)
___ are materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion reaction. (96)
Fuel in a combustion reaction is known as the ___. (96)
Organic fuels contain ___, inorganic fuels do not. (96)
Gases have mass but no definite ___ or ___. (97)
Liquids have mass and volume, but no definite ___ (except for a flat surface). (97)
___ is the temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but not sustain, combustion. (98)
Materials that are ___ in water will mix in any proportion. (99)
The "surface-to-mass ratio" is defined as. (101)
THE SURFACE AREA OF THE FUEL IN PROPORTION TO THE MASS
Pyrolysis begins at temperatures below ___. (100)
400 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (204 DEGREES CELSIUS)
Normally, air consists of how much oxygen? (103)
___ are not combustible but like oxygen, they will support combustion. (103)
Materials that burn at normal oxygen levels will burn ___ in oxygen-enriches atmospheres. (104)
MORE INTENSELY AND MY IGNITE MORE READILY
At normal oxygen levels, Nomex ___ (104)
DOES NOT BURN
The ___ is the minimum concentration of fuel vapor and air that supports combustion (105)
LOWER FLAMMABLE LIMIT
Flaming combustion is an example of a ___. (106)
CHEMICAL CHAIN REACTION
The ___ and ___ are the factors that separate flaming combustion from slower oxidation reactions. (106)
SELF-SUSTAINED CHEMICAL REACTION, RELATED RAPID GROWTH
Three general type of products of combustion are ___. (107)
HEAT, SMOKE, AND LIGHT
Of the general types of combustion products, which have the most impact on firefighters? (107)
___ is a colorless, odorless, dangerous gas formed by the incomplete combustion of carbon. (108)
___ is a colorless, odorless, heavier than air gas that neither supports combustion nor burns. (108)
___ is likely the most common fire gas. (108)
Class A fires involve ___. (110)
ORDINARY COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS
The primary mechanism of extinguishment with Class A fires is ___. (110)
Class B fires involve ___. (110)
FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE LIQUIDS AND GASES
Class B fires can be extinguished with ___. (110)
APPROPRIATELY APPLIED FOAM AND/OR DRY CHEMICALS
Class C fires involve ___. (110)
ENERGIZED ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT
When extinguishing Class C fires, make sure extinguishing agent does not ___. (111)
Since electricity does not burn, the fuel in a Class C fire is usually ___ or ___. (111)
INSULATION ON WIRING, LUBRICANTS
When possible, ___ on Class C fires before extinguishing efforts begin. (111)
DE-ENERGIZE ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT
Class D fires involve ___. (111)
Combustible metals are especially hazardous in their ___ form. (111)
Class K fires involve ___. (112)
KITCHEN GREASES AND OILS
The main mechanism of extinguishment for Class K fires is ___.
___ is a form of extinguishment where extinguishing agents turn fats and oils into a soapy foam that extinguishes the fire.
A ___ is defined as a fire that occurs within an enclosed room or space within a building. (112)
When fire development is limited by air supply, the fire is said to be ___. (113)
Fire development stages in a compartment include ___. (113)
INCIPIENT, GROWTH, FULLY DEVELOPED, DECAY
The ___ stage is the first stage of the burning process. (114)
The ___ stage is the early stage of a fire during which fuel and oxygen are virtually unlimited. (116)
The ___ of gases is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature. (117)
In thermal layering the hottest gases tend to be in the ___ layer. (117)
In thermal layering the cooler gases tend to be in the ___ layer. (117)
The interface of the hot and cooler gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as the ___. (117)
___ describe a condition where the unburned fire gases accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot gas layer or across the ceiling. (118)
___ is the rapid transition between the growth and the fully developed fire stages. (118)
What are the three main things happening within the burning compartment just before flashover? (120)
TEMPERATURES ARE RAPIDLY INCREASING, ADDITIONAL FUEL IS BECOMING INVOLVED, FUEL IN THE COMPARTMENT IS GIVING OFF COMBUSTIBLE GASES BECAUSE OF PYROLYSIS
The ___ stage of burning process is where enrgy release is at maximum rate and is limited only by availability of fuel and oxygen. (121)
The ___ stage of fire development is when fuel is consumed and energy release diminishes, and temperatures decrease. (121)
___ is the instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of superheated gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen-depleted confined space. (122)
A fire in a large compartment will develop ___ than one in a small compartment. (127)
___ depends on reducing the temperature of a fuel to the point where it does not produce a sufficient vapor to burn. (130)
Solid fuels and liquid fuels with high flash points can be extinguished by ___. (130)
Removing the ___ effectively extinguishes any fire. (131)
The simplest method of fuel removal is to allow what to happen? (131)
ALLOW THE FIRE TO BURN UNTIL THE FUEL IS CONSUMED
Reducing the ___ available to the combustion process reduces a fire's growth and may totally extinguish it over time. (131)
While not generally used for extinguishment in structure fires, limiting the fire's ___ can be a highly effective fire control action. (132)
AIR SUPPLY (VENTILATION)
When water is converted to steam, it expands approximately ___ times. (131)
If a window fails or a door is opened on the ___ side of the building, fire intensity and spread can increase significantly. (129)
Preexisting ventilation is the actual and potential ventilation of a structure based on ___. (128)
STRUCTURAL OPENINGS, CONSTRUCTION TYPE, BUILDING VENTILATION SYSTEMS
For a fire to develop there must be enough air available to support burning beyond the ___ stage. (127)
The systematic removal of heated air, smoke, and fire gases from a burning building and replacing them with cooler air.
