NREMT Medical Practice Questions

What is the key difference between inhaling through the nose versus the mouth?
A) the nasopharynx allows you to breathe while speaking
B) the oropharynx allows more air to enter with each breath
C) the nasopharynx cleans and warms air on inhalation
D) the oropharynx relies on breathing to evaporate saliva
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What is the key difference between inhaling through the nose versus the mouth?
A) the nasopharynx allows you to breathe while speaking
B) the oropharynx allows more air to enter with each breath
C) the nasopharynx cleans and warms air on inhalation
D) the oropharynx relies on breathing to evaporate saliva
C) the nasopharynx cleans and warms air on inhalation
Which of the following is a primary function of the upper airway?
A) adding lubricant to inhaled air
B) removing moisture from inhaled air
C) collection, warming, and filtration of inhaled air
D) ensuring fluids/solids do not enter the lungs
C) collection, warming, and filtration of inhaled air
Which of the following accurately explains the process of taking a deep breath?
A) contraction of the diaphragm and relaxation of the internal intercostals
B) contraction of the diaphragm and contraction of the intercostals
C) relaxation of the diaphragm and relaxation of the internal intercostals
D) relaxation of the diaphragm and contraction of the intercostals
A) contraction of the diaphragm and relaxation of the internal intercostals
A patient involved in an MVC is having difficulty breathing. Their airway is clear and they stabilize with PPV. There is no evident spinal injury. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be damaged?
A) the lateral spinal cord
B) the intercostal nerves
C) the paraspinal nerves
D) the phrenic nerves
D) the phrenic nerves
A 14 y/o male begins to complain of progressing groin pain while sitting in class in school. He states the pain worsens with movement. The school RN can't figure out the reason for his symptoms as no trauma preceded the gradual increase in pain. The parents have consented you to transport him to a local ER. What is a common cause in his age group that could be the reason for the pain?
A) epididymitis
B) UTI
C) kidney stone
D) testicular torsion
A) epididymitis
A pregnant woman is participating in cardio kickboxing classes, jogging, and weightlifting while pregnant. Which of the following protects the developing fetus from trauma?
A) the amnion and chorion
B) the uterine smooth muscle
C) the amniotic fluid
D) the maternal abdominal muscles
C) the amniotic fluid
A 67 y/o patient with recent DVT being treated with Coumadin contacts 911 due to large bruises appearing on his forearms after wrestling with his dog. Which of the following put this patient at higher risk of this condition versus a teenage patient who is otherwise in the same state of health?
A) atherosclerotic damage to the vessels
B) increased BP
C) lower number of platelets
D) decreased thickness of the blood vessels
D) decreased thickness of the blood vessels
You call to assist a 4-day-old neonate that is "not acting right" per mother. Which of the following vital signs is within normal range for a neonate?
A) HR 100-120 bpm, RR 30-40/min, BP 60/30
B) HR 140-160 bpm, RR 30-60/min, BP 80/40
C) HR 70-110 bpm, RR 15-20/min, BP 100/60
D) HR 90-110 bpm, RR 20-28/min, BP 94/54
B) HR 140-160 bpm, RR 30-60/min, BP 80/40
Which of the following is the normal respiratory rate for a patient who is 3-5 years of age?
A) 10-20/min
B) 20-30/min
C) 30-40/min
D) 40-50/min
B) 20-30/min
You are running a code on a newborn who was born in transit. Which of the following complications of CPR and ventilation is more likely in an infant compared to an adult?
