196 terms

Multiple-subject Practice test 2

STUDY
PLAY

Terms in this set (...)

The teacher is using an informal reading inventory to assess comprehension with a second grade student. Which of the following selections (all at the same reading level) would be least appropriate for this purpose?

The Fox and the Hens
The Story of the Panama Canal
Carrie's Class Trip
Barry's First Soccer Game
The Correct answer is:
The Story of the Panama Canal

Research shows that comprehension is greater with familiar subjects for readers at any level. Students at this level would not be familiar with the Panama Canal. Students who read about familiar subjects will have greater comprehension.
Evangeline comes to your preschool classroom with a good knowledge of her letter sounds. She is more advanced than many students in this area but doesn't seem to have an interest in books. Which would be appropriate strategies for you to use to help Evangeline approach reading?

I. Parts of books
II. Directionality of print
III. Voice to print match
IV. Creative writing

I and II
I and IV
I, II, III and IV
I, II and IV
Correct Answer:
I, II, III and IV


Evangeline is still an emergent reader. All of the strategies will help her to understand that print is a means of communicating. The teacher can introduce the first three with read alouds and encourage Evangeline to write stories with the skills she already possesses.
Mrs. Barten is helping her students practice skills necessary for the standardized tests in language arts. She asks her students to read the selection's title and look at the illustrations. She then asks them to tell her what the selection might be about. What skill are they practicing?

Imaging
Making predictions
Making personal connections to the text
Generalizing
The Correct answer is:
Making predictions

Mrs. Barten is asking her students to make predictions. Making personal connections to reading is a powerful process needed for comprehension. Students connect personal experiences and memories to reading or make connections to other texts. They can then note similarities or differences between their previous experiences and the new text. When students use their senses to relate to a text, they are imaging. They might think about the sights, sounds, smells, tastes and feelings a text invokes. Predicting means making an educated guess about what might happen next based on what you already know, perhaps from perusing the title and illustration or connecting information to previous reading or experiences. Generalizing involves taking small pieces of information and applying them in a larger context. This might involve drawing conclusions using information in a text.
Your reading specialist is giving your students a test. She asks them to repeat a word, such as cowboy, and then to say it again without boy. She tells them to say "bold" and then to say it without the /b/. What is she testing?

Alphabetic knowledge
Phonemic awareness
Print awareness
Segmentation
Correct Answer:
Phonemic awareness



The reading specialist is attempting to see if your students can hear and repeat the small sounds, or phonemes, that make up spoken words. Students usually come to school with some measure of print awareness. They know to hold the book the right way and to "read" from front to back. Early on, the learn the left to right scheme of text. This awareness of print and books and how they are used is called print awareness. It is an important part of learning to read and write. Children with print awareness understand that the words they see in print and the words they speak are related. Phonemic awareness is understanding that spoken words are made of separate small sounds. Alphabetic knowledge is knowing the names and shapes of the letters. Fluency is reading quickly and accurately and with prosody. All are necessary skills for a reader.
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

He was not (A) adverse to taking on another employee, but he (B) always hesitated until he felt (C) assured of the person's intentions.

averse
all ways
insured
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
averse

The correct word to use here is "averse," which means reluctant or disinclined to do something. The word "adverse" would mean that he was hostile toward the situation.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

Mr. Cranston (A) did all of the work. Nobody (B) helped him in any way. They all (C) claimed to be busy.

does
is helping
were claiming
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
No change is necessary.

All of the verbs agree. They are all in the past tense - did, helped and claimed. To make any substitutions would be inappropriate.
Mrs. Tamerlaine is using syllabication to help her students pronounce unfamiliar words. She has placed the following rule on the board. Which of these words would not follow the rule?

Closed syllables contain unglided vowel sounds.

signal
picnic
begin
robin
The Correct answer is:
begin

An unglided vowel sound is the short sound of the vowel. The long sound is the glided sound. Closed syllables usually contain short vowel sounds (picnic, signal, rotten). The long vowel sound can be found in words which end with -igh (night, high), -old (cold, bold) and -ind (find, kind). The long vowel sound is the glided sound.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

I went to the theater with (A) them. When (B) we left, Mrs. James asked (C) us how we liked the play.

they
us
we boys
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
No change is necessary.

The sentences are correct as they stand. All of the pronouns are used in the correct case. The first is used as the object of a preposition; the next as the subject; and the last one as the object of a verb.
A good teacher teaches reading skills and strategies. What is the difference between skills and strategies?

Reading skills are automatic actions for reading comprehension. Reading strategies deal with such things as decoding and encoding.
Reading strategies are automatic actions such as decoding, comprehension and speed. Reading skills are goal-oriented attempts to understand words and construct meaning.
Reading skills are automatic actions that a student uses to decode and comprehend with speed and accuracy. Strategies are deliberate efforts of the student to understand words and construct meanings.
There is no difference. They are two synonyms for the same skill set.
The Correct answer is:
Reading skills are automatic actions that a student uses to decode and comprehend with speed and accuracy. Strategies are deliberate efforts of the student to understand words and construct meanings.

The above definitions were offered by Afflerbach, Pearson and Paris in 2008 to clarify confusion about the two terms. Instructing students to monitor their reading is a strategy. Decoding is a skill.
Which of the following comprehension questions would be particular to narrative text?

What does the title tell you about the story?
What do the pictures tell you?
What new words did you learn?
Who were the characters in the selection?
The Correct answer is:
Who were the characters in the selection?

A narrative implies a story which involves characters, setting, problem and solution. An expository text would give information. The other questions could apply to both types of texts.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

Wearing safety goggles and using your common sense, are essential to good woodworking habits.

sense are
sense; are
sense - are
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
sense are

Never use a comma between a subject and its verb. Even though we may think a pause is needed in speaking or reading the sentence, a comma is not needed.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

The school(A) was closed but the principal (B) unlocked the door and the boys (C) go in.

is
unlocks
went
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
went

The sentence uses the past tense for the first two verbs, so the last one should also be in the past tense. The other changes are not necessary; each of them would still leave the sentence with verbs that do not agree in tense.
Which is not a criteria for choosing a Big Book which will encourage emergent readers to participate in reading?

The book should be very predictable.
The book should be appealing.
The book should help children develop the focused concept.
The book should be familiar.
The Correct answer is:
The book should be familiar.

A predictable Big Book will be appealing to the students and will help teach the focused concept. Children should be encouraged to participate by making predictions, making connections and expressing feelings. The book can be familiar or brand new if it fulfills these other criteria.
Which type of learner most benefits from the phonics method for reading?

Visual learners
Logical learners
Cultural learners
Auditory learners
The Correct answer is:
Auditory learners

Auditory learners learn best through the sense of sound. These learners can usually associate sounds with printed symbols more readily. Visual learners will be at a disadvantage with phonics. Phonics involves phoneme-grapheme associations.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

Choosing to walk would be (A) worst than choosing to drive because the road is (B) long and (C) more dangerous.

worse
longer
dangerouser
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
worse

There are only two options mentioned - walking and driving. Therefore "worse," the comparative degree of "bad," should be used, not the superlative degree. Also, "longer" is incorrect because there is no other road to compare it to. And "more dangerous" is also correct. "Dangerouser" is not a word.
Which of the following strategies has been shown to be most effective for vocabulary development?

Explicit phonics instruction
Looking up word meanings in the dictionary
Explicit instruction in vocabulary words
Independent reading
The Correct answer is:
Independent reading

Research consistently shows that independent reading is the gold standard for vocabulary development. Most students with the poorest vocabulary are also those who read the least. Reading words in context is more effective for vocabulary development than learning words in isolation or by looking them up in a dictionary. Many programs combine learning words in isolation with reading them in context.
In which of the following sentences is the modifier placed correctly?

Baking in the oven, Pablo smelled the aroma of chocolate cake.
Sammy does not like raw broccoli and steak.
The sun began to shine as soon as we left for the beach.
While walking, the rain began to come down.
Correct answer:

The sun began to shine as soon as we left for the beach.



This sentence is clear about when the sun began to shine and who is going to the beach. As to the other sentences, there is a question as to what word is being modified. Was Pablo baking in the oven? Does Sammy not like raw steak but like cooked steak? And was the rain walking?
Correct answer:

The sun began to shine as soon as we left for the beach.



This sentence is clear about when the sun began to shine and who is going to the beach. As to the other sentences, there is a question as to what word is being modified. Was Pablo baking in the oven? Does Sammy not like raw steak but like cooked steak? And was the rain walking?
The Correct answer is:
A timeline

A biography would be best supported by a time line. A story web or map would be used for fiction. A data chart organizes information which can compare and contrast members in the same category. Webs, data charts, and times lines are three types of graphic organizers used for comprehension. Before choosing a graphic organizer, the teacher should decide what the purpose of the organizer will be. Choosing the correct organizer should support the organization of the text.
A fourth grade teacher is giving a formative assessment mid-year to determine her student's abilities. She is using an Informal Reading Inventory (IRI). Her student makes 4 errors reading 100 words and has an 80% comprehension. How might she score this student's reading level?

Independent level
Below level
On-level
Instructional level
The Correct answer is:
Instructional level

A student's instructional level is the level at which he/she will most benefit from reading. An IRI will help the teacher assess a student's reading abilities. It consists of increasingly difficult reading passages with comprehension questions following. The instructional level is the highest level a student can read at which he/she makes no more than 5 errors per 100 words and has a 75-80% comprehension level. If the child can read at 95% or better with 75-80% comprehension, the teacher would continue with increasingly more difficult passages until the instructional level is reached.
You want to get the support of a local business for a project that your class is undertaking. You have a meeting with the owner of the business who has never done anything like this before. Which of the following statements is appropriate to this meeting?

Hey, what's up? I see that you finally want to get your feet wet in helping the community. Well, let's chat.

Are you really sure you want to help us with this project? If you are on the fence, I don't want to waste my time.
Thank you for meeting with me about my class project. I think that when we have finished talking you will see what a help it is for businesses in the community to get involved with schools.
Thank you for meeting with me about my class project. If you don't help, I don't know who will!
Correct answer:
Thank you for meeting with me about my class project. I think that when we have finished talking you will see what a help it is for businesses in the community to get involved with schools.

This statement takes the right tone in giving the owner a feeling of what can happen when he gets involved with the schools. The others are either too informal or bordering on insulting.
Which of the following is being described below?

Mrs. Prayer previews a new story for her students. The students make predictions about the text. Mrs. Prayer then reads the text aloud by herself. She then rereads the passage with the students chiming in. She gradually fades her voice allowing her students to take the lead in reading the passage aloud.

Choral reading
Reader's Theater
Partner reading
Model reading
The Correct answer is:
Choral reading

Choral reading is the reading of a text by several students in unison. With model reading, a teacher, trained assistant or older reader reads the passage first. The partner reader then rereads the passage as quickly and accurately as possible. The model reader and the other reader than ask one another questions about the text or summarize what they understand from the text. With Reader's Theater students rehearse a script until they are highly fluent. Then they can perform for a larger group.
Choose the most appropriate opening statement for the following situation.

You are having a meeting with the new principal of your school who you have never met before. You will be discussing your course material and method of teaching.


Hey, Mrs. Sprance. What's up? How do you like your new digs? You probably see this as a step up from your last position.

Hello Mrs. Sprance. Welcome to our school. I'll bet you never thought that you would be the principal of such a well-thought-of school so soon in your career!

Hello Mrs. Sprance. It's a pleasure to meet you and have this chance to share my course materials with you and to get your opinion on my methods of presenting this material to my students.

Hello Mrs. Sprance. You look so young to be the principal of a school this size. Did you start teaching when you were a toddler?
Correct answer:
Hello Mrs. Sprance. It's a pleasure to meet you and have this chance to share my course materials with you and to get your opinion on my methods of presenting this material to my students.

