Pharma huhuhu

Match the OTC medication with its category:
guaifenesin:
Nasacort:
Zyrtec:
Tylenol:
dextromethorphan:
Sudafed:

A)antihistamine
B)antitussive
C)antipyretic
D)decongestant
E)expectorant
F)inhaled steroid

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Terms in this set (118)

guaifenesin: E

Nasacort: F

Zyrtec: A

Tylenol: C

dextromethorphan: B

Sudafed: D

blood thinners:
thrombolytic agents:
antiplatelet drugs:
nitroglycerin:
anticoagulants:

A) dissolve existing clots by liquefying the fibrin that forms the clot
B) agents that increase the time it takes for blood to cot.
C) temporarily vasodilates coronary arteries to decrease the work on the heart and stop angina
D) inhibits the ability of blood to clot in the process known as aggregation by interfering with the platelets
E) agents that prevent blood from coagulating

Blood thinners: B

thrombolytic agents: A

antiplatelet drugs: D

nitroglycerin: C

anticoagulants: E

An 81 year old woman named Phyllis has gone to her primary care physician for a regular check up. Before her appointment was over, the physician reviewed her current medications with her and asked if she had any questions on them. Phyllis asked why she is taking Indral.

a) to help break up a blood clot
b) to treat high blood pressure
c) to thin the blood to prevent a blood clot

b) to treat high blood pressure

Phyllis asked her doctor which of her drugs is a cholesterol medicine (statin)?
a) Lopressor
b) Crestor
c) Nytroglycerin

b) Crestor

After the completion of various diagnostic tests, the physician was confident in the patient's diagnosis of peripheral artery disease. Now the patient can be treated appropriately. Which drug can be given for a vasodilator effect that both improves circulation and decreases platelets from sticking together?
a) Plavix
b) Activase
c) Niacor
d) Pletal

d) Pletal

Which group of drugs can be used for patients with PAD to help decrease their cholesterol?
a) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
b) Statins
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Beta blockers

b) Statins

Match the medication with the correct diagnosis
Beta blocker:
NitroDur:
pravachol:
lotensin:
cozaar:

A) temporarily vasodilates cornary arteries
B)hypertension
C)angiotensin receptor blockers (ACE)
D)antilipemic agent
E)angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)

Beta blocker: B
NitroDur: A
pravachol: D
lotensin: C
cozaar: E

True or False
Blood thinners do not thin the blood, but do increase the amount of time it takes for the blood to clot.

True

An existing PE would best be treated with:
a) Heparin
b) Streptokinase
c) Ventolin
d) Aspirin

b) Streptokinase

Anti-viral agents for influenza are best when taken:
a) At beginning of flu season
b) Never as most influenzas are bacterial in nature
c) Within two days of symptoms
d) Within a week of symptoms

