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Dental Hygiene Final - Fall 2011

Terms in this set (354)

When is the most important age for flouride
Birth to 14 years
What is the most effective method for dental caries prevention and control?
Use of flouride
What is systemic flouride?
Ingested
99% of what is located in mineralized areas of the teeth?
FL2
Most FL2 is excreted by the ___?
Kidneys and a small amount by sweat glands in the anus
Absorption of FL2 is completed by which systems?
Gastrointestinal and Blood Stream
How long does it take the Blood Stream the absorb FL2?
30 minutes
How long does it take the gastrointestinal tract to absorb FL2
60 minutes
What are the 3 stages of flouride?
Pre-eruptive(mineralization,) Pre-eruptive(maturation) and Post-eruptive(after eruption)
FLouride is essential to the formation of ____?
Sound teeth and bones
What happens regarding flouride in the maturation stage?
Mineralization is complete but flouride continues to deposit onto the enamel
What happens to flouride during the mineralization stage?
Flouride is deposited during formation of enamel
During mineralization if too much Fl2 is deposited what happens?
Flourosis
Post eruptive =
after eruption
Post-eruptive flouride exposure inhibits ___ and enhances ___?
demineralization; remineralization
Children exposed to FL2 within __ yrs prior to eruption benefit greatly
2 years
Who is Dr. Frederick McKay?
Early 20th century dentist that discovered "brown stain" on patients in teeth in colorado springs - he noted that they had less caries
Who is HV Churchill?
A chemist that in 1931 pinpointed flourine as the element related to tooth changes
What is the optimum amount of FL2 for water?
1ppm in a moderate climate
In 1945 what happenned regarding flouride use?
Communities added FL2 to their drinking water for the 1st time
If FL2 is used from birth onward you will have ___% LESS caries
40%
After giving a FL2 treatment, do not each or drink for __?
30 minutes
Administer FL2 treatments for __?
4 minutes
What are the 3 types of flouride toxicity?
Acute(happens fast ingested), Chronic(long term) and Accidental (use epicac, kidney's will excrete)
What type of Fl2 would you use for Porcelain Bridges or people with restorations?
2% sodium FL2 Foam
Which is the most common FL2 for kids?
1.23% Acidulated Phosphate Foam
In case of accidently overdose of FL2?
1. Induce vomiting, 2. Call 911, 3. Give FL2 binder like Milk of magnesia 4. Support respriation and circulation
What are the 3 types of chronic FL2 conditions
Skeletal (takes a LONG time) Dental(brown stains aka modeled enamel) and Mild(white spots)
What does CLD stand for regarding FL2?
Certainly Lethal Dose
What is the CLD and SLD for an adult?
5-10grams, 1/4 for SLD
What does SLD stand for?
Safely Tolerated Dose
What type of flouride would you use for sensitive patients?
5% Neutral Sodium Varnish
The COL area is keratinized?
False
The COL area is less vulnerable to infection than the marginal gingiva
False it is non-keratinzed and therefore MORE succeptable to infection
Cardio patients are more likely to be at risk for what?
Periodontal disease
What are the 5 characteristics of a good health history form?
Convienient, Identifies special needs, simple, leaves room for comments, offered in multiple languages
What is the purpose of a medical history?
Provides pertinent info, reveals conditions, emotional/psychological factors, determines ethical or racial influences
What are the 3 types of health histories?
Paper, verbal or combined (combined is best)
What is the best defense from a lawsuit?
a complete medical history
What are the 4 things to remember about keeping good liability-free records?
Date everything, always write in ink, no RED, must have guardian's signature if under 18
What are the 4 methods for obtaining a medical history?
PRE APPOINTMENT (mail it out), SELF HISTORY (personal ie family kids etc, BRIEF HISTORY(emergency only), COMPLETE HISTORY(use most often)
How long is a health history good for?
Good only for the time in which it was filled out
Which procedures do NOT need antibiotic prophylaxis?
anesthesia, radiographs, placing an ortho appliance or brackets, shedding primary teeth, bleeding due to lip or oral mucosa trama
What is the prophy regimen for pre-med patients?
Amoxciccillan 2grams 1 hr prior, (If penicillin allergy exists 600mg Clyndamycin or Cephalaxin 2 grams)
For endocarditis patients when is a premed needed?
Manipulation of gingival tissue, working in the periapical region of the teeth, perforation of the oral mucosa
What precautions should be taken for patients having undergone radiation therapy?
Always call the MD prior to taking radiographs
What is the maximum treatable BP in the clinic?
164/96
When is it best to treat a diabetic patient?
1st thing in the morning or right after lunch
Patients that are at risk for ___ must be premedicated.
endocarditis
Which conditions could lead to endocarditis?
