Paramedic final review

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1. The amount of air a pt moves into and out of his lungs in one breath is the:

A. minute volume

B. respiratory volume

C. residual volume

D. tidal volume
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1. The amount of air a pt moves into and out of his lungs in one breath is the:

A. minute volume

B. respiratory volume

C. residual volume

D. tidal volume
Answer: D
2. When testing orthostatic vitals, what vital sign change is the most sensitive positive sign of

hypovolemia?

A. BP drops by 10-20

B. BP rises by 10-20

C. pulse rate rises by 10-20

D. pulse rate drops by 10-20
Answer: C
3. Which pulse is recommended to check in peds?

A. brachial

B. radial

C. carotid

D. femoral
Answer:A
4. Which skin discoloration represents liver malfunction?

A. cyanosis

B. jaundice

C. eccyhmosis

D. erythema
Answer: B
5. Definition of pathological Q wave:

A. 0.08 seconds wide and a depth greater than ¼ the height of the R wave

B. 0.04 seconds wide and a depth greater than ¼ the height of the R wave

C. injury until proven otherwise

D. greater than 25 mV
Answer: B
6. How many parts are there to the scene size up?

A.3

B.4

C.5

D.6
Answer: C
7. Initially determining priorities of care and transport is part of the:

A. scene size up

B. secondary assessment

C. primary assessment

D. focused assessment
Answer: C
1. What organization is responsible for EMS training guidelines?

A. National Registry of EMTs

B. Department of Transportation

C. Department of Health

D. Emergency Medical Services Act
Answer: B
2. What hospital provides initial definitive trauma care without university

based teaching?

