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Terms in this set (200)
What is the purpose of a "black box warning" on a package insert?
A. It is issued by the DEA to indicate medications that may be used to manufacture illicit drugs such as methamphetamine
B. It is used to draw attention to potentially fatal, life threatening, or disabling adverse effects for different medications
C. It is used to reconstruct the events leading to a fatality resulting from a medication error
D. It means that the effects of the drug have not been determined
A. It is issued by the DEA to indicate medications that may be used to manufacture illicit drugs such as methamphetamine
B. It is used to draw attention to potentially fatal, life threatening, or disabling adverse effects for different medications
C. It is used to reconstruct the events leading to a fatality resulting from a medication error
D. It means that the effects of the drug have not been determined
An "orphan drug" is:
A. A drug that has been on the market for longer than 20 years and drug substitution is permitted
B. Developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition
C. no longer available for use as newer, more effective medications are available
D. Not related to any other medication currently available
A. A drug that has been on the market for longer than 20 years and drug substitution is permitted
B. Developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition
C. no longer available for use as newer, more effective medications are available
D. Not related to any other medication currently available
Onset is:
A. All other means
B. Delivery of drug via GI tract
C. How long the drug will function
D. Time it takes to feel drug effectsTime it takes to feel drug effectsSafest, most convenient, least expensive route if drug administration
A. Inhalation
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Rectal
E. SubcutaneousOralAn enteric coated drug is:
A. Coated to assure absorption in intestines only
B. Globular mass of drug with binder
C. Drug dissolved in liquid
D. Pleasant tasting tabletCoated to assure absorption in intestines onlyWhat does this diagram show?
A. Drug efficacy
B. Drug potency
C. Log dose effect curve
D. Therapeutic indexLog does effect curveThe drug amoxicillin has a wide safety margin. The drug Lithium has a narrow safety margin.
A. Both sentences are true
B. Both sentences are false
C. The first sentence is true. Second is false.
D. The first sentence is false. Second is true.Both sentences are trueThe most potent drug produces desired effect at a lower dose
A. True
B. FalseTrueEfficacy is the maximal intensity of effect or response that can be produced by a drug. Administering more of the drug will not increase the efficacy of the drug but can often increase the probability of tan adverse reaction
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, second statement is false
D. The first statement is false, second statement is trueBoth statements are trueA drug that binds to a different receptor site than the agonist is called a(n)
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Competitive antagonist
D. Noncompetitive antagonist
E. Partial antagonistNoncompetitive antagonistThe pH at which half the drug molecules are ionized (aka polarized) and half are nonionized (aka non polarized) is known as:
A. Biotransformation
B. Duration
C. Efficacy
D. pKa
E. TIpKaDrugs that pass more easily through a membrane are
A. Ionized
B. Non-ionized
C. Lipid soluble
D. Water soluble
E. A & D
F. B & CB & CLocal anesthesia has decreased effectiveness in infection due to:
A. Accumulated waste products (H ions)
B. An acidic environment
C. Decreased drug ionization
D. Increased drug ionization
E. All of the above
F. All but CAll but CPolymorphism of what enzymes may affect patient response to drugs?
A. Active drug
B. Active metabolite
C. Inactive metabolite
D. Pro-drug
E. Unavailable drugPro-drugThe time it takes for the concentration of a drug to fall to one-half (50%) of its original blood level
A. Duration
B. Elimination
C. Half-life
D. Therapeutic indexHalf-lifeA drug known to cause teratogenic effect is:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Corticosteroid
C. Epinephrine
D. Nitroglycerine
E. ThalidomideThalidomideAgents such as albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) cause bronchodilation by binding to _______ receptors
A. alpha
B. beta1
C. beta2
D. nicotinicbeta2Anticholinergics
A. Accelerate gastric emptying
B. Decrease esophageal and gastric motility
C. Cause miosis
D. Do not have an effect on heart rateDecrease esophageal and gastric motilityA drug with anticholinergic side effects might exhibit all of the following except:
A. Mydriasis
B. Salivation
C. Tachycardia
D. ConstipationSalivationVagal blockade is an action of:
A. Atropine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Metoprolol
D. ScapolamineAtropineWhich of the following is caused by cholinergic drugs?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Increased urination
C. Vasoconstriction
D. XerostomiaIncreased urinationAll of the following are categorized as sympatholytic except one, which on is the exception?