A) brain damage secondary to hypoxemia
B) damage to the airways
C) fracture of the ribs
D) cardiac damage secondary to ischemia
B) damage to the airways
In normal childhood development, at which of the following ages is a child normally able to walk without assistance? A) 10 months B) 21 months C) 16 months D) 19 monthsC) 16 monthsA newborn delivered in the field has a pulse of 150 bpm, pink extremities, a strong cry, and all expected reflexes. What respiratory effort would be expected at the time of birth in this child? A) 0-20/min B) 20-40/min C) 40-60/min D) 60-80/minC) 40-60/minYour 37 weeks pregnant patient has delivered her baby at home. You have been dispatched due to the infant's HR of 150 bpm 15 minutes after the birth. What range is considered normal? A) 100-160 B) 110-150 C) 120-140 D) within 5 bpm of 130A) 100-160At what age have most children developed the ability to voluntarily control elimination of urine and feces? A) 0-6 months B) 6-12 months C) 12-36 months D) beyond 24 monthsC) 12-36 monthsDuring a trauma call following an MVC, a mother and toddler are being evaluated. Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for the toddler, assuming the evaluation is unrevealing? A) transporting the mother and toddler in the same vehicle B) transporting to a specialized pediatric ED C) beginning oxygen during transport prophylactically D) allowing the mother to participate in inserting necessary IV linesA) transporting the mother and toddler in the same vehicleA 2 y/o is presenting with cyanosis, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever in the setting of a previously known viral illness. Which of the following predisposed this patient to their current condition? A) the prevalence of asthma in this group B) the continuing development of the alveoli C) the small diameter of the trachea D) the weak immune systemB) the continuing development of the alveoliWhat is the normal respiratory rate of an 8 year old? A) 12-20/min B) 12-30/min C) 25-30/min D) 5-10/minB) 12-30/minIn what age group does the maximum normal SBP equal that of adults for the first time? A) infants B) toddlers C) school age children D) adolescentsC) school age childrenIn the evaluation of an adolescent trauma victim with a penetration injury, which of the following physiologic differences could affect your management of the patient to the greatest degree? A) chest wall strength B) respiratory rate C) heart rate D) SBPD) SBPA 50 y/o patient is presenting with fatigue, unexplained changes in bowel habits, decreased appetite, and significant weight loss. Which of the following disease processes is most likely to be the cause of their symptoms given their age? A) cancer B) TB C) diabetes D) HTNA) cancerA 70 y/o patient has had progressive SOB over the past 5 years, especially when carrying home heavy bags of groceries. Which of the following factors is the most common cause of these symptoms? A) loss of skeletal muscle strength B) weakening of the heart C) weakening of the chest wall D) damage to the nervous systemC) weakening of the chest wallA 65 y/o runner has had progressively worsening SOB while running over the past 4 years. He does not smoke and has no known health conditions. Which of the following is most likely leading to this presentation? A) underlying cardiac disease B) peripheral neuropathy C) lung cancer D) normal age-related changesD) normal age-related changesWhich of the following patterns of infant behavior is most indicative of a healthy pattern of attachment to a caregiver? A) no distress upon parting that increases some time later B) distress upon parting that gradually lessens C) distress upon parting that gradually increases D) significant distress upon parting that is constantB) distress upon parting that gradually lessensA parent and child are playing with blocks. The parent demonstrates how to stack the blocks to make a small tower, then dismantles it and watches as the child attempts to construct the tower and assisting when they get stuck. Which of the following developmental areas does this behavior fit into? A) socialization B) attachment C) scaffolding D) object permanenceC) scaffoldingMany children experience delays in language and social readiness for preschool. Which of the following exposures both results in this outcome and is most common in the population? A) excessive amounts of time watching television B) an acquired mental illness C) an underlying neurological defect D) the use of formula feeding over breast milk in infancyA) excessive amounts of time watching televisionThe weight of a preschool aged child (3-5 years) should fall into which of the following categories? A) 17-31 lbs B) 32-41 lbs C) 42-55 lbs D) 56-71 lbsB) 32-41 lbsYou are called for an unknown medical problem. On arrival, you find a 23 y/o male that appears hyperactive. His only complaint is confusion, stating he just can't get his thoughts together. His HR is 138 bpm, respirations are 30/min, SpO2 98%, and BP 188/96. Pupils are dilated with hyperactive eye movements noted. Which of the following questions is likely to reveal a potential cause for the patient's symptoms? A) Have you ever been told you are hyperactive? B) Do you take any prescribed or non-prescribed medications or drugs? C) Does your chest hurt? D) Are you having difficulty breathing?B) Do you take any prescribed or non-prescribed medications or drugs?You are conducting a focused history and physical exam on a 45 y/o female who has had difficulty breathing for the last 3 hours. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic; she is very frightened and is breathing 32 times per minute. She has used her inhaler three times without relief. While obtaining the SAMPLE history, she becomes unresponsive. Your first action is: A) open the airway manually, check for breathing, and check for a pulse B) check for a carotid pulse while observing for chest rise and fall C) place the patient on a backboard and begin rescue breaths D) call for additional help, roll the patient on left side, begin ventilation with a BVM and supplemental oxygenA) open the airway manually, check for breathing, and check for a pulse CAB is used in cardiac arrest, but there is no proof this patient has sustained a cardiac arrest, so follow the standard ABC protocol.You find a patient unresponsive after an apparent fall from a roof. After checking for any life-threatening conditions and assessing the ABCs, what is the next step in managing this patient? A) call for helicopter transport B) obtain baseline vitals C) place the patient on a backboard D) decide treatment priorityD) decide treatment priorityThe primary component of the overall assessment of the medical patient is: A) the analog pain score B) allergies C) acquiring a thorough history D) scene size-upC) acquiring a thorough historyDuring the secondary assessment of the cardiovascular system, the EMS provider should assess the pulse and what other key component? A) pupillary reaction B) urine output C) capillary refill D) JVDC) capillary refillAll of the following conditions have a strong genetic component and are commonly passed down in families except: A) ulcerative colitis B) cataracts C) sickle-cell anemia D) emphysemaB) cataractsA pregnant woman's contractions are stimulated by the hormone oxytocin. The resulting contractions themselves stimulate more oxytocin secretion from the pituitary gland to affect her uterus further. This is an example of: A) a negative feedback loop B) a neutral feedback loop C) a positive feedback loop D) faulty homeostasisC) a positive feedback loopDuring a temper tantrum, a five-year-old child attempts to hold his breath to upset his parents and make a point. After a short period of time, the child passes out and falls to the ground. How do you suspect a medically-trained person would describe the respiratory pattern immediately following the syncopal episode? A) slow, then fast, then slow again B) absent without intervention C) apneic for a minute or so, then normal D) tachypneic for a short time, then regularD) tachypneic for a short time, then regularIn which of the following situations is a patient's ventilation most likely to be compromised? A) the presence of deep respirations at a rate of 32/min B) the presence of extremely shallow respirations at a rate of 12/min C) the presence of deep respirations at a rate of 8/min D) the presence of shallow respirations at a rate of 32/minB) the presence of extremely shallow respirations at a rate of 12/minHow does severe hypoxia result in the death of cells? A) reduced ability to eliminate CO2 B) damage to the cell DNA C) damage to the cell membranes D) reduced ability for the cell to protect itself from microbesC) damage to the cell membranesWhich of the following substances are released by the cells to prevent damage from excessive catecholamine release in the body? A) nitric oxide B) epinephrine C) norepineprhine D) renin and angiotensinA) nitric oxideShock results in compensatory mechanisms that attempt to restore homeostasis. What is the result of these mechanisms if they are allowed to persist for a long period of time? A) little to no change in the state of the patient B) a restoration of homeostasis C) overcompensation and further hypoperfusion D) damage to multiple body systemsD) damage to multiple body systemsThe peripheral nervous system is broadly divided into which of the following categories? A) somatic and autonomic B) SNS and PSNS C) brain and spinal cord D) gray matter and white matterA) somatic and autonomicYou are called to see a schizophrenic patient who is having trouble swallowing. She has a history of ingesting caustic substances. The difficulty swallowing is most likely related which of the following? A) an acute toxicity of something she just ate B) provoked by hallucinations C) a later complication of tissue injury causing fibrosis D) laryngeal spasmC) a later complication of tissue injury causing fibrosisSepsis due to bacteria in the circulatory system most often leads to which of the following effects in the lungs? A) pulmonary embolism B) pulmonary edema C) pulmonary hemorrhage D) pulmonary infarctionB) pulmonary edemaA patient with severe cold exposure to the feet is experiencing discoloration and severe pain in their toes. Which of the following processes is most likely occurring in the cells within the toes? A) apoptosis B) necrosis C) hyperplasia D) hypoplasiaB) necrosisCells utilize gluconeogenesis in which of the following circumstances? A) when there is an excess of