All of the choices except the correct one are inappropriate. They are too familiar, near-insulting, or flippant. The tone of the meeting should be respectful since you have never met the person before.
You have spent months teaching plot, characters and cause and effect in stories. Your students take a standardized test in which only 2% of the questions are based on fiction. 98% is based on non-fiction passages. Which type of validity does this test lack?

Content validity
Construct validity
Predictive validity
Concurrent Validity
The Correct answer is:
Content validity

A test that reflects the curriculum taught has content validity. A test that conforms to real-world application has construct validity. Tests that predict future performance or success have predictive validity. Two tests that can be compared to see if the tests correlate have concurrent validity if they are given at the same time. Your content (characteristics of fiction) did not match the content of the test (non-fiction passages.)
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

Given the state of the nation, the (A) economical outlook is grim. We must do something to remedy this; (B) then (C) you're going to see some growth.

economic
than
your
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
economic

The term "economical" refers to something that is not wasteful while "economic" refers to the economy itself. The other words are used properly - "then" meaning "next," and "you're" meaning "you are."
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

When nurses want to make a complaint to the hospital, they have to make it in writing.

she
you
it
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
No change is necessary.

"Nurses" and "they" are both in the plural form. Therefore, nothing in the sentence needs to be changed.
Mr. Leeds is reviewing spelling rules before a test. Which of the following is correct for disyllabic words which end in s?

When the stress is on the first syllable, double the final s.
When the stress is on the final syllable, a single ending s is used.
When the stress is on the first syllable, a single ending s is used.
Only double the s at the end of monosyllabic words. Disyllabic words are always spelled with a single ending s.
The Correct answer is:
When the stress is on the first syllable, a single ending s is used.

Spelling rules can be confusing for students. The rules for disyllabic words which end in s are:

If the stress (accent) is on the first syllable, do NOT double the final s: crisis, crocus, fungus, bonus
If the stress (accent) is on the second syllable, the final s is doubled:
Ms. Bass includes songs and song lyrics in her literature unit. She asks her students to bring in appropriate songs with the lyrics and explain what they mean to the class. The class analyzes the structure of the lyrics. What might Ms. Bass purpose be with this activity?

To lessen the load of lesson plans she must write
To help her students make personal connections to poetry
To define poetry as "not prose"
To introduce the narrative form to her students
The Correct answer is:
To help her students make personal connections to poetry

Poetry is an important part of literature but is often difficult to define for students. An appreciation of poetry can be built with nursery rhymes, rhyming books, jump-rope rhymes and song lyrics. Allowing students to contribute to the study helps them build personal connections with poetry.
Which of the following teacher comments addresses the writer's tone?

Your sentences flow smoothly.
The illustrations and text really work together.
You have a clear beginning, middle and end. The pacing was very smooth and effective.
Your structure and word choice conveys your attitude about the topic.
The Correct answer is:
Your structure and word choice conveys your attitude about the topic.

Tone in writing is analogous to tone of voice when speaking. The writer's word choices and sentence structures convey his/her attitude about a topic just as pitch and volume do when speaking. The writer assumes a role which suits his/her purpose in writing.
Which of the following words would not be appropriate for testing segmenting of two-phoneme words?

sigh
hit
ache
ease
The Correct answer is:
hit

A phoneme is the smallest sound in spoken language. In each of the test words, except hit, only two phonemes can be heard. Hit contains three phonemes /h/ /i/ /t/.
Which of the following is correct?

The children are obedient, the teachers are happy.
When the sun is out, Kathy is happy.
The weather is uncomfortable, it is too hot.
Give me liberty, give me death.
Correct answer:
When the sun is out, Kathy is happy.

This sentence is not a run-on as are the others because it begins with an introductory phrase. It is proper then to use a comma and continue the sentence. The other choices use a comma incorrectly to "splice" the two independent sentences together.
Which is an example of foreshadowing?

Hermione advised Ron to finish his assignment before lunch.
Harry had no clue that the game would end so disastrously.
Neville felt a bit tipsy after his flight.
Seamus thought that this assignment would be the most difficult.
The Correct answer is:
Harry had no clue that the game would end so disastrously.

Foreshadowing gives the reader a taste of what to come without revealing the story or spoiling the suspense. Foreshadowing suggest an upcoming outcome in the story. This example offers a suggestion of events to come.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

Whenever Joe and (A) me argue, (B) I always let him know when (C) he is right.

I
we
it
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
I

"Joe and I" are the subjects of the verb "argue." Therefore, the pronoun must be in the subjective case, rather than "me" which is objective. "We" would not always let him know when he is right, I would. And "it" is not the proper pronoun to use to refer to Joe.
Which is the least likely goal for running records?

To better understand the student's current level of literacy development and to plan the instruction needed to move the student forward.
To match students with others who have similar strengths and needs for small-group or guided-reading instruction
To document students' progress over a given period of time.
To assess a student's comprehension level with non-rehearsed texts
The Correct answer is:
To assess a student's comprehension level with non-rehearsed texts

A running record is used to help teachers assess the current reading levels of students. The results are used to plan instruction and to create reading groups. A running record quickly helps the teacher assess a student's fluency. A running record may be timed.
Which of the following is correct?

When you want to do well you have to work hard at it because it's never an easy task.
Whenever you go to the store.
All the time that you have wasted when you could have been working.
Going away for a day because our house is being worked on
Correct answer:
When you want to do well you have to work hard at it because it's never an easy task.

This is a complete sentence and not a run-on because it has a connector - "because." The other three choices are sentence fragments.
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

It was not a (A) breach in etiquette when the (B) principal of the school addressed the mayor (C) formally.

breech
principle
formerly
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
No change is necessary.

A breach is an infraction of something and so is used correctly. The word for the head of the school is "principal." The word "formally" is also used correctly to mean officially or in a dignified manner.
Which of the following statements is correct?

In English, about 100 words make up 50% of the running words in almost all the text read.
In English, 85% of what we read is comprised of approximately 300 words.
To read fluently, students must recognize 300 sight words by the end of first grade.
In English, about 300 words comprise 50% of all the words encountered by new readers.
The Correct answer is:
In English, 85% of what we read is comprised of approximately 300 words.

According to S.J. Samuels (Reading Fluency: Its development and assessment, 2002) approximately 300 words comprise 85% of the running words we read in all texts. Recognizing these words promotes fluency. Some practice can be done reading these words in isolation. For better fluency, these words need to be practiced in context.
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

The (A) principle reason for painting the room is the (B) wreckless behavior of the teenagers. (C) They're out of control.

principal
reckless
Their
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
reckless

If the behavior were wreckless it would mean that there were no wrecks. Their behavior was reckless which means that they were careless and irresponsible.
When a teacher requires students to use maps, charts and graphs to obtain information, the teacher is using what kind of reading instruction strategy?

Silent reading
Oral reading
Work/Study
Recreational reading
Correct Answer:
Work/Study


When a teacher requires students to use maps, charts and graphs to obtain information, the teacher is using work/study instruction. Work/study reading instruction uses reading as a tool for obtaining information. As students progress through school, reading becomes more important for success.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."



Randy will have earned $1000 dollars when the end of the year comes around.

will earn
earned
had earned
No change is necessary.
Correct Answer:
No change is necessary.




The end of the year is in the future and Randy has not yet earned $1000 so the use of "will have earned" is correct. All of the other choices don't say this and/or don't even make sense.
Which of the following questions would not help primary students understand the conventions of writing?

How many sentences are written on the board?
How can you tell how many sentences are written on the board?
How do I know when a sentence begins or ends?
What does this sentence mean?
The Correct answer is:
What does this sentence mean?

The conventions of writing, such as left to right, top to bottom and punctuation can be reviewed with a morning message written on the board or any other paragraph. The jargon of print can be reviewed. Attention can be given to individual words and letters. The meaning of the sentences would be comprehension.
Harriet's teacher is testing her phonemic awareness skills.

Teacher: Say fast without the /t/ sound.
Harriet: Last
Teacher: Change the /st/ sound in fast to /n/.
Harriet: Fasten

Which phonemic awareness skill is Harriet having difficulty with?

Blending sounds
Manipulating phonemes
Oral language skills
Identifying syllables
The Correct answer is:
Manipulating phonemes

These tasks require the student to segment phonemes. Separating onset and rime involves separating the initial phoneme in a word from the rest of the word, for example. Students can add, subtract, or substitute sounds. This is a manipulating skill.
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

The premise was (A) weak, but Jan insisted that she had (B) a lot of proof for it. She had (C) all ready made her argument to the professor.

week
a lot
already
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
already

"All ready" means that everyone is prepared. In the second sentence we must use "already." This means that something happened previously.
Your principal has just completed his doctoral thesis! Your students want to write him a congratulatory letter. What aspect of writing are they using?

Occasion
Narrative
Exposition
Description
The Correct answer is:
Occasion

A writer needs to be aware of his audience. Occasion would relate to how you want an audience to react to your writing, such as sympathy or persuasion. A congratulatory note would be an example of writing for an occasion. Purpose helps determine the format (narrative, expository, persuasive, or descriptive.)
Which question would ask readers to evaluate a text?

Read the text concerning tax policies in England and the United States. Which country has a higher general tax rate for the middle class?
Read the poems. Which poem is more evocative of nature?
Read the title of the text. Will this text be fiction or non-fiction?
Read about Ron and Edie's camping trip. What equipment did they take with them?
The Correct answer is:
Read the poems. Which is more evocative of nature?

These students are being asked to make a judgment.They must evaluate the poems based on the requested criteria. Predicting means making an educated guess about what might happen next based on what you already know, perhaps from perusing the title and illustration or connecting information to previous reading or experiences. Self-monitoring occurs during reading. Readers double-check and review information for reasonableness and accuracy. Generalizing involves taking small pieces of information and applying them in a larger context. This might involve drawing conclusions using information in a text. Applying prior knowledge to a new text is also a thinking/reading process. Making judgments about what you read, or evaluating text, is a higher-level thinking skill.
You have to send a note to the parents of Cindy, one of your students, who is having trouble in your class. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the note?

Cindy is a lovely girl and I enjoy having her in class, but she is not progressing as well as I would like. Could you call me to arrange a meeting so that we can discuss the issue and come up with a solution for her?

Cindy is a lovely girl and I enjoy having her in class, but her work is really at the bottom of the barrel and if she doesn't improve, she will fail the class.
Your Cindy is an intelligent girl but she is lazy and seems uninterested in learning. I'm afraid that there is something else going on, maybe at home, that is affecting her work. You must make an appointment to talk to me now or else it will be on you if she fails.
I don't know what's wrong with your child. Maybe you can shed some light on it. If you don't help, she fails.
Correct answer:
Cindy is a lovely girl and I enjoy having her in class, but she is not progressing as well as I would like. Could you call me to arrange a meeting so that we can discuss the issue and come up with a solution for her?

This is the most respectful and helpful of the statements because it is not accusatory. The other statements do not have a helpful tone. In fact, they are likely to offend the parents. They will not accomplish what is best for Cindy.
Writers can use context to help the reader make meaning from a word which has multiple meanings or is unfamiliar. Which of the following examples does not use context to help the reader determine meaning?

Vanessa and Vern played a set of tennis. A player wins a set of tennis when one player wins six or more games by a margin of two games. Vanessa beat Vern by winning five games out of seven. She won the set.
Many children are discovered to be myopic, or nearsighted, about the age of nine. At this time, it is vital for children to have their eyes examined. Myopia can interfere with learning in school.
Nina suffers from anxiety attacks. She often feels as if the walls were closing in on her and avoids small places such as elevators. She panics in crowds and feels as if she cannot breathe. Her anxiety has kept her from attending many social events.
Mary was ecstatic. After she watched the news she went into her closet to pick out an appropriate outfit for the day. She pocketed her keys and got to the bus stop early. This was going to be some day at the office
The Correct answer is:
Mary was ecstatic. After she watched the news she went into her closet to pick out an appropriate outfit for the day. She pocketed her keys and got to the bus stop early. This was going to be some day at the office.