3. Which infectious disease is not a droplet precaution?

4. What is the most important infection control practice?

5. Which of the following is not a recommended vaccination?

6. What is the greatest hazard for EMS personnel?

A. Level 1 Facility

B. Level 2 Trauma Center

C. Level 3 Trauma Center

D. Level 4 Facilities
Answer: B
A. Meningitis

B. SARS

C. Pneumonia

D. Varicella
Answer: A
A. Protective Gloves B. N95 Mask C. Washing Your Hands D. Cleaning the ambulance after every patientAnswer: CA. Hepatitis C B. Tetanus C. Rubella D. Hepatitis BAnswer: AA. Terrorist Attack B. Hazmat Situations C. Accidental Exposure D. Motor Vehicle CollisionsAnswer: D7. What kind of study would include research on the amount of cardiac arrest survivors Chicago had last year? A. Retrospective and Quantitative B. Prospective and Quantitative C. Retrospective and Qualitative D. Prospective and QuantitativeAnswer: AMotor is_____, Sensory is _____ in the spinal cord? A Posterior, Anterior B Anterior, Posterior C Midline, Midspine D Not presentAnswer BThe VII cranial nerve controls A Tongue B Brain & eyes C hearing D facial expressions and tasteanswer DHow many nerves are in the spine? A 33 B 13 C 23 D 103answer AWhich would indicate spinal cord injury? A hypertension, tachycardia, and deep respirations B hypotension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations C hypertension, bradycardia, and shallow respirations D hypotension, tachicardia and deep respirationsanswer BThe blood pressure in a patient with suspected head injury should not be below A 90mmhg B 110 mmhg C 100 mmhg D 120 mmhganswer AThe tears are manufactured in the __________and then spread across the eye laterally to medially, where they drain through the lacrimal ducts into the nose. A. Excretory ducts B. Lacrimal sac C. Lacrimal gland D. Lacrimal papillaeAnswer:CAn infection or inflammation that is very contagious. Causes red, itching and production of more tears than usual. Often called "pink eye" A. Chalazion B. Conjunctivitis C. Glaucoma D. CataractAnswer: BWhat is the second most common cause of blindness in the United States? It is characterized by an increase pressure within the eye, that damages the optic nerve. A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Syphilis D. PterygiumAnswer: AAn infection of the submandibular space under the tongue, primarily resulting from infection of the second or third molar; may cause blockage of the airway. A. Oral candidiasis B. Tonsillitis C. Ludwigs angina D. dental abscessAnswer: CA common form of bone disease, caused by thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density. Occurs when the body fails to produce enough new bone to replace bone that is being resorbed or used. A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome D. MyalgiasAnswer: BA discoloration of of the skin that is usually blue or black. This is a foul-smelling discharge and loss of sensation in the affected area. Results as death of the tissue. A. Gangrene B. Neuropathic arthropathy C. Inflammation D. Diabetic footAnswer: AA form of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine. Resulting in the spine becomes stiff and inflexible were the spine if fused together. A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus C. Gout D. Ankylosing SpondylitisAnswer: DWhat is a disease of the inner ear that affects balance and hearing and occurs when the labyrinths within the inner ear become swollen. A. Labyrinthitis B. Vertigo C. Meniere's disease D. MastoiditisAnswer: C1. What ribs are the most commonly fractured? A. 4-8 B. 7-3 C. 5-9 D. 6-9Answer A2. Which of the following is NOT a sign of Beck's triad? A. Distant heart tones B. JVD C. Pulses paradoxus D. HypotensionAnswer C3. What pathophysiology is associated with a pulmonary contusion? A. Increased pressure in the head, neck, and chest cavity B. Direct bruising to the lung tissue C. The presence of air in the soft tissue D. Three or more fractured ribs, causing a moving segment of chest wallAnswer A4. Which of the following best describes cyanosis to the face and neck that occur in traumatic asphyxia? A. Decreased blood flow to the head and neck B. Backflow of blood from the right heart into the neck C. Increased oxygenated blood flow D. Decreased pressure in the chest cavityAnswer B5. Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is complaining of left-sided chest pain after being tackled in a football game. Examination reveals pain and crepitus around the 10th and 11th ribs on the left side. Which of the following may be present as an underlying injury? A. Diaphragmatic rupture B. Injury to the liver C. Mesenteric injury Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8,9 D. Injury to the spleenAnswer D6. At what percentage of maternal blood loss in the pregnant mother are changes in BP or heart rate evident? a. 10-15 b. 20-25 c. 30-35 d. 40-45AnswerD7. A 44-year-old male was hit by a motor vehicle while jogging. You begin to assess the patient. You notice that he is cyanotic and has agonal respirations. He has obvious flail chest, multiple contusions, clear heart tones, and air movement through his airway. Upon auscultation, you notice that the patient has a deviated trachea and he has decreased breath sounds on the right. Based on this scenario, which of the following is the most likely to be fatal if not treated? A. Contusion B. Cardiac tamponade C. Flail chest D. Tension pneumothoraxAnswer D8. A patient was run over by a car. There are tire marks on the chest wall. The patient has cyanosis to the face and neck. Heart tones are muffled and lung sounds are shallow with agonal respirations. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring in this patient based on the assessment? A. Flail chest B. Subcutaneous emphysema C. Traumatic asphyxia D. Tension pneumothoraxAnswer C9. Signs or symptoms commonly associated with hemothorax include: A. Shock Erika Miranda V.5 CH 8,9 B. Bradycardia C. Hyperresonance D. Tracheal deviation to the affected sideAnswer A1. Which of the following agencies became involved with setting ambulance standards due to awareness of infectious diseases? A. DOT B. NHTSA C. CAAS D. OSHAAnswer: D2. When setting up a helicopter landing zone, what is the minimum size it should be? A. 50'x50' B. 75'x75' C. 100'x100' D. 150'x150'Answer: C3. The most dangerous direction to approach an aircraft while the engines are on is? A. The rear B. The front C. The downhill side D. The pilot's sideAnswer: A4. Most state EMS agencies establish what kind of standard regarding ambulance operation? A. Gold B. Optimal C. Minimum D. MaximumAnswer: C5. Which of the following is a good distance to use when positioning the ambulance at a crash scene? A. 50 feet from the crash scene B. 100 feet from the crash scene C. 200 feet from the crash scene D. As close as possibleAnswer: B6. What's the most common type of crash involving an ambulance identified by data from New York State? A. Lateral impact at an uncontrolled intersection with low visibility B. Rollover due to high speed on a wet road C. Rear-end collision at a low speed with no weather issues D. Lateral impact at a controlled intersection with no weather issuesAnswer: D7. Limitations to air medical transport include? A. Lack of fuel B. Short distances C. Cost D. Spinal injuriesAnswer: CIn placenta previa the cervix is is blocked or partially occluded by the placenta. The most likely symptoms and signs are: A. Intermittent bleeding, accompanied by cramping B. Fetal hypoxia, maternal hypertension C. Painless bleeding D. There are no observable signs and symptomsAnswer CIn an abruptio placentae, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall causing: A.Severe pain, internal and possible external hemorrhage B.Minor bleeding that generally resolves itself quickly C. Severe pain, pedal edema D. Bleeding accompanied with right posterior shoulder pain.Answer AChanges to woman's cardiovascular system during pregnancy can be be summed up as: A. Heart rate, blood pressure and volume all increase B. Volume increases by 45%, systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 to 15, heart rate increases by 10 to 15 C. Variation is based on each ones individual response to the pregnancy D. Cardiac output decreases resulting in lower heart rate, and increased blood pressureAnswer BFetuses born after 28 weeks have an excellent chance of survival because: A. They have formed surfacant that is necessary for lung function. B. Cardiovascular function is completely mature. C. Because at 28 weeks they are considered full term. D. At this point the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale have closed.Answer AIt is important in neonates to remember that: A. They are obligate mouth breathers B. To check Apgar scores every 5 minutes during transport. C. If thier respirations are under 30 to assist with ventilations D. If the HR is less than 100 assist ventilations, and in less than 60 do compressions.Answer DIf a neonate is delivered with thick meconium staining, it is important to: A. Suction and intubate. B. Be ready admister fluids as the beonate will be dehydrated C.Use a bulb syringes starting with the nose the mouth. D. Not panicAnswer AAlthough rare _______ is one of the most common causes of maternal death following birth. A. Pneumonia B. Urinary track infection C. High space shock D. Pulmonary EmbolismAnswer D1. Immunity where an individual develops antibodies in response to a vaccine A. Passive immunity B. Active immunityAnswer: b2. Immunity acquired when antibodies are received through maternal circulation A. Passive immunity B. Active immunityAnswer: a3. Lymph has the same composition as: A. White blood cells B. Intracellular fluid C. Adipose tissue D. Interstitial fluidAnswer:d4. When is it not necessary to don protective eyewear A. Bleeding control with minimal bleeding B. Emergency childbirth C. Oral/nasal auctioning D. Endotracheal intubationAnswer: a5. What kind of cell is activated during the inflammatory response A. B cells B. T cells C. Neutrophils D. LymphocytesAnswer: c6. Which is not a common sign in meningitis A. Nuchal rigidity B. Sunken fontanelle C. Fever D. SeizureAnswer: b7. Schizophrenia affects approximately what percentage of the U.S. population A. .5 B. 1 C. 4 D. 6Answer: b8. Delirium has a rapid onset, whereas dementia is a chronic condition A. True B. FalseAnswer: a9. The SAD CAGES acronym is a screening mnemonic for what psychological disease A. Schizophrenia B. Somatoform disorders C. Fugue state D. Major depressionAnswer:d1. fibers carry impulses to the central nervous system from the body, , fibers carry impulses from the central nervous system to the body. A. Purkinje, dermatome B. Efferent, Afferent C. Afferent, Efferent D. Meningal, SynapticAnswer: C. Afferent, Efferent2. The main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is , while is the main neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine B. Seratonin, Epinephrine C. Epinephrine, Seratonin D. Norepinephrine, AcetylcholineAnswer: A. Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine3. Assign the following cranial nerves to the corresponding area of control in order: III, V, VII, IX A. Facial, Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Vagus B. Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Facial, Vagus C. Vagus, Facial, Occulomotor, Trigeminal D. Trigeminal, Occulomotor, Facial, VagusAnswer: B. Occulomotor, Trigeminal, Facial, Vagus4. Rapid, deep respirations caused by severe metabolic and CNS problems are: A. Kussmaul B. Cheyne-Stokes C. Apneustic D. AtaxicAnswer: A. Kussmaul5. results in the progressive degeneration of specific nerve cells that control voluntary movement eventually weakening the diaphragm, while is chronic and progressive disorder characterized by low dopamine levels, tremors, bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability. A. Multiple Sclerosis, Muscular Distrophy B. Muscular Distrophy, Multiple Sclerosis C. ALS, Parkinson's Disease D. Alzheimer's, ALSAnswer: C. ALS, Parkinson's Disease6. An stroke is a result of a cerebral artery blocked by a clot or foreign body, while a stroke is a result of bleeding within or in the area around the brain. A. Embolic, Thrombotic B. Occlusive, Embolic C. Hemorrhagic, Intracerebral D. Occlusive, HemorrhagicAnswer: D. Occlusive, Hemorrhagic7. Which are not vitals sign associated with Cushing's Triad? A. Irregular Respirations, Increased Blood Pressure B. Decreased Blood Pressure, Irregular Respirations C. Increased Blood Pressure, Decreased Pulse D. Decreased pulse, Irregular RespirationsAnswer: B. Decreased Blood Pressure, Irregular Respirations8. Which area of the brain contains the major control center for respirations, cardiac activity and vasomotor activity? A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Medulla Oblongata D. CerebellumAnswer: C. Medulla OblongataWhat is the most common deformity seen with hip fracture (femur dislocation) ? Rotates outward with straight knee Rotates internally with flexed knee Open wound with exsanguination CrepitusAnswer: Rotates internally with flexed kneeWhat is the most frequent fractured bone in the body? Patella Clavicle Radius and Ulna PhalangesAnswer: ClavicleThe patient has suffered a sprain, what is the injury most likely? Tendon dislocation Ligament tear Muscle soreness Muscle strainAnswer: Ligament tearWith a chemical burn of a known acidic liquid what is the proper treatment? Cover promptly with wet dressings Flush with NS or sterile water and cover with dry dressing Flush with basic substance and cover with dry dressing Flush for 15 minutes with a hoseAnswer: Flush with NS or sterile water and cover with dry dressingWhat is the parkland formula? 80 + 2x Age 4ml x BSI x KG 2x Age + 10 8ml x BSIAnswer: 4ml x BSI x KGYour patient is burned on his anterior chest, abdomen, and circumferential burns to left arm and left leg. Using the rule of nines what percentage of his body is burned? 27 36 54 45Answer: 36What are the 3 zones of injury in thermal burns? Zone of hyperemia, stasis, coagulation Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue Thermal, chemical, and electrical Injury, ischemia, infractAnswer: Zone of hyperemia, stasis, coagulationUnder what agency does personal protective and safety regulations fall under? OSHA DOT Medical Direction NREMTAnswer: OSHAChapter 7 " Yes, you may take my blood pressure." Is an example of what type of consent? Implied Expressed Involuntary InformedAnswer: ExpressedChapter 7 You arrive on scene to a 58 year old man in cardiac arrest. Your partner and the engine company are preforming CPR when the daughter frantically hands you a DNR form. What information needs to be present on the document in order for you to withhold resuscitation? Medical History, Medication lists and physician signature Witness signature, Patient signature, Date Physician signature , Date, Power of attorney (Patient signature) Allergies, Beneficiaries, Physician signatureAnswer: Physician signature, Date, Power of attorney (Patient signature)Chapter 8 Which person would EMS be able to inform of patient hospital destination according to HIPPA? Police officer Landlord Neighbor RoommateAnswer: Police officerChapter 9 When receiving medical direction orders over the radio you don't agree or understand what should you do? Repeat order back to clarify Hang up Confirm with partner Blindly followAnswer: Repeat order back to clarifyChapter 10 What does the abbreviation PAT stand for when documenting on a PCR report? Patrick Mroczek Patient assessment triangle Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia Pre-hospital advanced treatmentAnswer: Paroxysmal Atrial TachycardiaChapter 6 What is the first line of defense for fighting the spread of disease from public to provider? Hand washing Hazmat suit Gloves ShoweringAnswer: Hand washing1. A whistling sound due to narrowing of the airways by edema, bronchoconstriction, or foreign materials describes: A. Stridor B. Snoring C. Rhonchi D. WheezingAnswer: D2.characterized by long, deep breaths that ate stopped during the inspiratory phase and separated by periods of apnea; this pattern is a result of stroke or severe central nervous system disease. A. Apneustic respirations B. Inspiration Reserve C. Diffused respirations D. Oxygen dissociationAnswer a3.Hyperventilating your patient will cause the patients CO2 to _____ and PH to _____ also known as _____ A.CO2 decrease, PH increase, Alkalosis B. CO2 increase, Ph Increase, Alkalosis C. CO2 Increase, Ph Decrease, Acidosis D CO2 Decrease, PH decrease, AcidosisAnswer A4.Normal Tidal Volume in a resting adult should be A. 250 mL B. 1500 mL C. 1000 mL D. 500mLAnswer D5.The anatomical difference between the two main bronchi helps to explain why: A. Gastric contents tend to pass down the right mainstem bronchi into the lungs. B. B. Pneumonia that results from aspiration occurs more commonly in the right lung C. C. ET tubes advanced too far into the trachea will pass into the right mainstem bronchus D. D. All of the aboveAnswer D6.Which of the following lung volumes is the amount of air that enters and exits the lungs during a single quiet breath? A a. Tidal volume b. Inspiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume d. Expiratory reserve volumeAnswer A7.Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order? a. Larynx, trachea, pharynx, bronchial tubes b. Bronchial tubes, trachea, pharynx, larynx c. Pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchial tubes d. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubesAnswer CHow many routes can drugs be administered? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1Answer: C Percutaneous, pulmonary, enteral & parenteralWhich of the following is not an Endotracheal Medication? A. Dopamine B. Lidocaine C. Vasopressin D. AtropineAnswer: A- Only ET meds are Lidocaine, vasopressin, Atropine, Epi, NaloxoneWhen using an ET tube, you MUST increase conventional IV dosages from ________________ - _______________times? A. 1, 2 B. 2, 2.5 C. 2, 3 D. 3.5, 4Answer: BA pt. weighs 90kg. What is the weight in pounds? A.180 B.41 C. 75 D.198Answer: DTo administer 35mg of Benedryl from a syringe labeled 50mg/cc you would give? A.1.5cc B.0.8cc C. 0.7mL D.0.7mgAnswer: CAll of the following are examples of colloidal solutions EXCEPT? A. Dextran B. Hespan C. Lactated Ringer's D. AlbuminAnswer:CThe _______________ is the most superior part of the airway? A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Oral cavity D. Nasal cavityAnswer: DThe ____________ is the only bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone? A. Femur B. Hyoid C. Stapes D. PatellaAnswer: B"Difficulty Speaking" defines? A. Aphagia B. Aphonia C. Dysphonia D. DysphagiaAnswer: CWhich of the pharmacological classes of antidepressant is the least common due to the medications major side effects such as causing a hypertensive crisis when taken with cheese or wine? a. SSRI. b. TCA. c. EPS. d. MAOI.D2. A cholinergic can also be called a? a. Parasympatholytic b. Parasympathomimetic c. Sympatholytic d. Sympathomimetic.B.3. Epinephrine is a/an a. alpha adrenergic antagonist. b. alpha and beta adrenergic antagonist. c. alpha and beta adrenergic agonist. d. alpha adrenergic agonist.C.4. A class IV anti-arrhythmic medication does what? a. blocks potassium. b. blocks calcium. c. blocks sodium. d. blocks beta.B.5. Magnesium sulfate is used with which affliction? a. ventricular tachycardia. b. Ventricular tachycardia associated with atrial fibrillation. c. Supraventricular tachycardias d. torsades des pointesD.6. Short acting insulin peaks at around? a. 2 - 5 hours b. 7 - 15 hours c. 2 - 12 hours d. no peak.A.7. Oxyytocin caues? a. elevation in blood glucose levels b. a suppression in immune response c. uterine contractions d. vasoconstrictionC.8. one of aspirin's primary side effects is? a. bleeding b. headache c. seizures d. dizzynessB.1. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be defined as bleeding that occur proximal to the A) Ligamentum Teres B) Ligament of Treitz C) Jejunum D) Ligamentum ArteriosumAnswer: B) Ligament of Treitz2. Which one of these is NOT a classifications of abdominal pain? A) Referred Pain B) Somatic Pain C) Visceral Pain D) Pleural PainAnswer: D) Pleural Pain3. A 35 year old female complaining of severe abdominal pain that she describes as dull with an acute onset. Patient states that the pain radiates to her back and right shoulder. Physical examination of the patient's abdomen reveal right sided tenderness. She has had nausea and vomiting with skin parameters of pale, cool, and clammy. What is the cause of the patient's abdominal pain? A) Hepatitis B) Pancreatitis C) Cholecystitis D) AppendicitisAnswer: C) Cholecystitis4. Which of the following viruses is there currently an effective vaccine? A) Hepatitis B B) Hepatitis A C) Hepatitis C D) Hepatitis DAnswer: A) Hepatitis B5. Most common form of renal calculi are A) Uric acid B) Sodium Chloride C) Calcium Salts D) Iodized SaltsAnswer: C) Calcium Salts6. What are two waste products of the kidney function? A) Urea & Creatinine B) Sodium & Potassium C) Renin & Aldosterone D) Carbon & HydrogenAnswer: A) Urea & Creatinine7. Patients most at risk for significant kidney problems include A) Diabetic B) HTN C) Older patients D) All of the aboveAnswer: D) All of the above1. When treating the elderly, what is the best intervention? A. Exercise B. Prevention C. Sleep D. Regular physical examinationsAnswer: B2. One of the special characteristics of geriatric patients that paramedics should consider that can complicate the clinical evaluation is that they: A. Are likely to suffer from more than one illness at a time B. Have an elevation in primary antibody response and cellular immunity C. Have a decrease of their fat tissue D. Have an increase to their lean body massAnswer: A3. Most pulmonary emboli in geriatric patients form in the: A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Veins of the legsAnswer: D4. Age related changes in the respiratory system include: A. Decreased chest wall compliance B. Loss of lung elasticity C. Increased air trapping due to collapse of the smaller airways D. All of the aboveAnswer: D5. The most commonly abused substance by the elderly population is: A. Over-the-counter painkillers B. Alcohol C. Diuretics D. NarcoticsAnswer: B6. Which of the following cases indicates possible abuse in a 2-year-old child? A) c. Linear third-degree burns on the palm of the left hand B) d. Small third-degree burns at both corners of the mouth C) b. Second- and third-degree burns on both lower legs from the knees down D) a. Second-degree burns in a V-pattern that begins on the face and extends to the abdomenc7. If any form of abuse or neglect is suspected by the paramedic team, it must: A. File a report with the prosecutor's office B. Give statements to the police C. Forward all written documentation to the protection agency D. Document findings carefully, completely, and objectivelyd1. What is the formula to calculate Force? A. Mass (weight) X Acceleration (or deceleration) divided by 2 B. Mass (weight) + Acceleration (or deceleration) divided by 2 C. Mass (weight) - Acceleration (or deceleration) divided by 2 D. Mass (weight) divided by acceleration (or deceleration) divided by 2Answer: A2. What is the formula to calculate kinetic energy? A. Mass (weight) X Velocity (speed) squared B. Mass (weight) squared X Velocity (speed) C. Mass (weight) + Velocity (speed) squared D. Mass (weight) - Velocity (speed) squaredAnswer: A3. If the velocity increases 10 times, the kinetic energy increases how many times? A. 10 B. 100 C. 1,000 D. 10,000Answer: B4. What organ can the ligamentum teres tear or cut during rapid deceleration/impact? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. LiverAnswer: D5. During what type of car accident would you expect the most significant injury's? A. Lateral Impact B. Rear-End Impact C. Rollover D. Oblique ImpactAnswer: C6. What is the definition of yaw? A. The cross section of the bullet along its direction of travel. B. Profile of the bullets diameter. C. When a spinning bullet is slightly deflected it wobbles. D. The curved path that a bullet follows after it is fired from a gun.Answer: C7. When a patient is unrestrained in a front-end MVC and the patient goes up and over the steering wheel, what is the most common force on the spine? A. Extension B. Flexion C. Axial loading D. The book bag the patient was wearing while drivingAnswer: BWhat is the normal bodies ph range? 