c) Within two days of symptoms

One of the most important test results to accurately treat pneumonia a) Peak flow b)PPD c) C&S d) Pulse oximetryc) C&SWhich is the drug of choice for a young patient with emphysema who never smoked? a)Streptomycin b)Benadryl c)Prolastin d)Mucomystc)ProlastinWhich is the drug of choice for a fungal lung disease? a) Tamiflu b) Amphotericin B c) Targeted antibiotic d) Surfactantb) Amphotericin BWhich of the following is not a pharmacologic smoking aids? a)Nicoderm b)Inderal c)Zyban d)Chantixb)InderalMatch the medication classification with its desired pharmacological action. antipyretics: analgesic: antitussive: expectorant: antihistamine: decongestants: antibiotics: corticosteroids A) reduce/prevent cough B)reduce blood flow by vasoconstriction and therefore reduce congestion C)reduce fever D)reduce pain E)fights bacterial infection F)reduces immune response of inflammation, thereby relieving congestion G)reduced inflammation caused by allergic reaction H)increase secretions and their removalantipyretics: C analgesic: D antitusive: A expectorant: H antihistamine: G decongestant: B antibiotics: E corticosteroids: FExamples of loop diuretic agents are: a)Diuril, Lasix, and Bumex b)Edecrin, Demadex, and furosemide c)Bumex, Lasix, and Inspira d)Lozol, Diuril, and Demadexb)Edecrin, Demadex, and furosemideWhat would be the best course of action for the physician to recommend for a patient experiencing stress incontinence? a)Anticholinergic agents b)Antiandrogens c)Alpha blocker d)Pelvic floor exercisesd)Pelvic floor exercisesWhat would the physician use to treat a patient diagnosed with a UTI (Urinary Tract Infection)? a)Analgesics and antibiotics b)Hemodialysis and antibiotics c)Alpha blockers and analgesics d)Loop diuretics and antibioticsa)Analgesics and antibioticsWhich drug can be given to a patient who has kidney stones and is suffering from pain? a) antimicrobial b) NSAID c) diuretics d) antibioticb) NSAIDWhich of the following is a type of potassium-sparring diuretic? a) Lasix b) Aldactone c) Microzide d) Thalitoneb) AldactoneCiprofloxacin, Cephalexin (Keflex), Levaquin, Bactrim, and Macrobid are what classification of medication? a) diuretics b) antiemetics c) antibiotics d) antiviralsc) antibioticsMatch the diuretic class with it method of action loop diuretics: potassium sparing: thiazide diuretics: A)works in the distal tubule and prevents the reabsorption of sodium, however potassium loss occurs B)block reabsorption of sodium chloride in the loop of henle C)promote sodium and water loss while preventing loss of K.loop diuretics: B potassium sparing: C thiazide diuretics: AMatch the brand name with the generic name of the following antibiotics used to treat uncomplicated UTI's zithromax rocephin keflex cipro monurol levequin macrodantin bactrun A)nitrofurantoin B)fosfomycin C)cephalexin D)trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole E)levofloxacin F)ciprofloxacin G)azithromycin H)ceftriaxonezithromax: G rocephin: H keflex: C cipro: F monurol: B levequin: E macrodantin: A bactrun: DAlpha blockers help the muscles around the bladder neck and prostate to relax. Which of the following is not a common alpha blocker? A) flomax B) silodosin C) hytrin D) fesoterodineD) fesoterodineAnticholinergic drugs block the nerve impulses to the parasympathetic system, this allow the bladder to fill with urine. Which on of the following is a anticholinergic agent. A) cardura B) ditropan C) hytrin D) proscarD) proscarAtrophic Vaginitis is treated with vaginal estrogen cream or gel; vaginal ring and/or estrogen inserts. What condition does this often accompany? A) vaginitis B) endometriosis C) menopauseC) menopauseEndometriosis is when the endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. Which of the medications listed is NOT used for treatment? a) Hormonal Contraceptives b) Progestin Therapy c) Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (Gn-RH) d) Diureticsd) DiureticsHow would a physician treat a patient with a past medical history of breast cancer who is in menopause? a) treat with low-dose estrogen therapy. b) treat with estradiol vaginal ring c) treat with a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor d) treat with estrace vaginal creamc) treat with a