This sentence includes no context clues for the unfamiliar word. There are no clues as to Mary's feelings. Was she happy, sad, disappointed, worried etc.? The other examples include examples, synonyms or definitions which help the reader understand the word in context.
Which of the following is correct?

All of the time or none of the time?
During the commercials and after the show.
Pleasing to the eye and easy on the ears.
Go out and then come back in.
Correct answer:
Go out and then come back in.

This is an imperative sentence. It is complete. The other choices are incomplete. They are sentence fragments.
Teachers often have students share what they write with a group or a partner. What is the best reason for having students share writing pieces?

So that students can help each other edit taking the burden from the teacher.
Students will help each other by responding as readers or listeners.
The partner is a different audience each time a piece is read.
Different topics will be addressed as partners see what others are writing.
The Correct answer is:
Students will help each other by responding as readers or listeners.

When writers share, they learn from their audience. The listeners or readers will respond and ask questions. The writer will come to understand that writing is a communication tool and that the reader must be able to understand the meaning of the piece. Teachers must model positive response strategies that will help the writer improve.
Mrs. Nowak is conferencing with her students during self-selected reading time. Which question is not appropriate for conferences done during this time?

Why did you choose this book?
Is your book fiction or non-fiction? How can you tell?
What do you think will happen next in the story?
Do you know that this book is not at your reading level?
The Correct answer is:
Do you know that this book is not at your reading level?

Conferences done during free reading times should encourage students to read. Questions should be open-ended. Students should not be grilled on content. Reading choices can be based on interest, not just reading level. This question might discourage a willing reader.

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Which of the following questions would best help a student who is confused about writing a narrative paragraph about an experience?

How did it happen?
How does it look, sound, feel, smell, taste?
How can you support your position?
What are its characteristics?
The Correct answer is:
How did it happen?

A narration is a retelling of events, usually in sequence. The narration of an experience might be told in chronological order. A descriptive piece would include sensual details. A persuasive piece would contain a position which is supported by evidence. An analytical piece might divide a topic into its characteristics or parts.
During which stage of the writing process are students most likely to conference with a peer?

Prewriting
Drafting
Revising
Publishing
The Correct answer is:
Revising

During the prewriting stage, writers collect information for the writing they will do. During the drafting or composing stage, the writers get their ideas onto the paper. During the revising stage, the writer rereads his text and makes corrections, additions, deletions or changes. During this stage, the writer would most likely discuss his text with a peer. At the publishing stage, the writer shares his writing in some form with the group.
Choose the option that corrects an error in the underlined portion(s). If no error exists, choose "No change is necessary."

Will the space (A) accommodate five hundred people? There will be at least that many for the (B) amateur night program. Please put it on your (C) calendar.

accomodate
amature
calander
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
No change is necessary.

"Accommodate" is spelled with two "m's." "Amateur" is spelled with "eur" at the end, not "ure." "Calendar" is spelled with and "e" in the middle and an "a" at the end.
Which of the following is correct?


Mom takes the car to work Dad takes the train.
Jerry eats like a pig he's so sloppy.

Giving Grady permission to drive the car was the wrong thing to do he's so careless.

Just as Ella was about to cross the street, the car careened out of control.
Correct answer:
Just as Ella was about to cross the street, the car careened out of control.

This sentence has a clause that precedes the subject and verb of the main idea and is separated by a comma. It is therefore not a run-on sentence. The other choices are run-ons because they each need either a period or a semicolon.
Select the answer choice that corrects an error in the underlined portion. If there is no error, choose D indicating that no change is necessary.

You have (A) too many objects in your drawing. (B) You're detracting from the overall theme. (C) Less objects in the drawing would be better.

two
Your
Fewer
No change is necessary.
Correct answer:
Fewer

"Fewer" is used when you can count the objects. "Less" is used when talking about a quantity of something that cannot be counted. Therefore, "fewer" is the correct word to use here.
If x and y are negative numbers, x/y is

< 0
> 1
a prime number
a positive number
The Correct answer is:
a positive number

A negative number divided by a negative number is a positive number. A negative number multiplied by a negative number is also a positive number.
The other answers are false or unknown, based on the information given.
If Karen pays 28% of her income in taxes and last year she paid $11,760 in taxes, what was her income last year?

$42,000
$28,000
$38,000
$40,000
The Correct answer is:
$42,000

Convert 28% to a decimal by moving the decimal point two places to the left 28% = 0.28. Use x to represent Karen's income. You can say that 0.28x = $11,760. When you divide both sides of the equation by 0.28, you get x = $42,000.
For tax purposes, a home's assessed value is 90% of its fair market price. If the assessed value of a home is $163,800, what is its fair market price?

$182,000
$201,000
$195,000
183,400
The Correct answer is
$182,000

If x is the fair market price, then the assessed value is 90% of x. 90% is the equivalent of 0.9, so you can say 0.9x = $163,800. When you divide both sides of the equation by 0.9, you get x = $182,000.
Which one of the following fractions is the greatest?

7/10
3/4
3/5
13/20
Correct Answer:
3/4


The least common denominator of all these fractions is 20, so change them all to equivalent fractions with denominator 20:
7/10 = 14/20
3/4 = 15/20
3/5 = 12/20
13/20 = 13/20
The greatest is 15/20 or 3/4
On weekly chemistry quizzes, Henry scores 64, 92, 88, 85, 67, 66, and 84. What is his median score on these quizzes?

85
84
88
66
The Correct answer is:
84

In a series with an odd number of values, the median is the value that is as far from one end as it is from the other, when the values are arranged in order from smallest to largest.
What percent of 200 is 500?

300
250
200
150
The Correct answer is:
250

When a question asks, what percent of a is b, divide b by a. In this case, divide 500 by 200. The answer is 2.5. Convert this to a percent by moving the decimal point two places to the left. 2.5 = 250%.
What is 32% of 11?

0.352
35.2
3.52
3.052
The Correct answer is:
3.52

First convert 32% to a decimal by moving the decimal point two places to the left. 32% = 0.32. Now multiply this number by 11. 0.32 * 11 = 3.52.
The whole number 6 has four factors: 1, 2, 3 and 6. The sum of its factors, therefore, is 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12. What is the sum of the factors of 24?

84
60
59
35
Correct answer:
60

The factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8,12 and 24.

Therefore, the sum of its factors = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 60.
On a given day, 36 of the 445 students in a school were absent. What was the appproximate absentee rate that day?

6%
4%
8%
11%
The Correct answer is:
8%

Divide the number of absent students by the total number of students. 36 /445 = 0.081. Convert this decimal to a percent by moving the decimal point two places to the right. 0.081 = 8.1%.
If one out of every seven employees in a school district is at least 50 years old and there are 1,500 employees in the district, approximately what percent of the employees are at least 50 years old?

6
12
14
10
The Correct answer is:
14

The number of employees in the district is irrelevant. It's a detail included just to confuse you. The key fact is that one out of seven, or 1/7, of the employees is at least 50 years old. To determine what percentage this represents, first convert 1/7 to a decimal by dividing the numerator by the denominator. 1/7 = 0.14286. To convert this decimal to a percent, move the decimal point two places to the right: 0.14286 = 14.286%.
Consider the question mark in this equation:

14 ? 2 + 7 = 14

What mathematical operation must go there?

"minus"
"plus"
"times"
"divided by"
Correct Answer:
"divided by"


Isolate the question mark as simply as it can be:

14 ? 2 + 7 = 14 (subtract 7 from both sides)

14 ? 2 = 7 The question mark must be "divided by"
Which of the following is equivalent to 16 million?

1.6 * 107
1.6 * 105
1.6 * 106
1.6 * 103
The Correct answer is:
1.6 * 107

1.6 10 = 16. 1.6 102 = 160. 1.6 103 = 1,600. 1,6 104 = 16,000. 1.6 105 = 160,000. 1.6 106 = 1,600,000. 1.6 * 107 = 16,000,000.
5, 12, 19, 26, .... is an arithmetic sequence with 21 terms.





The sum of the terms of the sequence is:

62
325.5
1575
3045
Correct Answer:
1575


Using the notation a = first term, d = common difference and

n = number of terms, firstly identify the values of a, d and n.



a = 5, d = 7 and n = 21



Now use the formula S = n/2 [2a + ( n - 1 )d] to find the sum.



S = n/2 [2a + ( n - 1 )d]

= 21/2 [25 + 207]

= 21/2 [10 + 140]

= 21/2 * 150

= 1575

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The world population in 1908 was estimated to be 1.7 billion.

The world population in 2008 is estimated to be 6.7 billion.



The percentage increase in the world's population over the last 100 years is approximately:







300%
30%
25%
50 million%
The Correct answer is:
300%

Increase = 6.7 billion - 1.7 billion = 5 billion



\Percentage increase = 5/1.7 * 100% = (500/1.7)% = (5000/17)% » 300%
What is the difference between the median and the average for the following group of numbers: 18, 22,16, 29, 35.

0
1
2
3
The Correct answer is:
2

For a group of numbers, the average is the sum of the numbers divided by the number of numbers in the group. The median is the the number in the middle when a group of numbers is arranged in order by size. Note that in the question, the numbers are not in the order needed to determine the median.
That order is:
16, 18, 22, 29, 35

The average therefore equals (16 + 18 + 22 + 29 + 35) / 5 = 120/5 = 24
The median is therefore the third number in the series: 22
In their last basketball game, Gina scored 18 points, Carla scored 15, Emily scored 5, Jill scored 21, and Samantha scored 16. Which player 's score was the median?

Carla
Gina
Jill
Samantha
The Correct answer is:
Samantha

When an odd number of values are arranged in order by size, the value in the middle is the median. Two players, Gina and Jill, scored more than Samantha, and two players, Emily and Carla, scored less.
If Bob can drive 192 miles using 8 gallons of gasoline, how many miles can he drive using 14 gallons of gasoline?

312
324
336
388
The Correct answer is:
336

First calculate how many miles per gallon Bob can get. Divide 192 miles by 8 gallons. 192 / 8 = 24. Then multiply 24 times 14 gallons. 24 * 14 = 336.
Jeremy has 5 video games and 4 board games.

Sally has 4 video games and 5 board games.

Jeremy lets Sally borrow one game of his while Sally lets Jeremy borrow one game of hers.

From the information provided, which of the following must be true?

Sally now has more board games because girls like board games more than video games
Each traded a video game because they are more fun than board games.
Jeremy must now have more video games than board games.
Each now has 9 games.
Correct answer:

Each now has 9 games



While the answers A, B and C may seem like things you know, from the information provided in the question, we cannot know that they are true. Choice D must be true because they both started with 9 games and each traded one. They still have 9 games.
If g(x) = |1 + x |- |1 - x |, what is the value of g(5) + g(-5) ?

0
10
4
-4
Correct Answer:
0




First, determine g(5):

g(5) =
|1 + 5 |- |1 - 5 | =
|6 |- |-4 |=
6 - 4 =
2



Second, determine g(-5):

g(-5) =
|1 + (-5) |- |1 - (-5) | =
|-4 |- |6 |=
4 - 6 =
-2



Lastly, solve the final equation:

g(5) + g(-5) =

2 + (-2) =



0
What is 8% of 10,000?

0.0008
80
800
8,000
Correct answer:
800

Translate the words into an equation.

"What" is the variable, lets call it x.

"is" means equals

"8%" is really 0.08

"of" means multiply

and 10,000 is just 10,000 so,

x = 0.08 * 10,000 or,

x = 800
Given the equation a = 4b -3, what is the value of a when b = 8?

