697 terms

Criminal Investigation-Basic Perspectives

Mathieu Orfila
-father of forensic toxicology (study of the effects of poisons)
Hans Gross
-earliest advocate of criminal investigation as a science
-credit for developing a system of investigation
-greatest contribution, advocacy of a parallel system of inquiry based on the crime scene
Alphonse Betrillon
-developed the first means of human identification, known as anthropometry
-system of taking eleven measurements of various parts of the body
Francis Galton
-first definitive study of fingerprints
Albert Osborn
-questioned documents
Edmond Locard
-founder and director of the Institute of Criminalistics at the University of Lyons
-best known for his exchange principle
Leone Lattes
-discovery that blood can be grouped into four categories (A, B, AB, and O)
Calvin Goddard
-determing whether a bullet was fired from a suspect's weapon, through the use of a comparison microscope
Alec Jeffreys
-discovered DNA, giving the scientific community a means to link biological evidence (blood, semen, hair, and tissue) to a single individual
12,600 Police 3,000 Sheriff
How many police departments and sheriff departments are in the US?
What is the percentage of all sworn officers in the US, that are employed by police departments?
Patrol, Traffic, and Detective
What three broad areas of law enforcement services do city police departments typically provide?
Posse Comitatus
-the power or force of the community to enforce the law
-The Statute of Winchester of 1285 required all available citizens to respond to protect the community under what principle
200 Years
-policing as we know it has only been in existence for less than....
Statute of Winchester
-required all towns to have men on the streets after dark to provide for safety of travelers and the town's inhabitants
-required citizens to come to the aid of night watchmen whenever they gave the "hue and cry" for assistance
-required all males between the ages of 15 and 60 to keep arms for the purpose of rendering aid and subduing offenders
-a private citizen, who served a voluntary one year term in this position as part of his civic duty
Night Watchmen
-able-bodied men were required to serve on a rotational basis and without pay
-manned the village gates and patrolled the streets while on the lookout for disturbances of the peace, crimes in progress, and other threats such as fires
Thief Takers
-often criminals themselves, suspected of encouraging crimes for the purpose of solving them, in order to obtain the reward money
Marshal's Service
-created in 1789 (claims to be the oldest)
-provide federal court security, and serve as their bailiffs
-enforce federal court orders (guarded the first African American students to be enrolled at Ole Miss in 1962)
-assumed responsibility of the Witness Protection Program in 1971
Postal Inspection Service
-started in 1830 with the creation of the Office of Instructions and Mail Depredations
-investigates mail theft, fraud, and the shipment of obscene materials in the mail
-in 1880 the title of Special Agent was changed to Post Office Inspector by Congress, and changed again in 1954 to Postal Inspector
-have jurisdiction of crimes that occur on postal property, including burglary, robbery, and homicide
-in 1984 the service was given the responsibility of investigating the use of mail to distribute child porn
-key component in the multi-agency task force that investigated the Unabomber case
Secret Service
-created in 1856 to supress the counterfeiting of US currency
-expanded to include investigation of frauds against the government (investigated the KKK, nonconforming distillers, smugglers, mail robbers, land frauds, and a number of others)
-1902, Congress assigned responsibility of Presidential protection after the assassination of President McKinley
-protection for major presidential candidates, president-elect, president's immediate family, vice president, and former presidents
-in 1984, Congress made the use of fraudulent credit and debit cards a federal crime and assigned it to Secret Service along with federal-interest computer fraud, and fraudulent identification
Federal Bureau of Investigation
-created in 1908 with just 34 agents investigating crimes involving national banking, bankruptcy, naturalization, anti-trust, and land fraud
-1910, major expansion became responsible for enforcement of the Mann Act
-investigation and enforcement of the Espionage Act, Selective Service Act, and the Sabotage Act
-J. Edgar Hoover was director from 1924 to his death in 1972
-1932, established it's crime lab
-1935, agency changed it's name from Bureau of Investigation to FBI
-resposibilities include national security priorities such as counterterrorism, counterintelligence, and cyber crime, and criminal priorities such as public corruption, civil rights, organized crime, white collar crime, and major thefts
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Exposives
-tax collecting, enforcement, and regulatory arm of the US Department of Treasury
-separated from the IRS in 1972
-responsible for commercial arson nationanwide
-they have their own crime lab, and run IBIS (Integrated Ballistic Identification System)
Drug Enforcement Administration
-created by President Nixon through an Executive Order that merged several agencied into a unified command to combat the global war on drugs
-sole responsibility for coordinating these investigations abroad
-87 foreign offices in 63 countries
Relevant, Material, and Obtained Lawfully
-for evidence to be admissible in court, it must be..
Fourth Amendment
-intended to provide a means of balancing society's need to deal with criminals and criminal activity with the need to protect individual rights
-right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures
Probable Cause
-exists when enough facts lead a reasonable and prudent person to believe that criminal activity is fairly probable
Search Warrant by phone
-in emergency situations
-made available in the magistrate's court the following business day
Exceptions to the warrant requirement
-consent searches
-stop and frisks
-plain view exceptions
-searches incident to a lawful arrest
-motor vehicle stops
-open fields
-emergency circumstances
Stop and Frisk
-an officer may temporarily detain a person for questioning if the officer has reasonable suspicion that criminal activity may be involved. The person may als be patted down for weapons if the officer has additional reasonable suspicion that the pat down was necessary for officer safety. Such a detention is not considered an arrest.
Motor Vehicle Exception
-requiring the existence of probable cause, vehicle may be searched without a warrant, due to their mobility, use as transportation from one crime scene to another, and use in transporting, weapons, stolen goods, and contraband. Locked containers may be searched without a warrant, as long as it is within the scope of the search, and probable cause still exists.
-the are immediately surrounding a dwelling, and not included in the open field exception to the warrant requirement.
Extigent Circumstances
-reasonable belief that the evidence may be immediately destroyed, hot pursuit of a suspect whom the investigators reasonably believe is in the area to be searched, immediate need to preserve or protect life, threat to the safety of officers conducting a protective sweep of the premises.
Exclusionary Rule
-applies when an officer violates a person's constitutional rights by conduction an unlawful search or seizure. (Fruit of the Poisoness Tree)
Three Typical Encounters With Police
-investigative detention or stop
Arrest Warrants are necessary when.....
-the person to be arrested is unavailable or his or her identity is not known at the time.
Arrest Warrants must contain...
-describe the offense charged and contain the name of the accused, or a description
-indicate the time of issuance, city or county and state where it was issued, and the duty of the arresting officer to bring the defendant before a magistrate
-it is directed to, and must be acted on, any peace officer in the jurisdiction
-valid until recalled by the court
Broadcast Alarms
-orders to pick up a suspect, which alert other police units to the recent crime, usually is done first by radio, then by fax, or computer
The objective of broadcasting facts as soon as they are available....
-provide searching police with enough identification to pick out a fleeing person or vehicle with some certainty that person or vehicle being stopped is the subject of the alarm
Wanted Notice
-should provide full information about the fugitive and about the areas in which he or she is likely to be found
Basic content of a wanted notice....
-phohtgraph or sketch of the fugitive, his or her fingerprints, and an extensive personal description
Four purposes of a wanted modern wanted notice...
-provide sufficent identifying characteristics
-alert other LEOs to the nature an character of the fugitive, criminal history, and if armed and dangerous
-deliniate the crime in sufficent detail to alert arresting officers to potential legally signifigant evidence available at the time of the arrest
Case Preparation is...
Case Preparation
-orderly array of information collected during an investigation; all the reports, documents, and exhibits in a case.
Case Synopsis
-no more than a summary of the package contents
Accusatory Pleading
-pretrial statement supprting the evidence structure, made by the accused person, and is oriented toward providing the identity of the person responsible for the crime allege in the indictment
Corpus Delecti
-affirmative evidence
-"body of crime"
-time and date of the crime and the jurisdiction where it occurred
-name of the accused
-elements of the offense
-specification of the criminal agency (method) used to commit the crime, and the name of the victim
Negative Evidence
-evidence, explanations, and reasons used as counter defenses to the crime charged
Major Areas of Case Preparation
-Defendant and Corpus Delecti
-Negative Evidence
-Lawful Procedures (securing evidence)
An investigation is succesful when...
-the crime under investigation is promptly solved and the case is closed.
Cases cleared by arrest are....
-a statistical measure of the efficiency of the criminal investigation function of any police unit.
Criminal investigation function can be terminated...
-Results have obtained in full; the case is cleared by arrest or exceptional clearance.
-Results have been obtained in part, and no further results can be obtained.
-No results can be obtained.
Pursuing Truth
-main objective in an investigation
Sir John Fielding
-father of the modern police detective
Sir Robert Peel
-father of modern policing
August Vollmer
-father of modern policing in America
-system of hiring police based on their political connections rather than their ability to be a good police officer
-the study of the effects of poisons on the human body
-the use of science to answer legal questions
Consent Search
-a serach where a person voluntarily waives their constitutional protection from unreasonable searches and seizures, and allow an investigator to search their home, person, and property.
Plain View Search
-permits investigators to observe and seize evidence without a warrant if the officer is lawfully in a position from which an object and the incriminating character of the object are immediately apparent
-when a fugitive is apprehended in another state, the fugitive has a right to a legal hearing in which the prosecution must demonstrate the probable cause for the return of the fugitive to the state where the crime occurred.
-The decision to charge a suspect with a crime is the duty of which person in the criminal justice system?
Criminal Investigation
-a lawful search for people and things useful in reconstructing an illegal act or omission and analysis of the mental state accompanying it.
Scene of the Crime
For many crimes, the investigation process begins at the...
-Responding officers rendering the scene safe and secure
-Crime scene investigators conducting a search for evidence and prepare documentation of the scene
-Search for witnesses
The successful management of a crime scene involves what three major functions?
Alert to any suspects or witnesses leaving the scene
When notified that a crime has occurred, the responding officers should be....
It is the first responder's responsibility to _________ the crime scene, making it safe for personnel to enter the area.
Arrest of any suspects and the elimination of any hazards that might present a threat
Neutralization of the scene includes...
Preliminary investigation
The crime scene is the focus of the...
-Alert in their approach
-Safety of the scene
-Medical attention for the injured parties
-Search for witnesses
What responsibilities do the police have when responding to a crime that has just occurred?
Destruction of evidence
The possibility of saving a life takes precedence over the possible...
Identify possible potential witnesses and separate them as soon as possible.
The first officer at the scene should do what in regards to witnesses?