Selective Serotonin Reuptake InhibitorMatch the three different infectious Vaginitis, with the primary medication treatment regiment used. Bacterial Vaginitis Candida Vaginitis Trichomonasis A) Metronidazole B) Metronidazole tabs and vaginal gel C) Fluconazole or MiconazoleBacterial Vaginitis: B Candida Vaginitis: C Trichomonasis: AMenopause can impact each woman differently. Of the medications listed, select the one that is NOT used for treatment of symptoms. A) Hormone Therapy B) Antibiotics C) Antidepressants (SSRI's) D) Neurontin (Gabepentin)B) AntibioticsOf the medications listed, which one is NOT used in the treatment of Dysmenorrhea? A) Oral contraceptives B) NSAIDS C) Antibiotics D) Neurontin (Gabapentin)C) AntibioticsPlatinol, Paraplatin, Taxol, Hycamtin and Gemzar are all used for which treatment? A) Chemotherapy treatment for Cervical Cancer B) treatment of the symptoms from Endometriosis C) Bacterial Vaginitis D) Treatment for Toxic Shock SyndromeA) Chemotherapy treatment for Cervical CancerProstatitis, is an inflammation of the prostate. It can primarily be treated with what classification of medications? A) Testosterone B) Hormone therapy C) Antibiotics D) DiureticsC) AntibioticsThis condition could be treated with Proscar, Rapaflo, Cardura. or Avodart. A) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia B) Prostate Cancer C) Orchitis D) Male UTIA) Benign Prostatic HyperplasiaThis vaccination is approved for both girls and boys, to help prevent the spread of Human Papillomavirus, including genital warts. A) Gardisal B) Diptheria C) Varicella D) IPVA) GardisalToxic Shock Syndrome, can be sudden and potentially critical and/or fatal. The fastest treatment is given how: A) Sublingual B) Oral antibiotics C) Intramuscular antibiotic D) Intravenous antibioticD) Intravenous antibioticWhat group of medications are used to treat Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)? A) Ibuprofen, antibiotics, hormone therapy B) Diuretics, analgesics, progesterone C) Antibiotics, Diuretics, Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)B) Diuretics, analgesics, progesteroneWhen treating Menorrhagia (including PID) a provider would prescript what medications for treatment? A) NSAIDS; Analgesics B) Diuretics; Progesterone C) Neurontin, Progesterone D) Hormone Therapy; antibioticsD) Hormone Therapy; antibioticsMatch the abbreviation with what it stands for: PR NPO PO NG A) Oral B) Nasogastric tube C) Rectally D) Nothing by mouthPR: C NPO: D PO: A NG: BMatch the abbreviation with what it stands for: Cap Susp Supp Troche Tab Elix A) Elixir B) Lozenge C) Suspension D) Capsule E) Tablet F) SuppositoryCap: D Susp: C Supp: F Troche: B Tab: E Elix: AThis oral drug form has score marks on it that can be used to split the drug in half. A) Tablet B) Enteric-coated tablet C) Capsule D) Sustained-release tabletA) TabletMatch the abbreviation with what it stands for: IV Subcu Gtt TOP A) Drop B) Intravenous C) Topical D) SubcutaneousIV: B Subcu: D Gtt: A TOP: CTrue of False A tuberculin syringe is used to administer insulin because of its ability to deliver small quantities.FalseTrue or False A medication error occurs only when harm was caused to the patient because medication was mishandled.FalseTrue or False Syringes can be used more than once in the home setting.FalseWhat drug category would the physician prescribe to treat Helen's bacterial infection? A) Antivirals B) Antibiotics C) Anthelmintics D) AntifungalsB) AntibioticsTrue or False The most commonly used insulin syringe is the U-100.TrueA 27-year-old male patient came into the doctor's office with a chief complaint of recurring heartburn. The patient is a nonsmoker and drinks alcohol only socially. The patient has gained roughly 35 pounds since his last visit two years ago. The patient said he has a dry hacking cough after eating and tends to develop heartburn after eating and sometimes when he drinks certain beverages such as coffee and iced tea. The patient also said it feels like he has a lump in his throat after eating. The man also said he did not have any issues until recently, but he has a new job that requires a lot of travel. He eats more fast food and does not work out like he used to. Based on the patient's case, What medication might his provider