fats and amino acids in the cell B) when there is an excess of glucose in the cell C) when there is an excess of oxygen in/around the cell D) when there is an excess of ATP within the cellA) when there is an excess of fats and amino acids in the cellShock from exaggerated peripheral dilation is: A) distributive B) cardiogenic C) hypovolemic D) obstructiveA) distributiveYour unit responds to a stabbing at a local mall. On arrival, you find a safe scene and a 20 y/o male that has been stabbed in the upper left chest. He has a small amount of blood on his shirt. BP is 122/50, HR is 130 bpm, and skin is cool and clammy. The patient suddenly begins to show signs of hypo perfusion. Which type of shock is the patient most likely experiencing? A) septic B) anaphylactic C) obstructive D) distributiveC) obstructive Likely that the trauma caused a tamponade to develop.Which of the following is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis? A) hydrogen ion absorption by the liver B) untreated biliary disease C) severe vomiting and/or diarrhea D) the loss of bicarbonate through the kidneysC) severe vomiting and/or diarrheaWhich of the following reduces the patient's ability to expel CO2 at baseline to the greatest degree? A) tachycardia B) emphysema C) asthma D) anemiaB) emphysemaAccumulation of which of the following is the main way that the body lowers its pH? A) oxygen B) CO2 C) lactic acid D) bicarbonateB) CO2Someone who is otherwise healthy but has an ABG that shows a high pH and a low CO2 is MOST likely presenting with which of the following? A) lactic acidosis B) hyperventilation C) COPD D) metabolic alkalosisB) hyperventilationYou are re-assessing your patient and note a distinct increase in the rate and depth of their respirations. Which of the following conditions would result in this finding? A) alkalosis B) acidosis C) narcotic OD D) myasthenia gravisB) acidosisYou are called to see a 32 y/o female with tachycardia and confusion. She has a history of RA. You note petechiae on her arms and legs. Her complaints are MOST likely related to: A) an inflammatory reaction B) hemophilia C) domestic abuse D) overuse of aspirinD) overuse of aspirinIf metabolic acidosis develops in a patient, which of the following responses by the body is expected? A) an increase in the RR B) an increase in kidney excretion of bicarbonate C) increased elimination of acid into gastric secretions D) an increase in acid secretion through sweatA) an increase in the RRAll of the following result in metabolic acidosis EXCEPT: A) increased acid generation B) loss of bicarbonate C) accumulation of bicarbonate D) diminished renal acid excretionC) accumulation of bicarbonateWhich is true when dealing with acid-base disorders in the field? A) it is important to know which type of acid-base disorder with which you are dealing B) it is not important to know which type of acid-base disorder you are dealing with, but you should instead focus on the pathology causing it and its appropriate support C) it is crucial to know if there is respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis D) it is important to know the equations to determine the relative amounts of pCO2 and bicarbonateB) it is not important to know which type of acid-base disorder you are dealing with, but you should instead focus on the pathology causing it and its appropriate supportThe fastest way to treat metabolic alkalosis is: A) rehydration B) dialysis C) oral medications D) decrease the rate and depth of respirationsD) decrease the rate and depth of respirationsSigns and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis are normally generated due to: A) the alkalosis itself B) an underlying cause of the alkalosis C) the kidneys D) the severity of the alkalosisB) an underlying cause of the alkalosisOf the following, the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is: A) loss of gastric secretions B) diarrhea C) "milk-alkali syndrome" D) dehydrationA) loss of gastric secretionsWhich of the following is the least likely to cause a metabolic alkalosis? A) vomiting B) diarrhea C) H+ movement into cells D) dehydrationB) diarrheaMetabolic alkalosis can be differentiated by its responsiveness or resistance to the effectiveness of which type of therapy? A) chloride B) potassium C) sodium D) magnesiumA) chlorideDecreased CO2 elimination resulting in respiratory acidosis would most likely be a factor with which of the following patients? A) 54 y/o male hyperventilating B) 38 y/o female with agonal respirations C) 60 y/o female with regular respirations D) infant with regular respirationsB) 38 y/o female with agonal respirationsChronić hypercapnia is usually compensated for by: A) renal conservation of bicarbonate B) liver detoxification C) lymphatic clearance D) increased venous PvO2A) renal conservation of bicarbonateYou are doing a clinical rotation in the ER to keep your skills up when EMS brings you a patient who is hyperventilating and upset. Her HR is 110 bpm, and she has a history of anxiety. Which is the best treatment for this patient? A) assist her in taking her anxiety medication B) have her breathe into a paper bag C) assist respirations with adequate tidal volume D) coach her to relax and slow her breathingD) coach her to relax