27
29
35
32
The Correct answer is:
29

To answer this question, just substitute 8 for b. Instead of a = 4b - 3, you have a = 4(8) -3, or a = 32 - 3, which equals 29.
Some sharks are huge. No sharks are minnows. No minnows eat sharks. Therefore,

All sharks eat minnows.
No minnows are sharks.
No minnows eat sharks.
No minnows are huge.
Explanation:
The Correct answer is:
No minnows are sharks.
All cats have tails. Felix is a cat. Given these facts, which of the following must be true?

Felix has a tail.
Felix may or may not have a tail.
Felix may be a dog.
All tails are on cats.
The Correct answer is:
Felix has a tail.

If all cats have tails and Felix is a cat,, then Felix must have a tail. The facts you are given say nothing about dogs, so it is not possible to say whether or not they have tails. The facts do not state that cats are the only creatures that have tails, so it is not possible to say that all tails are on cats.
Solve the inequality 1 - ½p ≤ ¼.

p ≥ 0
p ≥ -3/2
p ≤ 3/2
p ≥ 3/2
Correct Answer:
p ≥ 3/2


1 - ½p ≤ ¼

Step 1 Multiply all terms by 4:
4 × 1 - 4 × ½p ≤ 4 × ¼
⇒ 4 - 2p ≤ 1

Step 2 Subtract 4 from both sides:
4 - 2p - 4 ≤ 1 - 4
⇒ -2p ≤ -3

Step 3 Divide both sides by -2 and reverse the inequality sign*:
-2p/-2 ≥ -3/-2
⇒ p ≥ 3/2

* It's important to remember the rule that If you multiply or divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, then you must reverse the inequality sign.
s = ut + ½ at2 is a formula used in Physics.



Given that a = 2, u = 2 and s = 15, what are the possible values of t?







t = √5
t = 3 or 5
t = -3 or 5
t = 3 or -5
Correct answer:
t = 3 or -5

Substitute a = 2, u = 2 and s = 15 into the formula

s = ut + ½ at2

⇒ 15 = 2t + t2

⇒ t2 + 2t - 15 = 0

⇒ t2 + 5t - 3t - 15 = 0

⇒ t(t + 5) - 3(t + 5) = 0

⇒ (t - 3)(t + 5) = 0

⇒ t = 3 or -5

Note; In Physics a negative time signifies a time before zero.
All of the following are equal to the equation 3x + 5 = 4x + 3 EXCEPT

3x = 4x -2
3x - 5 = 4x - 3
x + 3 = 5
3x +10 = 4x + 8
The Correct answer is:
3x - 5 = 4x -3

The basic rule of algebra is that whatever you do to one side of an equation you must do to the other side. If you treat the two sides of an equation differently, you are changing the value of an equation.
If f is defined by f(x) = x2 +3x - 2, what is f(x + ½)?


x2 + 3x - 1½
x2 + 4x - ¼
x2 + 4x
Correct answer:
x2 + 4x - ¼

f(x + ½ ) = (x + ½)2 +3(x + ½) - 2

= (x + ½) (x + ½) +3(x + ½) - 2

= x2 + ½ x + ½ x + ¼ + 3x + 3/2 -2
=x2 + (1/2x + 1/2x + 3x) + (1/4 + 3/2 - 2)

= x2 + 4x - ¼
Simplify (2a½)3 (81a)¾ * a-¼

162a4
648a2
216a2
216a5/2
Correct Answer:
216a2


This expression consists of powers of numbers and the letter 'a' multiplied together. We can change the order of multiplication without altering the answer. Consider, therefore, the numbers and the a's separately.



(2a1/2)3 (81a)3/4 a-1/4 = (23 813/4) ((a1/2)3 a3/4 a-1/4)



Number part = 23 81¾ = 8 * 27 = 216

The "a's" part = (a1/2)3 a3/4 a-1/4

= a3/2 a3/4 a-1/4

The powers of a are multiplied, so we add the exponents:

3/2 + 3/4 + -1/4 = (6 + 3 - 1)/4 =8/4 = 2



Now, multiply the "number part" and the "a's part" together to get: 216a2
The sum of two numbers equals one of the numbers. Which of the following equations represents this relationship?

a + b = b
a - 1 = b
a + b = b(a)
b - a = a
The Correct answer is:
a + b = b

We are told that the sum of two numbers equals one of the numbers. If we call the numbers a and b, we can say that the sum of a and b equals b, or a + b = b. We could also say a + b = a.
Which of the following is a possible value of x in the expression 3x + 2 > 13?

-4
2
-8
4
The Correct answer is:
4

Subtract 2 from both sides of the expression. You get 3x > 11. You know that x cannot be a negative number because a negative number times a positive number is a negative number. If you divide both sides of the expression by 3, you get x > 11/3. The only possible value of x is 4.
What is "two more than the product of seven and a number x"?

7(x + 2)
2 + (x + 7)
7x + 2
14x
The Correct answer is:
7x + 2

The product of seven and a number x is 7x. Two more than this is 7x + 2.
If the perimeter of a rectangle is 10x and its length is 3x, what is its width?

4x
3x
2x
x
The Correct answer is:
2x

The two long sides of the rectangle are each 3x, so together they are 6x.
3x + 3x = 6x
If the perimeter is 10x, then the other two sides (the width) must add up to 4x, because the perimeter is the sum of all sides.
perimeter = 2 length + 2 width
10x = 6x + 2 * width
4x = 2 * width

Since the two sides must be equal, each is 4x/2 = 2x
The clock in the living room is five minutes slow. The clock in the kitchen is two minutes fast. If the clock in the living room says 3:32, what will the clock in the kitchen say?

3:35
3:37
3:25
3:39
The Correct answer is:
3:39

If the clock in the living room is five minutes slow and the clock in the kitchen is two minutes fast, they are seven minutes apart. If the clock in the living room says 3:32, the clock in the kitchen will be seven minutes later: 3:39.
Ted has a cube and a block. The length, width, and height of the cube are all the same. The block is 9 in long, 6 in wide, and 4 in high. The cube and the block have the same volume. What is the height of the cube in inches?

8
6
5
10
The Correct answer is:
6

First, to find the volume of the block, multiply length width height. 9 6 4 = 216. The volume of the cube is also 216. Try each of the choices to find which one, when cubed, equals 216.
Including triangle ABC itself, how many triangles congruent to triangle ABC are there in the diagram?

9
12
18
23
Congruent triangles must have exactly the same angles and sides. Therefore, we do not include the ones that have the same angles but different sides - these are similar triangles.
However, we do include rotations. There are 9 triangles congruent to triangle ABC that are the same way up and 9 triangles congruent to triangle ABC that are upside down. Therefore, there are 18 altogether.
Picture shows circle with a radius of 12
What is the perimeter of the circle?

12
6
24
π * 24
Correct Answer:
π * 24


The perimeter of a circle is also known as its circumference. The perimeter or circumference of a circle is the distance around the edge.

The circumference of a circle is π times the diameter. The figure shows us that the radius is 12. Since diameter is 2 times the radius, the diameter is 2 * 12 = 24.

π d = π * 24 or answer D
A marathon is approximately 26.2 miles long. If a runner averages 8 minutes per mile, approximately how long will it take her to complete the marathon?

3 hours and 10 minutes
3 hours and 30 minutes
3 hours and 50 minutes
4 hours
The Correct answer is:
3 hours and 30 minutes

The runner averages 8 minutes per mile, so to find how long it will take her to run 26.2 miles, mutiply 8 * 26.2. The answer is 209.6. To find how many hours this is, divide 209.6 by 60. 209.6 / 60 = 3.49 hours. Now approximate how many minutes are in 0.49 hours.
0.49 ≈ 0.5 = 1/2

1/2 hour = 30 minutes

So the total time is about 3 hours and 30 minutes.

Be careful with this kind of question.0.49 hours is not equal to 49 minutes, because there are 60 minutes in an hour, and 0.49 represents 49/100.
A man walks around a perfectly circular path exactly one time. Then he walks directly to the center of the circle and across to the the other side. If the man walked 3.14 miles around the circular path, how many miles did he walk from one side of the path to the other (i.e. across the circle)? (Approximate π as 3.14)

3.14 miles
1 mile
0.5 miles
π miles
The Correct answer is:
1 mile

The man first walked around the perimeter or circumference of the circle. Then he walked the diameter of the circle. We are told that the circumference is 3.14 miles. 3.14 is also π (rounded). The circumference of a circle is π times diameter.

C = π * d

Place the values that what we know into the equation:

3.14 = 3.14 * d

Now divide both sides of the equation by 3.14 to get:

1 = d

So the diameter (the distance walked across the circle) is 1 mile.
The circumference of a circle is 66 inches. What is its diameter? (Use π = 22/7)

21 inches
14 inches
10.5 inches
√21 inches
Correct Answer:
21 inches


Use the formula for the circumferenceof a circle C = 2πr
2πr = 66
⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r = 66
⇒ r = (66 × 7)/(2 × 22) = (3 × 7)/2 = 21/2 = 10.5

Therefore, Diameter = 2 × 10.5 inches = 21 inches.
A woodworker needs boards for 6 shelves, each 2 feet 8 inches long. How many feet of boards should she buy?

16
12
14
18
The Correct answer is:
16

First convert 2 feet 8 inches to inches. 2 feet 8 inches = 32 inches. Now multiply 32 * 6 = 192. Now to find how many feet this is, divide by 12. 192 / 12 = 16.
Above is one type of sedimentary rock. This rock formed when particles were suspended and transported by water, then deposited, later becoming rock. This type of rock is called:

elastic sedimentary rock.
clastic sedimentary rock.
nonclastic sedimentary rock.
inelastic sedimentary rock.
The correct answer is:

clastic sedimentary rock.

Clastic means pieces were broken off, while nonclastic formed another way. Elastic and inelastic are not typically terms used to describe sedimentary rocks.

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Igneous rock comes from molten rock called magma. If the molten rock solidifies above the ground, it is called:

extrusive igneous rock.
intrusive or plutonic igneous rock.
basaltic igneous rocks.
granitic igneous rock.
The correct answer is:

extrusive igneous rock.

. Extrusive igneous rock solidified above ground. Intrusive or plutonic igneous rock include granite and basalt.
Which of the following is an example of biomass fuel?



wind
sun
water
wood
Correct answer:
wood

Fuel is a material that is used to make energy. Biomass fuel is made from living things. The types of biomass fuel includes wood, field crops, fecal material and peat.
When two air masses collide, so that the flow is nearly parallel to the front between cold and warm air masses, the position of the front doesn't move. This is called:

an occluded front.
a warm front.
a cold front.
a stationary front.
The correct answer is:

a stationary front.

The air flows but the front doesn't change position. An occluded front is where a cold air mass runs into a colder air mass and weakens the system. A warm front is where warm air moves over cold air. And a cold front is where cold air pushes warm air up.
On a map, lines that show how far east or west a position is from a standard line called the prime meridian are called lines of longitude. Which of the following statements is NOT true of longitude lines?

Longitude lines all intersect at the poles because the Earth is round.
Longitude lines are always the same distance apart, no matter which two lines you pick.
Longitude lines are the same distance apart at the equator.
The prime meridian represents a longitude of 0 - neither east nor west.
The correct answer is:

Longitude lines are always the same distance apart, no matter which two lines you pick.

This statement is not true; they get closer together as you go north or south.

Longitude lines all intersect at the poles because the Earth is round is true; even though they seem parallel, they meet because of the Earth's curvature.

Longitude lines are the same distance apart at the equator. This is true at any line of latitude (except exactly at the poles).