prescribe. a)zantac b)protonix c)rolaids d)maaloxb) protonixOTC antacids can be used to help neutralize acid already present. Which of the following is NOT an antacid? A) Tums B) Rolaids C) Maalox D) PrilosecD) PrilosecMatch the drug with its appropriate group. Mylanta Zantac Flagyl Prilosec A) H-2 blocker B) proton pump inhibitor C) antacid D) antibioticMylanta: C Zantac: A Flagyl: D Prilosec: BMatch the drug classification with the correct drug. Gut antispasmodic Antibiotic Laxative Anti-diarrheal A) Amitiza B) Bentyl C) Imodium D) XifaxanGut antispasmodic: B Antibiotic: D Laxative: A Anti-diarrheal: CMatch the antidiarrheal generic name to the correct brand name. bismuth subsalicylate atropine/diaphenoxylate loperamide A) Imodium B) Pepto-Bismol C) Lomotilbismuth subsalicylate: B atropine/diaphenoxylate: C loperamide: AWhich of the following drugs can be used to dissolve gallstones and prevent the need to remove the gallbladder? A) Entocort (budesonide) B) Axid (nizatidine) C) Adrucil (fluorouracil) D) Ursa (ursodiol)D) Ursa (ursodiol)The physician prescribes 20 mg of Protonix to be taken once per day. To what drug class does Protonix belong? A) Proton pump inhibitor B) H-2 receptor C) OTC antacidA) Proton pump inhibitorH-2 blockers block receptors that produce acid. Which of the following is not a H-2 Blocker A) zantac B) pepcid C) mylanta D) tagametC) mylantaMatch the disease/condition with the main pharmacologic treatment pharyngitis GERD hiatal hernia esophageal varices A) OTC antacids, PPI, H-2 Blockers B) Amoxicillin, cephalexin, ibuprofen C) Antacids, stool softeners, laxatives D) Beta blockers, sclerosing agentspharyngitis: B GERD: C hiatal hernia: A esophageal varices: DIf a patient has viral pharyngitis what medications would most likely be prescribed. A) antibiotics, anesthetics B) anesthetics ,antitussive agents C) NSAIDS, anesthetics D) antiseptic agents, antibioticsC) NSAIDS, anestheticsTrue or False Type 2 diabetes must only be treated with insulin injections.FalseWhich of the following is not a cause of Type 2 Diabetes? A) poor diet B) autoimmune disease C) lack of exercise D) obesityB) autoimmune diseaseTrue or False Synthetic ATCH is injected to stimulate cortisol in the body, and it is a procedure used to diagnose Addison's disease.TrueTrue or False Thionamides are also known as antithyroid agents.TrueTrue or False With Type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce enough insulin; with Type 2 diabetes, the pancreas cannot keep up with the body's insulin requirement.TrueAn asthmatic patient is admitted into the hospital for an asthmatic exacerbation. After her bronchoconstriction is broken in the Emergency Department, she is transported to a pulmonary unit. The patient is a 43-year-old woman who has suffered from asthma most of her life. She used to be able to control it without steroids, but three years ago her disease became very difficult to manage with her usual treatment regimen. Although she has been weaned to the lowest dose of steroids possible to effectively treat her condition, she still has flare-ups occasionally. Over the years, she has developed a round, puffy face along with a large torso with thin arms and legs. Also noted are high blood pressure, depression and anxiety. Based on the patient's brief description, which of the following conditions did the physician state the patient developed from the prolonged usage of steroids? A) Cushing's syndrome B) Hypothyroidism C) Addison's disease D) HyperthyroidismA) Cushing's syndromeMatch the brand name antidiabetic medication to its action DiaBeta Glucotrol Januvia Glucophage Actos A) assists the pancreas in the production of insulin to reduce blood sugar B) decreases the amount of glucose absorbed by the stomach and intestines C) releases incretins which increase insulin released after meals D) decreases the blood sugar by helping the body responds more effectively to insulin E) stimulates beta cells in the pancreas to release insulinDiaBeta: E Glucotrol: A Januvia: C Glucophage: B Actos: DSynthroid is used to treat? A) diabetes B) hypothyroidism C) cushings disease D) pancreatitisB) hypothyroidismWhich statement is incorrect regarding the safe handling of controlled substances? A) Store prescription pads in an easily