and slow her breathingA patient with which of the following medical conditions would be most likely to experience hyperventilation leading to alkalosis? A) heavy tobacco use B) severe asthma C) anxiety and panic attacks D) bacterial pneumoniaC) anxiety and panic attacksHypocapnia develops when a strong respiratory stimulus causes the respiratory system to: A) build up more CO2 than can be removed from the tissues B) remove more oxygen than the lungs can take in C) retain more CO2 than the lungs can blow out D) remove more CO2 than is produced in the tissues from metabolismD) remove more CO2 than is produced in the tissues from metabolismAll of the following cause respiratory alkalosis EXCEPT: A) hyperventilation B) ingestion of excessive antacids C) panic attacks D) ASA overdoseB) ingestion of excessive antacidsYou are working in a rural area and are called to transport a patient to an ICU 30 minutes away. You received the hospital report and are looking at the bloodwork that has been drawn in the ED. Your patient has a pH of 7.25, a CO2 of 60 mmHg, and HCO3 of 22. Which condition is MOST likely present in this patient? A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) your patient's bloodwork was normal and there are no signs of imbalanceA) respiratory acidosisA 45 y/o patient was recently diagnosed with kidney failure. Which of the following acid-base imbalances are most likely to result from this condition? A) metabolic alkalosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) respiratory acidosisC) metabolic acidosis Metabolic acidosis is caused by renal failure or the kidneys' inability to remove H+ from the body through the urine.Your patient's chief complaint is difficulty breathing. He is breathing at a rate of 26/min with an SpO2 of 88%. He has inspiratory wheezing and diminished exhalations with a barrel-chested appearance. What can we expect his pH range to indicate? A) metabolic acidosis B) respiratory acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) respiratory alkalosisB) respiratory acidosis COPD leas to air trapping, which prevents exchange of gas, leading to an accumulation of CO2, causing respiratory acidosis, even though the respiratory rate is high.The head of the pancreas is located in which abdominal quadrant/region? A) RUQ and epigastric region B) LUQ and epigastric region C) LUQ and hypogastric region D) LUQ and right lumbar regionA) RUQ and epigastric regionYou are treating a patient with a stab wound. The knife entered into the mid-axillary line of the sixth intercostal space on the right side. Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured as a result? A) liver, diaphragm, lung, and kidney B) liver, lung, kidney, and small intestine C) stomach, pancreas, lung D) spleen, diaphragm, lung, and kidneyA) liver, diaphragm, lung, and kidneyThe expulsion of feces from the rectum is initiated by: A) sympathetic nerves B) relaxation of the external sphincter C) parasympathetic nerves D) contraction of the internal sphincterC) parasympathetic nervesA teenage patient is presenting with bloating, nausea, and excessive flatulence. The stools are foul-smelling and extremely frequent. Which of the following anatomical changes would lead to these findings? A) loss of control of the rectal sphincters B) loss of the intestinal villi C) damage to the enteric NS D) damage to the stomach liningB) loss of the intestinal villiWhich of the following patients may not exhibit rigidity during acute abdominal conditions? A) pediatric patients B) menopausal women C) pregnant patients D) geriatric patientsD) geriatric patientsYou and your partner are treating a 79 y/o female who is being transferred from a nursing home to the ER for abdominal pain. She suddenly becomes unresponsive. Which of the following is the next best step? A) attach AED/pads B) deliver rescue breaths C) call for ACLS intercept D) open her airwayD) open her airwayA 20 y/o patient is being transported for severe abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented with all vital signs in the normal range. Which of the following is the best first step in treatment of the patient after a full assessment? A) quickly place her in the Trendelenburg position on a long spine board and transport B) request medication orders from medical control due to transport time C) place her in the sitting position and give her small sips of water D) place her in the position of comfort and reassess en routeD) place her in the position of comfort and reassess en routeA tourist presents to a clinic in Mexico due to diarrhea of 2 days duration occurring 6-7 times per day. ABCs are normal and the patient appears well-hydrated. On abdominal exam, which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation? A) no bowel sounds B) underactive bowel sounds C) normal bowel sounds D) overactive bowel soundsD) overactive bowel soundsWhich of the following is the MOST common cause of upper GI bleeding? A) PUD B) variceal rupture C) esophagitis D) gastritisA) PUDYou are treating a patient who is vomiting copious amounts of bright red blood. Your assessment reveals pale, cool, clammy skin. BP is 96/48, HR 130 bpm. Abdomen is non-tender but significantly distended. Based on this information, what is most likely? A) severe