Upgrade to remove ads
Terms in this set (302)
What does DNA stand for?
What does DNA determind?
The organisms genotype and the structure of its proteins
What structure does DNA have?
What does DNA consist of?
Two strands of nucleotides
What determines the shape of the deoxyribose sugar?
The arrangement of carbon atoms in the molecule.
What are the 4 bases and what is their pairing rule?
Adenine - thyamine
Cytosine - guanine
How do you produce a strand of DNA?
A chemical bond forms between a phosphate group of one of the nucleotides and carbon 3 and the deoxyribose sugar of another nucleotide.
How are the bases joined?
What is DNA made up of?
2 antiparallel strands meaning they run in the opposite direction to eachother.
Organisms that lack a true membrane bound nucleus is?
What is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?
In the cytoplasm (not the nucleus)
What are plasmids?
Small rings of DNA
Where are plasmids found?
Organisms that have a membrane bound nucleus is?
What is an example of eukaryotic cell?
Some fungi, animal and plant cells
In eukaryotes where is the DNA found?
Tightly coiled into linear chromosomes
Where can this DNA also be found?
In mitochondria and chloroplast
What does this form?
Why is DNA tightly coiled in linear chromosomes?
Because it is several times longer than the length of the cell, and it is packages around bundles of proteins.
What is the method carried out for the extraction of pea DNA?
1. Crush peas into a mortar and pestle with a small quantity of sand and detergent and buffer solution.
2. Pour into a beaker and incubate at 60 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes.
3. Cool the mixture in an ice bath.
4. Centrifuge to obtain aqueous supernatants containing DNA and plant debris
5. Pipette supernatant into a test tube
6. Add a few drops of protease enzyme and rock test tube
7. Pour cold ethanol down the side of the test tube to form a layer on top.
8. Observe precipitate of DNA at the interface of the two liquids and in the upper ethanol layer.
What is the method of electrophoresis?
1. Pour molten gel into a mould with the comb also in the mould.
2. Remove the comb to reveal wells in the solidified gel
3. transfer the gel sheet into a electrophoresis chamber and add buffer solution
4. Use a pipette to transfer each sample of DNA into the wells in the gel.
5. Connect a power supply to the chamber and switch on.
6. Observe the the distinct banding pattern to reveal the DNA fragmentsn
What does polymerase do?
Adds nucleotides to a growing strand
What is the role of the 3 prime end?
The 3 prime carbon atom attaches to the deoxyribose sugar
What is the role of the 5 prime end?
The 5 prime carbon atom attaches to the phosphate
Why is it important DNA replication takes place before cell division?
So that each daughter cell contains the exact same information as the original parent cell
Why is replication described as semi conservative?
Because each daughter molecule produced is made up of one new strand and one of the original parent strands
What does the parent strand do?
Acts as a template and individual nucleotides on the template according to the base pairing rule
What are the requirements for DNA replication?
A supply of the 4 types of nucleotides
Enzymes (polymerase and ligase)
In what way does DNA replicate?
From the 3' end to the 5' end
What is a primer?
A short sequence of bases needed to start DNA replication
What is the enzyme that controls the sugar phosphate binding between individual nucleotides?
Why is the lagging strand described as continuous?
Because polymerase can only join the 3' end in fragments
What is PCR used for?
To create many copies of a piece of DNA in vitro
What technique is used to amplify DNA?
What are the requirements for PCR?
Sequence of DNA
Why is taq polymerase use during PCR?
Because PCR requires high temperatures in order to function and the other enzymes would become denatured at the high temperatures
Why is a primer used in PCR?
To be complimentary to a specific target sequence means allows PCR to be highly specific to a particular sequence of DNA
What is cycle one of PCR described as?
What are the temperatures used in PCR?
Around 95, 60 and 70
Why is the DNA heated to such a high level initially?
To break the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs allowing separation of the strands of DNA
How many times should you repeat PCR?
What happens each time the cycle is repeated?
The quantity of DNA is doubled each time?
Use of PCR?
-Blood, semen or tissue from a crime scene for DNA -fingerprinting
Embryonic cells for prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorder
-preserved remains of extinct species
-chloroplast for investigating plant evolution
How many bases code for one amino acid?
How is the genotype of an organism determined?
The sequence of DNA bases in its genes
What are the main differences between DNA and RNA?