The prime meridian represents a longitude of 0 - neither east nor west. It was established at Greenwich, England.
Which of the following sources attributed to the creation of oceans?

spring tides
comets
surface currents
upwelling waters
Correct Answer:
comets


comets. Scientists believe that oceans originated from comets, meteorites and through volcanism. Further, scientists speculated that when comets traveled in space and collided with the Earth, water was released and filled the ocean basins.
After evaporating to water vapor, as temperatures decrease as you go higher, the water vapor will become a liquid again when it cools enough, in order to become rain. This change from a gas to a liquid is:

evaporation.
condensation.
sublimation.
freezing.
The correct answer is:

condensation.

This is a gas to a liquid. Evaporation is a liquid to a gas. Sublimation is a solid to a gas, or a gas to a solid. And freezing is a liquid to a solid, as in sleet
Numbers in science can be extremely large or extremely small. Because it's difficult to use normal notation to express these numbers, a shorthand was developed called scientific notation. For example, the average distance from the Earth to the moon is 384,400,000 meters, or, in scientific notation:

384.4 x 106 meters
3.844 x 108 meters
3.844 x 105 meters
3.844 x 10-6 meters
The correct answer is: 3.844 x 108 meters

384.4 x 106 meters is improper because the decimal point is in the incorrect position.
3.844 x 105 meters is equal to 384, 400 m
3.844 x 10-6 meters is equal to 0.000003844 m
Your second grade class is having a lot of trouble understanding the concept of the moon's phases. Which might be an appropriate project for a second grade class to help them understand the phases of the moon?

Having them color circles showing the phases of the moon; for example, the new moon being completely black and the half moon being half white and half black.
Giving them the definitions of the new moon, gibbous moon, half moon and crescent moon
Demonstrating the phases of the moon with a lamp and globe
Teaching them a rhyme about the moon waxing and waning
Correct Answer:
Having them color circles showing the phases of the moon; for example, the new moon being completely black and the half moon being half white and half black.


Second grade students respond well to hands-on activities. Coloring circles and labeling them with the correct phase and perhaps displaying these on a poster would work well. Another activity would be for them to keep a moon journal in which they color the moon they see each night on a calendar page.
This is the most destructive sea wave in the ocean. It is triggered by an earthquake under the ocean.

A tombolo.
A tsunami.
A tethys
A typhoon.
The correct answer is:

A tsunami.

Incorrectly called a tidal wave, they have nothing to do with tides. A tombolo is a sand bar that connects islands with the mainland. A tethys is an ancient sea, and a typhoon is another name for a hurricane.
When tectonic plates move, they cause earthquakes. The energy created by the force of an earthquake is called:

tectonic energy.
seismic energy.
mantle energy.
epicentric energy.
The correct answer is:

seismic energy.

Seismic energy is earthquake energy. The plates are tectonic plates, but the energy is not tectonic. The mantle is underneath the plates; the epicenter is where the center of the earthquake is.
The planet pictured above is the eighth planet from the Sun. It was recently discovered to have a Great Dark Spot along with white streaks in its atmosphere. It is:

Neptune.
Uranus.
Pluto.
Saturn.
The correct answer is:

Neptune.

Neptune has different features in its atmosphere than Uranus, even though the planet look similar. Pluto is farther out and much smaller; not a gas giant. And Saturn is the sixth planet, looking much different from Neptune.
We know that less dense materials float in more dense materials. According to the most widely accepted theory of how the Earth formed, the molten materials inside the Earth began to separate by density, with the more dense materials - like iron - sinking toward the center and the less dense materials floating up toward the surface. This process is called:

exfoliation.
differentiation.
correlation.
accretion.
The correct answer is:
differentiation.

Differentiation is when the layers are formed from different rocks. Exfoliation is a type of erosion caused by layers of a rock peeling off in sheets like the skin of an onion. Correlation is matching up fossils from rock layers in different locations, dating them from the same time period. Accretion is the collecting of materials, like a crystal gathering molecules of a compound in order to form the structured solid.
Just like wave energy, ocean waves have parts. The highest point of an ocean wave is called its:

frequency.
trough.
wavelength.
crest.
The correct answer is:

crest.

The crest is the highest point, the trough is the lowest point. How many waves pass a given point in a second is the frequency. And the wavelength is the distance from crest to crest.
Oceanography is the study of the salty waters around the Earth. What term is used to refer to creatures that only live in salty water?

Aquatic.
Watery.
Submerged.
Marine.
The correct answer is:

Marine.

Marine creatures live only in saly water; aquatic means they live in any water. Watery and submerged is what they are, but they are too general.
The blanket of gases that surrounds the earth such as nitrogen, oxygen, water vapor, argon and carbon dioxide is known as

atmosphere
astronomy
geochemistry
oceanography
Correct answer:

atmosphere

The Earth's atmosphere is the blanket of gases that surrounds the Earth. The Earth's atmosphere is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% water vapor, argon, carbon dioxide and other traces of gases. Astronomy, geochemistry and oceanography are incorrect answer choices as these are the areas of study and subspecialties of Earth Science.
Clouds are classified by shape and elevation. This kind of cloud, like the one pictured, starts low, but because they have strong updrafts of air, they can be very tall and column shaped.They typically lead to thunderstorms. They are called:

nimbostratus clouds.
cirrocumulus clouds.
cumulostratus clouds.
cumulonimbus clouds.
The correct answer is:

cumulonimbus clouds.

They are also called thunderheads because of their anvil-shaped appearance. Nimbostratus clouds are low and flat, while cirrocumulus clouds are high and puffy, but don't bring rain. Cumulostratus clouds would be puffy clouds with flattened bottoms, but they are not cumulonimbus.
Which of the following strategies indicates that a teacher is using the "observation" method of assessment?

Having students build an electromagnet during science lab
Requiring that students write a report based on a lesson
Using a checklist
Asking questions at the end of a lesson
Correct Answer:
Using a checklist


Using a checklist indicates that a teacher is using the "observation" method of assessment. Teachers can use checklists to ensure that they assess each student based on the same criteria and can help them pinpoint weak areas for individual students and groups of students.
Fish, frogs, toads, and snakes are all said to be "cold-blooded." This term means:

they have internal control of their body temperature.
they have cold blood all the time, no matter where they are.
they keep their internal body temperature exactly the same all the time.
their body temperature is controlled by their external environment.
The correct answer is:

their body temperature is controlled by their external environment.

They control it by basking in the sun, or by staying in or near water. They do not have internal control of their body temperature - that's warm blooded. They don't keep their internal body temperature exactly the same. It can be warm in the sun, or colder under water.
The death of which type of cell allows a plant to increase in diameter each year?

phloem
cambium
xylem
lenticel
Correct answer:
cambium

The cambium contains meristematic cells that are capable of reproduction. Cambium cells produce phloem and xylem. In the winter, cold temperatures kill these cells of the plant. In the spring, the cambium cells reproduce to make new phloem and xylem cells. This allows the plant to live from year to year and increase in diameter.
In an experiment, land plants are watered with salt water withe the same concentration as sea water. What would the control group be watered by?

They would have no water at all.
They would have half the amount of fresh water.
They would grow in a twice as dilute concentration of salt water, with the same amount.
They would be given an equal amount of fresh water per day.
The correct answer would be:

They would be given an equal amount of fresh water per day.

This way, the difference between the two groups is just the salt, not the amount of water or any other factor. With no water at all, the plants would die. With one-half the amount, it would be difficult to measure the exact result, since the less amount of water would have an effect. And half as dilute would make it difficult to see the results, since both groups would have salt
Arthropods are the largest group of species and the largest group of individuals compared to any other group. The name "arthropod" comes from their important characteristic of having:

an exoskeleton.
jointed legs or appendages.
excellent sense organs.
a lightweight body made of Chitin.
The correct answer is:

jointed legs or appendages.

The word "arthro" means "joint"; "poda" meaning legs or other appendages. They have an exoskeleton, but the name doesn't mean that. They also have excellent sense organs and a lightweight body made of Chitin, but the name doesn't mean that.
These pore-bearing creatures are animals, even though they don't move as adults. They filters water through these pores and digest the small nutrients they collect. They are:

starfish.
jellyfish.
clams.
sponges.
The correct answer is:

sponges.

They are pore-bearing (poriferans) and filter their food from sea water. Starfish are echinoderms; jellyfish are cnidarians; and clams are mollusks. They also all move as adults.
Grasshoppers, like the one in the picture above, have legs and feet designed for the way they live. A grasshopper's feet are designed for:

holding on to human skin and hair.
walking on surfaces that are upside down.
holding on to a vertical surface, and holding on to plants in general.
skimming on top of a surface of water.

Hide Explanation
The correct answer is:

holding on to a vertical surface, and holding on to plants in general.

Grasshoppers use their feet to grab onto and hold on to vertical surfaces and any other kind of plant surface. A mosquito holds on to human skin and hair. Flies walk on upside-down surfaces. Water striders skim on top of the surface of water.
What are the primary functions of plant roots?

Water and nutrient absorption.
Anchorage and nutrient absorption
Anchorage, water, and nutrient absorption.
Carbon fixation, anchorage, and water absorption.
Correct Answer:
Anchorage, water, and nutrient absorption.



The root is the part of the plant that lies below the surface of the soil. The two major functions of roots are absorption of water and nutrients; and anchoring the plant to the ground.
Plants are able to respond to their environment. One of these responses is to water. This attraction is called:

geotropism.
haptotropism.
hydrotropism.
phototropism.
The correct answer is:

hydrotropism.

Plant roots seek water. Haptotropism is response to touch or contact. Phototropism is attraction to light.
Above is a picture of a compound light microscope. The first lens, closest to the specimen, to magnify the image is called the:

ocular lenses.
objective lens.
condenser lens.
eyepiece lens.
The correct answer is:

objective lens.

This is one of the lenses mounted on the nosepiece. The ocular and the eyepiece are the second lens to magnify the image. The condenser lens is below the specimen, focusing light into it.
Trophisms are reaction of plants to their surroundings. The response of a plant to grow in the opposite direction from the way gravity pulls it is:

phototropism.
hydrotropism.
geotropism.
chemotropism.
The correct answer is:

geotropism.

This is the response of a plant to grow opposite of the pull of gravity. Phototropism is growing toward the light. Hydrotropism is toward water, and chemotrpism is toward nutrients.
In an experiment, a bean seed is opened up to look at the baby plant inside of it. There is a special name for the seed leaves of the bean (or any baby plant), a characteristic used to put them into groups. The scientific name for seed leaves is:

cotyledons.
radicles.
steles.
apical meristems.
The correct answer is:

cotyledons.

That's why plants are divided into monocots (one seed leaf) and dicots (two). Radicles are sometimes what the embryonic roots are called. The stele is the center of the developing root. Apical meristems are actively growing tissues; apical usually means it will become the stem.
The following are plant parts paired with the hormone they produce. Which of the following is mismatched?

Apical meristems - auxin.
Roots - cytokinins.
Ethylene - cell walls.
Green fruit - abscisic acid.
Correct answer: Ethylene - cell walls
Ethylene is produced by plants in the tissues of ripening fruits and the aging leaves of flowers. Ethylene is a chemical that causes fruit ripening. In the agricultural business, biologists have developed technology that suppresses the function of Ethylene in tomatoes. This allows a delay of ripening. The fruit can then be ripened on cue by adding ethylene gas. This reduces spoilage prior to going to market.
Above is a flower called Alstromeria. The brown structures are the male parts of the flower that produce:

seeds.
reproductive spores.
pollen.
ova.

Hide Explanation
The correct answer is:

pollen.

The brown specks produced are pollen grains. They have not yet reproduced, so they are not seeds. They are not able to reproduce, so they are not reproductive spores.They are male, so they are not ova (immature seeds).
Above is a drawing of a fish, the common carp. These fish, and others like them, are put into a group known as:

Osteichthyes, the bony fish.
Chondrichthyes, the cartilaginous fish.
Agnatha, the jawless fish.
Amphibia, the animals that live in water and on land.
The correct answer is:

Osteichthyes, the bony fish.