A. Antiadrenergics
B. Beta 2 agonists
C. Beta 2 antagonists
Beta blockersBeta 2 agonistsDrugs that increase ocular pressure and dry the eyes are
A. Adrenergic
B. Antiadrenergic
C. Anticholinergic
D. CholinergicAnticholinergicThe catecholamine epinephrine is produces in the:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Kidneys
D. LiverAdrenal medullaA diffuse response is typical of the
A. CNS
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Somatic nervous systemSympathetic nervous systemA discrete response is typical of the:
A. CNS
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Somatic nervous systemParasympathetic nervous systemDigoxin can be classified as all of the following except one, which is the exception
A. Beta blocker
B. Inotropic
C. Cardiac glycosideBeta blockerWhich if the following is not an effect of the hormone angiotensin II?
A. Dieresis
B. Increased PVR
C. Stimulation of adrenal cortex
D. Vasoconstriction
E. Water retentionDiuresisDry cough is an adverse effect from:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blocker
C. Ca channel blockers
D. NitroglycerineACE inhibitorsWhich of the following causes gingival hyperplasia?
A. B blocker
B. Cardiac glycosides
C. Ca channel blocker
D. NitroglycerineCa channel blockerWhich of the following is not a factor that alters blood pressure?
A. Blood volume
B. Cardiac output
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Peripheral vascular resistance
E. Vascular responsePlatelet aggregationThiazide diuretics can cause
A. Fever
B. Headache
C. Hypokalemia
D. Prolonged bleedingHypokalemiaWhich of the following is altered baby ACE inhibitors?
A. Angiotensin
B. Blood volume
C. Inotropic force
D. Peripheral vascular resistance
E. Vascular responseAngiotensinReduction in total blood volume is an effect of:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
E. HydrochlorothiazidesHydrochlorothiazidesGagging and excessive saliva are side effects of:
A. Digitalis (digoxin)
B. Enalapril (vasotec)
C. Nifedipine (procardia)
D. Nitroglycerine (nitro-spray)
E. Propranolol (inderal)Digitalis (digoxin)The anticoagulant therapy that is administered IV in hospital settings is called
A. Coumadin
B. Coumarin
C. Heparin
D. WarfarinHeparinAngiotensin II receptor inhibitors attach directly to the Angiotensin II receptor and block its affects. This is because the converting enzyme is inhibited
A. The first statement is true, the reason is false
B. The first statement is false, the reason is true
C. Both the statement and reason are true
D. Both the statement and the reason are falseThe first statement is true, the reason is falseConversion of plasminogen to plasmin is a mechanism of action of:
A. Acetylsalicyclic acid (aspirin)
B. Alteplase (tPA)
C. Dlopidogrel (plavix)
D. Warfarin (Coumadin)Alteplase (tPA)The "statins" are drugs used to treat:
A. Arrhythmias
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Coronary artery disease
D. Hypertension
E. ThrombosisCoronary artery diseaseNexium is a(n):
A. Antacid
B. H1 receptor blocker
C. H2 receptor blocker
D. Proton pump inhibitor
E. Beta 2 agonistProton pump inhibitorImmediate bronchodilation is best comprised by:
A. Beta 1 agonist
B. Beta 2 agonist
C. Leukotrine inhibitor
D. Mast cell degranulation inhibitor
E. MethylxanthineBeta 2 agonistBenadryl is a(n)
A. Antihistamine
B. H1 receptor blocker
C. H2 receptor blocker
D. Proton pump inhibitorAntihistamineThe back-up system that is the stimulus to breathe for chronic stimulus to breathe for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients is the:
A. Brain stem
B. Hypoxic drive
C. Intercostal muscles
D. Phrenic nerveHypoxic driveIf you give a COPD patient with high concentrations of oxygen it will:
A. Help them breathe better
B. Remove stimulus to breathe
C. Nauseate themRemove the stimulus to breatheThe chest pain experienced in asthmatic episode is due to:
A. Inability to take in air
B. Inability to exhale (empty alveoli)
C. Uncontrollable coughing
D. WheezingInability to exhale (empty alveoli)The newest anti hypertensive is a renin inhibitor named:
A. Acetylsalicyclic acid (aspirin)
B. Aliskiren (tekturna)
C. Clopidogrel (plavix)
D. Dipyridamole (persantine)
E. Ticlopidine (ticlid)Aliskiren (tekturna)Who's is a first degree heartblock?
A. Dropped/delayed heartbeat
B. No beat (cardiac arrest)
C. Skipped beatSkipped beatThe cause of congestive heart failure is:
A. Angina
B. Arrhythmia
C. Hypertension
D. ObesityHypertensionLDL cholesterol should not exceed:
A. 50mg/dL
B. 129mg/dL
C. 150mg/dL
D. 200mg/dL129mg/dLLeukotrine inhibitors such as montelukast (singulair) are used for acute asthma attack as it is a beta 2 agonist. Beta 2 agonist is the treatment for asthma attack.
A. The statement is true, the reason is false
B. The statement is false, the reason is true
C. Both the statement and the reason are true.
D. Both the statement and the reason are falseThe statement is false, the reason is trueWhich of the following H2 blockers is off the market now?
A. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B. Famotidine (Pepcid AC)
C. Nizatidine (axid AR)
D. Ranitidine (Zantac)Ranitidine (Zantac)Which if the following drugs do patients build a tolerance to?
A. Albuterol
B. Epinephrine (Sudafed)
C. Esomeprazole (nexium)
D. Iroatidine (claritin)
E. NitroglycerineNitroglycerineWhich of the following questions is not pertinent to diabetes?
A. What is your fasting glucose level?
B. Did you take your insulin injection today?
C. What have you eaten today?
D. Did you eat red meat today?
E. Did you vomit today?Did you eat red meat today?If Jill had a fasting glucose level of 240 she would be at risk for:
A. Insulin reaction
B. Fainting
C. InfectionInfectionIf Jill had a fasting glucose level of 48 she would be at risk for:
A. Insulin reaction
B. Fainting
C. InfectionInsulin reactionWhat questions will you ask Jill about her pregnancy?
A. Do you have morning sickness or frequent vomiting?
B. Do you want bot or girl.
C. Does your husband want a boy or girl?
D. Have you decided on names for your baby?
E. All of the aboveDo you have morning sickness or frequent vomiting?Exophthalmos is a sign of:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. HypothyroidismHyperthyroidismThyroid storm could occur from giving:
A. Valium to a hypothyroid patient
B. Epinephrine to a hyperthyroid patient
C. Valium to a hyperthyroid patient
D. Epinephrine to a hypothyroid patientEpinephrine to a hyperthyroid patientMyxedema coma could occur from giving:
A. Valium to a hypothyroid patient
B. Epinephrine to a hyperthyroid patient
C. Valium to a hypothyroid patient
D. Epinephrine to a hypothyroid patientValium to a hypothyroid patientCushing's disease is:
A. Over productive adrenal cortex
B. Primary adrenal insufficiency
C. Secondary adrenal insufficiency
D. Underproductive adrenal cortexOver productive adrenal cortexAddison's disease is:
A. Over productive adrenal cortex
B. Primary adrenal insufficiency
C. Secondary adrenal insufficiency
D. Underproductive adrenal cortexPrimary adrenal insufficiencySecondary adrenal insufficiency can occur from:
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's disease
C. Exogenous corticosteroid therapy
D. Overproduction of epinephrineExogenous corticosteroid therapyThe perception of pain is the patient's emotional or psychological response to pain and varies greatly from individual to individual. The reaction to pain is the physical component to the message of pain as it is carried through the nervous system and is the same for everyone.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is trueBoth statements are falseThe primary action of the non-opioid analgesics is depression of the central nervous system. The inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis reduces the perception of pain.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is trueThe first statement is false, the second is trueAll of the following are adverse drug effects of aspirin except one. Which in is the exception?