DNA has deoxyribose sugar where as RNA has ribose sugar
DNA has thyamine where as RNA has uracil
DNA has 2 strands where as RNA has 1
DNA is found only in the nucleus where as RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
What are the 3 types of RNA?
mRNA- messenger, copies the code from the DNA molecule and carries it to the ribsome
tRNA- transfer, found in the cytoplasm where it binds to specific amino acids and transfers them to the ribosome
rRNA- ribosomal, forms a complex with protein molecules to make the ribsome.
What are the 2 stages of protein synthesis?
Where does transcription take place?
In the nucleus
What unwinds the DNA strand?
What forms the complimentary base pairs with the template DNA strand?
free RNA nucleotides in the nucleus
How many times do the hydrogen bonds break and form again during the process of extracting mRNA?
Strong chemical bonds form between what?
The ribose sugar of one of the nucleotide and the phosphate of another
RNA can only add nucleotides to what end?
3' end of a growing strand
When mRNA strand is released what happens?
It allows the mRNA primary transcript to leave the nucleus to the cytoplasm
What are non coding regions called?
What are coding regions called?
How are introns removed?
What is it called when the exits are joined together?
Where does the second stage of protein synthesis take place?
What is synthesis of protein?
A polypeptide chain under the direction of mRNA
What does translation require?
Where is tRNA found?
Cytoplasm of cells
Why does tRNA fold?
Due to the are pairing to form a triplet anticodon site and a attachment for a specific amino acid
What is an exposed base?
What does each tRNA carry?
A specific amino acid at its attachment site
What does the ribosome contain?
tRNA and enzymes essential for protein synthesis
What is the function of a ribosome?
To being tRNA molecules into contact with mRNA
What must happen before translation can take place?
A ribosome must bind to a 5' end of mRNA
What does this allow?
The start codon to be in the correct position
What happens when the fort two amino acids are adjacent?
Peptide bond forms between them
What happens as the ribosome moves along the mRNA?
The tRNA is discharged from the ribosome to be reused.
What happens when the stop codon is reached?
the polypeptide chain is released.
A what 2 points can proteins be produced?
How are proteins produced after Transcription?
-RNA splicing takes place?
-RNA is edited by assembling different introns and exons
What effect does arranging different patterns of exons?
to make different proteins from a single gene.
What is the 2 types of ways to make proteins after translation?
Cleavage and Molecular addition.
How does a polypeptide chain become active?
by being cleaved by enzymes
What is an example of this?
insulin only becomes active when a central region is cleaved?
how can a protein structure be changed?
by adding carbohydrates or phosphate.
What does changing the structure of a protein do?
changes the function.
What does adding a carbohydrate to a protein do?
produces a glycoprotein.
what fuction does adding a carbohydrate to a protein have?
acts as signalling molecules, as part of the membrane and as recognition molecules
what does adding a phosphate to protein do?
forms a regulatory protein
What is phosphorylation?
adding a phosphate.
How many different types of amino acid are known to occur in proteins?
What is the name given to the chain formed when several amino acids are linked together?
What determines the order in which amino acids are joined together into a chain?
The sequence of bases on a portion of DNA
What two ways can a chain of amino acids become arranged to form a protein?
Coiled or folded
In what way does DNA of one species differ from that of another making each species differ from that of another making each species unique?
The sequence of DNA bases
How many bases in the genetic code correspond to one amino acid?
What is the name given to the groups of bases that make up the genetic code?
Name the enzyme responsible for the primary transcript
Name the process that involves the modification of the primary transcript to form the fictional mRNA?
Name one bond or interaction which holds the polypeptide chain in its 3D shape
Explain why the change in a base sequence leads to a failure of the protein to function normally
It alters the order of the amino acids therefore the protein won't function properly
Describe the function of RNA polymerase in the synthesis of a primary transcript
It moves along the gene from the promoter, unwinding and unzipping the DNS strand it brings about the synthesis of an mRNA molecule
How many anticodons in a molecule of tRNA are exposed?
Each molecule of tRNA has a site attachment at one end. What becomes attached to this site?
what is a ribosome?
Ribosomes contain rRNA and enzymes essential to protein synthesis
How many tRNA binding sites are present on the ribosome?
To what does a tRNA 's anticodon become bound at one of these sites?