gastritis B) lower GI bleed C) pancreatitis D) esophageal varicesD) esophageal varicesYou are called to treat a patient complaining of bloody diarrhea. Upon assessment, you identify colicky pain in the lower quadrants, nausea, and vomiting. The MOST likely field diagnosis would be: A) diverticulitis B) gastroenteritis C) hemorrhoids D) UCD) UCA patient presents with pale skin, upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back, fatty stools, and fatigue. She states that she's had this happen "a few times". What would you expect to find in her medical history? A) she has cancer B) she has gallstones C) she has pancreatitis D) she is an alcoholicC) she has pancreatitisA 3 y/o girl is combative, exhausted, and won't let you touch her. You observe a 3 cm bulge of her umbilical area. This most likely represents: A) incarcerated bowel/obstruction B) a simple umbilical hernia C) muscle rupture D) severe constipationA) incarcerated bowel/obstructionWhich of the following types of hepatitis cannot infect a patient unless they already have hepatitis B? A) A B) C C) D D) GC) DIn cases of hepatitis, if a patient is presenting with abdominal pain, which of the following quadrants is usually involved? A) LUQ B) RUQ C) LLQ D) RLQB) RUQYou are treating a patient for general malaise that states he has been ill for 3 days. He has had night sweats, chills, and has a yellow hue to his skin and sclera. Which of the following should you suspect? A) chronic renal failure B) liver failure C) pancreatic failure D) heart failureB) liver failureWhich of the following forms of hepatitis are healthcare workers at greatest risk of contracting? A) A B) B C) C D) DB) BIn the field, the biggest and most acute problem encountered with liver disease is which of the following? A) PUD B) upper GI bleed C) jaundice D) ascitesB) upper GI bleedA 67 y/o patient with a history of HTN and alcoholic liver cirrhosis is complaining of severe abdominal pain with N/V. She shows you vomitus that contains bright red blood. Which of the following should you suspect until proven otherwise? A) ruptured esophageal varices B) ruptured AAA C) hemorrhagic peptic ulcer D) acute diverticulosisA) ruptured esophageal varicesYou are emergently transporting a very complex patient suffering from acute AMS, chronic scleral icterus, abdominal distension, and diffuse edema. An infectious disease reportedly caused this patient's presentation. Which of the following routes of exposure would be most threatening to an EMS provider in this situation? A) respiratory droplets B) needlestick C) exposure to feces D) aerosolized particlesB) needlestickIn a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, which of the following is most likely to result in acute decompensation and death in the EMS setting? A) aggression B) increased ICP C) respiratory depression D) cardiac arrhythmiaB) increased ICPThe majority of patients with viral gastroenteritis require which of the following treatments? A) IV hydration B) oral anti-emetics C) antibiotics D) supportive care onlyD) supportive care onlyA patient with 3 days of copious diarrhea is presenting with palpitations. Loss of which of the following electrolytes is leading to this patient's presentation? A) sodium B) potassium C) calcium, D) magnesiumB) potassiumWhich of the following etiologies of bowel obstruction is the most likely immediately following abdominal surgery? A) infection B) adhesions C) ileus D) volvulusC) ileusWhich of the following types of hernia occurs through a weak point in the abdominal wall created by a surgical scar or congenital defect? A) indirect hernias B) Spigelian hernias C) congenital hernias D) direct herniasD) direct herniasA patient calls EMS due to extreme pain experienced in the area of a chronic bulge lateral to his groin. Which of the following has likely predisposed him to his current condition? A) inguinal hernia B) abdominal hernia C) testicular torsion D) femoral dissectionA) inguinal herniaA foreign body lodged in the rectum is likely to present similar to which of the following conditions? A) hemorrhoids B) appendicitis C) bowel obstruction D) cholecystitisC) bowel obstructionWhich condition is traditionally associated with perianal abscesses? A) hemorrhoids B) UC C) Crohn's disease D) fissuresC) Crohn's diseaseIn a patient with a recent abdominal surgery, the presence of which of the following would be most worrisome for an impending re-opening of the wound? A) serosanguinous fluid leaking from the incision B) hyperactive bowel sounds C) hypoactive bowel sounds D) bleeding from the incisionA) serosanguinous fluid leaking from the incisionWhich of the following post-op complications generally occurs immediately after surgery? A) UTI B) DVT C) atelectasis D) wound infectionC) atelectasisAll of the following conditions have a strong genetic component and are commonly passed down in families except: A) ulcerative colitis B) cataracts C) sickle-cell anemia D) emphysemaB) cataractsFever is an ominous sign of which stage of mesenteric ischemia? A) obstruction B) distension C) bowel death D) infectionC) bowel deathWhich artery is usually obstructed to cause acute mesenteric ischemia? A) the renal artery B) the celiac trunk C) the superior mesenteric artery D) the