The use of plastics and other synthetic material in buildings, both old and modern, has done what? (p542)
Dramatically increased the fuel load making combustion much more dangerous.
What is the thermal layering of gases within a fire? (p542)
This is the tendency of gases to form into layers according to temperature, with the hottest at the top going down to the coolest at the bottom
Your responsibility with regards to the ventilation of a structure is? (p543)
Quickly and efficiently implement all or part of the ventilation element of the IAP. We do not if it is necessary, or what is the best way to ventilate; these are the command decisions.
The ways in which tactical ventilation contribute to LIP
a. Life safety b. Fire attack and extinguishment c. Fire spread control d. Reduction of flashover and backdraft potential e. Property conservation
Why should one never direct a hose stream into a ventilation opening before the fire is controlled? (p543)
Doing so may compromise ventilation efforts and put interior crews serious danger
What is the chimney effect? p544
Created when a ventilation opening is made in the upper portion of a building and air currents throughout the building are drawn in the direction of the opening; occurs in wildlannd FF when fire advances up a v-shaped drainage swale.
What is mushrooming, sometimes referred to as ceiling jets? (P544)
a. Tendency of heat smoke and other products of combustion to rise until they encounter a horizontal obstruction. At this point they will spread laterally they encounter vertical obstrucions and begin to bank downwards
The transition between the growth and fully developed stage is called what?
Firefighters must remain aware that ventilation can? (p545)
Increase the potential for flashover to occur
Ventilation should only occur when? 546
After hoseline crews are ready to move in and attack the fire
Signs of possible backdraft? P547
a. Confinement and excessive heat b. Smoke stained windows c. Smoke puffing at intervals from the building d. Pressurized smoke coming from small cracks e. Little visible flame from the exterior of the building f. Black smoke becoming dense gray-yellow
What is natural ventilation? P547
Techniques that use wind, convection currents, and other natural phenomena to ventilate a structure without mechanical means.
What is forced ventilation? P547
Any means other than natural ventilation. This type of ventilation may involve the use of fans blowers smoke ejectors and fire streams. (mechanical ventilation)
How does a backdraft situation occur? P546
When a fire is in a confined compartment and it does not break a window or burn through to the outside, the fire will reduce the oxygen levels in the room until flaming combustion is no longer possible. Combustible materials may continue to smolder and give off CO, along with other unburned gases. When an air supply introduced backdraft will occur
Regardless of the method used to ventilate smoke damage will? P547
Usually be reduced
When smoke, gases, and heat are removed from a burning building the fire? P547
The fire be confined to a specific area. Then if there is sufficient personnel on scene, effective salvage can be started outside the immediate area of the fire even while fire control is being conducted
The density of thee smoke increase s with? P548
The amount of suspended particles
What is pyrolysis? P549
Thermal or chemical decomposition of fuel because of heat that generally results in the lowered ignition temperature of the material. The pre-ignition combustion pase of burning during which heat energy is absorbed by the fuel, which in turn gives of flammable tars, pitches, and gases.
Smoke is fuel that has? P549
Not yet ignited
What is the greatest asset when decisions concerning ventilation are made?
Knowledge of the building
Factors to be considered in when ventilating a building? P549-550
a.Number and size of wall openings b.Number of stories, staircases, elevator shafts, dumbwaiters, ducts and roof openings. c. Availability/involvement of exterior fire escapes and exposures d.The extent to which a building is connected to adjoining structures e.Type of roof construction f.Built in fire protection systems
What is the Stack Effect?
Phenomenon of a strong air draft moving from ground level to the roof level of a building. Affected by building height configuration and temperature differences between the inside and outside air.
The personnel required for rescue required for fire fighting operations in high rise buildings is often?
4-6 times as great as required for a typical low-rise building
In high-rise buildings ventilation must be accomplished by? P551
In many instances it must be accomplished with horizontal ventilation through the use of mechanical ventilation and HVAC systems in the
The use of elevator shafts for ventilation is? P551
Acceptable under some conditions and only if they penetrate the roof.
What kind of ventilation is best used in basement/windowless building fire?
Positive pressure ventilation (PPV), note there must be a ventilation opening on the opposite side from the fan/blower etc
Because of the time involved the first arriving fire fighters must do what so that proper ventilation can occur? P553
Determine the size and extent of the fire, as well as the location.
What is the primary consideration in determining ventilation procedures? P553
The extent to which the fire has progressed.
Where should one choose to ventilate?