What type of bond forms between adjacent amino acids attached to tRNA molecules?
What is the fate of a tRNA molecule once it's joined to the polypeptide chain?
It becomes discharged from the ribosome
Where does protein synthesis occur?
What is cellular differentiation?
The process by which a cell develops more specialised functions by expressing the genes characteristic for that type of cell.
What is differentiation?
when an unspecialised cell becomes specialised
What are stem cells?
Stems cells are unspecialised somatic cells in animals that can divide to make copies of themselves and differentiate in to a diverse range of specialised cells.
What are embryonic cells derived from?
an embryo about 4-5 days old. (Blastocyst)
What do embryonic cells have the ability to do?
to differentiate into any type of cell type that make up an organism.
What is pluripotent?
the ability to differentiate into any type of cell.
In what conditions can a embryonic stem cell renew?
in a lab outside the body (ex vitro)
where are adult stem cells found?
The brain, bone marrow, skeletal muscle and skin.
What will adult stem cells tend to develop into?
cells that they are closely related to in the tissue in whcih they are found.
What are adult stem cells needed for?
growth and repair and renewal of tissues.
What are meristems?
groups of unspecialised plant cells capable of dividing throughout the type of plant.
What do apicle meristems do?
what do lateral meristems do?
thicken the stems
what is the genome of an organism?
it hereditary information encoded in DNA
what are parts of the genome that carry instructions called?
what functions do non coding regions have?
-regulation of transcription
-transcription of RNA
what are the 3 single gene mutations?
what is mis-sense mutation?
the substituted codon codes for an amino acid which still makes sense.
what is non-sense mutation?
the substituted codon which used to code for an amino acid now codes for a stop codon which will result in smaller peptide chain.
what is splice-site mutation?
when one or two introns may be left in the mature mRNA transcript and translated into an altered protein and doesnt function properly.
what is duplication?
it can result in genes being repeated. It produces a second copy of the gene which is free from selection pressure.
This means i can mutate to produce new DNA sequences.
What effect does deletion have on the organism?
it has a drastic effect as genes are lost.
What is inversion?
it reverses the normal sequence of genes.
what can inversion result in?
the formation of a non-viable gametes.
what is translocation?
it involves the transfer of genes from one chromosome to another.
what can translocation result in?
problems with the pairing of chromosomes during gamete formationand leads onto non-viable gametes.
What is polyploidy?
duplication of all the chromosomes, resulting in extra sets of chromosomes
what is polyploidy the result of?
an error during gamete formation called non-disjunction
what does polyploidy plants with an uneven number of chromosomes result in?
the genetic material in the chloroplast of eukaryotic plant cells is found in?
describe the function of RNA polymerase in the synthesis of a primary transcript.
-unwinds the DNA strand, breaks hydrogen bonds.
-adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing strand of RNA
describe the role of mRNA in cells?
mRNA carries a copy of the DNA code from the nucleus to the ribosome.
what is the importance of an anti-codon?
it matches up with the complimentary codon on the mRNA strand which will align the correct amino acid in the correct order to form a protein.
what is meant by DNA is encoded in triplet sequences?
that each three bases codes for one amino acid.
why is it important that an enzyme molecules are held in specific shapes?
so that the active sites can be specific to the substrate.
What are the two types of inheritance?
What is vertical transfer?
when genes are transferred from parent to offspring.
What two ways can vertical transfer take place?
What is sexual reproduction?
when 2 PARENTS who differ from one another genetically produce an offspring who inherits different combination of genes from each parent.
What is asexual reproduction?
the reproduction from a single parent, produces an offspring who are genetically identical to the parent.
What is horizontal transfer?
in prokaryotes, gentic material can be transferred from one cell to another through horizontal gene transfer.
What is an advantage of rapid evolutionary change?
obtaining a gene for a neighbour is much faster than waiting for a gene to evolve
What is a possible disadvantage?
there is no gaurentee that the neighbours gene will give an advantage
In what ways can horizontal gene transfer occur in eukaryotes?
-From prokaryotes (P-E)
-From viruses (E-V)
In what was does vertical gene transfer take place?
Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
What is natural selection?
a non random process that results in the increase in frequency among a population of organisms of those genetic sequences that confer an advantage on members of the population and help them to survive.
What is the process of natural selection?
1) organisms produce more off springs than the environment can support.