7-7.5 7.35-7.45 7.25-7.35 6.85-7.25Answer BRespiratory acidosis will have winch of the following Increased co2 levels Decreased co2 levels Increased O2 levels Decreased O2 levelsAnswer A_____ is the most prelevant cation in extracellular fluid, ______ is the most 'relevant action intracellular fluid A. Potassium, sodium B. Potassium, calcium C. Sodium, potassium D. Sodium ,calciumAnswer cAn increase in the size of cells in a tissue or organ is called Hyperplasia Hypertrophy Atrophy DysplasiaAnswer BWhat is the most important factor that affects cardiac output Cardiac contractile force Pulse Preload Peripheral vascular resistanceAnswer CWhich of the following is a sign of decompensated shock Tachycardia Bradycardia Hypertension HypotensionAnswer bVomiting, hemorrhage, diarrhea can lead to which kind of shock Cardiogenic Septic Anaphylactic HypovolemicAnswer DAn infection that enters the blood stream that can cause capillary leakage is _____shock Cardiogenic Septic Anaphylaxis HypovolemicAnswer BAn infant with a sunken Fontanelle can indicate which of the following Child abuse Head injury Hypertension DehydrationAnswer DThe infants head accounts for ____% of the Childs total bodyweight 10 15 20 25Answer D1.) Which agency provides safety standards in the the work place? A. USDOT B. OSHA C. NFPA D. IFPAAnswer: B2.) What is the most critical component in protecting yourself from infection? A. Wearing appropriate PPE B. Notifying the CDC when you suspect a potential outbreak C. Thoroughly washing your hands before and after every call D. Keeping a safe distance from a patient you suspect is contagiousAnswer: C3.) When does scene size-up begin? A. When you are dispatched B. When you are pulling up to the scene C. When you arrive at the scene D. When you make patient contactAnswer: A4.) When do you determine a patient's priority for transport? A. At the beginning of your primary assessment B. At the end of your scene size-up C. At the end of your primary assessment D. Once the patient has had a focused exam/rapid head-to-toe assessmentAnswer: C5.) Your patient is a 34 year old unconscious male with a gag reflex. You are going to need to assist his respirations. Before you begin, you should insert a(n) ______________ airway. A. Oropharyngeal B. King C. Nasopharyngeal D. MultilumenAnswer: C6.) In order to maintain proper alignment of a child's head and neck, you should place a folded towel under his _________. A. Head B. Shoulders C. Neck D. Both A and CAnswer: B7.) Which is NOT appropriate when effectively communicating with a patient? A. Making eye contact B. Active listening C. Telling the patient "everything will be alright" D. Standing with an open stanceAnswer: C1. A multiple casualty incident (MCI) is defined as A. Any incident involving 3 or more patients. B. Any incident involving 5 or more patients. C. Any incident involving 7 or more patients. D. Any incident that depletes the available on scene resources at any given time.Answer D2. Who is responsible for initially establishing command during a MCI? A. Paramedic in Charge (PIC) B. Triage officer C. First arriving public safety unit D. Safety officerAnswer C3. While triaging, the only interventions that can be carried out in the field are A. Controlling major hemorrhage B. Opening airway C. Chest decompression D. Auto injector antidotes E. All of the aboveAnswer E4. When assessing breathing effort, if patients are not breathing, it is acceptable to give adult patients 2 rescue breaths? A. True B. FalseAnswer B5. Phases of rescue operation involve how many different phases? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7Answer D6. Immersion in water loses heat how much faster that in the air? A. 10% B. 50% C. 25% D. 15%Answer C7. A_____ is the easiest way to gain access into a vehicle A. Trunk B. Window C. Door D. WindshieldAnswer C1. A child with croup will present with: A: a history of several days of cold symptoms B: a low-grade feverl C: a barky cough D: All of the aboveAnswer: D2. The most common cause of upper airway emergencies in young children is: A: epiglottitis B: croup C: foreign body obstruction D: anaphylaxisAnswer: B3. Bradyarrhythmias in children most often occur secondary to: A: hypoxia B: trauma C: hypovolemia D: cardiomyopathyAnswer: A4. What intervention should be taken for a child with SVT who has poor perfusion? A: Defibrillation at 2 j/kg B: Administration of Cardizem 6 mg IV C: Cardioversion at 0.5-1.0 j/kg D: Administration of Amiodarone 5 mg/kgAnswer: C5. The initial setting for defibrillation of pediatric patients is: A: 0.5-1.0 j/kg B: 4 j/kg C: 2 j/kg D: 10 j/kgAnswer: C6. "Red flags" that could suggest child abuse includes: A: a history inconsistent with the injury sustained B: an old injury that went unreported C: inappropriate actions or language from the caregiver D: All of the aboveAnswer: D7. Which of the following is the leading cause of death and significant disability in pediatric trauma patients? A: Traumatic brain injury B: Abdominal trauma C: Thoracic trauma D: Extremity traumaAnswer:ASigns of compensated shock may include all but? A. Unconsciousness B. Thirst C. Combativeness D. WeaknessAnswer AGlands with the dermis that secrete sweat are called? A. Mast cells B. Sebaceous glands C. Sudoriferous glands D. Lymphocyte glandsAnswer CCompartment syndrome is most commonly associated with what types of injuries? A. Open B. Closed C. Penetrating D. LacerationsAnswer BHow many phases are there in the hemostasis process? A. One B. Two C. Three D. FourAnswer cOut of the three types of hemorrhage what is the worst? A. Capillary B. Venous C. Arterial D. All the sameAnswer c1. After neutrophils, the most common phagocytic white blood cell, release