This is a bony fish because it has a skeleton of bone and a bony flap over the gills called an operculum. Chondrichthyes, the cartilaginous fish, include sharks and skates. Agnatha, the jawless fish, includes sea lampreys, and this is a fish, not an amphibian.
Diseases are caused by organisms referred to as pathogens. Pathogens that infect a person that cause colds, the flu, the chicken pox, and measles are:

bacteria.
spirochetes.
viruses.
prions.
The correct answer is:

viruses.

These are all caused by viruses. Bacteria cause many infections and certain kinds of pneumonia. Spirochetes cause Lyme disease, and prions are disease-causing proteins.
DNA is normally passed on to an organism from both parents, but some DNA only comes from the mother. Where is that DNA located?

In the nucleus.
In the mitochondria.
In the cytoplasm.
In the Golgi bodies.
Correct Answer:
In the mitochondria.


Mitochondrial DNA is only passed down by the mother. That means that all of the DNA in your mitochondria was passed down to you by your mother.
A moving object changes its position over time. The change in position over time of an object is its:

force.
acceleration.
momentum.
speed.
The correct answer is:

speed.

The change in position over time is speed. Force is a push or a pull. Acceleration is change in speed over time. Momentum is mass times velocity.
In his experiment at the Leaning Tower of Pisa, Galileo showed that all objects fall at the same rate, regardless of mass. So why does a feather fall more slowly than a brick?

The brick is heavier, so it falls faster because of its greater mass.
The feather has greater air resistance than the brick, so it falls more slowly.
The feather is lighter than air, so it is held up like a piece of wood floating in water.
Its an optical illusion: they both fall at the same rate.
The correct answer is:

The feather has greater air resistance than the brick, so it falls more slowly.

The feather actually does fall more slowly (it's no illusion), but that's because of the effect of air resistance. The feather is not lighter than air (it's not really floating).
The crumpled fenders on a car after a crash are a very good illustration of which of the following?

F = ma.
Newton's First Law.
An inelastic collision.
An elastic collision.
Correct Answer:
An inelastic collision.


By definition, an inelastic collision is one in which kinetic energy is not conserved. The crumpled fender absorbs the force of the impact, so the kinetic energy is lost in the crumpling of the car; not in a rebounding as in the collision of two billiard balls.
What is the primary ability of a capacitor?

To cause electrical resistance.
To step up an electric charge.
To hold and discharge an electrical charge.
To turn a circuit off and on.
Correct Answer:
To hold and discharge an electrical charge.


A capacitor can hold and discharge an electrical charge. It is primarily used to equalize the flow in a closed electrical circuit.
A box weighing 180 newtons is lifted 0.2 meters to be placed on a shelf. How much work is done to the box?

36 joules of work.
560 joules of work.
900 joules of work.
760 joules of work.
The correct answer is:

36 joules of work.

Work equals force times distance. So, 180 N times 0.2 meters is 36 joules of work. The other answers are incorrect.
In 1940, Galloping Gurdy (the Tacoma Narrows Bridge) collapsed due to a windstorm.
The chief cause of its collapse was considered to be which of the following?

Very high winds.
Faulty materials used to build the bridge.
Resonance with the wind.
A freak tornado.
Correct Answer:
Resonance with the wind.


Resonance with the wind caused much greater swinging than the bridge could handle to occur. Resonance can magnify vibration far beyond any regular physical force.
What is the best description of what matter is ?

Everything in the universe, including energy.
The stuff that makes up the space between electrons.
Anything that has mass and takes up space.
Protons and electrons.
Correct Answer:
Anything that has mass and takes up space.


Everything in the univese except energy makes up matter. All matter has mass and takes up space. Protons and electrons are matter, but so are neutrons.
Magnification of an object by a lens is done using which of the following principles?

Reflection.
Dispersion.
Refraction.
Superposition.
The Correct answer is:
Refraction

Refraction of light causes the light waves to bend in a way that magnifies the object. This property of light allows the use of lenses to create both the microscope and the telescope.
The pH scale is a measurement of which of the following?

Hydrogen ion concentration.
Hydroxide ion concentration.
Cation concentration.
Anion concentration.
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen ion concentration.


The cologarithm of the activity of dissolved hydrogen atoms (H+) is the pH. The lower the pH, the higher that the hydrogen ion concentration is, and the more acidic that a solution is.
When a force acts on an object and work is done, the object will do which of the following?

Be chemically changed.
Disintegrate.
Be crushed.
Move.
Correct Answer:
Move.


Work is the movement of an object under an applied force. Movement is the result of work being done on an object with force.
Nuclear reactors are capable of producing large amounts of energy. What process produces it?

Radioactive decay.
The burning of coal.
Nuclear fusion.
Nuclear fission.
Correct Answer:
Nuclear fission.


Just like an atom bomb, nuclear power plants produce energy from nuclear fission. Fission is the splitting of large atoms to produce smaller atoms and energy. If a chain reaction were to occur in the fission process, it is slowed down and controlled in a nuclear reactor, and out of control in an atomic bomb.
Isaac Newton, pictured above, determined the mathematical formula for the law of gravity: F = G m1m2 / d2 . F is the force of gravity, m represents the masses, and d is the distance apart. In this formula, the letter "G" stands for:

acceleration due to gravity.
the universal gravitation constant.
the speed of light.
the specific heat.
The correct answer is:

the universal gravitation constant.

He couldn't figure this out in his lifetime. Henry Cavendish determined its value many years later. Acceleration due to gravity.is g. The speed of light is c. And specific heat is cp.
A concrete float can be used to construct a floating marina because it floats on water. The best explanation for this is which of the following?

Concrete is lighter than water.
The concrete float as a whole is less dense than the water that it displaces.
Concrete and water don't mix.
The concrete float as a whole is more dense than the water that it displaces.
Correct Answer:
The concrete float as a whole is less dense than the water that it displaces.


According to Archimedes' Principle, objects float when they are less dense than the fluid that they displace. Concrete floats have a light inner core of styrofoam which makes them less dense than water, hence they float.
Work adds energy to an object. Power is work done over a period of time. If a 180 Newton box is lifted 0.2 meters in .9 seconds, how much power is needed in watts?

100 watts.
40 watts.
200 watts.
1000 watts.
The correct answer is:

40 watts.

The formula is work divided by time equals power. And work is force times distance. So, 180 N times 0.2 meters is 36 Joules, divided by 0.9 seconds is 40 watts. The other answers are incorrect.
"State criminal abortion laws, like those involved here, that except from criminality, only a life-saving procedure on the mother's behalf without regard to the stage of her pregnancy and other interests involved violate the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment, which protects against State action the right to privacy, including a woman's qualified right to terminate her pregnancy. Though the State cannot override that right, it has legitimate interests in protecting both the pregnant woman's health and the potentiality of human life, each of which interests grows and reaches a "compelling" point at various stages of the woman's approach to term." The preceding passage is most likely a selection from which of the following Supreme Court decisions?

Furman v. Georgia.
Doe v. Bolton.
Morton v. Ruiz.
Roe v. Wade.
Correct Answer:
Roe v. Wade.


Roe v. Wade (1973) ruled that abortion is a decision taken between a woman and her physician, and that the Texas law making abortion criminal intruded upon the right to privacy inherent in this decision. The Supreme Court held that "the principal thrust of appellant's attack on the Texas statutes is that they improperly invade a right, said to be possessed by the pregnant woman, to choose to terminate her pregnancy. Appellant would discover this right in the concept of personal "liberty" embodied in the 14th Amendment's Due Process Clause; or in personal, marital, familial, and sexual privacy said to be protected by the Bill of Rights or its penumbras." The effect of Roe v. Wade was that all state laws making abortion illegal were found to be unconstitutional, and abortion therefore, was made legal throughout the United States.
What act helped set the guidelines as to where slavery was permitted in the United States?

Texas Compromise.
Act of Slavery.
Missouri Compromise.
Mexican War Act.
Correct Answer: Missouri Compromise This stated that any state which was above a certain line could be free while those below it could own slaves. Missouri was a slave state but later states such as Maine which was above the line was declared free.
When the Constitution was first created, how were slaves counted in regards to votes?

Three-fifths of a person.
One-fourth of a person.
Two-thirds of a person.
Five-eighths of a person
Correct Answer: Three-fifths of a person This allowed for the South to gain significant numbers without having to worry about slaves being able to cast their votes. It also backfired and made them gain more slaves so that they would have higher population numbers.
Which of the following definitions best characterizes a representative democracy?

A form of government in which citizens make political decisions themselves.
A form of government in which citizens choose a body of political decision makers.
A form of government in which a small group makes political decisions without regard to the interests of citizens.
A form of government in which a small group makes political decisions based on what it deems best for the citizens.
Correct answer:
A form of government in which citizens choose a body of political decision makers.

This question tests your knowledge of an important term in politics. A government consisting of a small group making decisions based on what it deems best for its citizens defines an oligarchy. A small group making political decisions without regard to the interests of citizens would best define an autocracy. When citizens make political decisions themselves, they are participating in a form of direct democracy, whereas when they choose or elect a body of people to make such decisions for them, they are participating in a representative democracy.
Mrs. Prine is using the play The Crucible with her sixth grade class. She is combining this with a study of New England society in the 1600's. Which of the following would not be accomplished with this plan?

To integrate literature into social studies
To illustrate the importance of religion in shaping a society
To understand how the Great Awakening ended the Salem Witch trials

To help students understand the role of women in early Colonial America
The Correct answer is:
To understand how the Great Awakening ended the Salem Witch trials

The Salem Witch trials occurred in the 1690's. The Great Awakening began in the 1730's. The trials ended long before this. The trials show how important religion was in the lives of New England society. The trials also show how women who aspired to rise out of their traditional roles were a threat to society. Many outspoken women or women of property were condemned as witches. Using literature is often a good way to help students understand complex issues of history.
When the first amendment was passed, it was to guarantee free speech, especially with regard to what?

Religious viewpoints.
Hate crimes.
Declarations of war.
Drafting contracts.
Correct Answer: Religious viewpoints One of the reasons why most people chose to come to America was so that they would be able to escape from the pressures of the church. By adding this, those who had come here for those reasons were pleased. The other reason why the first amendment was passed was to make sure people were able to voice their concerns over the structure of the government without worrying about being censored.
What article of the Constitution creates Congress?

Article One.
Article Two.
Article Three.
Article Five.
Correct Answer: Article One This sets up the bicameral legislative bodies for the government. It helps to create both bodies of Congress such as the Senate and the House of Representatives.
When hostilities broke out between the British and the American Colonies, the odds seemed to be stacked in favor of the British. Which of the following was NOT one of the strengths of the British?

They had a standing army of about 50,000 men.
They employed 30,000 mercenary troops.
They had troops posted in Europe and Ireland.
They had the finest navy in the world.
The Correct answer is:
They had troops posted in Europe and Ireland.

The British had a well-trained standing army and employed foreign mercenaries. They had the best navy in the world. However, their leaders were not invested in the war, the king was obsessed with many things, they had to keep forces in Europe because of Irish unrest and threats from the French. And, most telling of all, they didn't take think the colonies had a chance.
The colonists had no regular army, no navy and few resources to assemble them. But they did know the land and had a cause the believed in.
During the Revolutionary War, the Second Continental Congress had to move several times to avoid capture. Which is NOT one of the places that was used as the capital (or where the Congress met) during the war?

York, PA
Phildelphia, PA
Lancaster, PA
Reading, PA
The Correct answer is:
Reading, PA

The Congress moved several times in PA and once to Baltimore. It never met in Reading.
Which of the following principles of international law motivates the United States NOT to recognize the independence of Abkhazia and South Ossetia?