There is no rule of thumb for selecting an exact point to open a roof except as "directly over the fire as possible
Factor that affect where to ventilate? P555
a. Existing openings b. Location of the fire and where the IC wants it to be drawn c. Type of construction d. Wind direction e. Extent of progress of the fire and the condition of the building and its contents f. Indications for roof collapse g. Effect of ventilation on the fire h. Effect of ventilation on exposures i. Hose crews state of readiness j. Ability to protect exposures
As soon as the building has been ventilated FF should? P555
Should make an effort to reach the seat of the fire for extinguishment if conditions permit this to be done safely
What is vertical ventilation? P556
Means opening the roof or existing roof openings for the purpose of allowing heated gases and smoke to escape to the atmosphere. Done at the highest point of the building.
Where should charged hoselines be placed when ventilating a structure? P556
Positioned at the entry point so that interior attack can be started as soon as the structure is ventilated. They should also be placed at critical points of exposure to prevent the fire from spreading.
What are the three most prevalent roof types that FF must deal with? P556
Flat, pitched and arched.
Information gathered during preincident planning, if properly documented can? P556
Can alert FF to potential problems during vertical ventilation.
Who should be in constant communication with their supervisor? P557
the roof team
The likelihood of a roof collapse is affected by a variety factors, what are they?
a. Volume of the fire b. How long the fire has been burning c. The type of construction d. Level of protection (assembly rating)
Ladders should be extended how many rungs above the roof line? P559
When operating from an aerial platform where should the floor of the platform be in relation to the roof line? 559
Level or slightly above it
Before stepping foot on the roof it should be? 559
Check for structural integrity by sounding it.
What are warning signs of an unsafe roof? P560
a. Melting asphalt b. Spongy roof (when normally solid under foot) c. Smoke coming from the roof d. Fire coming from the roof.
What is the roof covering?
Final outside cover that is placed on top of the roof deck assembly. Common coverings include composition/wood shake shingles, tile, slate, tin, or asphalt tar paper.
Existing roof openings are rarely in the best location or large enough for adequate ventilation therefore? p560
In most cases they will simply supplement holes that have to be cut.
Plexiglass or Lexan can be very difficult to break and so when attempting to ventilate through this type of opening one should? p561
Removing all or a portion of the frame.
Two critical points to remember when cutting a ventilation opening in a roof are? p562
a. a square or rectangular opening is easier to cut and repair after the fire. b. 1 large opening, at least 4ft x 4ft (1.2m x 1.2m) is preferable over several, smaller openings
What are the best tools for roof cutting operations? p562
rotary saws, carbide-tipped chain saws or ventilation saw because of their speed and cause less damage than an axe or other manual cutting tools.
On a pitched roof what can be used to provide a secure foothold for the saw operator?
An axe, halligan, or rubbish hook.
What is a kerf cut?
A single cut the width of the saw blade made in a roof to check for fire extension
What is a Louver cut or Vent? p562
Rectangular exit opening cut inaa roof. allowing a section of roof deck (still nailed to a center rafter) to be tilted, thus creating an opening similar to a louver
How many means of egress must be provided to increase vent safety? p559
What is an inspection cut?
A cut used locate roof supports. it is a small opening that will be enlarged once the rafters are located.
What is lightweight concrete? p566
A type of precast concrete roof that uses lightweight material made of gypsum plaster and portland cement mixed with aggregate, such as sand, perlite or vermiculite.
What should be used to ventilate lightweight concrete?
hammerhead pick or power saw with a concrete blade.
Heavier concrete roofs require what kind of tools to ventilate?
Jackhammer or diamond-tipped chain saw
What is trench/strip ventilation? p567
Defensive tactic that involves cutting an exit opening in the roof of a burning building, extending from one outside wall to the other, to create an opening at which a spreading fire may be cut off
What is the difference between trench and conventional ventilation? p567
conventional is used primarily to remove heated smoke and heated gases from the structure and is best done directly above the fire. Trench is used to stop the spread of fire in a long, narrow structure.
A trench cut should be what size? p567
at least 4ft wide (1.2m) and and extend from one exterior wall to the other.
Two ways to effectively ventilate a basement fire?
if the basement has ground level windows or even below ground level in wells horizontal ventilation can be used. If these windows cant be used interior vertical ventilation can be used. Natural paths such as stairways can be used.
Some common factors that reduce the effectiveness of ventilation are?
- Improper use of forced ventilation - Indiscriminant window breaking - Fire streams directed into ventilation openings - breaking skylights - explosions - Burn-through of the roof, a floor or wall - Additional openings between the attack team and the upper opening
What is the windward side of the building?
The side or direction from which the wind is blowing
What is the Leeward side of the building?
Protected side; the direction opposite from which the wind is blowing.
What is critical to have between the ventilation and hose teams?
Opening a door or window on the windward side of the building befoe creating a ventilation exit opening may do what? p572
May pressurize the building, intensifying the fire, and cause the fire to spread to uninvolved areas.