Retroactive Inference
-When witnesses discuss the crime or overhear others talking about the crime, they tend to adopt some of this information as their own or alter their recollections to fit with those of other witnesses. This process is normal and is known as...
"A long, hard look."
The first step in processing a crime scene for clues and evidence is to make an accurate survey of the surroundings and carefully evaluate the situation, or....
Effective protection of the crime scene
A search for evidence starts with...
Chronological log
Officers guarding the perimeter of the crime scene are responsible for preparing a _____________ of events as they occur at the scene.
Recent studies have shown that crime reporting make up ___ of all coverage in local television newscasts.
-Type of crime committed, including a brief description of what happened, where, and when
-Identity of the victim (usually not released if the victim is deceased or a victim of sexual assault)
-Facts concerning the arrest of the suspect (name, age, time, place, resistance, and waepons involved)
Usually the following information can be released to the media...
-Prior criminal charges or convictions or comments regarding the reputation, character, guilt or innocence of the suspects
-Identification of juvenile suspects
-Comment on any admission or confession
-Identity of any possible witnesses
-Precise description of the amount of money or other items taken
Information that should not be released to the media...
Typically the tasks to be performed by the crime scene investigation team start with the ____ search for evidence.
Evidence; Selective
The main purpose of a search is to look for ___ of what happened during the crime. It is not a random grouping but rather a ____ looking for objects and materials.
Single-officer search
Staffing problems in police units, as well as problems associated with the proffering of evidence in court, have brought about the development of the _______. The goal is to limit the number of officers in possession of crime scene evidence to the officer searching the scene.
Crime Scene
A _______ is the place of the crime, including any adjoining entry or exit area.
-point-to-point movement
-ever-widening circle
-ever narrowing circle
-zone or sector search
-strip or grid search
Traditionally, systematic searching has utilized the following methods...
grid search
The _____ begins after the strip search is completed.
Locard's exchange principle
-states suspects will bring items of evidence into the crime scene and will take items with them when they leave.
Chain of Custody
Continuity of possession, ________, must be established when evidence is offered in court as an exhibit.
Evidence must be ________ to avoid breakage, loss, or contamination in transit.
________________ includes the identification of physical evidence and the finding of its origin.
known standard of evidence
Individualization of evidence often requires that physical evidence collected at the crime scene be matched with a _____ _____ of _____ or a control.
Since the ______ case, it is lawful to take a sample from an arrested person charged with a crime in which blood collected as evidence requires a known sample for comparative analysis.
The Fifth Amendment
The recovery of blood, clothing, and hair without consent is not prohibited by ____ ___ because these are all considered "real or physical evidence" and thus are subject to the controls of the right privacy and search and seizure clauses of the fourth amendment, rather than to self-incrimination.
______ words can contribute to the physical match between sample and questioned writing.
Fifth Amendment
Requiring a suspect to give handwritten exemplars is not considered to be a request for communications that fall within the protection of the ____ ____.
It is the responsibility of the _______ to seek known standards until such time as he or she is informed that they are not required.
Transporting physical evidence to laboratory, to a place of storage, or to the prosecutor's office or to the courtroom is the responsibility of the ________ who found the evidence.
At no time should an investigator return any part of evidence to its rightful claimant without the authority of the ______.
When the ____ is completed, the prosecutor has the authority to release the evidence.
Disposable gloves
The first line of defense against infectious disease is to wear ____ ____.
Final survey
The ___ ___ ensures that all the evidence has been identified and collected and that the scene has been properly processed prior to release.
Field notes
_____ _____ made during the search of a crime scene are the basic record of the search and the evidence discovered.
Crime scene sketches and photographs
________ usually are offered in evidence as exhibits that are more realistic than words or that can assist jurors in understanding the case, or both.
Field notes are ________ made by the investigator during an investigation.
Preliminary investigation report
The place and time to obtain data for a ___________ are at the crime scene during the initial investigation.
Record, transmit
The offense report originates at the operational level, and it's basic purpose is to _____ and ______ information.
Corpus Delecti
Essential elements of the offense.
The use of a measurement marker is neccessary to put the ____ of the item in the photograph in perspective.
Accurate measurments
When a graphic illustration is meant to clarify a written report, _____ ______ are needed.
Request by the defense counsel to the prosecutor before trial for disclosure of the police case against his or her client.
First officer
It is the duty of the ___ ____ at the scene of a suspected crime to "contain" it.
When looking for a suspect, one of the most powerful motivations for people to talk, is ____.
Elimination of unnecessary detail
The advantage of a sketch over a photograph is the ________.
The crime scene search pattern that starts at one end of the scene and in which searchers work back and forth until the entire area is searched is known as what type of search?
Broadcast alarm
The brief contact with the victim and witnesses for the purpose of gathering suspect information is done for what purpose?
Direct evidence and Circumstantial evidence
What two kinds of proof are used during a criminal trial to answer the question of guilt or innocence?
Direct evidence
-Involves eyewitnesses who have, through one or more of their five senses, experienced something relative to the crime in question or it's circumstances.
Circumstantial evidence
-inference from which an inference can be drawn and which includes items such as physical evidence.
Major of types of circumstantial evidence
Weapons, blood, imprints or impressions, tool marks, hair, fibers, glass, paint, and questioned documents
Class evidence and individual evidence
Physical evidence can be divided into what two broad categories?
Class evidence
What type of evidence cannot be linked to a particular person or an object, but onlt to a class of objects?
Types of class evidence
What type of evidence includes glass, paint, shoe prints, ballistics, fibers, and tool marks?
Individual evidence
What type of evidence can be linked to a specific person?(Example: fingerprints)
Individual evidence
What type of evidence includes palm prints, sole prints, voice prints, bite marks, and even ear and lip prints?
What is the identification of firearms, bullets, cartridges, and shotgun shells?
Interior ballistics
What refers to the functioning of firearsm through the firing cycle?
Exterior ballistics
What is the study of projectiles in flight?
Proof marks
What are emblems and symbols that indicate tests performed to prove the strength of the chamber of a firearm by actual firing with maximum loads.
Caliber and gauge
What are identifying characteristics of firearms and shotguns?
Postmortem forensic science
When the victim is dead and an autopsy is performed, what is one type of procedure that is the removal of spent bullets without damage to their original condition?
GSR Gunshot Residue Examination
What is the examination used to search the presence of the major components in a center cartridge?
Exothermic Reaction
What process occurs when compounds and elements of a fired cartridge undergo a rapid increase in temperature, followed by a sharp decrease?
What trace can divulge a great deal of information about the criminal, the victim, and what happened during a crime?
Kastle-Meyer color test
What is the test based on the reaction with the enzymes in the blood which causes the test strip to turm a deep pink color?
What is the trade name for the Kastle-Meyer color test?
What presumptive test produces light rather than color as it reacts with blood?
What is the trademark name of the relatively new product that produces a faint blue glow when it reacts with blood?
Precipitin Test
What test determines whether blood is human or animal, usually by injecting rabbits with blood, to see if antibodies form to neutralize human blood?
Gel Diffusion
What test takes advantage of the fact that antibodies and antigens diffuse or moved to one another on a plate coated with a gel medium made from a polymer called agar?
_________ which have been dried for ten to fifteen years and longer may still give a positive precipitin reaction.
What are markings left on a surface by protruding parts of a person or vehicle, such as bloody handprints, bloody footprints, or tire tread marks?
What are made by a person or an object in a material softer than the item of evidence making the impression, such as footprints or tire tracks left in the snow?
Impressions are collected as evidence by first ___________ and then casting the impression.
What can be found at a crime scene as either imprints or impressions?
Contaminated Prints
Bloody fingerprints left on weapons or at the scene of a crime are called what?
Plastic Prints
What are fingerprint impressions that are left when a person comes into contact with soft glazier's putty around the edges of a window?
Latent Prints
What usually cannot be seen with the naked eye, and need to be developed to be seen?
Iodine Fuming or Ninhydrin Process
Latent fingerprints on porous surfaces such as paper are developed in the laboratory through what process or processes?
Cyanoacrylate Fuming Process
Fingerprints on slippery surfaces such as plastic bags, which are resistant to the dusting process, can be developed using a common glue product that is heated in a covered tank, and the resulting fumes settle on the print. What is this process known as?
AFIS - Automated Fingerprint Identification System
What computer technology allows for a fingerprint to be collected electronically?
The FBI's database contains how many millions sets of fingerprints?
The automated system has reduced the FBI's criminal ten-print processing time from forty-five days with the inked card system, to less than how many hours?
Root Bulb
A DNA analysis can be performed on hair if what is attached?
Microscopic Analysis
Without DNA analysis the crime laboratory would conduct what kind of analysis of the hair to determine the origin, racial origin, age and sex, forcible removal, and hair comparison?
What kind of hair oval to round in shape?
What kind of hair is flat to oval in shape?
Cotton fibers, which is a plant material, and wool fibers, which are from sheep, are what types of common fibers?
Manufactured fibers found in nylon, polyesters, and acrylics are examples of what kind of fibers?
Comparison Microscope
What is essentially two microscopes connected together side by side that allows two samples to be viewed simultaneously by the operator?
The visible-light _______ is a reliable method for analysts to compare the colors of fibers through spectral patterns.
Radial and Concentric
What two types of fractures that form a pattern similar to a spider's web, will result when an object breaks a pane of glass?
Radial Fracture
What type of glass fracture starts at the point of impact and runs outward in a star-shaped pattern?
Concentric Fracture
What type of glass fracture forms concentric circles around the point of impact?
Density, refractive index, thickness, color, and chemical composition are some of the common characteristics examined to differentiate what material?
What evidence is usually found in the form of smears or chips?
Questioned Document
In cases involving checks, the check itself is a what?
What kind of paper must be sprayed with a preservative and requires special packaging and transport to the place of examination?
The crime laboratory can conduct an analysis of human hair. What cannot be determined with certainty from this analysis?
Dusting Process
Fingerprints left on smooth, nonporous surfaces such as glass can be developed by using which process?
What quality of an investigator is important to the net worth of the entire investigation?
Forensic Science Laboratory
A crime laboratory in which physical evidence obtained by police in the course of an investigation is examined may now be known as what?
Forensic Scientists
Laboratory technicians are often identified as what?
What is the profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification, individualization, and evaluation of physical evidence by application of the natural sciences in the matters of law and science?
Set Theory
Identification in criminalistics is aligned with the logic of what? This states that all objects can be divided and subdivided onto various sets on the basis of their properties.