chemicals called chemotactic factors to trigger additional immune system responses is:? a. macrophage cell b. neutrophils cell c. Immunoglobulin d. AntibodiesAnswer: A2. Receiving antibodies from the maternal circulation via the placenta or from inoculation (injection) is called:? a. Active immunity b. Passive immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Cellular immunityAnswer: B3. Developing antibodies in response to an attenuated by a killed or modified form of an infectious agent AKA vaccine is called:? a. Active immunity b. Passive immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Cellular immunityAnswer: A4. Insects belonging to what classification of species are among the most common causes of fatal anaphylaxis? a. Insecta b. Hymenopterida c. Hymenoptera d. XyelidaeAnswer:C5. What potent substance causes bronchoconstriction, increased intestinal motility, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability? a. Drugs b. Food c. Allergy d. HistamineAnswer: D6. As histamine is released, fluid will diffuse from leaky capillaries, resulting in:? a. Anaphylaxis b. Urticaria c. Hives d. BasophilsAnswer: B7. An acute hypersensitive reaction where chemical mediators such as histamines are released in abundance, causing a potent and damaging inflammatory response is called:? a. Allergic reaction b. Hypersensitivity c. Active immunity d. AnaphylaxisAnswer: D1. You have just assisted in delivering a baby one minute ago. The neonate has a pink trunk and bluish extremities, 142 HR, has a strong cry, 42 RR, and is slowing moving his arms. What is their APGAR? A. 9 B. 8 C. 7 D. 10Answer: B2. You have just assisted with a birth of a baby boy who is now cyanotic and in moderate respiratory distress. The baby's abdomen is flat. You auscultate diminished lung sounds on the left and heart tones on the right side of the chest. Treatment of this patient should include: A. BVM and immediate transport B. Intubation, elevation of the head, 100% blow by O2, and intermittent breaths C. Needle decompression, BVM, and transport D. Intubation and BVM every 2-3 secondsAnswer: B3. The umbilical cord has ___ vein(s) and ___ artery(ies). A. 1, 2 B. 2, 1 C. 2, 2 D. 1, 1Answer: A4. You arrive on scene to a woman who has just given birth at home. The mother states that her baby isn't moving. Your exam shows the baby is covered in a clear liquid, is bluish, cool to the touch, with a HR of 68. Your next treatment is: A. BVM B. Meconium aspirator C. Chest compressions D. Suction the mouth and noseAnswer: D5. You are on scene with a 24/F who is 9 months pregnant and crowning. The mother states that she took someone to help with the pain of delivery. When the child is born, they have a weak cry, 20 RR, 90 HR, and listlessly moving their extremities. Treatment of the neonate while include: A. BVM, drying the baby, and basic support B. BVM and Narcan 0.1mg/kg C. Blow by oxygen and transport D. BVM and fluid bolus of 10mL/kgAnswer: A6. You have just assisted in delivering birth to a baby boy. He has a thick, greenish layer of substance on his body and face. The baby is not moving and is apneic. Your initial treatment should be: A. Suction the mouth and nose B. Perform CPR C. Assist respirations with a bag valve mask D. Suction with a meconium aspirator attached to an ET tubeAnswer: D7. You arrive on scene to a home for a baby that is "acting differently" according to the mother. The 2 week old is pale and cool, with a cap refill of 3 seconds. You feel diminished peripheral pulses at a rate of 172. The mother states that he hasn't needed a diaper change this morning. The fontanelles appear to be sunken. When you established IV access, you also got a chem of 71. The mother said the child weighs 9 pounds. Management of this patient should include: A. 16mL of D10 B. 40mL bolus of 0.9% NS C. Transport without delay D. All of the aboveAnswer: B1. Carbon monoxide will bind with hemoglobin ____ times that of oxygen. a. 50-100 b. 300-350 c. 200-250 d. 150-200Answer C2. How does cyanide disturb the cells? a. Causes the cells to shift from aerobic metabolism to anaerobic. b. Blocks oxygen from binding with hemoglobin c. Stops the gas exchange within the lungs d. Slows the response of the nervous systemAnswerA3. Whats the term for minimizing the toxicity by reducing the toxin absorbed into the body? a. Gastric lavage b. Decontamination c. Irrigation d. ExposureAnswer B4. Bees, hornets and ants are classified as a. Diptera b. Hemiptera c. Hymenoptera d. HomopteraAnswerC5. What is the normal hematocrit for females? a. 42-47 b. 12-15 c. 10-12 d. 37-41Answer A6. The body sends cell-mediated cells to fight infections. What are they? a. Hemoral b. B-cells c. T-cells d. NeutropeniaAnswerC7. What is hemostasis? a. combined three mechanisms that work to prevent or control blood loss b. internal conditions remain stable and relatively constant. c. clot formation, which is extremely dangerous when it occurs in coronary arteries or cerebral vasculature d. condition in which the body makes antibodies against its own tissuesAnswerA1.) Which part of a child or infant's body is more susceptible to blunt force trauma? a. Head and Neck b. Legs c. Chest d. Back and PelvisAnswer: A2.) What happens when a person dives in cold water causing a shut down of the bodies systems that help the survival rate of drowning? a. Diving reflex b. Mammalian diving reflex c. Surtfactant reflex d. Freshwater reflexAnswer: B3.) Patient was brought down from Mt. Everest after a medical emergency, responders saying the patient is not acting right. Patient is responsive to pain and has vomited once. All other vitals signs are normal and lungs are clear. What is the patient most likely having? a. High Altitude Pulmonary Edema b. High Altitude Drunkenness c. High Altitude Cerebral Edema d. Acute Mountain SicknessAnswer: C4.) Which law in diving emergencies applies when the pressure of the gases might increases or decrease but the percentage of the gases stays the same? a. Boyle's b. Trauma's c. Henry's d. Dalton'sAnswer: D5.) Patient was