What are the advantages of forced ventilation? p573
- It supplements and enhances natural ventilation - it ensures more control of the air flow - it speeds the removal of contaminantst - it reduces smoke damage - it promotes good public relations
What is negative pressure ventilation (NPV)? p574
Technique using smoke ejectors to develop artificial circulation and to pull smoke out of a structure. Smoke ejectors are placed in windows, doors, or roof vent holes to pull the smoke, heat and gases from the inside the building and eject them to the exterior.
What is churing?
Movement of smoke being blown out of a ventilation opening only to be drawn back inside by the negative pressure created by the ejector because the open area around the ejector has not been sealed. Also called recirculation.
In NPV where should be the positioned?
To exhaust in the same direction as the prevailing wind. This technique uses the wind to supply fresh air to replace that which is being expelled from the building.
What is positive pressure ventilation (PPV)? p575
ventilating a confined space by mechanically blowing freesh air into the space by mechanically blowing fresh air into the space in sufficient volume to create a slight positive pressure within and thereby forcing the contaminated atmosphere out the exit opening.
The location where the PPV is set up is called the? p 575
The entry point
How far from the opening is the blower placed?
4-10ft (1.2 - 3m)
In order to maintain positve pressure inside it is important that? p575
no other exterior doors or windows are opened during the PPV operation. (other than the exit opening)
By selectively opening and closing interior doors and exterior windows during PPV it is possible to? p576
pressurize one room or area at a time, this process accelerates the removal of heat and smoke from the building.
When using PPV in a multistory building it is best to? p576
Ventilate from the lowest point.
In multistory building when fans at the lowest point are insufficient is permissable to? p576
Add more blowers at a higher floor
In order to have effective PPV the cone of air from the blower at the entry must? p577
Must cover the entire opening.
The advantages of PPV over NPV? p577
- FF can set up the ventilation without entering the building - PPV is equally effective with horizontal or vertical ventilation. - PPV is a more effective means of smoke and heat removal and faster - Placement of fans will in PPV will not interfere with ingress or egress.
Disadvantages or PPV
- an intact structure is required. - hidden fires may be accelerated and spread throughout the building - interior CO levels may be increased if the exhaust from the fans driven by internal combustion engines is allowed to enter.
What is hydraulic ventilation (HV)? p578
ventilation method by directing a fog stream of water out a window to increase air and smoke movement
What kind of stream should be used for hydraulic ventilation?
wide fog pattern
How much of the window or door should be covered by the fog in HV?
In HV the nozzle tip should be how far from the opening?
At least 2ft (0.6m)
Clearing of the HVAC system and restoring to operation is the responsibility of?
The building engineer or maintenance superintendent.
Because an HVAC system may draw fire into the ducts along with heat and smoke FF should?
check combustibles adjacent to the ductwork for fire extension due to conduction
Disadvantages of HV
- increased water damage - drain on available water supply - in colder climates it can cause a build up of ice - FF operating the nozzle is being exposed - operation may have to be stopped in order to replenish the air supply of the team
What kind of stream can be used for large scale HV
a master stream
What kind of cutting tools must be used to cut metal roofs? p566
Metal cutting tools
Basement fire ventilation is especially important for what kind of construction? p 567
Balloon frame construction
What area in arched roofs can contribute to fire spread if not properly ventilated?
the cockloft area
What is a Purlin?
horizontal member between trusses that supports the roof
What is a bowstring truss
a lightweight truss design noted by the bow shape, or curve of the top chord.
There should always be how many means of egress from a roof ventilation?
Power tools should be started on the ground first before hoisting but then?
shut off before hoisting/carrying them to the roof.
The angle of the cut when cutting a ventilation opening on the roof should be?
away from the body
Ensure that ceilings have what done to ensure proper, full ventilation?
fully punched through
When are roof ladders not to be used?
on fire-weakened roofs.
When used for ventilation roof access doors should be?
blocked open or removed
Ventilation reduces the chances of?
sudden and hazardous changes in fire behaviour such as flashover and backdraft
Proper ventilation decreases what to trapped occupants?
danger by channeling away heat and toxic gases away from them.
What is the primary extinguishing agent?
what are the 4 basic components of all water supply systems?
sources of water, means of moving water, water treatment facilities, water storage and distribution systems. p.594
What are the two primary sources of a jurisdictions water supply?
surface water and ground water p.594
What are some examples of surface water?
rivers, aqueducts, lakes, and reservoirs p.594
In most cases where does ground water come from?
water wells drilled into underground aquifers p.594
Is domestic/industrial water needs greater or less on average than fire protection?
What are the three methods of moving water within a system?
Direct pumping systems, Gravity systems, Combination systems p.595
Where are most direct pumping systems found?
in an agricultural and industrial setting p.595
How is water moved in a direct pumping system?
one or more pumps draw water from a primary source and transport it to the point of use p.595
In a direct pumping system, if water is to be used for drinking or other domestic purposes where does it go?
filtration and treatment facility p. 595
What is the main disadvantage of a direct pumping system?