What is a subsystem in the administration of justice that studies the effect of a criminal upon a crime scene (and other sites of criminal activity) and vice versa?
Each molecule of what, the primary carrier of genetic information in living organisms, consists of a long spiral strusture that has been likened to a twisted ladder?
Base Pair
Each rung of the "DNA ladder" consists of what?
A base pair is two of four varieties of nucleic acid, and are combined in pairs called what?
The ______ of these base pairs constitutes the genetic coding of DNA.
Red Blood Cells
DNA in humans is found in all cells that contain a nucleus, except what?
Each nucleated cell usually contains the full complement of an individual's DNA, that is unvarying from cell to cell, is known as what?
What is referred to as the person-to-person differences within a particular segment of DNA sequence?
Many of the frequently encountered specimens found at crime scenes are either _____, degraded, or small in quanity.
PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
What involves extracting DNA from a small evidence sample and then replicating it through a complex operation of repeated heated and cooling cycles and exposure to an enzyme?
STR (short tandem repeats)
The FBI has selected thirteen _____ _____ _____ loci to serve as a standard battery of core loci, each of which contains a short region where a sequence of three, four, or five nucleotides is repeated a different number of times in different people.
When comparing DNA samples from known individuals with evidence samples, a difference in a single ____ can exclude somone as the donor of that evidence sample.
What is found in all body tissues and fluids?
CODIS (Combined DNA Index System)
What is the FBI's national database that links state databases, that networks to link DNA typing results from unsolved criminal cases in multiple jurisdictions and to alert investigators to similarities among unsolved crimes?
What kind of cells contain two types of DNA, nuclear and mitochondrial?
How many chromosomes does nuclear DNA contain?
Mitochondrail DNA (mtDNA) is found outside the nucleus and is inherited solely from the ______.
Mitochondria are cell structures found in all human cells and they provide about __ percent of the energy.
There are hundreds to thousands of mitochondria copies in a human cell compared to just ___ nuclear DNA located in the same cell.
The work of whom, concerns the physical and biological science laboratories, examination of substances involved with crimes and suspects, and the use of selected equipment normally associated with scientific techniques in such disciplines?
In what, the radiation from an incandescent gas or vapor is concentrated in certain discrete wavelengths?
What is the unique and characteristic pattern of wavelengths?
What is a method of separating compounds to identify components?
X-ray crystallography
What is useful for the identification of any crystalline solid or compound from which a crystalline solid derivative can be made?
X-ray diffraction
What is of use in the processing very small samples, in examing samples with noncrystalline impurities, and in identifying inorganic and mineral substances?
NAA (neutron activation analysis)
What is a technique that can analyze samples one hundred too small for ordinary spectrographic techniques, and can determine if a suspect or victim recently fired a handgun? It involves bombarding the sample with neutrons in a nuclear reactor, which causes the different elements to come radioactive, and make it possible to identify the different radioactive elements present, and determine the quantity of each.
Gamma-Ray Spectrometer
What is the very sophisticated apparatus that is used to measure the distinctive radioactive gamma-ray emissions and thereby to identify the elements from which the rays originate?
TMDT (Trace Metel Detection Technique)
Distinctive "signatures'" of handguns, tools, and other metal objects are now available to investigators through what innovative technique?
Ultrasonic Cavitation
What method of etching may replace chemical, electrolytic, and magnetic particle methods of restoring obliterated serial numbers on firearms and other metal objects?
What are widely used in the detection of fingerprints, and have been recently been found to be useful in the examination of questioned documents for alteration or obliteration cases?
What is the graphical identification of voices?
Voicepring Identification
What is based on the physical characteristics of each individual's vocal cavities (the throat, mouth, nose, and sinuses) and the manner of manipulating the lips, teeth, tongue, soft palate, and jaw muscles?
What is the use of simple ciphers and codes to protect the security of messages?
Substitution Ciphers
What is the most common cipher in use by criminals, in which a symbol, letter, or digit stands for another symbol, letter, or digit?
Transposition Ciphers
Ciphers that are characterized by a change in the order in the enciphered material?
NIBIN (National Integrated Ballistic Information Network)
What is the database of fired cartridge casings and bullets images, maintained by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF)?
International Forensic Automotive Paint Data Query
What is the database developed and maintained by the Forensic Laboratory Services of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police that contains chemical and color information pertaining to original (factory) automotive paint, and can determine the make, model year, and the assembly plant on more than 13,000 vehicles? Contributors to the database include the United States, Canada, and twenty-one other countries.
Shoeprint Image Capture and Retrieval (SICAR)
What is a commercially available database that includes more than three hundred shoe manufacturers, with more than eight thousand sole patterns?
Which piece of laboratory equipment would be used to determine the elements contained within mineral samples?
What is the professional name for employees in a forensic laboratory who conduct the scientific examination?
Known Identity and Unknown Identity
What two categories does a case fall into when the perpetrator is not promptly arrested, and effects the direction of the investigation?
Who offers the initial basic lead?
Field Contact
What kind of reports of interviews by patrol officers at and about the time and place of the crime offer data about suspects and sometimes vehicles?
Latent Prints and other Trace Evidence
What things found at crime scenes confirm that a suspect has been at the scene and indicate opportunity?
Developing Leads
What is a combination of know-how, the cognitive process, and the ability to work rapidly?
The Investigation
What should continue until all evidence, positive or negative, is gathered to prove the crime; to identify the perpetrator; and to disprove, when possible, defenses such as justification, excuse, lack of specific intent, lack of malice, diminished capacity, intoxication, ignorance, error, insanity, and the alike?
Active Information
What leads to the establishment of a group of suspects?
Passive information
What is associative evidence that can only be of use if a group of suspects has been developed?
The question of who might ____ from a crime provides an excellent focus for making inquiry.
Searching for and identifying persons with the _____ to commit a crime is a valid basic lead.
What is a claim of being elsewhere?
Possession of the _____ needed to commit a crime suggests possession also of the skill and capacity to have done it.
Field Contact Reports
What are records of the stop-and-frisk interviews with the persons stopped in their cars or on foot because of their suspicious appearance or actions?
There is no better clue to the identity of a criminal than the identification of a what?
Stolen Vehicles
Enterprising detectives scan what kind of reports for similarities with the descriptions of cars used in a crime?
Perpetrators of the Crime
Fingerprints found at crime scenes have a very high potential for identifying who, once the imprints of the victim and other nonsuspects are screened out?
Identifiable Items
A search for stolen property is a search for what?
No assumptions should be made in regard to describing identifying characteristics of stolen property. _____ depends on identification.
Modus Operandi
What is the choice of a particular crime to commit and the selection of a method of committing it?
The modus operandi of a criminal is his or her ____.
What year did Congress pass the Jacob Wettrling Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Offender Registration Act? (In honor of 11 year old Jacob Wetterling who was kidnapped while riding his bicycle in Minnesota.)
When an offender commits a criminal sexual act against a minor or commits any sexually violent offense, they must register for how many years from the date of their release from custody or supervision?
In 1996 the Jacob Wettrling Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Offender Registration Act was amended by establishing a national sex offender database, that is maintained by whom?
What state was the first to pass an offender registration law in 1947, that requires convicted arsonists, drug offenders, and sex offenders to register?
Amber Alert system
What nationwide system is a law enforcement tool for combating sexual predators?
Mug Shots
What are photographs made of suspects at the time of arrest?
What is another visual means of identification through the cooperation of victims and witnesses, that consists of hundreds of slides that contains photo reproductions of one small portion of the human face?
- Neighborhood Friendships
- Juvenile Hall and Prison Contacts
- Family Relationships
- Coethnic Contacts
- Buyer-Seller Interactions
- Lovers
What are six types of relationships that form strong personal linkages between persons engaged in criminal activity?
- Hatred
- Revenge
- Jealousy
- Greed
What are some of the more common motivations for snitching?
Participant Informant
What type of informant acts as a go-between: to identify the drug seller and to introduce the undercover investigator as a potential buyer, or to "instigate" the transaction in some fashion?
What role requires the informant to sell property to the police playing the role of buyers in order to lure real burglars and thieves to do likewise?
Covert Informants
What type of informant, known as "moles", report information about terrorist or other criminal organizations, from a postion of trust and confidence within the group?
Accomplice Witness
What type of witness is liable to the prosecution for the identical offense charged against the defendant or defendants in a pending trial?
What is the observation of people and places by investigators to develop investigative leads, often hidden, not just unobtrusive?
Visual Surveillance
Waht is nothing more than keeping watch on a particular suspect, vehicle, or place?
Fixed Visual Surveillance
What is known as a stakeout or plant, is located within a building, if possible, with observations made through available windows or doors?
Moving Visual Surveillance
What is known as a "tail", may be on foot, may be in a vehicle, or may use a combination of walking and riding?
Audio Surveillance
What observation technique has been termed "dirty business" by the U.S. Supreme Court?
The Fourth Amendment protects people, not _____.
Participant Monitoring
Consensual electronic surveillance is also known as what?
Contact Surveillance
Waht techniques are based on the capability of certain fluorescent preparations to stain a person's hands or clothing upon contact and thus offer observable proof of a connection between the stained person and the object under surveillance?
- Needs
- Collection
- Evaluation and Collation
- Analysis-interpretation
- Dissemination
- Reevaluation
What are the six stages of the police intelligence process?
Photographic Lineup
What is conducting by showing a witness a number of photos, usually four to six? (six pack)
When photos are not available, an eyewitness might be asked to collaborate with a police artist in developing what?
Personal Linkage
When more than one person is responsible for the commission of a crime and when one suspect is identified, the other suspects may be identified as well using which investigative lead?
Field Lineup
This type of lineup is held shortly after the commission of the crime and involves bringing the witness to the suspect's location and is known as?
Basic Lead
This type of informant is motivated to divulge information to the police for a variety of reasons, such as jealousy, greed, revenge, or to eliminate competition.
What is a person-to-person conversation for the purpose of obtaining information about a crime or its circumstances?
An interview is an interactive process that involves the interpretation of both visual and what input?
Clues to what can be obtained from the suspect's body language, demeanor, and comfort level during the interviewing process?
About ____ percent of all interviews are informal and take place outside of an office setting.
What is important, as it insulates the witness from the input of others?
Reverse Transference or Retroactive Interference
Conducting interviews in private also guards against the possibility of ______ _______ or _______ ______, which occurs when a witness overhears other witnesses discussing their observations and then takes on some, if not all, of their information as his or her own.
Rapport Building
The bonding process, known as what, is essential if an investigator is to obtain the maximum amount of information?