involved in a MVC with heavy front-end damage and a starred windshield. After scene is safe you approach the patient and notice that he is responsive to pain, moaning, and withdrawals to pain. What is the GCS? a. 6 b. 9 c. 8 d. 7Answer: C6.) On a scene size up, what would NOT automatically indicate that you have a critical or red patient? a. Rollover b. Ejection c. Damage to posterior side of car. d. Death of back seat passenger.Answer: C7.) A Firefighter is dragged out of a burning building responsive to pain. The patient is noticeable sweaty, hot skin, and has deep respirations that are shallow. What kind of emergency is this? a. Heat Exhaustion b. Heat Cramps c. Heat Frostbite d. Heat StrokeAnswer: D8.) What is the appropriate treatment for a patient found outside in 2 degree weather not breathing and without a pulse? (Patient found in V-fib) a. CPR, Shock as many times as indicated, no Medications, transport to nearest ED b. CPR, Shock once, no medications, transport to nearest ED c. CPR, Shock once, Epi 1:10,000 1mg only once, transport to nearest ED. d. CPR, Shock once, no medications, transport to nearest TRAUMA center.Answer: B1. What is true about exocrine vs endocrine glands? A. Exocrine glands secrete their chemicals directly into the blood stream. Endocrine B. Exocrine glands release their chemicals through ducts. Endocrine glands secrete their C. Exocrine glands tend to have a local effect on the body, whereas endocrine glands D. Both B and CAnswer: D2. Which is not one of the eight major glands in the endocrine system? A. Thalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Pons D. GonadsAnswer: C3. Which gland in the endocrine system has cells that act both as nerve cells and gland cells? A. Adrenal B. Parathyroid C. Hypothalamus D. GonadsAnswer: C4. The Posterior Pituitary gland produces what two hormones? A. ADH and Oxytocin B. Thyroid stimulating hormone and thyroxine C. Parathyroid hormone and oxytocine D. ADH and ThymosinAnswer: A5. Which endocrine cell in the Islets of Langerhans is most abundant and what hormone do they produce? A. Beta cells, produce insulin B. Beta cells, produce glucagon C. Alpha cells, produce insulin D. Alpha cells, produce glucagonglands release their chemicals through ducts. chemicals directly into the blood stream. have a more widespread effect. Answer: A6. Signs and symptoms of Diabetic Ketoacidosis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia B. Cold, clammy skin C. Tachycardia D. Kussmaul's respirationsAnswer: B7. Signs of Cushings syndrome include: A. " moon faced " appearance, "buffalo hump" and delicate easily bruising skin B. Hyperpigmentation of the skin, weight loss, decreased appetite C. Poor heat tolerance, exopthalmus, goiter D. Doughy pale and cool skin, cold intoleranceAnswer: A1. What is the innermost layer of the uterine wall called? A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Endocardium D. MyometriumAnswer: B2. Ovulation to menstruation always takes how long? A. 28 days B. 9 days C. 14 days D. 30 daysAnswer: C3. What is an ectopic pregnancy? A. Braxton-Hicks contractions B. Implantation of the fetus outside the uterus C. A premature delivery D. Pain during menstruationAnswer: B4. Unilateral abdominal pain that occurs every other menstrual cycle is most likely attributed to what? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease C. Menorrhagia D. Ovarian CystAnswer: D5. Hot flashes, night sweats, and mood swings during menopause are attributed to what? A. Increase in testosterone B. Pregnancy C. Increase in estrogen levels D. Decrease in estrogen levelsAnswer: D6. Which of the following is NOT a reproductive organ? A. Fallopian tubes B. Uterus C. Labia D. OvariesAnswer: C7. The most common cause of PID is what? A. Mittelschmerz B. Trauma C. Cystitis D. GonorrheaAnswer: D1. Sinus arrhythmias are more common in which patients; a. Geriatric b. Pediatrics c. Neonates d. Marathon runnersAnswer: b and d2. When transcutaneous pacing a patient, where should you check for a pulse? a. Brachial b. Radial c. Carotid d. FemoralAnswer: d3. How do you differentiate a junctional rhythm from other rhythms? a. Inverted p wave b. Osborn wave c. Narrow QRS d. Prolonged PRIAnswer: a4. The anterior territory of the heart is supplied by what artery and seen in which leads? a. Right coronary artery, leads II, III, AVF b. Left anterior descending, leads V2, V3, V4 c. Circumflex artery, leads I, AVL, V5, V6 d. RCA and the LAD, leads V1, V2Answer: b5. What lead/s would you see a 'tombstone sign'? a. V1-V2 b. V3-V4 c. V5-V6 d. All of the aboveAnswer: d6. A hypothermic patient is placed on an ECG. What (wave form) will you see? a. Osborn wave b. Delta wave c. Hymee wave d. Q waveAnswer: a7. A PRI <.12 seconds is a Wolf- Parkinson's White syndrome? a. False b. TrueAnswer: b1. When chemicals have been spilled, whether fumes are evident or not, the ambulance should be parked________. A. next to it B. Upwind C. Downwind D. In the next stateAnswer: B2. Pertaining to a chemical spill or hazmat situation, the hot zone is classified as___________. A. The site of contamination B. Area surrounding the contamination zone C. Triage area D. The command postAnswer: B3. Pertaining to a chemical spill or hazmat situation, the warm zone is also known as the ________. A. Triage area B. Safety zone C. Buffer zone D. Boiling pointAnswer: C4. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off enough vapors to ignite. A. Flash point B. Vapor density C. Specific gravity D. Boiling pointAnswer: A5. The most common method by which a person can be exposed to a hazardous substance is ___________. A. Respiratory inhalation B. Topical absorption C. Parenteral injection D. Gastrointestinal ingestionAnswer: A6. At a crime scene, you should preserve evidence containing body fluids by placing it in a(n)_________. A. Sterile container B. Sealed plastic bag C. Brown paper bag D. Airtight containerAnswer: C7. The most common place where violent crimes takes place is in _________. A. A bar B. The home C. The street D. A schoolAnswer: B