2) All members of a species shown variation from each other.
3) A struggle for existance occurs and many off springs die before they can reproduce.
4) only those who are better adapted to the environment will survive and breed and pass on those adaptions to their off springs.
5) this process is repeated generation after generation causing gradual change in the charateristics of species.
what are deleterious sequences?
inferior sequences that result in the individual being weaker and less adapted to the surroundings and are unable to compete against superiors. Fewer copies of the deleterious sequence will be passed on and the number of those sequences will reduce and become non existant.
What is sexual selection?
The process of selection for traits that increase reproduction success.
what are the two types of sexual selection?
1) male to male competition - when males compete agressively to defend territories and get access to the best females.
2) female choice - females select males whxih the consider high quality depending on their traits they display.
What is genetic drift?
the random increase or decrease in frequency of genetic sequences.
how does genetic drift occur?
what is a sampling error?
a non representitive sample of the alleles of the whole population is passed on.
what is a neutral mutation?
these change the nucleotide sequence of a gene, but do not change the amino acids coded for. They are not subjected to natural selection but are effected by genetic drift.
when does the founder effect occur?
when a small group of organisms becomes isolated from the rest of the group of the population and 'founds' a new population.
What is speciation?
the formation of a biological species, it is brought about by evolutionary change.
what are the two types of speciation?
what is allopatric speciation?
this occurs when gene flow between 2 or more populations is prevented by a GEOGRAPHICAL barrier. Eg. rivers, mountains, deserts, sea.
What is the allopatric process?
1) a large interbreeding population is present. There is a shared gene pool.
2) isolation of populations, gene pool is separated.
3) separate populations mutate randomly - new variations.
4) natural selections favours mutants.
5) over a long period of time natural selection increases, frequencies of new alleles. Two separate gene pools.
6) separation has occurred, species a and b cannot interbreed even if barrier is removed.
what is sympatric speciation?
when two or more populations live in a close proximity in the same environment but still become isolated. This is dues to ecological and behavioural barriers by the occurrance by polyploidy.
What is the sympatric process?
1) large interbreeding population sharing the same ecological niche
2) alternitive ecological niche appears, some members of the population exploit the new niche
3) the two populations now exploit different resources, behavior becomes an isolating barrier.
4)mutants better adapted to exploit the new resources and appear successfully breed.
5) natural selection favours the new mutants and eventually over time two genetic distinct species are formed which can no longer interbreed.
when do hybrid zones exist?
where interbreeding is possible as a result of genes are able to flow between sub populations.
what must be first determined in order to study genomics?
the entire DNA sequence of the organism.
what is the process of genomic sequencing?
step 1: a restriction endonuclease (restriction enzyme) will cut up the DNA at every point where these sequences appear.
step 2: A portion of DNA which an unknown base sequence is chosen to be synthesised.
-Many copies of this DNA strand are synthesised (PCR). -Ingredients required for synthesis are added such as DNA polymerase, primer and 4 types of nucleotide with a florescent marker is added.
-When a modified nucleotide is added to the strand synthesis stops.
-When carried out on a large scale , synthesis of complimentary strand will have been copied at every possible nucleotide position along the DNA strand.
-Fragments are then separated by electrophoresis
Step 3: now the sequence has been determined, the pieces have been put back together. This is done by computer analysis of sequences looking for sections that overlap .
What is bioinformatics?
it combines computer science , statistics, mathematics and engineering to analyse and interpret biological data.
what is comparative genomics?
comparing the genomes of members of different species, members of the same species and cancerous vs normal cells.
what is phylogenetics?
the study of evolutionary relatedness between different groups of organisms.
what can be used to create phylogenetic trees?
genome sequence data and fossil evidence
what is the measure of evolutionary distance between 2 groups?
the number of these genetic differences, per unit length of DNA between two genomes.
what is a molecular clock?
when nucleic acids of two are related groups of organisms are compared to the number of nucleotide substitutions by which the differ is regarded to as being proportional to the length of time.
what are is the main sequence of events in evolution? (starting with the first)
1)evolution of life on earth
2) evolution of cells resembling prokaryotes
3)evolution of last universal ancestor
4) evolution of cynobacteria (prokaryotes) able to synthesise
5) evolution of eukaryotes
6) evolution of multicellular organisms
7) evolution of animals
8) evolution of vertebrates
9) evolution of land plants
What are the 3 domains of life?