What is defined as developing a harmonious relationship with another person?
Official Police Report
If a witness used racial slurs or other hateful epithets during the interview, this information should be noted in the what?
First Step
What step of the interview process involves asking open-ended questions, such as "what happened?" or "what did you see or hear?" No notes or audio or visual recording is conducted at this point.
Second Step
What step of the interview process is having the witness repeat his or her story while the interviewer takes notes or records the conversation?
Third Step
What step of the interview process involves the interviewer going over his or her notes with the witness, and insures that the interviewer accurately records or paraphrases what the interviewer actually said?
Fourth Step
What step of the interview process involves thanking the witness for cooperating and asking for any additional information the witness wants to give at this time?
Most people at a speed of about __ words a minute, which is extremely slow compared to how fast a person can think.
What percentage of our conversation with one another is nonverbal?
Active Involvement
Being a good listener requires ____ _____.
Traditional methods of detecting deception during interviews succeed only ____ percent of the time.
- Comfort/Discomfort
- Emphasis
- Synchrony
- Perception Management
An alternate paradigm for detecting deception is based on what four critical domains?
Comfort or Discomfort
A person's level of what is one of the most important clues interviewers should focus on when trying to establish veracity?
An interview that is out of sync or lacks harmony indicates that the person being interviewed is uncomfortable or is possibly being what?
Perception Management
Nonverbal behaviors, such as yawning, indicating boredom, or stretching out on a couch, as if to demonstrate comfort, are examples of what?
Perception Management
Statements such as, "I could never hurt someone.", "lying is beneath me," or "I have never lied," all of which should alert the interviewer to the possibility of deception.
Approximately ___ percent of the population will move their eyes to the left when they are recalling something that they actually experienced. (neurolinguistic eye movement)
- Pneumograph
- Galvanograph
- Cardiograph
Modern polygraphs have three components or channels -- that is, three separate capabilities for recording anatomical responses to the questioning situation. What are they?
What records respiration (breathing rate and depth) in a polygraph?
What records electrodermal response (skin electrical resistance changes) in a polygraph/
What records the changes in pulse rate and blood pressure in a polygraph?
What component of the polygraph is considered the most reliable indicator of deception?
Least Dependable
The galvanic skin response (GSR), which is measured by the resistance of the skin to the passage of a small electric current, is the ____ ____ component of the polygraph.
Human Anantomy
Instrumental detection of deception is based on what?
The so-called ___ __ ____ questions relate to the actual circumstances of the crime.
Cognitive interviewing
What is an investigation technique used to enhance a witness's ability to recall events?
- Reinstating the context of the event
- Recalling the event in a different sequence
- Looking at the event from a different perspective
The witness's ability to recall events is improved by taking one or more of the followig steps:
By recalling the event out of order, the witness is asked to view each segment of the event____.
What are excellent means of documenting the story told to the investigator by the witness?
When a statement is taken, it should be ____ about both what the witness has said and what the witness is prepared to testify to, under oath, about his or her observations.
What is defined as the adversarial questioning of a suspect with the goal of soliciting an admission or confession of guilt?
Unlike an interview, an interrogation is highly ____.
Brown v Mississippi
What court case involved Brown, who was suspected of mnurder, being stripped to the waist and whipped with a belt until he confessed.
Ward v Texas
Decided in 1942, suspected of murder, Ward was driven county to county over a three day period without contact to friends or family until he finally confessed.
Fikes v Alabama
1957, Held in solitary confinement for 10 days until he confessed.
Ashcraft v Tennessee
1944, questioned for 36 hours straight before confessing
Haley v Ohio
1948, questioned 15yo from midnight to 5 am.
Davis v North Carolina
1966, questioned once or twice a day for 16 straight days until he confessed
Mincey v Arizona
1978, while in ICU, questioned for 4 hours.
Townsend v Sain
1963, heroin addict began suffering withdrawls during questioning, doctor administered medication to alleviate the discomfort, unknown to detectives, the medication acted as truth serum and the defendant confessed.
Escobedo v Illinois
1964, attorney was denied access to client after he was requested by the client, after 4 hours of questioning, he confessed to the crime.
Fishing Expedition
A thorough investigation is important because the suspect is going to know if the investigator is not prepared and only on a "____ _____."
Emotional Offender
What label refers to a person who experiences considerable feelings of remorse and mental anguish as a result of committing the offense?
Nonemotional Offender
What label refers to a person who ordinarily does not experience a troubled conscience as a result of committing a crime?
Factual Analysis Approach
The most effective tactic used on a nonemotinal offender is the ___ ____ ____. The approach appeals to the suspect's common sense and reasoning rather than emotions and is designed to persuade the suspect that his or her guilt is established and , consequently, the intelligent choice to make is to tell the truth.
Confess their crimes
Investigators must conduct interrogations with the belief that suspects, when presented with the proper avenue, will use it to ___ ___ ____.
- Video Recording
- Audio Recording
- Writing
What three methods are used to document a suspect's confession?
It captures exactly what happened during the interrogation process.
What is the strength of video recording an interrogation?
Clock on the wall
To guard against editing or altering a video recording, what should be placed in the interrogation room, and should be included in the recording?
What has made it possible to record interrogations outside of the interview room?
Date and time
Waht should be stated at the beginning and end of and audio recording of an interrogation, to guard against allegations of editing?
When interviewing a subject, the investigator notices that the person uses racially biased comments and slurs. The investigator should take note of these comments as they relate to that person's what?
When interviewing a person, the investigator should be aware that the person's age, intelligence, mental state, and level of intoxication could all affect that person's ability to testify at trial. These issues relate to the person's what?
During the course of the interview the investigator notices that the person being interviewed begins to move around in the chair, jiggles his or her feet, and fidget. These are all signs of a lack of what?
During the course of an interview, the investigator asks the subject who is responsible for the crime being investigated if he or she committed the crime. The subject states that he or she does not know who might have committed the crime, while at the same time, he or she nods his or her head up and down. This combination of words and body movement is indicative of deception and an example of lack of what?
A sympathetic approach that uses expressions of understanding and compassion is appropriate for what type of offender?
Custody and interrogation
The Supreme Court established a two-prong test that determines when the so-called Miranda warnings must be given. this two-prong test is met when which two conditions are present?
Crimes of Violence
What include attacks on the person that produce death or serious bodily injury?
- by others
- self-inflicted injury
- physical abuse of children
Crimes of violence assaults include attacks by:
The Person
Criminal homicides, from murder to manslaughter, and common and aggravated assault are major crimes against who?
First-degree murder
What is defined as the pre-meditated killing of another human being with malice, or wrongful intent?
Second-degree murder
What involves the killing of another, without the element of premeditation?
What is defined as the unlawful killing of another without malice or premeditation either voluntarily or involuntarily?
Involuntary Manslaughter
A killing that is done in the heat of passion is an example of what?
Voluntary Manslaughter
What is the appropriate charge when the death occurs while the perpetrator was involved in the commission of an unlawful act not amounting to a felony, such as driving while intoxicated?
First Degree
If the death occurs as a result of the commission of a felony, such as arson, robbery, burglary, or sexual assault, then the felony murder rule would apply, which makes the killing one of the _____ _____ regardless of the lack of intent or premeditation.
Criminal Agency
What means the death was caused by another person's unlawful act or omission?
Suspicious Death
Police conduct what type of investigation in all cases in which the circumstances of the death indicate violence or foul play?
Foul Play
What is some criminal agency; when death occurs in a place other than the residenceof the deceased; or when the deceased is not under the care of a physician at the time of death?
Suspicious Death
What is a classification of certain unexplained deaths so that they will be investigated until either the circumstances indicate that death was due to natural, accidental, or self-inflicted causes or the criminal agency is determined and the criminal agent is identified?
What is a major method of detecting murder, and is a postmortem examination of the victim in a suspicious death case performed by a competent physician, generally a surgeon or pathologist specializing in this field, who determines the cause of death?
- Cause of death
- What means caused the death
- Was the homicide excuseable or justified
- Who was responsible for the death
The detection of criminal homicide is based on the answers to what four questions?
Autopsy Surgeon
Who shoulders the major responsibility in determining the cause of death?
The Police
Who accepts sole responsibility for identifying the person responsible for the killing?
- whether the death was caused by a criminal agency
- identify the deceased person
- cause of death
What does the basic medicolegal service determine?
Autopsy Surgeon's findings
What does the postmortem examination report contain?
- The preamble (date, place, and identity of the deceased and of witnesses to identification)
- External Appearance (site, character, and dimensions of any wounds or marks related to the cause of death)
- Internal Examination (description of brain, spinal column, organs, and contents of body)
- A reasoned opinion of the cause of death based on the facts found
- Signature of examiner (title and qualifications)
What are the five parts of the postmortem report?
Incised Wounds
What wounds are spindle-shaped in stabbing, linear in cutting?
Lacerated Wounds
What wounds are irregularly edged, with some tearing?
What wounds are bruises, discolorations, hematoma?
What wounds are scratches and trivial wounds?
Gunshot Wounds
What wounds are Shotgun: "rat hole" to dispersion; rifles and pistols: contact, entrance, and exit?
What wounds are prior to the death?
Age of wound
What wounds have signs of healing or decay?
Opinion about wound
Whether wounds are accidental, suicidal, homicidal; "hesitation" wounds in suicides, or "defense" wounds in homicide.
- body temperature
- lividity
- rigor mortis
What indicates the time of death in on-the-scene examination?
- Cause of death
- If a weapon or substance caused death, or the nature of the fatal injuries
- Time of death in relation to the wound
- Whether the scene where the body was found, is the death scene
- Evidence of chronic illness or other disease
- Evidence of blood, hair, or skin, other than the victim's
- Evidence of sexual knowledge or deviance
Classically, the autopsy report should provide information on the following:
Who is a person that speacializes in the detection of chemical, physical, and biological toxins?
- Manner of Death
- Preceding manifestations of illness and pain
- Investigation at the death scene if foul play is expected
The history in a medicolegal autopsy includes all available information and the circumstances of the case. What are the three main points?
Identification after death is determined by ______ that distinguish the deceased from from all other individuals.
- Fingerprints
- Dental Work
- Bones
- Surgical Procedures
What are the scientific means for identification of the partial remains of victims in suspicious deaths?
- Dental records
- Body x-rays
Insofar as skeletal remainsare concerned, what are the most likey means of identification?
Ante mortem
The major problem when dealing with burned, skeletal, or mutilated remains is locating the ___ ____, or before-death records of the deceased.