inferior mesenteric arteryC) the superior mesenteric arteryA patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has not taken their prescribed warfarin for several days. EMS is contacted due to general weakness and abdominal pain. Based on this history, which of the following conditions is most likely to be present? A) stroke or TIA B) bowel obstruction C) bowel ischemia D) DVTC) bowel ischemiaWhich of the following are the most common signs/symptoms of acute mesenteric ischemia? A) diffuse abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea B) vomiting and palpitations C) diarrhea and lower extremity weakness D) epigastric pain and constipationA) diffuse abdominal pain and bloody diarrheaA patient has an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel exposed. Which of the following is the best dressing for the wound? A) clean gauze over the abdomen and secured with sterile tape B) a wet dressing over the affected area with an occlusive dressing on top of it C) an occlusive dressing over the affected area and secured on three sides D) a trauma dressing over the affected area and secured with triangular bandagesB) a wet dressing over the affected area with an occlusive dressing on top of itIn a patient with recent abdominal surgery, the presence of which of the following would be most worrisome for an impending re-opening of the wound? A) serosanguinous fluid leaking form the incision B) hyperactive bowel sounds C) hypoactive bowel sounds D) bleeding from the incisionA) serosanguinous fluid leaking form the incisionWhich of the following post-surgical complications generally occurs immediately after surgery? A) UTI B) DVT C) atelectasis D) wound infectionC) atelectasisYou are using the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) to assess a 1 y/o child. Which of the following is NOT part of the PAT? A) skin appearance and temperature B) pupillary reaction C) respiratory rate and effort D) chest wall movementWhich of the following is the most common life-threatening complication of pediatric vomiting? A) severe chronic pain B) dehydration C) encephalitis D) infectionB) dehydrationYou are called to evaluate an 11 y/o girl who is crying. The parents state she is inconsolable and she points to her navel when you ask if she has any pain. She has a low-grade fever and has vomited twice. Which of the following is most likely the cause? A) incarcerated umbilical hernia B) a stomach virus C) appendicitis D) malingeringC) appendicitisA parent is stating that their 5 y/o child is complaining of diffuse abdominal pain and has vomited twice. HR 80 bpm, RR 12/min, BP 90/70, SpO2 100%, temperature 98.6 F. Which of the following is the best option? A) observe the patient B) transport the patient C) provide IV fluids and transport D) provide anti-nausea medications and observeB) transport the patientIn a patient with Crohn's disease, which of the following is most likely to lead to a bowel obstruction? A) eating too much meat B) dehydration C) adhesions D) alcohol consumptionC) adhesionsA 17 y/o male is complaining of severe RLQ pain. He has had a ruptured appendix removed surgically 2 months prior. The pain is intermittent, colicky, but not associated with fever, nor is there blood in the stool or urine. He is convinced he has re-grown his appendix back and has appendicitis. Which of the following is most likely in this patient? A) appendicitis B) diverticulitis C) nephrolithiasis D) bowel obstructionD) bowel obstructionRLQ pain can sometimes present as RUQ pain in: A) athletes B) children C) 2nd and 3rd trimester pregnant women D) ectopic pregnancyC) 2nd and 3rd trimester pregnant womenWhere does the referred pain typically begin for suspected appendicitis? A) right shoulder B) navel C) RLQ D) groinB) navelReferred pain is a mix of pain signals that occurs at: A) the spinal cord level B) the brain C) the primary site of pain origin D) the referred site of pain perceptionA) the spinal cord levelInjuries to the liver can present with symptoms of referred pain primarily to which area of the body? A) left posterior shoulder B) right shoulder C) neck D) lumbar/sacral spine areaB) right shoulderWhat does HELLP stand for? A) hypertension, elevated lymphocytes, and low phagocytes B) hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets C) hypotension, elevated lipase, and large pharynx D) hyperglycemia, elevated lactate, and low progesteroneB) hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low plateletsWhat organ in the RUQ can house stones and cause severe pain that may mimic a heart attack? A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) gallbladderD) gallbladderRight shoulder blade pain can be referred pain from all of the following EXCEPT? A) gallbladder infection B) liver swelling C) pleurisy D) fecal impaction in the rectumD) fecal impaction in the rectumWhich is the most commonly injured organ in pediatric abdominal traumas? A) kidney B) small intestine C) large intestine D) spleenD) spleenYou arrive on scene of an MVC. Your patient is a 65 y/o male complaining of sharp pain and distension in the LUQ. He is pale and diaphoretic. You should have a high index of suspicion for: A) ruptured spleen B) appendicitis C) kidney failure D) fractured liverA) ruptured