A. GI upset and bleeding
B. Increased bleeding time
C. Reye's syndrome
D. Constipation
E. Problems during pregnancy and deliveryConstipationThe drug of choice for inflammatory dental pain is:
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. CodeineIbuprofenThe site of action on nonopioid analgesics is:
A. Wish tin the CNS
B. In the hypothalamus
C. At the peripheral nerve endings
D. In the brain stemAt the peripheral nerve endingsThe drug of choice for fever reduction in children is:
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. CodeineAcetaminophemAll of the following drugs are NSAIDS except one. Which on is the exception?
A. Fenoprofen
B. Ketorolac
C. Naxopren and naxopren sodium
D. PhenacentinPhenacentinAcetaminophen has which of the following therapeutic indicators?
A. Analgesic
B. Anti inflammatory
C. Antipyretic
D. Antiplatelet
E. A & C onlyA & C onlyNSAIDS are indicate for which condition?
A. Asthma
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Cardiovascular or renal disease with fluid retention
D. Peptic ulcers
E. Coagulation problemsOsteoarthritisAspirin has a long history of use for relief of mild to moderate pain such as a headache or toothache. Aspirin is worth as an analgesic is well recognized and excepted by the lay public
A. Both parts of the statements are true
B. Both parts of the statements are false
C. The first part of the statement is true,the second part is false
D. The first part of the statement is false, the second part is trueThe first part of the statement is true, the second part is falseAcetaminophen has all of the following pharmacologic actions except one. Which is the exception?
A. Analgesia
B. Antipyretic
C. Anti inflammatory
D. HapatoxicAnti inflammatoryNSAIDs and aspirin reduce inflammation by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A. Interleukins
B. Prostaglandins
C. Cytokines
D. HistamineProstaglandinsWhich statement is true regarding the effect of combining caffeine and aspirin?
A. Caffeine has no effect on the analgesic properties of aspirin
B. Caffeine potentiates the antipyretic properties of aspirin
C. Caffeine potentiates the analgesic properties of aspirin
D. Caffeine decreaseses the analgesic properties of aspirinCaffeine potentiates the analgesic properties of aspirinWhich nonopioid analgesic is recommended for prevention of coronary artery disease and treatment of myocardial infarction?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. CodeineAspirinAs aspirin tablet applied topically to the oral mucosa is an effective way to treat a toothache
A. True
B. FalseFalseWhich of the following are classified as mixed opioid?
A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Naloxone
D. Buprenorphine
E. A & B
F. B & D
G. C & DB & DWhich of the following conditions is an adverse reaction to the opioids?
A. Diarrhea
B. Miosis
C. CNS excitation
D. HepatoxicityMiosisWhich of the following types of pain medications is the best choice for management most dental pain?
A. Antidepressants
B. NSAIDS
C. Aspirin
D. AcetaminophenNSAIDSCodeine may cause nausea an vomiting by activating the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla
D. Frontal lobeMedullaMorphine is stronger than oxycodone
A. True
B. FalseTrueCodeine activates the chemoreceptor trigger zone
A. True
B. FalseTrueCombining an opioid with a nonopioid analgesic produces an additive analgesic effect with fewer adverse reactions.
A. True
B. FalseTrueBoth sedation an analgesia can be obtained from opioid analgesics alone
A. True
B. FalseTrueA patient who feels nauseated after taking codeine is allergic to it
A. True
B. FalseFalseAn _______ agent is a substance that destroys or suppresses the growth or multiplication of bacteria
A. Antiinfective
B. Anti bacterial
C. Antibiotic
D. AntimicrobialAntibacterialInfective endocarditis prophylaxis with an antibacterial agent is indicated for patients who have had:
A. Coronary artery bypass surgery
B. A prosthetic heart valve
C. Functional murmur
D. A cardiac pacemakerA prosthetic heart valveThe misuse of antibiotics has contributed to antibiotic resistance. The solution to reducing the incidence of antibiotic resistant bacteria is to write more prescriptions for antibiotics.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false , the second is trueThe first statement is true, the second is falseProphylactic antibiotics are recommended for which procedure?