Tooth formation typically ends when a person is about __ years of age, however, a forensic dentist can make an estimate as to a preson's age based upon wear on the teeth and the transparency of the roots of the teeth which occurs with age.
- What was the victim doing at the time of the fatal assault?
- What activity did the victim engage in immediately before death? (24-28 hours or longer if warranted)
The time of death connects the events that happen before the crime with the actual killing in homicide cases. What are the two important questions related to this timeline?
Window of Death
Sometimes the activity in which the victim was engaged prior to or at the time of death can be timed within reasonable limits. This process is known as establishing the what?
Forensic scientist and pathologist
When there are no witnesses to a homicicde, who establishes the time of death within the window of death?
Algor Mortis
After death the begins to cool through the process of what?
After death the temperature of the body falls until it reaches the ambient air temperature, which usually occurs within ____ hours.
Algor mortis
What is considered to be one of the more reliable indicators of time of death?
Rigor mortis
Biochemical changes in the body after death produce stiffening of the muscles, or ___ ___, which usually appears within 2 to 6 hours after death.
2 to 3
In rigor mortis, the rigidity remains for how many days before it disappears in the same order in which it appears?
Postmortem Lividity
What is the process in which blood settles to the lowest part of the body due to gravity, after the circulation stops after death?
Postmortem Lividity
What is noticable approximately within one hour after death, and is fully developed within three to four hours?
- Time of Death
- Indicate change of position or movement
Lividity discoloration provides what two types of information?
- Autolysis
- Bacterial Action
Decomposition, or putrefaction, begins at the time of death as a result of what two processes?
What occurs by a chemical breakdown of the body that results in the softening and liquefaction of body tissue?
Bacterial Action
What converts body tissue into liquids and gases?
2 months
Insects that feed on dead bodies, can reduce a body to skeletal remains in less than ________ under favorable conditions.
What is the process of removing a deceased person from its place of burial that requires a court order?
- Crime Scene
- Postscene
- Lead Development
- Identification and Arrest
- Case Preparation
What are the five stages of a criminal homicide investigation?
- The Anger Killing
- The Triangle Killing
- The Revenge or Jealousy Killing
- Killing for Profit
- The Random Killing
- Murder-Suicide
- Sex and Sadism
- Felony Murder
What are the eight basic patterns of criminal homicide?
Anger Killing
When a dispute occurs, anger develops, the victim is attacked with or without weapons, and fatally injured.
The Triangle Killing
If a wife is dea, and another woman is involved in a romantic triangle, grounds exist for suspecting that the husband wished to rid himself of an unwanted wife.
What is the killing of a number of victims by one or more persons working in concert?
Mass Murder
What is the homicide of four or more victims during a single event at one location?
Spree Murder
What is the killing of three or more persons within a relatively short amount of time?
Serial Murder
What is two or more separate murders when an individual, acting alone or with another, commits multiple homicides over a period of time with time breaks between each murder event?
Visionary Serial Killer
What type of killer is propelled to kill by voices he or she hears or visions he or she sees? He is out of tuch with reality and in psychotic.
Mission Serial Killer
What type of killer feels a need on a conscious level to eradicate a certain group of people? He is in touch with reality buts acts upon a self-imposed duty to rid the world of a certain class of people: ie, prostitutes, religious, or racial groups.
Hedonistic Killer
The lust killer or thrill killer is a subtype of this category. The killer has made the connection between personal violence and sexual gratification. These offenders murder because they derive pleasure from the act, killing for them is eroticized. They are process focused, taking some time to complete, and include torture, mutilation, and other fear-instilling activities.
Power and Control Serial Killer
What type of killer receives sexual gratification from the complete domination of his victim? He is psychologically rooted in reality, and is a true sociopath who lives by his own personal rules and guidelines.
Comfort-Oriented Serial Murderer
What type of killer kills for personal gain, such as professional assassins?
Organized Offenders
What offenders are usually above average in intelligence ? They are methodical and cunning, and their crimes are generally well thought out and carefully planned. Fantasy and ritual are important to them, most of their victims share common traits. They are considered socially adept and use verbal skills to manipulate their victims or gain control of them. They are likely to follow news reports and keep souvenirs from their crimes to relive them.
Disorganized Offenders
What offenders are inadequate individuals who are experiencing intense sadistic sexual fantasies and may suddenly act out these fantasies on a victim of opportunity? Their actions and behavior could be viewed as psychotic, and they are usually of below average intelligence. They are generally loners who are not married, live alone or with a relative in close proximity to the crime scene.
Clustered Crime Scene
What type of scene involves a situation where most of the activities take place at one location: the confrontation, the attack, the assault, and the sexual activity?
What is defined as an intentional course of conduct that; is directed at a specific person or persons, seriously alarms, annoys, intimidates, or harasses the victim, and serves no legitimate purpose?
Celebrity Stalker
What type of stalker is known by the victim on an impersonal level - actor, sports star?
Lust Stalker
What type of stalker is, predatory sex (in which the victim is a starnger to the assailant), escalates to murder?
Hit Stalker
What type of stalker is a professional killer?
Love-Scorned Stalker
What type of stalker intends violence against a known victim?
Domestic Stalker
What type of stalker is the ex-lover or spouse, "get even" violence?
Political Stalker
What type of stalker is where a selected victim is a stranger to the assailant?
What is an unlawful attempt, coupled with the present ability, to commit an injury on another person?
What is an unlawful beating or other wrongful physical harm inflicted on a human being without his or her consent?
Aggravated Assault
What is an assault with a deadly weapon or an assault in which serious injury is inflicted with or without a weapon?
Violent Injury
What term is synonymous with force in assault cases, and includes any application of physical force even if it entails no pain or bodily harm and leaves no marks?
Dying Declaration
If a victim is in extremis (near death) and is aware of impending death, the officer may secure a ____ ____ indicating the victim's mental condition and circumstances of the attack.
What is the word used describing a verbal dispute?
- The Scene
- Dispute Origin
- Weapon
- Negative Evidence
Data in assault investigations are usually organized within the following 4 major segments:
Child Abuse
What is the intentional and deliberate assault upon a child in which serious bodily injury is inflicted by a parent, foster parent, babysitter, day-care worker, or other person in a non-parental relationship?
Battered Child Syndrome
In most areas of the U.S. cases of child abuse brought to the attention of police, or discovered by them, are properly classed as ____ _____ _____.
- Damage to the skin (bruises, burns, lacerations, abrasions, or swelling)
- Brain damage (convulsions, coma, retardation)
- Bone damage ( pain on movement, deformity)
- Internal Injuries (shock, abdominal pain, signs of internal bleeding)
Signs of physiacal abuse, in the absence of a reasonable explanation, for the injury, include the following (4):
Burns make up __ percent of all child abuse cases.
Immersion burns
What is a result from a child's falling or being placed into a tub or other container of hot liquid?
Deliberate Immersion Burn
In this type of burn, the depth of the burn is uniform.
Contact Burns
What kind of burns are caused by flames or hot solid objects? Cigarette and iron burns are the most frequent types of such injuries.
Shaken Baby Syndrome
What occurs primarily in children 18 months of age or younger because their necks lack muscle control and their heads are heavier than the rest of their bodies? The baby begins to show symptoms such as seizures or unconsciousness within minutes of the injury being inflicted.
Retinal Hemorrhage
A classic medical symptom associated with shaken baby syndrome is _____ _____, which is bleeding in the back of the eyeballs.
Munchausen Syndrome
What is a psychological disorder in which the patient fabricates the symptoms of disease or injury in order to undergo medical tests, hospitalization, or even medical or surgical treatment?
Munchausen Symdrome by proxy
What is a case of a parent or caretaker suffering from a disorder, that attempts to bring medical attention to themselves by injuring or inducing illness in their children?
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
What is not a positive finding, but rather a diagnosis made when no other medical explanation can account for the abrupt death of an apparently healthy infant? This rarley occurs in infants older than 7 months, and is almost never an appropriate finding for a child older than 12 months.
- Delays in seeking mediacal care
- Injuries not reported by parent or guardian
- Bruises or broken bones in an infant
- Age dating of bruises indicationg that they were sustained at different times
- Characteristic wraparound bruises indicating that they were caused whipping with a belt, rope, or electrical cord
- Discrepancies in the story of a parent or guardian as to how the injuries happened
What are factors likely to influence physicians to link discovered injuries in a child with child abuse?
What type of physician conduct postmortem examinations?
Forcible Rape
What is an act of violence? It is not a crime of sexual desire but an act of brutal violence, as in murder with intent and malice.
In common law, this was known as carnal knowledge (sexual intercourse) of a woman with force and without her consent.
- force or the threat of the use of force
- administration of drugs ( including alcoholic beverages)
- incapacity to consent (victim's physical or mental condition or age)
The means used to overcome the will of the female victim is of major importance in rape investigations. What are the 3 main ways?
Aggravated Rape
In the terminology of state legislature, rape is said to be ______ ____ when the rapist is armed with a dangerous weapon, kidnaps the victim, inflicts bodily injury, or is in a position of trust in regard to the victim such as official authority (custody or control) or a familial relationship.
Date rape or Acquaintance Rape
What is male sexual aggression in which the female half of a twosome is forced to have sexual intercourse? This is not a blitz rape in which the victim does not know the offender, or where the offender immediately threatens or employs force to overcome his victim.
Forcible Rape
The prevalence of forced sex among dates and acquaintances may be increasing, but what is more likely is that victims are now more aware of their basic rights. This so-called simple rape, after years of unreporting, is now being reported for what it is:
Rape Trauma Syndrome
The apparent shock in a victim of a reported rape is ___ ____ ____, and may require immediate ttransportation to a hospital with emergency services.
- verbal activity, particularly threats
- display of a weapon
- physical force
Rapist usually control their victims by some combonation of what 3 things?
The Anger Rapist or Anger Retalliation Rapist
This rapist commits the crime of rape as a means of expressing and discharging feelings of pent up anger and rage. They use far more force than is neccesary to overpower the victim and achieve sexual penetration.
The Power Rapist
This rapist uses sex as a means of compensating for underlying feelings of inadequacy and to express issues of mastery, strength, authority, and control over another person.
Power Reassurance Rapist
A type of power rapist is the least violent of all the rapists and the least socially competent, suffering from low self-esteem, and feeling inadequacy. The reason he rapes is to elate his own self-status. He may later contact the victim to inquire about the ill effects of the rape.
Power Assertive Rapist
A type of power rapist that rapes to express his virility and personal dominance. He has a sense of superiority simply because he is a man and he rapes because he believes he is entitled to do so. He is image conscious, and tends to be a flashy dresser.