Bacteria, Archaea, Eukaryotes
what are two advantages of predictive medicine?
1) identifying disease causing mutations
2) identifying mutations that have a likelihood to develop into a condition.
what are two advantages of pharmacogenetics?
1) determining how effective a drug is in any one person is effected by your DNA
2) predicting which medication and which dosage will be most effective in one person compared to another.
What is personal genomics?
is the branch involved with sequencing an individual genome and analysing it using bioinformatics tools.
what is the main ethical issue surrounding personal genomics?
insurance companies, banks and others may decline or increase premiums as an effect of finding less desirable traits eg. Alzhemiers or other degenerative diseases. This is known as genetic discrimination.
what is the name given to a change which involves a chromosome breaking in two places and a segment of genes dropping out?
what is the name given to the change which involves a chromosome breaking in 2 places and the affected length of genes becoming rotated through 180 before becoming reunited with the chromosome?
what is the name given to the chromosomal change which involves a segment of genes from one chromosome being inserted where along the length of its matching partner?
name the type of change which involves a section of one chromosome breaking off an joining onto a non-matching chromosome.
What is meant by the term polyploidy?
when an error may occur during gamete formation or cell division and all the matching chromosomes fail to separate. This results in a type of chromosome mutation where cells receive one or more extra sets of chromosomes
what can triploid and tetraploid arise from?
haploid and diploid cells.
In what ways are polyploidy plants of economic importance?
Polyploidy plants are usually larger than there diploid relatives. This also includes increased seed and fruit size. Plants such as wheat, coffee, apples, tomatoes and strawberries are polyploid and therefore give a bigger yields than there non-polyploidy relatives.
why is a small population particularly prone to genetic drift?
small populations are particularly prone to genetic drift because the samples of small alleles are successfully transmitted to the next is relatively small and often not representative of the gene pools as a whole.
What type of speciation involves a geographical barrier?
What information is obtained by genomic sequencing?
the sequence of DNA nucleotide base molecules all the way along the organisms DNA
What are examples of model organisms that are important for research?
why are model organisms important for research?
Because they possess genes equivalent to genes in humans responsible for inherited diseases and disorders. Therefore they provide an understanding of the malfunctioning of these genes and even lead the way to the developments of new treatments.
What does the term 'highly conservative' mean?
that they are the same or very similar DNA sequences present in the genomes.
Suggest why a genetic sequence responsible for an enzyme used in photosynthesis is highly conserved among plant species?
Among the most highly conserved genetic sequences are those that code for the active sites of essential enzymes and have been positively selected over time.
What is the advantage of using molecular phylogenetics rather than structural features to determine the evolutionary relatedness of two groups of bacteria?
it can be used in a wider range of situations. These vary from the comparison that are not structurally alike to those who are physically indistinguishable.
what is the role of the cell membrane?
it separates the internal compartment of cells from the external environment. It also allows selective communication between intracellular and extra cellular activities.
What is the phospholipids made up of?
Phosphate heads (hydrophilic) and lipid tails (hydrophobic).
what does hydrophilic mean?
it has an affinity for water
what does hydrophobic mean?
it has no affinity to water.
What is diffusion?
the movement of molecules and ions from high concentration to low concentration across the phospholipid bilayer.
How do larger molecules move through the membrane?
they depend on channel forming proteins to form pores to allow movement across the membrane.
What is active transport?
the movement of molecules or ions from low concentration to high concentration across the phospholipid bilayer.
What does active transport always require?
Why is the mitochondria essential for aerobic respiration after the glycolosis stage?
it provides the structures and enzymes necessary to produce large quantities of ATP.
What is the function of the chloroplast?
-flattened sacs containing chlorophyll also have proteins essential for ATP generation
-the surrounding fluid contains enzymes required for carbon fixation.
*Why are membranes important?
-Membranes form surfaces and compartments for metabolic pathways.
-this ensures there is close and continuous association and pathways work efficiently
-They give high surface area the volume ration which allows high concentrations of product and reaction rates.
What is metabolism?
the biochemical process that life depends on.
What are the 2 distinct categories for metabolism?
What is catabolism?
Catabolic pathways breakdown complex molecules to simple molecules which releases energy.
What is anabolism?