A. Dental x-ray images
B. Routine injections of dental anesthetic
C. Dental prophylaxis
D. Placement of orthodontic bracketsDental prophylaxisThe disease producing power of the microorganism is called
A. Resistance
B. Superinfection
C. Infection
D. VirulenceVirulenceWhich antibiotic+is administered IM or IV in a hospital setting?
A. Bacitracin
B. Nystatin
C. Tetracycline
D. VancomycinVancomycinThe treatment for candidiasis is:
A. Clortrimazole
B. Nystatin
C. Tetracycline
D. VancomycinClortimazoleThe treatment for staph infections in a hospital setting is:
A. Clortrimazole
B. Nystatin
C. Tetracycline
D. VancomycinVancomycinThe genus and species of infections if the skin is:
A. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Staphyloccocus aureas
D. Streptococcus mutansStaphylococcus aureasThe opportunistic infection that lead to the discovery of AIDS is:
A. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Staphylococcus aureas
D. Streptococcus mutansPneumocystis cariniiMethicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) occurs in what setting?
A. Hospital
B. School
C. Third world country
D. DomicileHospitalPatients who are allergic to penicillin may have a cross-sensitivity to:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Clindamycin
D. Cipro
E. BactrimCephalosporinsWhich of the following is categorized as quinolone?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Clindamycin
D. Cipro
E. BactrimCiproTuberculosis is treated with:
A. Isonazid (INH)
B. Bacitracin
C. Metronidazole
D. ValtrexValtrexHerpes labialis is treated with:
A. Isonazid (INH)
B. Bacitracin
C. Metronidazole
D. AcyclovirAcyclovirWhat is tinea?
A. Thrush
B. Ringworm
C. Pinworms
D. Scabies
E. TrichomoniasisAzo dye is known as:
A. Methenamine
B. Nalidixic acid
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. PhenazopyridinePhenazopyridineIf you have had the hepatitis vaccine and you have titre, your test results show:
A. HbsAg
B. HbsAb
C. HbcAg
D. HbcAbHbsAbThe drug of choice for status epilepticus is:
A. Midazolam
B. Phenobarbital
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproic acidMidazolamWhich of the following is very true of benzodiazepines?
A. Long half-life
B. Inotropic
C. Brady cardiac
D. Wide safety margin
E. AllergenicWide safety marginWhich benzodiazepine is most often used for anxiety?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Clonazepam (klonopin)