Total dependence on pumps and electricity to move water p. 595
In a gravity system how many feet higher must the water source be than the highest point in the system?
100 ft p. 596
What are some common examples of gravity systems?
alpine lake or mountain reservoir that supplies to consumers below p. 596
The majority of communities in north america use what type of system?
Combination system p.597
How do water treatment facilities remove contaminants that may be detrimental to the health of those who drink it?
By filtering out particulates and adding chlorine (in many communities fluoride is also added to prevent tooth decay) p.597
What is the main concern regarding water treatment facilities?
mechanical breakdown, natural disaster, loss of power supply, or fire that could disable the pumps p.597
What is a potential problem with water treatment facilities that has nothing to do with the water?
These facilities store large amounts of liquid chlorine p. 598
Where is water sent after it has been treated and before being distributed throughout the area served?
elevated storage tanks p. 598
What does the ability of a water system to deliver a sufficient quantity of water and pressure depend upon?
The capacity and elevation of the storage tanks and the condition and carrying capacity of the systems network of underground pipes called mains p.598
What is caused whenever water flows through a pipe?
friction that reduces water pressure p. 598
What can increase friction loss in water mains?
encrustations that can accumulate inside the mains over a period of years p.599
What is a fire hydrant called that receives water from only one direction and has a limited supply?
dead end hydrant p. 599
Fire hydrants that receive water from more than one direction are said to have what?
circulating feed or a looped line p. 599
What is the name for a distribution system that provides a circulating feed from all directions?
What are the three components of a grid system?
primary feeders secondary feeders and distributors p.599
What are primary feeders?
Large mains that convey large quantities of water to various points in the system for distribution to secondary feeders and smaller mains p.599
what are secondary feeders?
Network of intermediate sized mains that subdivide the grid within the various loops of primary feeders and supply distributors p.599
What are distributors?
Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers p.599
What is a way to ensure a water supply to high risk and industrial units?
Two or more primary feeders running from a source of supply by separate routes p. 600
According to the American Water Works Association what is the recommended size of fire hydrant supply mains in diameter in residential areas?
6 inches p. 600
These mains should be closely gridded by what size cross connecting mains at intervals of not more than what?
size- 8 inches, intervals of not more than 600 feet p.600
In the business and industrial districts what is the minimum recommended size?
8 inch main cross connecting every 600 feet p.600
What size mains may be used on principal streets and in long mains not cross connected at frequent intervals?
12 inches p.600
what is the purpose of water main valves?
To provide a means of controlling the flow of water through the distribution piping p.600
Where should valves be located?
at frequent intervals in the grid system so only small sections have to be cut off for repairs p. 600
how often should valves be operated to keep them working?
at least once a year p. 600
Whos responsibility is it usually to inspect and operate valves on a regular basis?
water department p. 601
What are the two types of valves?
indicating and non indicating p. 601
What are two types of indicating valves?
OS and Y valve and a PIV p. 601
define OS and Y valve
Control valve for a sprinkler system in which the position of the center screw indicates whether the valve is open p.601
define post indicator valve
valve for underground water mains that provides a visual means for indicating "open" or "shut" p.601
Where are nonindicating valves usually located?
buried or installed in utility man holes p. 601
Where can a buried valve be operated from?
above ground through a valve box p. 601
what are the two types of control valves used in a water distribution system?
gate valves and butterfly valves p.601
How should gate valves be marked?
with a number indicating the number of turns to completely open or close the valve p.603
Where are butterfly valves commonly found?
private water systems p. 603
If valves are installed according to established standards how many fire hydrants will be out of service while a single break in a main is being repaired?
only one or perhaps two p. 603
What are underground water mains generally made of?
What can be used to add strength to a water main installed in unstable or corrosive soils?
Steel or reinforced concrete pipe p.603
Technically pressure is defined as?
force per unit area p.604
What the the pressure at a given point in a water system when no water is flowing?
Static pressure p.604
What is the forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening while water is flowing called?
flow pressure p. 604
What is the pressure left in the distribution system at a specific location when water is flowing called?
residual pressure p. 604
What device is used to measure flow pressure?
Pilot tube p. 605
Of the three types of pressures which one can indicate the availability of additional water?
residual pressure p.605
In general all hydrant bonnets, barrels, and foot pieces are made of?
cast iron p. 605
What are the two main types of hydrants used in north america?
wet barrel and dry barrel p. 605
If a hydrant is closed to fast what can happen?
Water hammer p. 605
In what type of areas are dry barrel hydrants usually installed?
In areas where prolonged periods of subfreezing weather are common p.605
In a dry barrel hydrant where is the main valve that prevents water from entering the barrel located?
below the frost line under ground p.605
How to dry barrel hydrants stay dry after use?
Drain holes located near the main valve p. 606
What happens if a dry barrel hydrant is not fully opened?
The drain holes may be left partially open causing erosion of the soil around the base of the hydrant p. 606
When you have shut down a dry barrel hydrant how can you tell if the drain holes are working properly?