Anabolic pathways involve biosynthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules.
How can toxins cause damage?
by disrupting metabolism in cells.
What are enzymes?
What determines the shape of an active site?
the sequence of amino acids that form the enzyme
How many TYPES of substrate do enzymes work with?
What is induced fit?
the active site is flexible and slightly alters its shape when the substrate enters.
the very close fit ensures that the active site is in very close contact with the substrate.
What effect does substrate orientation have?
-weakens chemical bonds
-reduces the Ea required to get reactants to the transition state.
What is the transition state?
where the structure is no longer a substrate but not yet a product.
What factors effect affinity?
-Adequate supply of substrate
What effect does a low concentration have on reaction rate?
at low concentrations of a substrate, the reaction rate is slow as there are too few substrate molecules present to make maximum use of all the active sites on the enzyme molecule
What effect does increasing concentration have on reaction rate?
An increase in concentration results in an increase in reaction rate since more and more active sites are involved.
What does the straight line horizontally on the graph of "effects on increasing concentration" indicate?
that a further increase in concentration has failed to make the reaction and go any faster as at this point all the active sites have been occupied.
What is the limiting factor when the graph reaches a straight line?
What does the evidence from the Jacob-Monod hypothesis suggest?
That a gene can be switched on only when an enzyme it codes for is needed.
What is the term given to this theory?
In the experiment where e.coli uses glucose as an energy source and can only use lactose as an energy source if it is broken down to glucose + galactose, what is the activating molecule or inducer?
What is an operon?
one or more structural genes + operator genes.
what is an operator gene?
the gene which activates the structural gene.
What is a regulator gene?
produces a repressor molecule which effects operator gene.
What is the process for when lactose is absent?
1. in the absence of lactose the regulator gene produces a repressor molecule by transcription and translation.
2. the repressor molecule attaches to the operator gene which switches the structural gene off.
3. No Beta- galactosidase is produced.
What is the process for when lactose is present?
1. When lactose is present it enters the regulator gene.
2. Transcription and translation produces a repressor molecule.
3. The lactose combines with repressor, however the repressor is unable to bind with operator.
4. The operator gene is free therefore the structural gene is switched on.
5. Transcription and Translation work to form Beta-galactosidase.
6. The enzyme digests lactose until the supply runs.
Give 3 reasons why enzymes are referred to as biological catalysts?
- They lower activation energy required for a chemical reaction to proceed.
- Speeds up the rate of reaction
- takes part in the reaction but remains unchanged at the end.
What is meant by the term "rate of reaction"?
The rate of chemical reaction is indicated by the level of chemical change that occurs per unit time.
What effect does an increase in concentration of substrate have on the reaction rate when a limited amount of enzyme is present?
Further increase in concentration fails to make the reaction go any faster as all the active sites of the enzyme have been occupied. Therefore the enzyme concentration is the limiting factor.
What does the regulator gene produce?
the repressor molecule
What does the inducer molecule combine with?
the repressor molecule
When the operator is free, is the operator switched on or off?
Why is E. coli only able to produce then enzyme Beta- galactosidase when lactose is present?
Lactose prevents the repressor molecule from binding to the operator gene. The operator gene is responsible for turning the structural gene on and off. Therefore if the operator gene is free, then the structural gene will switch on.
What is a benefit of the on/off mechanism of the bacterium?
the waste of valuable resources such as amino acids and energy is prevented.
How is respiration controlled?
What does ATP stand for?
How many inorganic phosphates does a molecule of adenosine have?
When is energy released?
when the terminal phosphate is released.
what is phosphorylation?
an enzyme controlled process when a phosphate group is added to a molecule.
it also occurs when phosphate and energy are transferred from ATP to reactants in a metabolic pathway.
What is aerobic respiration?
Aerobic respiration is the release of energy from glucose or another organic substrate in the presence of Oxygen
When is ADP made?
When the terminal phosphate group is released it makes Adenosine Diphosphate and an inorganic phospahte (SEPARATE)
Why is ATP important?
it acts as a link between catabolic energy-releasing reactions (such as respiration) and anabolic energy consuming reactions (such as the synthesis of proteins).
What is the word equation for cellular respiration?
glucose + oxygen + energy -> CO2 + water
what is the word equation for energy transfer?
ATP -> ADP +Pi
What is the word equation for synthetic pathways?