C. Fluorazempam (dalmane)
D. Midazolam (versed)AlprazolamThe drug of choice for absence seizures is:
A. Diazepine
B. Phenobarbital
C. Pentabarbital
D. ValproateValproateWhich of the following is a benzodiazepine that has great muscle relaxing properties?
A. Flexoril
B. Robaxin
C. Soma
D. Valium
E. AmbienValiumWhich of the following is a drug that should be taken where you are going to sleep?
A. Flexoril
B. Robaxin
C. Soma
D. Valium
E. AmbienAmbienWhich if the following is a melatonin receptor agonist?
A. Buspirone (buspar)
B. Zolpidem (Advil)
C. Ramelteon (rozeram)
D. Zaleplon (sonata)RamelteonWhich if the following classes of drugs has been mostly replaced by benzodiazepines?
A. Anticonvulsants
B. Barbiturates
C. Muscle relaxants
D. AntideoressantsBarbituratesIn which phase is the tonic-clonic part of a seizure?
A. Pre-ictal
B. Ictal
C. PostictalIctalThe warning a patient gets of a seizure is called the:
A. Aura
B. Predisposing factor
C. Genetic predisposition
D. Idiopathology
E. ManifestationAuraTonic-clonic seizures are mostly found in:
A. Absence seizure
B. Partial seizures
C. Generalized seizures
D. Simple seizuresGeneralized seizuresBarbiturates are most commonly used today for?
A. Depression
B. Epilepsy
C. Generalized anesthesia
D. InfectionGeneral anesthesiaDrug of choice for absence seizures is:
A. Phenytoin (dilantin)
B. Valproate (depakote)
C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
D. Ethozsuximide (zarontin)Ethozsuximide (zarontin)Which anticonvulsant is structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Carbamazepine (tegretol)
C. Ethozsuximide (zarontin)
D. Phenytoing (Dilantin)Carbamazepine (tegretol)The most common cause of death in an opioid overdose is
A. Respiratory depression
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Hypertensive strokeRespiratory depressionPharmacokinetics is best defined as:
A. The study of drugs
B. The mechanisms of drug action
C. How a drug moves through the body
D. How drugs are manufacturedHow a drug moves through the bodyCommon adverse reactions associated with thiazides include
A. Hypokalemia and hypouricemia
B. Hyperkalemia and hypouricemia
C. Hypokalemia and hyperuricemia
D. Hyperkalemia and calcimineHypokalemia and hyperuricemiaWhich drug would not interfere with blood clotting?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Naxopren
D. AspirinAcetaminophenDrugs are transported throughout the body by:
A. Carrier facilitation
B. Passive diffusion
C. Lymphatic drainage
D. Blood plasmaBlood plasmaIn which clinical phase is the main purpose to test effectiveness of drug
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IVPhase IIEpinephrine is indicated for the emergency treatment of:
A. Epilepsy
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Angina Pectoris
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Anaphylactic reactionAnaphylactic reactionWhat affect would ingesting an amphetamine have on the eyes?
A. Dilate the pupils
B. Constrict the pupils
C. Cot affect the pupilsDilate the pupilsThe automatic "fight or flight" response is mostly associated with the:
A. Parasympathetic nervous system
B. Sympathetic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Inferior alveolar nerveSympathetic nervous systemBefore dental hygiene care, which if the following should be given to a patient with a a history of infective (bacterial) endocarditis who is allergic to penicillin?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Augmentin
C. Tetracycline
D. Clindamycin
E. MetronidazoleClindamycinWhich of the following categories of antihypertensive agents end in the suffix "dipine"?
A. Diuretics
B. Adrenergic blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)Calcium channel blockersWhich schedule is oxycodone?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule VSchedule IIAll of the following are true about the parasympathetic nervous system except
A. Originate in the nuclei of select cranial and sacral nerves
B. Has long preganglionic fibers
C. Has long postganglionic fibers
D. Produces a discrete response
E. Conserves body processHas long postganglionic fibersThe main ("official") neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system is
A. Acetylcholine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. SerotoninAcetylcholineThe safest and most convenient, least expensive route of drug administration
A. Inhalation
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Rectal
E. SubcutaneousOralA drug that binds to a receptor and produces a direct stimulators response is called
A. An agonist
B. An antagonist
C. An antidote
D. An inhibitorAn agonistDrugs which are catecholamines stimulate primarily the
A. Parasympathetic nervous system
B. Sympathetic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Muscarinic receptorsSympathetic nervous systemWhich of the following classes of antiarrhythmics is associated with gingival enlargement?
A. Amiodarone
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Disopyramide
D. Procainamide
E. QuinidineCalcium channel blockersWhich term best describes the necessity of an increasingly larger dose to get the same effect as with the original dose?
A. Dependence
B. Tolerance
C. Resistance
D. PotencyTolderanceThe drug amoxicillin has a wide safety margin. The drug lithium has a narrow safety margin.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first sentence is true. Second is false
D. The first sentence is false. Second is trueBoth statements are trueWhich is least likely to be a true allergic reaction?
A. Urticaria
B. Rash
C. Anaphylaxis
D. DyspepsiaDyspepsiaThe most potent drug produces desired effect at a lower dose
A. True
B. FalseTrueEfficacy is the maximal intensity effect or response that can be produced by a drug. Administering more of the drug will not increase the efficacy of the drug but can often increase the probability of an adverse reaction
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, second statement is true.Both statements are truePharmacodynamics is most accurately defined as
A. The study of drugs
B. The mechanisms of drug actions
C. How a drug moves through the body
D. How drugs are manufacturedThe mechanisms of drug actionsIf a patient takes aspirin with a glass of grapefruit juice there will be:
A. Lack of absorption of the aspirin
B. No drug efficacy
C. Increase in nonionized drug molecules
D. Decrease in nonionized drug moleculesIncrease in nonionized drug moleculesWhich of the following categories of antihypertensive agents end in the suffix olol
A. Diuretics
B. Beta adrenergic blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)Beta adrenergic blockersLocal anesthesia has decreased effectiveness in infection due to:
A. Accumulated waste products (H ions)
B. An acidic environment
C. Decreased drug ionization
D. Increased drug ionization
E. All of the above
F. All but CAll but CWhich type of drug best describes epinephrine?
A. Cholinergic drug
B. Sympatholytic drug
C. Anti-cholinergic drug
D. Sympathomimetic drugSympathomimetic drugPolymorphism of what enzymes may affect patient response to drugs?
A. Carboxylase
B. Cyclooxygenase
C. Cytochrome P450
D. Hydroxygenase
E. GlucoronidaseCytochrome P450Which of the following statements is true concerning hyperlipidemia and cholesterol?
A. Hyperlipidemia includes elevations in cholesterol or triglycerides and is associated with the development of arteriosclerosis
B. High density lipoprotein (HDL) is good cholesterol
C. Foam cells become filled with lipid
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both B and C are correctBoth A and B are correctAngiotensin receptor blocker's (ARBs) end with the suffix
A. -olol
B. -dipine
C. -pril
D. -artan-artanAnticholinergics
A. Accelerate gastric emptying
B. Decrease esophageal and gastric motility
C. Cause miosis
D. Do not have an effect on heart rateDecrease esophageal and gastric motilityThe prescription abbreviation qid means
A. Every day
B. Four times a day
C. As directed
D. ImmediatelyFour times a dayA drug with anticholinergic side effects my exhibit all of the following except
A. Mydriasis
B. Salvation
C. Tachycardia
D. ConstipationSalvationMany __________ end in the suffix -pril.
A. Beta adrenergic blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
D. Angiotensin receptor blockersAngiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)Vagal blockade is an action of:
A. Atropine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Metoprolol
D. ScopolamineAtropineAll of the following are dental concerns with antihypertension drugs except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Sedation
B. Xerostomia
C. Drooling
D. Drug influenced gingival enlargementDroolingA decrease in chronotropic and inotropic effects is caused by:
A. Beta 1 agonists
B. Beta 1 antagonists
C. Beta 2 agonists
D. Beta 2 antagonistsBeta 1 antagonistsWhich of the following routes of administration is considered to be an enteral route?
A. Intramuscular injection
B. A patch on the skin
C. A rectal suppository
D. Inhalation of a gasA rectal suppositoryWhich of the following is caused by cholinergic drugs?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Increased urination
C. Vasoconstriction
D. XerostomiaIncreased urinationDrugs that pass more easily through a membrane are
A. Ionized
B. Non-ionized
C. Lipid soluble
D. Water soluble
E. A & D
F. B & CB & CAll of the following are categorized as sympatholytic except one, which one is the exception?
A. Antiadrenergics
B. Beta 2 agonists
C. Beta 2 antagonists
D. Beta blockersBeta 2 agonistsThe dose of a drug at which half of the subjects taking the drug die is called the
A.TD50
B. LD50
C. ED50
D. AD50LD50Drugs that increase ocular pressure and dry the eyes are
A. Adrenergic
B. Antiadrenergic
C. Anticholinergic
D. CholinergicAnticholinergicA patient has a vague history of an allergy to a drug as evidenced from the health history assessment and discussion with the patient. Therefore, he or she should be given a tiny amount of the drug to see if it is a true allergy.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D. Neither the statement nor the reason is correctThe statement is correct, but the reason is not correctWhich of the following would be best for the treatment of xerostomia?
A. Atropine
B. Ibuprofen
C. Pilocarpine
D. Probenecid
E. PropranololPilocarpineWhat effect can aspirin produce in the body?
A. Dependence
B. Hypothermia
C. Hyperuricemia
D. GI side effects
E. Increased platelet adhesivenessGI side effectsDigoxin can be classified as all of the following except one, which is the exception
A. Beta blocker
B. Inotropic
C. Cardiac glycosideBeta blockerWhich of the following categories of drug is the best choice to relieve the acute symptoms of angina?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Propranolol