Sadistic Rapist
This type of rapist finds the intentional maltreatment of his victim intnsely gratifying and takes pleasure in her torment, anguish, distress, helplessness, and suffering.
More than half (55%) of the cases constitute power rape, approximately __ percent are anger rapes, and about 5% are sadistic rapes.
Rapes are primarily about ____ and not sexual desire.
Mistaken Identity
When a defendant denies any involvement in a rape, the most common defense is ____ ____ plus an alibi for the time of the rape.
When the defendant admits to sexual intercourse with the victim, the usual defense is that of _______.
Sperm and Blood
What are two common forms of evidence in rape cases?
Statutory Rape
What type of rape involves consensual sex relations between two persons, in which one of the parties is a minor who, by statute, is considered incapable of consenting to a sexual act?
Nuisance Sexual Behaviors
Sexual acts that cause no obvious physical harm to the victim or the practitioner are known as _____ ______ _____.
______is the act of receiving sexual arousal by looking at private or intimate scenes which contain a sexual component. (Peeping Tom)
_____ is the intentional and deliberate exposure of a person's genitalia to an unsuspecting stranger. (Flasher) The reaction of the victim is important.
____ is the erotic gratification gained from the from the telephone conversation between the caller and the victim rather than from any form of sexual contact. This person wants the victim to be shocked, disgusted, or even horrified by his demeanour or words.
______ is the realization of sexual gratification from rubbing against certain body parts of another person.
A person commits a crime of ____ when he or she has sexual intercourse with a person known to be within the relationship of parent/child, brother/sister, uncle/aunt, or niece/nephew.
Psychological Incest
So-called ____ _____ is sexual activity between a child and a stepparent, fosterparent, or a live-in boyfriend of a child's mother.
A _______ is someone who "loves" children, but this love of children is a sexual interest that ranges from fondling to mutilation and murder.
Love of children
Situational Child Molester
This type of molester has fewer victims, and does not have a true sexual interest in children, but will experiment with them when the opportunity presents itself.
Regressed Child Molester
This molester experience a situational occurence that impels this this pedophile to turn to children as a temporary, not permanent, object for sexual gratification.
Morally Indiscriminate Child Molester
This molester is an abuser of all available persons; children are just another category of victim. This offender has a basic motivation toward sexual experimentaion and is willing to try anything; nothing is taboo for this offender.
Naive or Inadequate Child Molester
This molester includes those persons who are suffering some form of mental disorder that renders them unable to make the distinction between right and wrong, including sexual practices with children.
Preferential Child Molester
This molester views children more intensely as providers of sexual pleasure, and prefers children as sexual partners and is the true pedophile.
Fixated Child Molester
This molester is often childlike in lifestyle and behaviors. This offender selects children because they are less demanding, more easily dominated, and less critical.
Sadistic Child Molester
This molester has made a vital connection between sexual gratification and personal violence. This offender will often abduct children from places where children gather. This offender has no "love" for the child, and is interested only in causing harm or death to a vulnerable victim.
_______ and the internet have made the predator's job easier.
Observant and Articulate
In forming an opinion about the child's competency, investigator's should be mindful that the child must be _____ and _____, know truth as opposed to lies, and understand that a witness must testify truthfully.
Any young person under the legal adult age who, without permission of parent or guardian, remains away from his or her home for twenty-four hours or more is generally termed as a _____ by local police.
Diaper Squad
Police in large cities often field a ____ _____ to patrol local bus stations and "gut" areas containing such occupancies as adult theaters and adult bookstores, and areas where prostitutes operate.
What is an aggressive reaction and is generally focused on sex sale? Less aggressive runaways are picked up by pimps and sometimes forced into prostitution.
1982 Mmissing Children's Act
The ____ _____ _____ Act placed federal resources at the service of local police. The Missing Person File of the FBI's National Crime Information Center is being used in searching for missing children believed to have been abducted.
- Find the child
- Identify and locate the suspect
Abduction investigators must move promptly along what two general lines?
- Taking of personal property from the person or the presence of a possessor
- Taking against the possessor's will
- Taking by force or fear
What are the essential elements of robbery?
______ is generally divided into degrees to express the legislative intent that armed robberies are more serious than unarmed robberies.
First Degree Roberry
Robbery while armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon likely to cause death or serious wounding.
Second Degree Robbery
Robbery accomplished by physical force or its threat but without a weapon, including purse snatching.
In ____ the victim consents more willingly than robbery, and consent may be induced by persuasive threats that are related to future harm or disgrace rather than here-and-now harm.
Badger Game
This is an extortion scheme in which a woman places a selected victim in a comprising position and then victimizes him by demanding money. Next her male accomplice breaks in and pretends to be an outraged husband threatening violence, scandal, or the like.
- The Ambush
- Selective-Raid Robbery
- Planned-Operation Robbery
Robbery is categorized as what three styles?
Ambush Robbery
What is the least planned robbery of all and is based on the element of surprise?
Selective-Raid Robbery
What robbery involves a minimum of planning but involves some casing of the robbery scene?
Planned-Operation Robbery
What type of robbery is carefully structured: the robbery group examines all aspects of the situation and plans for all foreseeable contingencies, and may engage in practice runs?
Spontanous Play Groups
Crime partners usually are associates from ___ ___ ___ in the underworld.
Backup Person
Who is a member of the gang who remains in the background unnoticed and, in case of trouble, supports the members of the gang who are actually committing the robbery?
______ in recording the statements of witnesses is of primary importance. Investigators should not encourage a witness to guess or record a guess as a fact and should not suggest facts to a witness is unsure.
The ____ of a target in robberies offers clues about who did it.
Single-Teller Bank Robbery
Robbery in which a person armed with a note and some threat of force victimized only one teller.
Automatic Teller Machines (ATM)
What are now popular as robbery targets for younger and potentially violent robbers?
Victims By Chance
Pedestrians and victims who are accosted in vehicles when stopped at a traffic signal, picking up a hitchhiker, accepting a taxi passenger, operating a bus, or responding to a telephone order to deliver food are ____ __ ____ .
Examples of grounds for attacking the credibility of the identification or evidence.
-Suggestive use of photographs.
-Failure to safeguard the rights of the accused in placing a suspect or arrestee in a police linbeup.
-Conflict between the description given by the witness and the actual appearance of the defendant in court.
-Conflict between the weapon described by witnesses, or "constructively described" by the nature of the injuries inflicted on the victim, and the weapon presented in court as the robbery weapon.
-Conflict between the vehicle, if any, involved in the robbery as described by witnesses and the actual vehicle used in the robbery.
Fixed TV surveillance cameras
What kind of cameras have become an increasingly important tool in the identification of robbers?
Career Criminals
____ _____ are offenders who have had previous arrests, have one to two cases pending in the local courts, and are on the street on some form of conditional release at the time of their latest arrest.
Aggravated Robbery
____ ____ is the violent crime favored by repeat offenders.
The theft or attempted theft of a motor vehicle by force or threat of force from the person or the immediate presence of the victim - is armed robbery and a felony level crime.
Identifying the suspect as the robber, proving the victim was separated from their property by force or against the victim's will
The first and second major problems of proof in a robbery case are.....?
___ alone are not legally significant unless the victim testifies that he or she believed the robber had the intent to carry them out, as well as the apparent ability to do so promptly.
Home Invasion Robberies
Residential robberies are also known as ____ ____ ____.
Lone victims of a robbery are symptomatic of _____ robberies.
Improper Lineup Procedures
The most common defense in a robbery case is on based on ____ _____ _____.
Person and Property
Fires set by arsonists and explosives placed to damage property and kill or inflict injury on people are crimes against both ____ and _____.
Sir William Blackstone
__ _____ _____, in his Commentaries on the Laws of England, defined arson as the "malicious and willful burning of the house or outhouse of another man."
In common law, _____ was considered an offense against the home (habitation).
-The fire occurred
-The burning was not accidental, and was the result of a criminal agency
-The defendant is identified as the person who set the fire
What facts must be proven in any prosecution of an arson case?
Aggravated Arson
Any arson where there are explosives used, and people are present at the site or are placed in danger.
Seek evidence to prove whether a fire was of natural or accidental origin
In investigating a burning, the investigator must first.....
Rationally motivated fire
Fire that is based on hate, profit, or desire to conceal the crime is...?
Irrationally motivated
What arsonists are pathological fire setters?
Inverted conical shape with the apex of the cone at the place of origin
Fire burns upward from its original ignition in an .........
_______ in structural fires usually is defined in terms of ignitability, rate of heat release, and total heat release.
What is rapid development of the fire that occurs when the volume of active fire becomes a significant portion of the room volume, and all previously uninvolved combustibles ignite?
Wind and terrain
What factors influence fire patterns in outdoor fires?
What are often used to spread fires from a point of ignition, and can be considered a secondary incendiary device, carrying the fire from the point of origin, to other parts of the room or building?
What is the examination and search by firefighters for hidden flames or sparks that might rekindle the fire?
Passive Headspace Concentration Method
A popular method for separating flammable and combustible liquid residues from fire is a method where an absorbent material such as activated charcoal is used to extract the residue from static headspace above the sample, then the absorbent is eluted with a solvent.
-Determination of Cause
-Scene Investigation Patterns
-Scene Processing
-Case Building
-Identification and Arrest
-Case Preparation
What are the six stages of a bombing investigation?
What explosive tagging program at the federal level, involves adding coded micro particles to explosives during their manufacture?
-The claim that the fire was caused by an accident, natural causes, or misfortune
-If the fire was criminal, the defendant was not the perpetrator
What two common defenses create problems of proof in prosecuting arson cases?
Hate Crimes
What crime are committed by individuals or organizations of people who engage in antisocial and illegal behavior, and pose a danger to agents of the criminal justice system and to the general public?
Mind Control
What is the use of undue influence and unethical means to recruit and retain members?
A fire that is started due to some real or imagined dispute with another person is an arson motivated by ____.
A person who has an obsession to set fires or has a preference for arson as an instrument of damage is known as a _______.
Property crimes
What crimes are committed for the personal gain of the perpatrator? (burglary, theft, and fraud)
- a breaking
- an entry
- at night
- of a dwelling house
- belonging to another
- an intent to commit a felony
In the past, conviction of common-law burglary required the proof of what six essential elements?
- entry
- of a building
- with intent to steal or commit another felony
In most jurisdictions today, convictions for burglary requires what three basic or essential elements?