Cap all but one discharge and place your hand over the open discharge. if the hydrant is draining a slight vacuum should be feltp. 607
If the vacuum is not felt what should be done?
Turn the hydrant back on and recheck for a vacuum. If a vacuum is still not felt notify the waterworks authority and have them inspect the hydrant p.607
What are the two other names for a wet barrel hydrant?
frost free or california hydrant p. 607
Where are wet barrel hydrants installed?
in warmer climates where prolonged periods of sub freezing weather are uncommon p.607
According to NFPA standards how are fire hydrants marked?
they are classified and color coded according to gpms AA-light blue- 1,500 gpm or greater A-green- 1,000 to 1,499 gpm B-orange-500 to 999 gpm C-red- less than 500 gpm p.607 and 608
Who makes decisions regarding the location, spacing, and distribution of fire hydrants?
Water department personnel based on recommendations from the fire department p.607
How far apart can fire hydrants be placed in in high value districts?
no more than 300 ft p. 607
What is a basic rule in the placement of fire hydrants?
Hydrant at every other intersection so that every building on a given street is within one block of a hydrant. additional hydrants may be required where distances between intersections exceed 350 to 400 feet p. 607 and 608
Who is responsible for the repair and maintenance of a fire hydrants?
Water department. Though in most cities firefighters perform hydrant testing and inspection p.608
What fire hydrant test is the most basic test normally conducted on an annual basis?
flow test p.609
What does a common flow test consist of?
Recording flow, static, and residual pressure p.609
What type of pilot tube reduces the possibility of human error and eliminates the need for manual support?
Fixed-mount pilot tube p. 610
What is the process of drawing water from a static water source to supply a pumper called?
drafting p. 610
What type of hose should be used when drafting?
hard intake hose with strainers on them p. 611
What is the minimum distance of water required above and below a hard intake strainer when drafting?
24 inches. However floating strainers can draft water from sources as shallow as 24 inches p.611
When should firefighters identify, mark, and record alternative water sources?
during preincident planning p.611
What are water shuttles?
hauling water from a supply source to portable tanks where water may be drawn to fight fire p.612
When are water shuttles recommended?
for distances greater than 1/2 mile or greater than the fire departments capability of laying supply hose p.612
What elements are critical to efficient water shuttles?
fast fill and fast dump capabilities p.612
Where should water supply officers be positioned during water shuttle operations?
At the fill and dump sites so that the water tender driver can remain in his vehicle throughout the operation p.612
What are the three key components of water shuttle operations?
attack apparatus at the fire, fill apparatus at the fill site, and water tenders to haul water from the fill site to the dump site. p.612
How many portable water tanks are stationed at a dump site?
one or more p.612
What are the capacities of portable water tanks?
1,000 gallons and up p.613
Can two water tanks be connected?
yes through there drain fittings p.613
How can water be transferred from one tank to another?
Through jet siphon devices p.613
What are the two types of water tanks?
One is a folding style with square collapsible metal frames the other is a round self supporting tank with a floating collar p. 614
What should be done before opening a portable tank?
a salvage cover or heavy tarp should be spread on the ground to protect the liner p.615
where is the best location for a water storage tank?
an as level as possible and accessible from many direction without blocking access to the fire scene p.615
what are the four basic methods by which water tenders unload?
Gravity dumping, jet dumps, apparatus mounted pumps that off load the water, or a combination of these methods p.615
Which NFPA standard requires that water tenders on level ground be capable of dumping or filling at rates of at least 1,000 gpm?
NFPA 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus p.615
Which method of unloading used by water tenders can be activated by any firefighter?
gravity dumps p.616
How should fill and dump sites be arranged?
So that a minimum of backing of the apparatus is required p. 616
What can be used instead of water tenders if a water source is close enough?
Relay pumping p. 616
What are the two important factors that must be considered regarding the establishment of a relay operation?
The water supply must be capable of maintaining the desired volume of water required for the duration of the incident and the relay must be established quickly enough to be worthwhile. p.616
Where should the apparatus with the greatest pumping capacities be located
at the water source p.616
Who must be appointed to determine the distance between pumpers and to coordinate water supply operations?
a water supply officer p. 616
What is the best way to prepare for relay operations?
plan them in advance and practice p. 616
Saving a life from fire or accident; removing a victim from an untenable or unhealthy atmosphere.
Incidents involving the removal and treatment of victims who are trapped by some type of man-made machinery or equipment.
Ongoing mental evaluation process performed by the operational officer in charge of an incident to evaluate all influencing factors and to develop objectives, strategy, and tactics for fire suppression before committing personnel and equipment to a course of action.
Place or means of exiting a structure.
Signal given to the Incident Commander that a specific area has been checked for victims and none have been found or all found victims have been extricated from an entrapment.
A steel or aluminum D-shaped snap link device for attaching components of rope rescue systems together. Should be of a positive locking type with a 5,000 pound minimum breaking strength. "Also called biners, crabs, or snap links."
Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)
Two or more fully equipped and immediately available firefighters designated to stand by outside the hazard zone to enter and effect rescue of firefighters inside. "Also called Rapid Intervention Team (RIT)"
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
Application of rescue breathing and external cardiac compression used on patients in cardiac arrest to provide an adequate circulation and oxygen to support life.
Lying horizontal in a face upward position.
Auxiliary electrical power generating device. The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220-volt AC current.
Auxiliary electrical power generating device. Portable generators are powered by small gasoline or diesel engines and generally have 110- and/or 220-volt capacities.
A luminous discharge of electricity across a gap; produce very high temperature.
Branch of fluid mechanics dealing with the mechanical properties of liquids and the application of these properties in engineering.
General term used for lengths of timber, screw jacks, hydraulic and pneumatic jacks, and other devices that can be used as temporary support for formwork or structural components or used to hold sheeting against trench walls. Individual supports are called shores, cross braces, and struts.
Varying lengths of hardwood, usually 4x4 inch or larger, used to stabilize vehicles and collapsed buildings during extrication incidents.
Block and Tackle
Series of pulleys (sheaves) contained within a wood or metal frame. They are used with rope to provide a mechanical advantage for pulling operations.
System used for sorting and classifying accident casualties to determine the priority for medical treatment and transportation.
Process of providing additional support to key places between an object of entrapment and the ground or other solid anchor points to prevent unwanted movement.
Wooden, plastic, or metal block constructed to fit the curvature of a tire; placed against the tire to prevent apparatus rolling.
Readying a patient for transport.
Safety Glass (Laminated Glass)
Special glass composed of two sheets of glass that are laminated to a sheet of plastic sandwhiched between them under high temperature and pressure. Primarily used for automobile windshields and some rear windows.
Type of glass specially treated to become harder and more break resistant than plate glass or a single sheet of laminated glass. Tempered glass is most commonly used in side windows and some rear windows.
Method of automobile construction used for most modern cars in which the frame and body of a vehicle is all one integral unit.
Collapse that occurs after the intitial collapse of a structure. Possible causes include, an aftershock (earthquake), the movement of structural members, or weather conditions.
Abnormally low or decreased body temperature.
Wide/flat material wrapped tightly around a limb to stop bleeding; used only for severe, life threatening hemorrhage that cannot be controlled by other means.
involve the removal of victims from entrapment by fires, terrain features, structural collapse, elevation differences, confined spaces, or any situation not considered an extrication incident.
involve the disentanglement and removal of victims from vehicles of machinery.
Duty of every fire department:
is to protect life and property from fire.
While searching for victims in a fire:
rescuers must always consider their own safety.
Firefighter safety depends on upon:
- making a good initial size-up - continuing the size-up throughout the operation - performing a risk/benefit analysis before each major step
- essential search and rescue tool - may be used as a tagline (life line)
are used to indicate which rooms have already been searched.
Forcible entry tools:
aid in entry and egress and enlarge the sweep area when searching.
Search Safety Guidelines
look over pgs 306-308
The decision to perform primary search:
is always based on a risk assessment and a determination that there may be savable victims.
The initial size-up is the responsibility of the:
first arriving officer.
Firefighters should not assume that all occupants are out until:
the building has been searched.
The fire attack should be started simultaneously with:
any interior search operations.
Two objectives of a building search:
- locating victims (searching for life) - obtaining information about the location and extent of the fire (assessing fire conditions)
- is a rapid but thorough search that is performed either before or during fire suppression operations - is often carried out under extremely adverse conditions
- is conducted after the fire is under control - is a slower and more thorough search that attempts to ensure that no occupants were overlooked - should not be conducted by personnel involved in the primary search
Third type of search is "rapid intervention search"
- used when needed to locate and rescue firefighters in distress
Standard search priorities:
- most severely threatened - largest numbers - remainder of hazard zone - exposures
During the primary search, always use the _______ _______
buddy system; working in teams of two or more.
While searching an (IDLH) atmosphere you must remain in "contact" with other team members:
physically, vocally, or visually.
Primary search teams should always carry a:
- radio - thermal imaging camera (TIC) - flashlight - forcible entry tools
Lighted search rope:
- available in lengths up to 300 feet - operates on 120 volt AC power
On the fire floor start your search:
as close to the fire as possible and then work back toward the entrance door.
Areas where occupants seek shelter from the fire:
- bathrooms - bathtubs - shower stalls - closets - under beds - behind furniture - basemnents - attic rooms - behind doors - on the floor below windows
After the perimeter of a room has been search:
search the middle of the room.
Search line system:
200 feet of 3/8 inch rope with a kevlar sheath.
Every 20 feet along its length:
a 2 inch steel ring is tied into the search line.
After the second ring there are two knots indicating:
40 feet from the beginning of the line.
Knots are always after the ring, so they provide a directional indication:
(knots toward the fire, rings toward the exit)
Implementing the search line system requires a team with a minimum of _______ members.