Territorial integrity.
Humanitarian intervention.
Self-determination.
Non-refoulement.
Correct Answer:
Territorial integrity.


The principle of territorial integrity holds that the status quo in regard to the geographic limits of sovereignty takes precedent over pressures for secession even if such pressures are backed by ethnic and national histories that predate the legal establishment of territory, such as through treaties. To change previously recognized borders of a nation, according to the principle of territorial integrity, constitutes an act of aggression, and thus this principle can easily come into conflict with the principles of humanitarian intervention and self-determination, as in the cases of Abkhazia and South Ossetia, that the United States recognizes as regions within the sovereign nation state of Georgia.
What country gave the Statue of Liberty to America?

Spain.
Canada.
France.
England.
Correct Answer: France Eiffel who also developed the Eiffel Tower for France gave the statue to the American people. It has been one of the most endearing signs for the nation.
Which of the following classroom assignments has the lowest level of contextual support?

Students are paired for discussions comparing and contrasting life in the city with life in the country.
Students are given 15 minutes to write a paragraph about the differences between life in the city and life in the country.
Student groups are given a pile of books on the subjects of city life and country life and are asked to create a Venn Diagram comparing city life to country life.
Students work in cooperative groups to create posters reflecting aspects of city life or country life as the teacher circulates answering questions or providing help.
The Correct answer is:
Students are given 15 minutes to write a paragraph about the differences between life in the city and life in the country.

The level of support given to a student for completing a task is contextual support. Working alone reflects the lowest level of contextual support. Contextual support is especially important for ELL students.
During the framing of the U.S. Constitution, the states argued about representation. The big states wanted representation based on population; the small wanted equal representation. The South had a particular wish. What was their wish?

They wanted representation based on the amount of land you owned.
They wanted representation for all men and women, not just men.
They wanted only landowners to be counted for population.
They wanted to have their slaves counted into the population count.
The Correct answer is:
They wanted to have their slaves counted into the population count.

The Southern states wanted their slaves counted. They won the right to count them as "three-fifths" of a person. This has been a controversial part of our Constitution.
Who leads the House of Representatives in discussions?

Speaker of the House.
Vice President.
President.
Whip of the House.
Correct Answer: Speaker of the House The Speaker of the House brings up the new issues which the house needs to discuss to find solutions to. This position is usually given to the person from the political party which has the most members in it currently. It changes as more people are brought in.
The statement that Johnson was able to use "whatever forces necessary" to go to war in Vietnam was what?

Gulf of Nam Resolution.
Invisible Forces.
Gulf of Tonkin Resolution.
Iran-Contra Affair.
Correct Answer: Gulf of Tonkin Resolution This started when North Vietnam shelled two Navy ships. The act was later repealed when it was found to have given too much power to the president to call troops.
The Continental Army camped in Valley Forge during the winter of 1776. Armies did not usually fight during the winter, but George Washington led his men on a daring raid on Christmas Eve. What did they do?

Raided the British encampment in Philadelphia
Crossed the Delaware River to surprise the Hessian troops
Surrounded the British brigade camped in Bridgeport on the Schuylkill River
Smashed through the British blockade on the Delaware River
The Correct answer is:
Crossed the Delaware River to surprise the Hessian troops.

The British were "living high" in Philadelphia and had commandeered most of the supplies in the area. The Continental Army camped in Valley Forge during one of the coldest, wettest winters on record. G. Washington led his men on a daring raid on Christmas. They crossed the Delaware in the early morning hours and surprised a Hessian brigade at Trenton. They captured 900 men and 1,200 weapons without losing a man.
Which list correctly states the five themes central to geography?

Regions, patterns, processes, movement, and connections
Human interaction, cultural interaction, regional interaction, patterns of population, and location
Places, locations, cultural interaction, maps, and demographics
Place, location, human-environmental interaction, movement and connections, and regions, patterns, and processes.
The Correct answer is:
Place, location, human-environmental interaction, movement and connections, and regions, patterns, and processes.


The five themes of geography are: place; location; movement and connections; human-environmental interaction; regions, patterns and processes.
Place: Continents, countries, cities etc.
Location: absolute and relative on the globe
Human-environmental interaction -- how people rely on and affect the environment
Movement and Connections: transportation, communication, people and goods
Regions, patterns and processes: climatic, economic, political and cultural
When people vote for a law to be enacted, what kind of democracy is that?

Referendum.
Direct.
Implied.
Theoretical.
Correct Answer: Referendum It would be almost impossible for every person in the country to gather together to discuss a bill. So instead, when a bill passes through the houses people are allowed to vote on it. This allows for them to give their direct input into the situation. This style of government though is not available at a federal level.
The Voting Rights Act of 1965 had which of the following effects?

Granted all United States citizens the right to vote.
Outlawed poll taxes and literacy tests.
Outlawed ID requirements.
Ruled that voting places must be wheelchair accessible.
Correct Answer:
Outlawed poll taxes and literacy tests.


The Voting Rights Act of 1965 did not grant the right to vote to all United States citizens (for example, in many states, people in prisons and ex-felons do not have the right to vote), nor did it outlaw the requirement to show some form of identification in order to prove residency that some states have. The Act also did not touch on accessibility requirements for people in wheelchairs or with other mobility impairments. Rather, the Votingl Rights Act of 1965 specifically outlawed the poll tax and literacy test that several southern states had used to disenfranchise Black voters.
What amendment outlawed slavery?

13th.
14th.
8th.
21st.
Correct Answer: 13th This amendment was passed to make sure that slaves were freed. The 13th, 14th, and 15th amendments were all passed around the same time in order to give to slaves some of the rights which they had been denied years earlier.
The Panic of 1857 was due to this industry suffering financial difficulties.

Cotton.
Tobacco.
Textiles.
Railroad.
Correct Answer: Railroad The railroad was considered to be the central part of the American economy and was responsible for moving goods to and from places. When the financial institutions which had loaned the money found out that the railroads were not going to be able to pay them back, panic went through the nation and caused economic troubles.
What term is used for the total amount of money which is due from the nation?

Debt.
Deficit.
I.O.U.
Bill.
Correct Answer: Debt The debt rises each year as the nation is forced to borrow money not only from citizens but also from other nations around the world. The national debt shows how much has been borrowed without being repaid.
Patrick Henry made a fiery speech in 1775 to the Virginia Convention. What was he arguing for when he said "Give me liberty or give me death?"

The right for Americans to arm a citizen's militia
The right to assembly
Freedom of speech
American free trade
The Correct answer is:
The right for Americans to arm a citizen's militia

Patrick Henry was in favor of a citizen's militia. In Massachusetts, a group called The Minutemen was a citizen's militia. The British marched against them.
The Korean War cost more than $50 billion and 33,000 American lives. It was an unpopular war. Which of the following is not true for this war?

General Douglas MacArthur disagreed publicly with President Truman over Truman's decision not to invade China.
U.S soldiers were not involved in the war until after the Chinese invaded.
In 1949, the Soviets left a communist government in charge in the north and the U.S. left a pro-Western government in the south.
In 1950, the North Koreans invaded South Korea. Foreign forces came to the aid of South Korea in what was termed a "police action."
The Correct answer is:
U.S soldiers were not involved in the war until after the Chinese invaded.

Truman ordered U.S. troops to Korea to aid South Korea in what was termed a "police action" in 1950. The U.N. troops were under the command of Gen. MacArthur, who would later publicly disagree with Truman when a truce was declared 1953.U.S. soldiers were in place in Korea before the Chinese joined the fight on the side of North Korea.
Teachers often use trade books to introduce units in the content area. Which book might be appropriate for introducing a unit in second grade social studies?

"I Love My Family"
"So You Want to Be President"
"Town Mouse, Country Mouse"
"Follow the Drinking Gourd"
The Correct answer is:
"Town Mouse, Country Mouse"

According to the scope and sequence for U.S. social studies programs, community is an appropriate topic for second grade students. This book could be a good stepping off point for introducing urban, suburban and rural communities.
The Expanding horizons approach or widening horizon approach assumes that children learn about their environments in expanding concentric circles. It begins with what children know at a developmental level and moves outward. The topics grow with the children. State standards also influence this instruction.

K-1 Family Home, School
2 Community
3 State history and geography and/or holidays and history of the U.S.
4 Regions of the world or state history and geography
5 American history and geography
6 World history and geography
7 State history and/or U.S. History
8 Civics, American History
You are using Johnny Appleseed's travels to introduce a theme concerning the deforestation and agricultural development in Pennsylvania, Ohio and Indiana. What theme of geography might be your focus?

Relative location
Movement and connections
Human-environmental interaction
Global issues
The Correct answer is:
Human-environmental interaction

As settlers moved west, they cut down forests to clear land for farms. One requirement for homesteading was to have an orchard begun within two years of staking a claim. Johnny Appleseed went before the settlers clearing land and planting apple trees. He then sold them or gave them to the settlers. This clearing of land for farms permanently changed the region.
The Orinoco River flows through which of the following countries?

Brazil and Bolivia.
Venezuela and Colombia.
Cameroon and Gabon.
Thailand and Cambodia.
Correct Answer:
Venezuela and Colombia.


The Orinoco River is 1,330 miles long and crosses the entire country of Venezuela east to west. About a quarter of the river's length is in Colombia.
What defines the official language of a nation?

the language spoken by most people
the language which originated in a country
the family a language belongs to
the language designated by law
The Correct answer is:
the language designated by law

The official language of a nation is decreed by law. The official language of Namibia is English even though only about 2% of the people speak this as a first language. A language family is related to its historic origins. The U.S.A. has no official language.
In the 1950's, oil was discovered off the coast of Nigeria. This discovery prompted some geologists to search for oil off the coast of Brazil, and their hunch paid off. Which of the following geographic processes best explains the geologists' choice to look for oil off the coast of Brazil?

Both countries lie along the equator, and therefore have similar climates.
The South Atlantic Current affects the ecosystems of both countries in similar ways.
The Theory of Plate Tectonics suggests that both countries were one at one time.
The Niger and Amazon Rivers both spew out massive amounts of silt.
Correct Answer:
The Theory of Plate Tectonics suggests that both countries were one at one time.



This question tests your knowledge of geographic processes in relation to resource extraction. Current climate has no effect on oil reserves, which are fossil fuels resulting from the transformation of organic matter laid down hundreds of millions of years ago. Contemporary ecology also has no relation to such deposits of "fossilized ecology". Silt, the non-organic remains of eroded rock, and spewed out to form deltas by rivers such as the Niger and the Amazon, also, by definition, has nothing to do with oil; although if the silt deposition continues for several tens of millions of years, and traps organic matter, it might contribute to petroleum formation in the distant future. However, the geologists chose to look for oil in Brazil, once oil had been discovered in Nigeria, because the Theory of Plate Tectonics suggests that about 200 million years ago, the two countries were actually part of a single continent, and thus the fossilized remains—petroleum—of an ancient shared ecosystem would necessarily be found today in countries thousands of miles apart. The correct answer therefore, is C.
Your geography students are confused about "relative location" and "absolute location." Which project below might help them better understand the meaning of "relative location?"

Plotting the location of the Mississippi River using longitude and latitude
Researching the transportation system, commerce and cities along the Mississippi River
Examining the effect population has had on the environment surrounding the Mississippi River
Studying climatic shifts for the past millennium in the United States
The Correct answer is:
Researching the transportation system, commerce and cities along the Mississippi River

Plotting longitude and latitude is a devise for finding absolute location on the globe. Relative location deals with the interaction between places. The Mississippi River is a major conduit for transporting goods in the middle of the U.S. Commerce, and the cities handling this commerce, has been affected by the course of this river.
The ancient civilization of Sumer was known for the ziggurats it constructed. Where is Sumer located today?