accessible area of the nursing station or exam room. B) Use the most current drug reference book to keep informed about changes to controlled drug scheduling. C) Store controlled substances in a locked box within a locked cupboard. D) Retain records of all controlled substances dispensed for two years.A) Store prescription pads in an easily accessible area of the nursing station or exam room.The intended use of a drug is referred to as its: A) Prototype B) Indication C) Classification D) InteractionC) ClassificationThe street drug Ecstasy is rated at what controlled substance schedule? A) I B) II C) III D) VA) IThe Breathalyzer exam works primarily because of which phase of pharmacokinetics? A) Absorption B) Excretion or elimination C) Distribution D) MetabolismB) Excretion or eliminationWhich stage of pharmacokinetics is most affected by poor circulation? A) Metabolism B) Absorption C) Distribution D) ExcretionC) DistributionKidney failure would affect which pharmacokinetic process? A) Distribution B) Absorption C) Excretion D) MetabolismC) ExcretionWhich pharmacokinetic stage primarily determines how fast a drug works? A) Absorption B) Distribution C) Excretion D) MetabolismA) AbsorptionA drug accumulates to toxic levels because the body did not break it down effectively. This is an indication that which pharmacokinetic phase is not working properly? A) Distribution B) Metabolism C) Excretion D) AbsorptionB) MetabolismWhat allows the pharmacist to fill Betty's prescription with a generic drug instead of a more expensive brand name drug? A) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990 B) 1983 Orphan Drug Act C) 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act D) Generic Substitution LawsD) Generic Substitution LawsWhich act requires a customer to sign that he or she is deferring the right to consultation? A) 1970 Controlled Substances Act B) 1983 Orphan Drug Act C) 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act D) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990D) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990What would be a sure way to identify a medication using a drug reference with pictures of drugs? A) PDR B) The Internet C) AHFS D) USP-NFA) PDRMatch the term with the correct definition minimum dose maximum dose therapeutic dose booster dose loading dose maintenance dose toxic dose lethal dose A) given after the primary dose to ensure desired immune response B) The largest dose that can be given without a toxic effect C) The amount of drug needed to keep blood levels of the medication at a consistent level D) dose that causes death to occur E) Smallest amount of a drug given to obtain the desired therapeutic effect F) The dose needed to maintain the desired effect G) Initial dose that is larger to quickly established a therapeutic level H) A dose that produces a serious adverse effectminimum dose: E maximum dose: B therapeutic dose: F booster dose: A loading dose: G maintenance dose: C toxic dose: H lethal dose: DMatch the drug with its appropriate category Balmex Benzocaine Benadryl Kenalog Compound W Santyl A) enzyme B) topical corticosteroid C) antihistamine D) keratolytic E) emolient F) local anestheticBalmex: E Benzocaine: F Benadryl: C Kenalog: B Compound W: D Santyl: AJuanita was often embarrassed by an outbreak of her psoriasis and felt she had to wear long sleeves because people might think—erroneously—that her condition was infectious. The dry, scaly, itchy skin bothered her, and she wanted some advice about medications that could help. Which of the following drug categories would be helpful? Answer yes or no Scabicides Antipruritic Enzymatic agents Keratolytic agents EmollientsScabicides: no Antipruritic: yes Enzymatic agents: no Keratolytic agents: yes Emollients: yesTrue or False The transdermal route's effect is systemic; the topical route is local.TrueMatch the disease or condition with the correct drug. Allergic skin reaction Acne Diaper rash Wart removal Poison Ivy A)Desitin B)Compound W C)Benadryl D)Calamine lotion E)ClearasilAllergic skin reaction: C Acne: E Diaper rash: A Wart removal : B Poison Ivy: DMatch the disease to the indicated medication or treatment. Shingles Thrush Acne Vaginitis A) nystatin B) zovirax C) monistat D clindamycinShingles: B