Meter reading above 50 ppm (parts per million) of carbon monoxide (CO) means:
that firefighters inside the building must continue to wear their SCBA.
When searching in multistory buildings, first search:
- the fire floor - the floor directly above the fire floor - the topmost floor
Methods used for marking rooms:
- chalk - crayon - masking tape - duct tape - latch straps - specially designed door markers
When using a marking method the marks should be placed:
on the lower third of the wall or door so they can be seen below the smoke.
One slash mark indicates:
room is being searched.
Two slash marks indicate:
room has been searched.
If you become lost or disoriented in a burning building:
If you do not have a radio:
try to retrace your steps to your original location.
Before you attempt to breach and interior wall:
feel it for heat.
Interior walls of gypsum wallboard or lath and plaster can be breached with:
- almost any forcible entry tool - a piece of furniture - if necessary, your boot
Removing a wall between two adjacent studs will create and opening:
14 inches wide.
To create a large enough opening through which to escape, you may have to remove sections on both sides of a stud:
then remove the stud.
If you are trapped or suffer an injury that prevents you from moving:
- find a place of relative safety and activate your PASS device - tap or pound on wall with tool - maintian composure to maximize air supply
Rescuers searching for a firefighter in distress should first try to:
establish radio contact.
Once a downed firefighter has been located, his or her air supply should be:
checked and a full cylinder connected if necessary.
Radio transceivers have a range of:
100 feet (operate on 457 kHz)
Emergency moves are necessary under what conditions:
- there is fire or danger - explosives or other hazardous materials are involved - it is impossible to protect the accident scene - it is impossible to gain access to other victims who need immediate life saving care - the victim is in cardiac arrest and must be moved so that rescuers can administer (CPR)
can be used by one rescuer to move a victim up or down a stairway or incline. (very useful when moving an unconscious vitcim)
can be implemented by one rescuer using a blanket, rug, or sheet.
Cradle in arms lift/carry:
is effective for carrying children or very small adults if they are conscious.
Three person lift/carry:
is an effective way to lift a victim who is lying down. (often used for for moving a victim from a bed to a gurney, especially when the victim is in cramped quarters)
Immobilizing a victim who is suspected of having a spinal injury on a long backboard requires how many rescuers:
An inverter is a step up transformer that converts a vehicles 12- or 24- volt DC current into:
110- or 220-volt AC current.
Most common power source used for emergency services:
What are the general output capabilities of vehicle mounted generators:
110- and 220- volt. up to 50 kilowatts
How are vehicle mounted generators fueled:
- gasoline - diesel - propane
Portable lights generally range from:
300 to 1,000 watts
Fixed lights on a apparatus generally have a capacity of:
500 to 1,500 watts per light.
Overtaxing the power plant can cause:
- poor lighting - may damage the power generating unit or the lights - may restrict the operation of other electrical tools using the same power supply
standard for electrical safety in the workplace
Review maintenance of portable power plants and lighting equipment:
What is the opening spread of hydraulic spreaders:
32 inches apart
What is the opening spread of hydraulic shears:
Hydraulic jacks have lifting capacities up to:
Two manual hydraulic tools that are used frequently in extrication work:
- porta power tool system - hydraulic jack
Extension rams can extend from a closed length of 3 feet:
to an extended length of 5 feet.
Combination spreaders/shears drawback:
the spreading and cutting capabilities of the combination tool are somewhat less than those of the individual units.
Least stable of all types of jacks:
ratchet lever jack
Cribbing is most commonly used to:
Most air chisels operate at air pressures between:
90 and 250 psi.
Most air knifes operate at air pressures between:
90 to 100 psi. (the exit velocity of the air at the nozzle is close to mach 2)
Air knives can almost instantly create a hole ______ foot in diameter and depth.
Most common sizes or ratings of come-alongs are:
1 to 10 tons.
The winch should be positioned as close to the object being pulled as possible so that if the cable breaks:
there will be less cable to suddenly recoil.
Saw often used for delicate cutting operations such as removing rings from swollen fingers:
Whizzer saw operates at _______ rpm
Weighing 2 pounds, the _______ _______ weighs about one-tenth as much as a circular saw, so it is much more maneuverable.
Whizzer saw cuts case harderened locks and steel stock up to _/_ inches thick.
Only _______ steel chains of the correct size should be used in rescue work.
Depending on the conditions at the fire scene, who decides if the fire attack is going to be offensive or defensive?
When the structure or major contents are involved in fire, how should the firefighters wait at the building entrance?
staying low and out of the doorway
A(n) ___ attack is action taken against the flames at its edge or closely parallel to it.
Whenever possible, approach and attack the fire from____________ to keep it from spreading throughout the structure.
The unburned side
Once the fire is contained, What needs to be determined prior to any overhaul and extinguishment operations?
The area of origin and protecting any evidence
Any valuables found during overhaul should be turned in to the_________ for safekeeping.
_____ is still the agent most used to extinguish structure fires.
What dictates the stream selection?
The fire situation and the capabilities of the nozzle being used