Prosthetic cardiac valve, previous endocarditis, congenital heart disease, cardiac transplant
What physiological states can affect the gingiva?
anxiety level, puberty, menopause, pregnancy
What is a common side effect with a patient that is taking Dylantin?
Drymouth (exocytosis) or gingival overgrowth
Which diseases may require a premed, complicate treatment, or contra-indicate treatment altogether?
Diabetes, endocarditis, mitrovalve prolapse, hypertension, taking coumadin or a blood thinner
What are the 4 types of questions you would ask on a health history?
System: organs // Disease: asthma TB // Symptom: thirsty, pain // Culture:Indian, african american
What are the three levels of chemical disinfectant?
High level (acheives sterility), intermediate(does not kill spores), and low
Name an example of a high level disinfectant?
Cold sterile in 10-12 hrs
Name an example of an intermediate disinfectant?
Sprays like what we use in class to clean the units
Name an example of an intermediate disinfectant?
Alcohol
What is sterlization?
The process by which all forms of life are destroyed
What things do we use to sterilize in the dental office?
Autoclave, Dry Heat, and chemical vapor
Autoclave: advantages and disadvantages
kills everything quick, most economical // may corrode steel, o
Autoclave: How long? temp? PSI?
Time: 15-30 minutes, Temp = 250F, PSI = 15 psi,
What are the 2 types of pathogens transmissible through the oral cavity?
Bacterial and viral
Some examples of bacterial pathogens?
TB, staph, strep, syphyllis
Name some examples of viral pathogens?
HIV, HSV, HBV, Respiratory viruses
Dry Heat: How long? Temp? PSI?
120mins, 320degrees, PSI-n/a
What are the advantages and disadvantages of of Dry Heat?
Does not rust or corrode metal, disadvan: cannot do plastic pieces, takes a long time, anything over 160 degrees can dull the instruments
Chemical Vapor: Time, Temp, PSI
Time: 20minutes, Temp: 270F PSI: 20-40psi
Advantages and Disadvantages of Chemical Vapor?
Advant: shorter cycle time, less corrosion Disadvantages: Intruments must be totally dry, odor, needs ventilation
Ethelene Oxide: Time, Temp, PSI
Time = 2-12hrs, Temp = 75degreesF PSI: N/A
Advantages and Disadvantages of using Ethelene Oxide to disinfect
Ad: does not damage rubber, evaporates w/out a residue, DIS: time, needs ventilation, odor
What is the definition of disinfection?
The process by which all pathogenic microorganisms are eliminated EXCEPT SPORES
What is the purpose of packaging for sterilization?
It prevents contamination of sterlized instruments - allows for proper storage
Instrument Washer - Benefits?
High velocity, hot water, special detergent, better than ultrasonic
Manual cleaning?
Can be dangerous, must have utility gloves on, wear PPEs scrub away from your body
Ultrasonic Cleaner: process and benefits
small and less effective than the instrument washer, cassets are covered and vibrated with water and a cleaning solution to loosen debris
What are optimal treatment room procedures for normal waste & biohazard waste?
BIO Hazard = anything with blood on it- use orange bag, Normal can be: saliva saturated, gloves and barriers
The unit used when cleaning teeth must be?
Easy to clean, no coiled cords, smooth surfaces
The dental chair must be?
Foot activated, leather or plastic
The dental light must be sterilized how?
Disposable handle cover or blue tape
The cllinician's stool must be?
Smooth, easily cleaned, no buttons, no ring around the base
The floor in the dental office must be?
Easily cleaned, no carpet
The sink in the dental office must be?
Wide, deep, foot operated.
Supplies in the dental office must be?
Disposable, must be able to sterilize otherwise
What are the 4 steps to reduce exposure to infection?
Reduce the number of pathogens, eliminate cross contamination, stop the spread of infection, apply universal precautions
What do we have the patient do prior to recieving dental treatment to ensure exposure reduction to infections?
Use PPEs, update the medical history, avoid procedures with a person that has a communicable disease, patient swishes with scope prior to beginning
What does the clinician do to lessen the possibility of infection?
Be immunized, wear PPEs, get a yearly physical, recap all needles, use utility gloves
CLASS V Caries charting =
cavities found within the cervical 1/3 of facial or lingual surfaces (not pit or fissure)
How do you spot a Class V caries?
direct visual, sensitivity, rough
What are the 2 types of dental caries?
Pit & Fissure (common, happens with kids) and Smooth surface (where plaque is not removed)
What are the Classifications for G.V Blacks system?
SIMPLE: involves 1 tooth surface, COMPOUND: 2 surfaces, COMPLEX: 3 or more surfaces
What is Phase I enamel caries mean?
Incipient lesion: has decalcified areas but no breakthrough
What is a Phase II enamel caries
Untreated incipient lesion, it is visable, breakthrough has occured
Another name for caries?