Iraq.
Iran.
Ethiopia.
Jordan.
Correct Answer: Iraq The ancient civilization of Sumer gave the world many great things including the first code of law. It was one of the first civilizations to be created in the area known as Mesopotamia.
The United States is what type of state?

An enclave
An exclave
A perforated state
A fragmented state
The Correct answer is:
A fragmented state

A perforated state completely surrounds another. An example would be Italy which surrounds San Marino or South Africa which surrounds Lesotho. An enclave is a state completely surrounded by another, like Vatican City in Italy. An island is land completely surrounded by water. An exclave is a piece of territory which is not an island which is separated from its state by another state, like Alaska. A fragmented state is one with parts separated from it. The U.S. is a fragmented state because of Hawaii and Alaska.
Which of the following nations has the highest population of Muslims?

Saudi Arabia.
Pakistan.
Iran.
Indonesia.
Correct Answer:
Indonesia.


Indonesia has an estimated population of 238 million, of which 86% are Muslim. The population of Saudi Arabia is 28 million, Pakistan is 166 million, and Iran about 71 million.
Northwest, southeast, northeast and southwest are examples of what kind of directions?

Prime
Secondary
Cardinal
Intercardinal
The Correct answer is:
Intercardinal

On a compass rose, the four cardinal directions are north, south, east and west. The intercardinal directions are northeast, northwest, southeast, and southwest. There may be as many as 24 more subdivisions.
All of the following facts about the two West African islands of Sao Tome and Principe are true EXCEPT

Pirates from all over the world used them as a base during their era.
The two islands and their islets are an independent country.
They are located on the equator.
Each of the two islands has northeastern lowlands, central volcanic highlands, and swift-flowing streams.
Correct Answer: Pirates from all over the world used them as a base during their era Sao Tome and Principe are separated by about 90 miles and a number of islets. They were discovered in the 1470s and visited by European navigators. They were colonized by the Portuguese and unfortunately used as staging areas during the slave trade of the 16th century. In 1951, Portugal considered the islands as overseas provinces. They achieved their independence in 1975 and became a democratic republic.
In Uzbekistan, intensive irrigation for cotton production has caused the Aral Sea to shrink to less than half its size in just 40 years, resulting in:

Widespread desertification
Massive flooding.
Earthquakes.
Forest fires.
Correct Answer:
Widespread desertification


Starting from the time that Uzbekistan was part of the Soviet Union, the Republic has been a major producer of cotton. For 40 years, water from the Aral Sea has been used to irrigate the large cotton fields, and in that relatively short period, the Sea has been reduced in surface area and volume, and the once productive land has been turned into non-productive desert with high levels of salinity. The correct answer therefore, is A.
The first humans to reach Hawaii were:

Europeans who sailed there in windjammers.
Native Americans who walked across a now submerged land bridge.
Polynesians who sailed there in outrigger canoes.
Chinese traders who sailed there in junks.
Correct Answer:
Polynesians who sailed there in outrigger canoes.


Located just south of the Tropic of Cancer, the Hawaiian Islands are the northernmost settlement of the great seafaring civilization of Polynesia. By the time Captain James Cook arrived there in 1778, Hawaii had been inhabited for about 1500 years by Polynesians who had sailed there in outrigger canoes.
Measuring changes in the atmosphere and the air is a more in-depth way of looking at what geographical feature?

Climate.
Weather.
Solar Radiation.
Clouds.
Correct Answer:
Climate

To the every day person, climate means expected or habitual weather at a particular place and time of year. To the specialist however, climate is the sum of atmospheric elements (and their variations): solar radiation, temperature, humidity, clouds and precipitation (type, frequency, and amount), atmospheric pressure, and wind (speed and direction).
Mrs. Chan is using current events to teach her students about the reasons people move in the world. She tells them about refugees from Libya crossing into Kenya looking for safety. Which reason is she attempting to illustrate with this example?

Economic reasons
Physical reasons
Cultural reasons
Political reasons
The Correct answer is:
Political reasons

Mrs. Chan is explaining why the refugees from Libya left when there was an uprising to change the government. People move from place to place for various reasons. Economic reasons include moving to a better environment for better housing or jobs. Cultural reasons would be to move to a more diverse or more homogeneous place. Physical reasons include a change in the home environment, such as a flood or drought, or looking for food. Political reasons are those which may occur with changes in the government or political system of a place.
The English philosophers Roger Bacon (1214-1294 C.E.) and John Locke (1632-1704 C.E.), despite having lived 400 years apart, shared a concept of knowledge that can best be expressed as:

Rationalism.
Empiricism.
Scholasticism.
Pragmatism.
Correct Answer:
Empiricism.


Despite the fact that Bacon lived during the Medieval Era and Locke during the Age of Enlightenment, both thinkers placed an emphasis on experience as the prime source of human knowledge. In addition, they were both practitioners of the scientific method, by which ideas are tested through the collection and comparison of observations.
Which of the following events forced Great Britain to declare war on Germany in 1939?

German invasion of Czechoslovakia.
German invasion of France.
German invasion of Poland.
German invasion of Russia.
Correct Answer:
German invasion of Poland.


Germany's invasion of Czechoslovakia led Britain to attempt to negotiate with Hitler. It was only when Germany invaded Poland that Britain realized that Hitler's territorial ambitions were much larger than Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had assumed. By the time Germany invaded France and Russia, war had already been declared by France, Russia, and Britain.
What is it called when a government tries to direct the way in which a national economic situation occurs?

Government bailout.
Economic planning.
Economic governing.
Government handout.
Correct Answer: Economic planning Many times these are done so that a certain area of the country will be able to provide goods for the rest of the nation. One example would be allocating resources so that farmers are able to continue to produce goods if they reside in certain areas.
Latin American writers and artists have had an expanding influence in Latin American society and the greater world. Latin American writers developed a form of expression which brings together realistic events with dreamlike or fantastic backgrounds. What is this movement called?

Postmodernism
Phantasm
Magic realism
High fantasy
The Correct answer is:
Magic realism

The most famous example of magic realism is Gabriel García Márquez's novel One Hundred Years of Solitude. Márquez has stated that fantasy and fact are dependent on point of view. Ursula LeGuin, a Canadian, is a master of high fantasy.
All of the following are characteristics of the Qin Dynasty, EXCEPT:

Gunpowder gave the Empire a strong military advantage over its enemies.
Its despotic Emperor preferred burning offensive books and burying offensive thinkers to simply banning or imprisoning them.
A long-connected chain of fortifications was built to protect the borders of the Empire.
Rigorous strictures were stringently enforced to constrain the essentially wanton nature of its subjects.
The correct answer is:
Gunpowder gave the Empire a strong military advantage over its enemies.

The Qin Dynasty built the Great Wall of China and based its system of government on legalism--the philosophy that all people are basically evil and are in need of a strict system of law and punishment to keep them in line. Two such strict laws involved the burning of any book that offended the Emperor's sensibilities, and the burying alive of any one who expressed thoughts construed to be offensive to the Emperor.
What young girl's diary became a staple for experiencing how Jews were treated during World War II?

Joan Frank's.
Bonnie Round's.
Jill Frank's.
Anne Frank's.
Correct Answer: Anne Frank's During World War II, Anne Frank hid with her parents in the attic above a home so that she would be safe from the German police searching for Jews. When they were found, she left behind her journal, which helped to show a poignant sign of what life was like for the Jewish people forced into hiding.
The nation of Israel was created out of what Middle East country?

Iraq.
Kuwait.
Palestine.
Saudi Arabia.
Correct Answer:

Palestine



After World War II, many European Jews were beginning to long to go back to the homeland of their forefathers. With the help of the United Nations, Palestine was divided and the Jews were given their own separate area. Israel was soon born, much to the displeasure of the Arab nations in the area.
Which of the following military leaders had the most impact on revolutions in Latin America?

Peter the Great.
Napoleon Bonaparte.
Gonzalo Fernández de Córdoba.
George Washington.
Correct Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte.


Although Washington inherited the same Enlightenment era ideals as Bonaparte, the latter had more impact in Latin America because many felt that the French Declaration of the Rights of Man was a more universally applicable credo than the American Declaration of Independence. In addition, Bonaparte confronted a power that may have been deemed at the time greater than the English Empire and monarch—the Catholic church and Pope. Lastly, Bonaparte's incursions into Spain over several years culminated in the Spanish Constitution of 1812, which led to limitations on Spanish power in the colonies, setting the stage for the independence movements in most of Latin America.
An economy in which all economic activity occurs in markets with little or no government interference is called:

Laissez faire
Command
Traditonal
Innovative
The Correct answer is:
Laissez faire

Laissez faire is a French term for "allow to do" or "to leave alone." In a command economy all activity is directed by the government. A traditional economy is one in which production and distribution follow cultural traditions, such as the feudal system in the Middle Ages.
In a period of increasing inflation, given that other economic variables remain constant, which of the following is the most profitable option to take?

Borrow money.
Lend money.
Save money.
Spend money.
Correct Answer:
Borrow money.


Since increasing inflation eats away at the value of money, by deferring payment with interest to a time when inflation is higher it will cost the borrower less than if the loan were paid without inflation. Increasing inflation diminishes the profits of lenders, but increases the profits of borrowers, as a consequence of money's function as a standard of deferred payment. For savers and spenders however, the consequences with respect to inflation are the same.
When a stock is first being sold for a company, it is known as what?

Investment beginning.
Bond.
Flotation.
Opening day.
Correct Answer: Flotation It is hard to tell whether or not a company's stock is going to prove to be valuable or not in the long run. The flotation allows for people to buy the stock for cheap since it is the first day that it is on the market.
The sea passage sought after between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans in North America was known as what?

Northwest Passage.
Cape of Good Hope.
Cape Horn.
Southern Passage
Correct Answer: Northwest Passage This passage was sought after by many different explorers over the years. In 1906, the passage was successfully found by Amundsen. Since then, it has been promoted by both the US and Canada as a source of international shipping.
In 1935, Hitler abandoned his pose as a peaceful leader and announced the creation of a new air force and instituted a military draft greatly expanding Germany's military strength. He invaded the Rhineland a demilitarized region of Germany in which they were forbidden to have weapons or fortifications. France, Great Britain and Italy warned Germany against further incursions. The British government adopted a policy of:

Military offense
Aggression
Alliances with France and Italy
Appeasement
The Correct answer is:
Appeasement

The British government supported the German occupation of German territories as a reasonable action. The British hoped that this policy would help maintain stability and peace in Europe. Hitler continued to annex land including Austria and Czechoslovakia. The British negotiated an agreement with Hitler in which he promised that he would discontinue his incursions. This was later ignored by Hitler.
Eileen has three olive trees on her property. She presses oil from the olives of two trees, and sells the oil for $20. She pickles the olives of one tree, and sells these pickled olives for $100. Since Eileen loves to pickle and press, she does not consider the labor of pressing and pickling to be a cost, and she therefore calculates her profit to be $120. An economist, however, would say that her real, or economic, profit is

-$80.
-$60.
$0.
$100.
Correct Answer:
-$80.


Eileen claims that her explicit costs are zero, and therefore her profit is equal to $120 minus zero. This accounting profit, however, does not take into account the implicit costs represented by the opportunity cost. By not pickling all of her olives, Eileen has incurred an opportunity cost of $200. Therefore, her economic cost is equal to total revenue minus both explicit and implicit costs, that is, the correct answer, A: $120 - (0 + 200) = -$80. The economist would recommend that Eileen specialize in pickling, rather than both pickling and pressing olives.
A government decision to buy bonds involves a change in:

Dividend policy.
Fiscal policy.
Monetary policy.
Tax policy.
Correct Answer:
Monetary policy.


The government's decision to buy bonds will cause an increase in the money supply. Decisions affecting the money supply are categorized under monetary policy.