Thrush: A Acne: D Vaginitis: CWhat topical skin medication would you expect to see in dandruff shampoo? A) emollients B) enzymatic agents C) keratolytic agents D) pediculicidesC) keratolytic agentsWhat category of medications / agents are used to relieve itching? A) scabicide B) corticosteroids C) antipruritics D) keratolyticC) antipruriticsBalmex is and example of what topical form? A) ointment, oil B) cream, ointment C) oil, cream D) lotion, creamB) cream, ointmentWhat is the topical form of santyl? A) gel B) lotion C) cream D) ointmentD) ointmentTrue or False Bisphosphonates are used to treat osteoporosis.TrueAfter imaging results came back, it was conclusive that Ron had temporomandibular joint syndrome. Medications used to treat temporomandibular joint dysfunction include: A)NSAIDs, analgesics, antipyretics, and corticosteroids B) NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, anti-anxiety, and tricyclic antidepressants C) Corticosteroids, NSAIDs, Xantrine oxidose inhibitors D) NSAIDs, DMARDs, corticosteroidsB) NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, anti-anxiety, and tricyclic antidepressantsTylenol is a/an ___________drug and its action is ____________. A) Corticosteroid, anti-inflammatory B) Antibiotic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory C) Analgesic, to reduce pain D) Salicylate, analgesic and anti-inflammatoryC) Analgesic, to reduce painMatch the drug with the onset and correct duration codine hydrocodone fentanyl morphine (two have the same answer) A) given only PO 10-20 minutes: duration 4-8 hours B) 5 minutes by IV/ 30 minutes PO: duration 3-6 hours C) given by IV almost instantly: duration 30 minutes - 2 hourscodine: B hydrocodone: A fentanyl: C morphine: BMatch the muscle relaxant with the correct uses soma flexeril valium A) Treats pain associated with fibromyalgia as well as othe rmuscle conditions causing pain B) Treats muscle spasms, seizures, and anxiety C) Alleviate muscle spasms caused by muscle conditions (short term)soma: C flexeril: A valium: BThe word "analgesic means? A) without inflammation B) without feeling C) without spasm D) without swellingB) without feelingAcetaminophen works by A) re-route the pain to other receptors B) decreasing inflammation C) deadening the pain receptors D) release prostaglandinsC) deadening the pain receptorsNonsteroidal relieve pain and inflammation by A) re-route pain receptors B) increase inflammation C)deaden pain receptors D) decrease prostaglandin releaseD) decrease prostaglandin releaseIf NSAIDS are not enough to control inflammation what more powerful medications can be used? A) muscle relaxents B) steroids C) tylenol D) aleveB) steroidsTopical analgesics work by A)work well when using a heating pad B)freeze the effected area to deaden pain C) reversibly block nerve conduction near their site of administration D) have little to know effect on pain.C) reversibly block nerve conduction near their site of administrationWhich of the following medications is not a anesthetic A) desitin B) proctofoam C) cepacol dual relief throat spray D) anbesolA) desitinMatch the disease /condition to the main pharmacologic treatment sprain strain dislocation/subluxation bursitis A) NSAIDS B) analgesics C) analgesic /NSAIDS/ corticosteroids D) analgesic/NSAIDSsprain: B strain: A dislocation/ subluxation: D bursitis: CTrue or False Osteoarthritis is sometimes treated with steroid injectionsTrueTrue or False Gold injections are sometime used for patients with Rheumatoid arthritisTrueAnesthetics effect which nervous system? A) CNS B) PNS C) Both CNS and PNSB) PNSMatch the drug with the correct indication. cymbalta antabuse xanax haldol buprenorphine A) treat schizophrenia B) treat depression C) treat narcotic withdrawal D) treat alcoholism E) treat generalized anxiety disorderscymbalta: B antabuse: D xanax: E haldol: A buprenorphine: CThese medications are used to treat what neurological condition? (20) Levodopa, Requip, Mirapex, Neupro A)Bells Palsy B)Parkinson's Disease C)Headaches D)EpilepsyB)Parkinson's DiseaseTrue of False All headaches are treated with acetaminophen and ibuprofenFalseWhen a patient is being treated for Bells Palsy, what primary medications would they be prescribed? A)NSAIDS or Corticosteroids, such as prednisone