C. Verapamil
D. NifedipineNitroglycerinWhich of the following is not an effect of the hormone angiotensin II?
A. Diuresis
B. Increased PVR
C. Stimulation of adrenal cortex
D. Vasoconstriction
D. Water retentionDiuresisDry cough is an adverse effect from:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blocker
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. NitroglycerineACE inhibitorsDrugs with Teratogenic affects can produce:
A. Tumors
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. An abnormal fetus
E. Excessive hirsutismAn abnormal fetusWhich of the following causes gingival hyperplasia?
A. Beta blocker
B. Cardiac glycosides
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. NitroglycerineCalcium channel blockerBecause she is taking aspirin, a patient should be counseled regarding all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. GI upset
B. Increased bleeding time
C. Overdose
D. HeadacheHeadachePatients taking warfarin may take which of the following for pain?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Acetaminophen
C. Naproxen
D. AspirinAcetaminophenIf a drug taken by a pregnant woman causes her baby to develop without arms, the drug would be called
A. A Pyrogen
B. Anocogen
C. A teratogen
D. An allergenA teratogenReduction in total blood volume is an effect of:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
E. HydrochlorothiazidesHydrochlorothiazidesWhich of the following is nitroglycerin's most common side effect
A. Arrhythmias
B. Gastric upset
C. Hypertension
D. Angina Pectoris
E. Severe headacheSevere headacheConversion of plasminogen to plasmin is a mechanism of action of:
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Alteplase
C. Dlopidogrel
D. WarfarinAlteplaseLeukotrine inhibitors such as montelukast are used for acute asthma attacks as it is a beta 2 agonist. Beta 2 agonist is the treatment for asthma attack.
A. The statement is true, the reason is false
B. This statement is false, the reason is true
C. Both the statement and the reason are true
D. Both the statement and the reason are falseThe statement is false, the reason is trueWhich of the following psychiatric disorders involves a loss of the perception of reality?
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Panic disorder
D. Obsessive compulsive disorderSchizophreniaThe type of depression that exhibits alternating periods of depression and excitation have a(n) disorder
A. Endogenous
B. Exogenous
C. Manic-depressive
D. ReactiveManic-depressiveWhich if the following agents is classified as an antipsychotic?
A. Celexa
B. Cephalexin
C. Abilify
D. Lexapro
E. BextraAbilifyFirst generation antipsychotics would have little effect on which of the following symptoms of psychosis?
A. Delusions
B. Unwanted thoughts
C. Flat affect
D. Agitation
E. Disorganized behaviorFlat affectTardive dyskinesia is characterized by:
A. Increased compulsive motor activity
B. Resting tremor and rigidity
C. Akinesia
D. Involuntary, repetitive body movements involving the tongue, lips, face, and jawInvoluntary, repetitive body movements involving the tongue, lips, face, and jawWhich was the first SSRI?
A. Sentraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Citalopram
E. EscitalopramFluoxetineWhich antidepressant is least likely to cause weight gain?
A. Bupropion
B. Setraline
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Amitriptyline
E. TrazodoneBupropionWhich if the following types of dental medicaments must be administered with caution to patients taking tricyclic antidepressants
A. Fluoride
B. Antibiotics
C. Anesthetics
D. AnalgesicsAnestheticsBupropion is reserved for patients who are not at risk for:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Seizures
C. Retinopathy
D. GlaucomaSeizuresInteraction of moniamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) with many drugs and with foods such as wines, cheese, and fish, can cause:
A. Hair loss
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Gout
D. DysgeusiaHypertensive crisisHerbal drugs are not regulated by the FDA with the same scrutiny as conventional drugs
A. True
B. FalseTrueWhich if the following is more likely to enhance the risk of bleeding:
A. St. John's wort
B. Ginger
C. Astralgus
D. Dong quai
E. KavaGingerPatients treated with chemotherapy can only be treated if:
A. They have completed the chemotherapy
B. They have no taken bisphosphonates
C. Their neutrophil count is 1000/mm or above
D. Have a hemoglobin of 15Their neutrophil count is 1000/mm or aboveWhich of the following is a new bisphosphonate?
A. Romosozumab
B. Aldendronate
C. Pamidromate
D. Zoledronic acidRomosozumab
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