Burglaries of residential properties accounted for ___ percent of all burglaries.
Professional Burglars
____ _____ are defined as those persons who work at burglary as a trade, making their living by burglary and larcent alone and having no other means of income.
Amateur Burglar
The ____ ____ includes the burglar who commits crimes primarily to secure money for drugs.
- unskilled
- semiskilled
- professional
What are the three categories of burglar typology?
Who is a receiver of stolen goods that converts them to cash?
- needs
- opportunities
- means (skills)
- satifaction
- choice
What is the five-step behavior cycle in burglary?
- punching
- pulling
- peeling
- ripping
- drilling
- burning
- blasting
- carrying away
What are the eight patterns of force generally used to attack safes?
- the means of gaining entry
- what the burglar did while on the premises
- how the burglar exited the premises
What three major phases of the burglary scene investigation?
Currently, ____ is defined in most states as the unlawful taking or stealing of property or articles without the use of force or violence.
Household Larceny
Theft or attempted theft of property or cash from a residence or the immediate vicinity of the residence is _____ _____. The thief must have a legal right to be in the house--as a guest or maid, for example.
Personal Crimes of Theft (Personal Larceny)
____ ____ is the theft or attempted theft of property or cash by stealth, in either of the followig manners:
a. with contact but without force or threat of force
b.without direct contact between the victim and the offender
Personal Larceny with Contact
____ _____ with _____ is the theft or attempted theft of property or cash directly from the victim by stealth but not by force or the threat of force.
To steal money and/or valuable property, requires planning, directoin, and operating skills. This is the ____ to the thief.
Modus operandi searches are rewarding in theft investigations because thieves are known as _____-_____ offenders.
The real success in stealing is not the completion of the crime itself but the ____ of the stolen property at a profit - without leaving a trace that so often identifies the perpetrators of these crimes.
Storefront or "sting" technique
The ______ is an investigative technique in property crimes aimed at the wholesale identification and apprehension of thieves, where police pose as fences for the purpose of "buying" stolen property.
The vast majority, __ percent, of the vehicles stolen were automobiles.
Auto Theft
____ ____ is the term generally used by police in describing larceny involving vehicles.
____ usually attacked parked cars, taking a variety of parts readily disposed of on the local black market. (stereos, CDs, batteries, etc)
____ steal a car, tow or drive it to a "chop shop" and have it cut up for most of its parts.
___ is the term business uses for the loss of inventory from employee theft.
- incidental
- situational
- continual
Generally employee theft falls within what three categories?
Incidental Theft
What kind of theft involves incidents when employees consume the employer's product while on the job or take home items such as pens and pencils at the end of the day?
Situational Theft
What kind of theft involves those instances when the employee is presented with an opportunity for theft that, in the employee's mind, must be acted on?
Continual Theft
What theft involves ongoing, constant acts of theft by an employee. This type of theft is usually motivated by the need to support a vice of the employee, such as gambling, drugs, or alcohol.
Once the surveillance confirms that the employee is the responsible party, the employee should be _______ while still in possession of the money or merchandise an then questioned.
What is defined as a nonviolent crime involving elements of intentional deceit, concealment, corruption, misrepresentation, and abuse of trust to gain property of another, and it is often facilitated by the willing cooperation of unaware or unknowning victims?
Fraud Auditing
What is a new occupational specialty in commercial and industrial employment, that is tasked with detecting and preventing frauds in commercial transactions?
- criminal intent (mens rea)
- wrongful objective (deprive true owner of property)
- disguise or conceaqlment of objective (wrongful)
- reliance on victim's cupidity, carelessness, or compassion
What are the four common characteristics of fraud?
- pigeon drop
- payoff
- carnival bunco
What are some of the more common swindles classed as bunco or con games?
Pigeon Drop (pocketbook drop)
The victim is conned into withdrawing an amount of cash that is equal to "found" cash as a show of good faith. As the con counts the money, it is switched with phony paper cut to the size of bills.
Carnival Bunco
Victims are taken for small amounts of money at "rigged" games or challenges.
Credit Card Fraud
Thieves obtain credit cards by theft (mail, residences, auto, place of business) by fraudulent application to the issuing firm or by counterfeiting.
Bait and Switch
Advertised merchandise bargains lure customers into a merchant's place of business. The salesperson then runs down the advertised item, and switch the customer to a higher-priced item of alledgedly better quality.
Repair Fraud
Overcharging for services performed; charging for services not performed or parts not replaced.
Failing to give the true facts about product performance, warranties, credit charges, or other hidden costs.
Ponzi Scheme (kiting)
In this scheme, the swindler uses money invested by new victims to pay high interest on investments of earlier victims, whose money the swindler has appropriated to his or her own use. This scheme collapses when the swindler runs out of victims.
Securities Fraud
What frauds are based on promises to victims of rapid capital growth and a high and quick rate of returns in dividends.
Land-sales Fraud
Frauds based on the misrepresentations about the value and future development of worthless, unimproved land.
Advance-fee Frauds
What frauds victimize businesspeople who are having problems securing loans from banks or other lending institutions. The advance fee (to the swindler) is to motivate the loan arranger to arrange the loan.
Home-Improvement Frauds
What fraud victimizes homeowners by false claims that the work is necessary or that the cost of the proposed work is far below its real worth and will add to the homeowner's basic equity?
Bankruptcy Frauds
What frauds involves filing false claims to gain insurance payments?
- embezzlement
- computer fraud
What are two major frauds in the workplace?
What is the conversion of another's property over which the thief has custody or control?
Identity Theft
The thief is an imposter that uses the identity of another person to apply for and recieve credit cards under his/her assumed identity.
Burglary is ususally a _____ crime in that the burglar normally tries to avoid contact with the victims.
- narcotics
- sedatives
- stimulants
- hallucinogens
What are the four major groups of common drugs that can lead to drug dependence or addiction?
A drug that depresses the nervous system that usually leads to physical and psychological dependence.
Like narcotics, these cause both psychological and physical dependence, but the dependence develops more slowly. They are also central nervous system depressants.
Amphetamines and methamphetamines. These drugs cause a rapid buildup of tolerance so that additional quantities are needed to achieve the same stimulating effects, and leads to quick psychological dependence.
These drugs cause sensory distortions and result in illusions and delusions. They are psychedelic, or "mind-expanding" drugs.
What is derived from a morphine base, when blended with hydrochloric acid and forms into a salt, ranges in color from white or ivory, to dull or brownish gray, and is usually administered intravenously?
Analgesic effect
Kill pain
Sopoforic Agents
Induce drowsiness, lethargy, and sleep.
A feeling of well-being and tranquility.
What is a stimulant usually derived from the leaves of the South American coca bush, and sometimes from bushes grown in the West Indies, Java, India, and Ceylon? It produces feelings of exhilaration and euphoria, and it increases the user's energy level and supresses fatigue.
When cocaine is ____, it is dissolved in etherand then heated to boil off the impurities. What remains is a pure form of cocaine which is then ground up and smoked.
Which s made by soaking cocaine in baking soda and water. The mixture is them heated until the water is driven off. The resulting crystals are then crushed into pea-sized rocks and smoked.
What consists of leaves and flowering tops of the female hemp plant (Cannabis sativa, C. indica) cultivated in many temperate zones of the world?
There are approximately ___ different chemicals in marijuana.
What is the psychoactive agent in marijuana (delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinal)
- hashish
- hashish oil
What are the two derivatives of marijuana?
The resin of the marijuana flower is dried and compressed to make ______, which has the THC level of 8 to 14 percent.
Hash Oil
Amber to dark brown, ___ ___ is produced by boiling hashish in alcohol. It is sold as a viscous liquid with a THC level between 15 to 50 percent.
What is also known as speed and crank? It has the same effects as cocaine and is often referred to as "poor man's cocaine."
A chronic user of methamphetamine is known as a what?
What is a purified from of methamphetamine that is usually smoked in a glass pipe?
10 to 25
One gram of ice is enough for __ to __ hits.
8 hours
The effects of crack wear off within 10 to 20 minutes, while the effects of ice last for _ hours or more.
What is a major component in allergy and cold medications used in the production of methamphetamines?
Clandestine Laboratories
What produces all of the illicit methamphetamines that is consumed in the United States?
Today Mexican drug traffickers control approximately __ percent of all the meth sold in the United States.
Lab operators
5 to 6
The production of each pound of meth produces an estimated _ to _ pounds of hazardous waste.
$3,500 and $4,500
The average cost of cleaning up a small lab is between ___ and ___.
Quarter of a million dollars
The cost of cleaning up a super lab site can cost as much as ________.
Originally developed as a general anesthetic for surgical procedures, what has the street name of angel dust, dust, and PCP? It's use for surgery was abandoned due to its ability to produce hallucinogenic side effects.
Lysergic Acid Diethylamide or LSD
What is a semisynthetic drug derived from a fungus that contaminates rye bread, that can produce hallucinations with good and bad experiences?
10 to 12
LSD can produce hallucinations lasting __ to __ hours.
What is methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), developed in 1912 as an appetite suppressant, and is a stimulant like meth and a hallucinogenic like LSD?
A sleeping pill not licensed in the United States, known as "roofies", frequently used with alcohol in the United States, produces disinhibition and amnesia. It is also known as the "date rape drug."
Who informs street dealers about police presence?
Who transports small quantities from the stash to the dealer to wherever the drugs are being sold?
A ___ is a normal prelude to an application for a search warrant in illegal drugs and narcotics cases.
-Physical and electronic surveillance
-Analysis of phone records from a suspects phone
-A survey of car rental contracts, credit card purchases, hotel and motel registrations, and major cash purchases
-Tracing "laundered" cash
Usually, corroboration results from an investigator collecting bits and pieces of information from techniques such as:
Lateral Snitching
What is informing only on drug sellers who are equal to or lower than themselves in the drug-marketing pyramid?
What is a built-in hiding place usually constructed by a skilled carpenter - containing a major stash?
Search Warrant
Legally, the authority for a raid is a ___ ___ authorizing police officers to enter a specific premise to seize illicit drugs believed to be in the described premises.
Illicit drugs were planted by the informant or the arresting officer.
The purpose of the _____ law is not to prevent the unwary criminal from being trapped in a crime; instead, it is to prevent the police officer from manufacturing crime.
____ laws, which regulate standards for public morals, are not usually aggressively enforced unless someone is offended and lodges a complaint or unless the activity occurs publicly.
The Line
In sports wagering, betting odds are commonly referred to as, __ ___.
People who take illegal bets are known as?