B)Analgesics, and Anti-infective agents C)Topical antihistamines, anti-viral agents D)Local anesthetics, NSAIDsA)NSAIDS or Corticosteroids, such as prednisoneMatch the drug to the correct category ibuprofen phenobaritol tylenol valium sinemet carfergot A)analgesic B)regulate serotonin C)NSAID D)anticonvulsive E)dopamine agonist F)tranquilizeribuprofen: C phenobaritol: D tylenol: A valium: F sinemet: E carfergot: BCarbamazepine, phenytoin, eslicarbazepine, gabapentin, phenobarbital and levetiracetam are all medications that treat what condition? A) Cluster Headaches B) Bells Palsy C) Epilepsy D) Parkinson's Disease.C) EpilepsyThese eye medications are used after cataracts removal, when other agents used to treat inflammation might be contraindicated: A)Ophthalmic immunologic agent B)Corticosteroids C)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugsC)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugsMatch the generic drug with the correct trade name acetic acid and hydrocortisone: ofloxacin: ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone: ciprofloxacin: benzocaine and antipyrine: ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone: A:Floxin B:Auralgan C:Cipro HC D:Vosol HC E:Ciprodex F:Ciprocetic acid and hydrocortisone: D ofloxacin: A ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone: C ciprofloxacin: F benzocaine and antipyrine: B ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone: EMatch the medication to its primary usage: Dexamethasone: Macrobide: Atropine: Tetracaine: Restasis: A: Used to dilate the pupil for exam B: Helps with tear production C: Anti-inflammatory agent D: Helps in diagnostic or minor surgical procedures E: Anti-infective agentDexamethasone: C Macrobide: E Atropine: A Tetracaine: D Restasis: BOphthalmic Lubricants are used for the following uses, with the exception of which: A) Protects the eyes B) Providers a barrier C) Helps remove irritants D) Treats infectionsD) Treats infectionsThese medications are typically prescribed after cataract surgery: A)Anti-inflammatory and mydriatics B)corrective lenses, and anti-inflammatory medication C)Lubricants and antibiotics D)Antibiotics, and steroidal or non-steroidal opthalmicsD)Antibiotics, and steroidal or non-steroidal opthalmicsCommon medication prescribed to treat bacterial conjunctivitis is: A)Vinoptic B)Atropine C)Restasis D)Erythromycin OpthalmicD)Erythromycin OpthalmicTrue or False Hormones can cause cancer but also can be used to treat cancer.TrueMatch the drug to the type of cancer it is used to treat. Capecitabine (Xeloda): Oral Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan): Etoposide(Toposar): Vinorelbine(navelbine): Imatinib(gleevec): A) multi: breast, leukemia, lung, ovarian B) non-small cell lung cancer C) breast and colon cancers D) chronic myeloid leukemia E) prostate cancerCapecitabine (Xeloda): C Oral Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan): A Etoposide(Toposar): E Vinorelbine(navelbine): B Imatinib(gleevec): DMatch the type of skin Cancer to the correct treatment melanoma treatment: basal cell (most common): squamous cell: A) surgical removel, photoherapy, chemical peel, radiation and chemo therapy B) surgical removel, photoherapy, chemical peel, radiation and chemo therapy, (Mohs surgery) C) surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, immunotherapy, targeted therapymelanoma treatment: C basal cell (most common): A squamous cell: BAntimetabolites interfere with cellular metabolism and thus interfere with cellular repair and reproduction. Which medications are examples of these: A) Prednisone, dexamethasone B) Methotrexate, Fluorouracil C) Tylenol, and Fluorouracil D) No answer text provided.B) Methotrexate, FluorouracilMatch the drug classification with description and example medication Antineoplastic agents: Chemotherapy: Mitotic Inhibitors: Antiestrogens: A: Chemotherapeutic agents derived from natural substances B: Medications that counter act the growth and spread of malignant cells C: Drugs that modify or block the cancer causing effects of the hormone estrogen, on breast tissue D: Use of chemical substances or drugs to treat a disease, usually in reference to cancer.Antineoplastic agents: B Chemotherapy: D Mitotic Inhibitors: A Antiestrogens: C