Decay, carious lesion
What is caries?
Localized, post eruptive, pathologic process of external origin involving the softeneing of the hard tooth tissue and proceeding to the formation of a cavity
What is a Class VI caries mean?
cavities on the incisal edges of anterior teeeth and cusp tips of posterior teeth
How do you find a Class VI caries area?
Visually spot, discoloration
What is a Class I caries?
Cavities in pit & fissures on the occlusal or Facial/Lingual of molars, or Lingual of the maxillary incisors
How do you find a Class I caries?
Direct visual expoloration, NOT xrays
What is a Class V caries?
Cavities found in the proximal surfaces of incisors or canines that involve the incisal edge
How do you find Class V caries?
Visual or through transillumination
What is Class II caries?
Cavities found in the proximal surfaces of incisors and canines that do NOT involve the incisal angle
How do you find a Class I caries?
X-Rays
What are the types of trama that can happen from occlusion?
Primary: (we cause it amalgam thats too high) or Secondary: Disease from bone loss
What are the 2 types of occlusal contacts?
functional = normal and Parafunctional = bad habits
What are the 3 types of occlusion?
Neutro-occlusion I, Distocclusion II, and MesioOcclusion III
What is labio version?
Leans out
Linguo-version
Leans in
Buccoversion
towards buccal or cheek
Supraversion
Extruded tooth
Torsiversion
Rotated in any direction
Infraversion
Intrusion of a tooth
What are the 3 facial profiles?
Mesionathic, Retronathic, Prognathic
Malocclusion is?
A deviation from the normal or anything other than normal occlusion
Normal occlusion?
ideal occlusion, max teeth slightly overlay the mand teeth
How do you find Supra gingival calculus?
May be seen directly or indirectly with a mirror, using compressed air helps
What are the 3 ways to prevent calculus from ever forming?
Professional removal, personal bacteria/plaque removal, anticalculus dentrifice (ie good toothpaste)
What does Dental calculus do to the surrounding gingiva?
causes inflammation
If calculus isn't removed, you will eventually ___?
lose the tooth
If you remove biofilm then ___?
calculus will not occur
What are the ways that calculus attaches?
By means of aquired pellicle, tooth surface irregularities, by direct contact via intercellular matrix and tooth surface
What is the process of calculus removal?
pellicle forms, plaque matures, mineralization, structure of calculus, formation of calculus
How many days does it take for plaque to become calculus?
12 days
Layers of calculus are separated by?
incremental lines
What is supragingival calculus?
Found on the clinical crown, it is what you can see, lies above the gingival margin
What is Subginigical calculus?
On the clinical crown apical to the margin of the gingiva, can extend to the bottom of the pocket
Is calculus worse as you age?
NO
Calculus cannot be found in primary dentition.
False
Where is calculus most commonly found and why?
Linguals of mand teeth, buccals of max molars, anywhere in the mouth that is out of occlusion, any areas missed during the patient's normal oral hygiene
What is the definition of Dental calculus
mineralized, hard, tenatious mass that forms over teeth, dentures, and other dental prothesis
How do you handle pain and anxiety control in patients?
N2o, topical, iv sedation
What is tissue conditioning?
when the gingiva is too aggravated the patient must 1st implement a tx plan of toothbrushing and rinse etc.. THEN come back for an appt.
What are the expected outcomes of a patient with good oral hygiene?
Decreased bleeding, good oral hygiene, no new caries, more flouride use, consumes less sugary foods
Name some factors that can effect the status of good oral hygiene?
commintment level of the patient, the patient's disease status, not flossing regularly
What are the 3 types of dental hygiene diagnoses?
Basis: Chief Complaint, Diagnostic Statements: Explaining, Diagnostic Models: Only teach the patient what they will be able to do themselves
What appt type would a CLASS III or IV patient recieve in the clinic?
Quads: 3 appt minimum, always do one side then the other (i.e UR then LR, UL then LL then fine scale)
What words can describe a patient's perio status?
Active, past, new, arrested
How do you document assesment info?
complete records are essential
How do you classify a patient's overall health status?
ASA class, physical status, and tobacco status
What are the 3 general types of risk factors?
Behavioral (disability, poor oral hyg) Systemic DX (HIV or cancer) Dental Caries (talk about nutrition)
What are the 2 types of Chief complaints?
Cosmetic issue, pain issue
What is the procedure for determining a patient's pulse?
Prepare the patient, place the cuff, locate the radial pulse, apply the cuff, position stethoscope endpeice, inflate the cuff, deflate gradually, record
What are the 2 items used for BP
Sphygmomanometer, stethoscope
This is caused by ventricular contraction?
Systolic
This is caused by ventricular relaxation
Diastolic
What is pulse pressure?