Unity Of Action
The characteristic that most distinguishes the crime syndicate (organized crime) is _____ __ _____.
The second major characteristic of syndicate operations is the _____ of weak and foolish public officials to secure immunity from arrest and successful prosecution.
Death to the Informer
The third major characteristic of syndicate operations is the extension of the creed of ______ __ ___ ______ to justify the killing of anyone who interferes with the operations of organized crime.
Asian criminal organizations, made up primarily of Chinese and Vietnamese persons, are ethnic crime groups that resemble other "families" of organized crime, in this case called _____.
Who is a major source of evidence in a case?
With the advent of the internet in ____, new opportunities were presented to criminals to expand their activities to a larger scale, including worldwide operations.
_____ now includes the crimes of theft, vandalism, counterfeiting, fraud, child pornography, child molestation, and terrorism.
_____ are, in essence, trespassers-intruders who enters into another's computer system without authorization.
What are three types of recognized hackers?
Who are often antisocial misfits who are more comfortable online in front of a computer than with other people? They tend to be intelligent, curious, and have a high degree of expertise with computers.
Computer Criminal
Who engages in fraud, sabotage, industrial sabotage, and theft, and are known as the mercenaries of cyberspace?
Computer Vandals
Who are motivated by revenge due to some real or imagined wrong. Their tools include viruses, Trojan horses, worms, and logic bombs.
Computer Virus
What is a type of malicious code that replicates itself and inserts copies or versions of itself in other programs?
Presently, well over ______ viruses are known worldwide.
Trojan Horses
What are stand-alone programs that are disguised as other programs that innocent users pass to one another, usually in the form of an email attachment?
What are like viruses, but they do not replicate. Instead they make duplicates of themselves, and steal system resources as they do so.
Logic Bombs
What are programs within programs that perform destructive acts based upon a trigger event?
Salami Fraud
What refers to a technique of taking small slices to deceptively acquire "the whole salami?"
Sexual Tourism
What is travel with the intent to engage in sexual behavior for commercial gain or personal gratification?
-The apprehensive, panic-driven, fearful driver
-The projectionist-projects guilt
-The sneak-inflicts minor property damage
What three categories have hit-and-run drivers been grouped into based on their possible motivation for flight?
Apprehensive Driver
What hit-and-run driver has the greater sin to hide, either morally or criminally? (DWI, no insurance, no DL, secret acquaintance in the vehicle, stolen vehicle, possessing stolen goods, etc)
Projectionist Driver
What hit-and-run driver tries the case-sitting as judge and jury, he/she finds the other driver at fault, refuses to be a party of the accident, and drives off as the offended person?
Sneak Operator
What hit-and-run driver crushes a fender and smashes grillwork as daily occupational activities and chalks up the action as calculated risk shared by all vehicle owners who place their vehicles on the roadway?
Search for evidence
The most important step in the hit-and-run investigation is the __ __ ___.
Female undercover officers, or volunteer decoys, are used to arrest, ___, who solicit females for prostitution.
What is defined as a "violent act or an act dangerous to human life in violation of the criminal laws of the United States or of any state to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objective."
What is the most common terrorist tactic because when properly placed, they can inflict massive numbers of casualties?
______ of airliners, cruise ships, and other means of means of mass transportation have been committed primarily for their propaganda value.
What can be committed for means of collecting a ransom, or a useful propaganda tool if the subject is well-known?
What was a technique developed by the IRA to cripple rather than kill, involving shooting an informant in the back of the knee, causing them to crippled for life?
Vandalism is a crime of choice for ______, who are dedicated to destroying the lumber industry, due to its perceived negative impact on the environment.
Tree Spiking
What involves driving metal spikes into trees in logging areas, for the purpose of damaging logging equipment?
What involves hacking into automated control systems that run networks for electricity, water, gas, oil, communications, and more?
Produce pure terror or paralyzing fear
What is the first and foremost objective of terrorism?
Attract attention and gain sympathy through publicity
What is the second major purpose of terrorism?
Provoke the existing political establishment to commit counter atrocities
What is the third purpose for terrorist atrocities?
Domestic Terrorism
What refers terrorist activities that occur primarily within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States?
Ku Klux Klan
What can be traced back to 1865 in Pulaski, TN, when a small group of Confederate veterans gathered to form a social club?
Between 1889 and 1941 some _____ blacks were lynched by Klansmen for "crimes" and alleged "crimes" ranging from attempting to vote to being disrespectful to a white person.
The Turner Diaries
In 1985 William Pierce, a white supremacist headquartered in West Virginia, wrote what novel under the pseudonym of Andrew MacDonald, that is a fictional account of an international white revolution and a how-to manual for terrorism?
Timothy McVeigh
Who was responsible for the bombing of the Murrah Federal Building in Oklahoma City, and had a well worn copy of the Turner Diaries in his possession at the time of his arrest in 1995?
In 1983 Robert Jay Mathews, inspired by the Turner Diaries, founded the ____, a violent white supremacist group.
The Order was responsible for the 1984 murder of talk radio host Alan Berg, who regularly lambasted the _______ movement.
Robert Jay Mathews
___ ____ ___ was traced to Whidbey Island in Washington, where he died in an FBI led siege, and is considered a martyr and an inspiration to other hate groups.
Animal Liberation Front (ALF) and Earth Liberation Front (ELF)
What are two political left-wing, violent single issue groups that have surfaced that focus on one particular issue to the exclusion of all others? Both groups have been nonviolent towards humans, but they have committed many incidents of property destruction.
What group was founded in England by activists who split from the environmentalist group, EarthFirst! because of its decision to abandon criminal activities?
What group members favor direct action to protest animal abuse, with the objective of saving as many animals as possible?
$100 million
The FBI estimates that ELF alone has caused about____ in property damage since 1996.
International Terrorism
What is defined as occurring primarily outside of the territorial jurisdiction of the United States or transcending national boundaries?
Al Qaeda
What is the most dangerous international terrorist group known as "the base" or "the base of Allah's support?"
Osama Bin Laden
Al qaeda was founded by ____ __ ____ in the early 1980s to support the effort in Afghanistan against the invasion by the former Soviet Union.
Who are known as "holy warriors", that were supported by the United States in their fight against the Soviet Union?
When Israel invaded Lebanon in 1982, Iran responded by sending Revolutionary Guards to Lebanon, which led to the creation of a new terrorist network called _____, or "the party of God."
One of the most volatile militant organizations in the Middle East is the Islamic Resistance Movement, better known as _____.
Hama's position is that the State of ____ should not exist.
Dar al-Islam
What is one great Arabic banner, stretching from Northern Africa to the Iranian border, known as __ __ ____?
In ____ the Muslim Brotherhood formed Hamas, and Arabic acronym for Harakat al-Muqawama al-Islamiyya, or "Islamic Resistance Movement."
Chemical Agents
What includes choking gases such as phosgene and chlorine, blood agents including hydrogen cyanide and cyanogens chloride, blister agents such as mustard gas, and nerve agents such as sarin?
Biological Agents
What are available to terrorists in a number of different ways, such as purchasing from one of the world's 1,500 germ banks, theft from a research laboratory, isolation and cultivation from natural resources, or through a rogue state sponsor of terrorism?
In October of 2001, a series of _____-laced letters were mailed to political and media targets.
Radioactive Agents
Radiological terrorism involves the dispersion of _______ _______ by conventional means, most commonly known as "dirty bombs."
Nuclear Terrorism
What involves detonation of a nuclear device in major metropolitan area causing massive casualties?
Signal Intelligence
What is used to intercept financial data and monitor communications such as land-line and cell phones and email messages?
Human Intelligence
What is a critical component, therefore, and the first step in this process is a cooperative venture with intelligence agencies and law enforcement investigators, which is the purpose of the of the Joint Terrorism concept? Another source of this is the development of informants affiliated with terrorist organizations or their support groups.
Director of National Intelligence
Who is responsible for coordinating the various components of the intelligence community?
-Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
-Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
-National Security Agency (NSA)
-Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
What four agencies are major parts of the intelligence community?
Direct or Circumstantial
An investigation should be considered incomplete until evidence, _____ __ _____, has been secured of an overt act that constitutes a "substantial step" in furtherance of the conspiracy.
Federal Bureau of Investigation
The agency responsible for collecting intelligence on terrorist groups inside the borders of the United States is known as the ____ ____ _ _____.
Central Intelligence Agency
The agency responsible for collecting intelligence outside the borders of the United States by the use of covert human and technological assets to gather information on terrorist activities and is known as the ____ ____ _ _____.
National Security Agency
The technological unit of the intelligence community whose primary mission is to collect communications and signal intelligence and conduct code-breaking activities is known as the ____ ____ ____.
_____-____ is often difficult, but it is vital to the integrity of an investigator's testimony.
Stage Fright
What is a nebulous fear, often based on no more than a reluctance to get up and talk in front of a group of people?
-Planning Ahead
-Mentally scan past experiences that can be termed "satisfactory", and relax in the thought that such past experiences will be helpful.
-Remember that anxiety at this time is nothing more than the body preparing you to do your best.
What three things help control stage fright?
Direct Examination
What is the first questioning of a witness that is not within the scope of any previous examination, conducted by the party calling the witness?
What examination is conducted by the defense counsel, and likely to be aggressive?
One Idea
When on the witness stand, normally, each sentence should express no more than __ ___.
Nonverbal Communication
What is a process of a person transmitting unspoken cues that have potential meaning to one or more observers?
When being asked a question, make eye contact with the questioner, when responding, make eye contact, and address the ___.
-Noncorrupt Misconduct
Law enforcement ethics includes what two distinguishable topics?
What involves an officer's misuse of police authority for personal gain?
Police _____ may involve issues such as excessive use of force, violation of a suspect's constitutional rights, and a variety of other misdeeds.
Ethical Awareness
What warns a person that criminal behavior is "wrong" as well as unlawful, and warns that misconduct on the job is "wrong" substandard conduct?
Reasonable Care
What is care fairly and properly taken in response to the circumstances of a situation, such care as an ordinary and prudent person would take in the same time frame, conditions, and act(s)?
A short _____ before responding to a question allows the prosecution to offer an objection to the question.
A jury's not-guilty verdict that is influenced by the mistrust of police witnesses is known as jury _____.
Ethical training should begin as part of the ______ curriculum.
Field training officers
Ethical training should be reinforced by ____ ____ ___ who have been selected as ethical role models.
Ethical training should continue throughout and officer's career with specific professional training sessions based on relevant ___-______ training.
The progression of a compromised officer is predictable and, therefore, ________.