25 terms

bio practice questions exam 3

A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to take place _____.
A) the parent cell must first dissolve its nuclear membrane
B) the parent cell must first replicate its entire genome
C) the parent cell must first achieve a specified size
D) the parent cell must divide its DNA in half so that each daughter cell gets only the genes it needs
In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of _____.
A) DNA and RNA
B) DNA only
C) DNA and proteins
D) DNA and phospholipids
What is the final result of mitosis?
A) genetically identical 2n somatic cells
B) genetically different 2n somatic cells
C) genetically identical 1n somatic cells
D) genetically identical 2n gamete cells
The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.
A) normal growth and cell function
B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated
C) the beginning of mitosis
D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase
The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.
A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
B) triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes
C) dissolving the nuclear membrane
D) separation of sister chromatids
Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres. It is characterized by _____.
A) aligning of chromosomes on the equator (metaphase plate) (middle of the cell)
B) splitting of the centromeres
C) cytokinesis
D) separation of sister chromatids
Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation. Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as _____.
A) cloning
B) cytokinesis
C) binary fission
D) G1 phase
Which of the following processes contributes directly to genetic variation?
A) binary fission
B) mitosis
C) meiosis
D) DNA replication
During which phase of meiosis would the cell first become haploid because homologous chromosomes separate?
A) anaphase I
B) metaphase I
C) anaphase II
D) telophase II
Meiosis involves the creation of haploid cells from diploid cells. The haploid chromosome number is created when _____.
A) homologous chromosomes separate
B) the S phase of the cell cycle is bypassed during meiotic interphase
C) sister chromatids separate
D) ova and sperm go through their respective maturation processes
In the snail Pomacea patula catemacensis n = 13. What is the diploid number for this organism?
A) 13
B) 26
C) 52
D) 7
For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome is _____.
A) in the form of a tetrad
B) two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
C) a chromosome and its homologue
D) undergoing synapsis
Centromeres split and sister chromosomes migrate to opposite poles in _____.
A) anaphase I
B) telophase I
C) anaphase II
D) telophase II
Which of the following would enable you to detect aneuploidy?
A) autosomy
B) karyotyping
C) syngamy
D) synapsis
Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds?
A) dominant
B) incomplete dominant
C) recessive
D) codominant
A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, 6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?
A) Albino is recessive; black is dominant.
B) Albino is dominant; black is incompletely dominant.
C) Albino and black are codominant.
D) Albino is recessive; black is codominant.
The fact that within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds allows _____.
A) variable width of the double helix
B) complementary base pairing
C) secondary structure of a DNA molecule
D) constant width of the double helix
In the process of transcription, _____.
A) DNA is replicated
B) RNA is synthesized
C) proteins are synthesized
D) mRNA attaches to ribosomes
Given the DNA template T-T-T-T-T, which of the following bases would you find in a complementary RNA strand and where would they be synthesized?
A) A-A-A-A-A; nucleus
B) U-U-U-U-U; nucleus
C) A-A-A-A-A; ribosome
D) U-U-U-U-U; ribosome
15) Codons, the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids, are part of _____.
A) protein
If the DNA code for a particular amino acid is AGT, then the anticodon on the tRNA would be _____.
Refer to Figure 16.4. During elongation, which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read?
A) E site
B) P site
C) A site
D) small subunit
Once a peptide has been formed between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the P site and the amino acid associated with the tRNA in the A site, which process on the list occurs next?
A) translocation
B) reading of the next codon of mRNA
C) initiation
D) The codon-anticodon hydrogen bonds holding the tRNA in the A site are broken
Which of the following is not one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A) binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B) binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C) recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D) formation of a polypeptide bond
How does termination of translation take place?
A) The end of the mRNA molecule is reached.
B) A stop codon is reached.
C) The 5' cap is reached.
D) The poly A tail is reached.