Amino acids + energy -> proteins
What does cellular respiration ensure?
that the energy released is controlled.
What is used to pump hydrogen ions around the mitochondrial membrane?
a flow of high energy electrons
is the concentration of hydrogen ions on the membrane side higher or lower?
what enzyme pumps hydrogen ions from a high to a low concentration?
What stage of respiration is the cirtic acid cycle?
What does the citric acid stage come after?
where does the citric acid cycle take place?
in the matrix of mitochondia
what is the condition for the functioning of the citric acid cycle?
it will only occur if oxygen is present
what is pyruvate broken down into?
what does the acetyl group bind with?
Co enzyme A which forms Acetyl Coenzyme A
What is released during the citric acid cycle?
CO2 and hydrogen
How does the citrate form?
The acetyl from CoA combines with oxaloacetate
What do hydrogen and high energy electrons form?
NADH and FAD accepts hydrogen to form FADH2
During the citric acid cycle how many ATP is formed?
During the citric acid cycle what is released?
What is the electron Transport chain?
a chain of protein molecules attached to the inner membrane of the mitochondia.
How is energy released?
high energy electrons flow along the ETC and release energy
What is the released energy used for?
to pump hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial membrane to the inter-membrane space.
what is the word equation for the fermentation of plants and yeast?
glucose -> pyruvate -> ethanol + CO2
why is he process irreversible?
because the cells are damaged by high concentrations of alcohol.
what complex carbohydrates can be broken down into glucose for glycolysis?
starch and glycogen
what other substrates can be converted into glucose or an intermediate and used for respiration?
sucrose and maltose
why are fatty acids metabolised?
to generate acetyl CoA
what can be used when glucose isnt present or in short supply?
fats and fatty acids
from this what is converted to an intermediate in glycolysis?
what is the definition of metabolic rate?
the quanity of energy consumed by an organism per unit of time.
in what three ways can metabolic rate can be measured?
-oxygen consumption per unit time
-carbon dioxide production per unit time
-energy (heat) production per unit time
what is basal metabolic rate?
BMR is energy consumed when an organism is a rest.
what 2 things can increase BMR?
increase in physical activity
-digesting and processing food.
what does a respirometer measure?
oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide outputof an organism over a period of time.
how is this measured?
- Air with CO2 removed is used by the organism
-the CO2 it breathes out is also absorbed
-this decreases the volume of air in the system, drawing the liquid up the tube
-volume of CO2 absorbed = volume of CO2 used
what does a calorimeter measure?
heat produced by an organism over a period of time.
how is this measured?
- heat produced is transferred to surrounding water
-temperature is measured over a period of time
-this allows metabolic rate to be calculated
why does an organisms metabolic rate increase?
to meet the high demand for energy.
what does this result in?
-increase in comsumption of energy
-aerobic respiration increases.
What vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs into the heart?
what vein carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart?
why is there a thick muscular wall in the left ventricle?
because the left ventricle pumps blood all around the body
where does the pulmonary artery carry blood to?
where does the Aorta carry bloody to?
what type of living species has a closed circulatory system?
what does a circulatory system do?
the blood is continued in a continuous ciruit
what is the function of the capillaries?
to allow exchange of gases, oxygen moves from the blood into the cells and CO2 moves from the cells back into the blood
What does this happen through?
what does a single circulatory system mean?
blood only passes through the 2 chambered heart once in each circuit
what happens to the pressure in a single circulatory system?
pressure goes from high in major vessels to low in the capillary beds
What happens in a double circulatory system?
bloody passes through the heart twice in each circuit.
why is blood pumped at high pressure in a double circulatory system?
to ensure all parts of the body get blood flow.
what system is more efficient?
double circulatory system
In what creatures does double incomplete system occur?
why is it described as incomplete?
because there is only one ventricle
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Higher Biology: Unit 1
Higher Biology: Unit 2
Higher Biology: Unit 3
SQA Higher Biology (Mutations)
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
Macromolecules Key Terms
Mega AP Bio semester exam review
AP BIO Flashcards
How Humans Evolved Chapter 2
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Cfe Higher Biology Essays
OTHER QUIZLET SETS
Machine Learning Midterm 1
Dr. Canty Q5 Thoracic Cavity Exam 2 Part B
Christian Scriptures Exam