spleenWhat is one examination technique in particular that you can perform which may shed light on a possible kidney infection or stone? A) palpation B) percussion C) auscultation D) inspectionB) percussionAn alcoholic patient is seen who is vomiting bright red blood and complaining of LUQ pain that is radiating to the midline of his upper abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? A) pyloric stenosis B) esophageal varices C) pancreatic cancer D) kidney stoneB) esophageal varicesInfections in the abdomen, adhesions, or cancer most often causes partial or complete obstructions in which of the following? A) the large intestine B) the ureter C) the small bowel D) the biliary tractC) the small bowelYou are called to see a 35 y/o male who reports a severe, sharp left flank pain that has migrated to the LLQ. He is having nausea also. The most pertinent question you should ask him is if he has: A) blood-tinged urine B) Crohn's disease C) opioid abuse D) recent traumaA) blood-tinged urineIn an otherwise healthy individual, the most common cause of pain in the LLQ is which of the following? A) pancreatitis B) constipation C) kidney stone D) bladder infectionB) constipationWhich of the following would be most likely to worsen the condition of a patient with a history of recurrent pancreatitis? A) alcohol consumption B) using tobacco products C) smoking marijuana D) consuming fatty foodsA) alcohol consumptionYou are caring for a 19 y/o male that wrecked his ATV. He states he hit the handlebars during the accident. Your physical assessment reveals bruising and tenderness in the abdomen and you suspect a ruptured bowel. This type of injury could cause which of the following complications? A) hemopneumothorax B) bowel herniation C) diaphragmatic rupture D) peritonitisD) peritonitisReferred pain with pancreatitis usually occurs in: A) the right shoulder blade B) the left shoulder blade C) the back D) the pelvisC) the backA patient with ALS calls EMS after having an anxiety attack following a fall when getting out of bed. EMS arrives and manages the patient conservatively. Which of the following exam areas is most critical in this patient? A) the neurological exam B) the cardiovascular exam C) the respiratory exam D) the mental status examC) the respiratory examA patient with a rare autoimmune condition that leads to immune system dysfunction is presenting with fever, chills, an inability to flex the neck, confusion, and visual changes. Based on your impression of meningitis, damage to which of the following cells would predispose a patient to this type of infection? A) RBCs B) Schwann cells C) microglial cells D) oligodendrocytesC) microglial cells Microglial cells are the main form of active immune defense in the CNS, and are technically a form of macrophage.Which of the following statements about a peripheral neuron is true? A) they have the largest variety of glial cells B) they are the only nerves that are myelinated C) they contain specialized cells that separate the neurons from the bloodstream D) they have axon lengths over 3 feet longD) they have axon lengths over 3 feet longA patient on dialysis is experiencing several symptoms that are all linked to issues with poor nerve repolarization. An imbalance of which of the following ions is most likely responsible for this patient's condition? A) magnesium B) calcium C) potassium D) phosphateC) potassiumDuring which stage of the heart's function do fast sodium channels open up and allow sodium ions to rush into the cell, creating a positively charged state? A) depolarization B) repolarization C) absolute refractory period D) relative refractory periodA) depolarizationA nerve is receiving signals from a large number of neurons through the dendrites. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of this stimulation? A) transmission of the impulse to the body of the neuron B) bypass the neuron body and transmission of a weak stimulus down the axon C) bypass the neuron body and transmission of a strong stimulus down the axon D) cessation of transmission until stimuli stop being receivedA) transmission of the impulse to the body of the neuronEMS is called to transport a patient with an autoimmune disease that damages the myelin in the axons of the brain and spinal cord. During a flare of this disease, what will happen to the nerve impulses in affected neurons? A) the action potentials down the axon may be altered or interrupted B) the nerve cell body will cease to create action potentials C) the nerve will create stronger action potentials D) action potentials will travel to incorrect adjacent nervesA) the action potentials down the axon may be altered or interruptedA patient is taking a medication that is known to negatively affect the action potentials of nerves. Which of the following effects would this medication have? A) decreasing the strength of action potentials B) decreasing the number of action potentials C) increasing the number, but decreasing the strength of action potentials D) completely stopping action potentials in specific nervesB) decreasing the number of action potentials Depolarization is all or none, so there is no relative "strength" to an action potential. The quantity of action potentials is all that can change.