The difference between the upper and lower #'s
How man more times do patients seek dental care over medical care?
5 times more often
What causes respirations to go down?
Sleep, certain drugs, pulmonary insuffienciency
What factors increase BP?
Exercise, eating, stimulants, birth control, emotional disturbances
What factors decrease BP?
Fasting, rest, depressants, quiet emotions, fainting, blood loss, shock
What are the 7 types of conditions that make are person more at risk for Hypertension?
Family history, weight gain, obesity, african american, birth control, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption
What are some factors that affect body temperature?
Exercise, infection, time of day, smoking, starvation, inflammation DX, hemorrage
T/F Body temp is usually lower in the evening
False
Hypothermia is a temp less than 96 degrees
True
The #1 prevention for illness is?
Taking vital signs
What is tachycardia?
Over 100 BPM
What is Baradycardia?
Under 50 BPM
What are the 5 vital signs we take before beginning treatment?
Body temp, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, smoking status
A standardized assesment to help diagnose infections is known as?
vital signs
What was the leading cause of death in the early 1900s?
infectuous diseases
What ways can you recognize a carious lesion?
Shepards Hook explorer, visual exam, exploratory exam, radiographs
What is abrasion?
Tooth surface wearing away due to mechanical means (hairdresser w. bobby pin, pipe smoker, toothbrush too hard)
What is Erosion?
tooth surface wearing away due to chemical means (acid from bulimia, smoking)
What is Attrition?
Tooth to tooth contact that wears away enamel?
What is enamel hypoplasia & when does it happen?
Happens during development, looks like white spots at the apex of the tooth
What is root surface caries?
a soft lesion of cementum and dentin, starts at the CEJ
Another name for root surface caries?
cemental or cervical caries
Side effects of root surface caries?
Xerostomia
Is enamel involved in root surface caries?
NO
What causes baby bottle syndrome?
streptococcus mutans & microbacilli that are transferred when babies are put to bed with a bottle
What is the anatomical crown?
the part covered by enamel
What is the anatomical root?
the part covered with cementum
What is the clinical crown?
The part above the attached tissue
What if the clinical root?
the part of the tooth with attached tissue
Is masticatory mucosa keritinized or non?
Keritinized
Masticatory mucosa covers ____?
the gingiva and hard palate
Lining mucosa covers ____?
lips, cheeks, floor of mouth, underside of tongue, soft palate & alveolar mucosa
T/F Lining mucosa is non-keratinized
True
Specialized mucosa types?
Filliform (most numerous), Fungiform (mushroom shaped) Circumvallate (V shape at back of tongue) Foliate (vertical grooves)
What are the parts of the peridontium
Gingiva, periodontal ligament, cementum, bone
Types of gingiva?
Free, Interdental, and Attached
What is the COL?
A non-keratinized depression between lingual and facial papilla that conforms to the contact area
What is the mucoginigival junction?
The line between the attached gingiva and the alveolar gingiva
What are the signs and symptoms of perio DX
bleeding gingiva, sensitivity to hot/cold, tenderness while eating, unpleasant odor, feeling of a loose tooth
HIPAA stands for ___?
Health Info Portability & Accountability Act of 1996
What are the 6 types of examinations?
Visual, palpation, instrumentation, percussion, electric, ascultation(sound)
3 keys to HIPAA?
Privacy, confidentiality, security
What are the 5 types of exams?
Initial (complete), screening, limited (emergency), follow-up and maintainance
What is ascultation?
SOUND: ie popping or clicking of the TMJ
What are the 5 purposes of charting?
care planning, treatment, evaluation, protection, and identification
What 4 things do you use when charting?
Instruments, study cases, xrays, paper form for charting
what is neus or nevi?
Mole
what is Ephelis?
Freckles
What is fremitus?
A palpable vibration or movement, maxillary only
When must you use plastic instruments?
implants
Factors related to occlusion
mobility of teeth, fremitus, food impaction areas, occlusion related habits, tooth migration, sensitivity to percussion, xray evidences
How do you chart a bridge?
place an X over the root of the middle tooth, outline the whole thing, and circle each as a crown exists on all
Mirror should be in the ___ hand
Non-dominant
When do you change you facemask?
when it is damp
What is adaptation?
The relationship between the instrument and the tooth surface that is maintained during instrumentation
What is a furcation?
Equals bone loss, hole where gingiva has recessed
What services does a Dental Hygienist provide?
Preventitive, Educational, Therapeutic
What is activation?
Application of lateral pressure, exploratory working stroke, single unbroken movement
Parts of an instrument?
Handle, Shank, Working end
What is Anthropometry?
the study of the human body measurements on a comparative basis
Who was the 1st ever graduate of a dental hygiene program and in what state and year?
Irene Newman, state of CT and in 1917
What are the 4 uses of the mouth mirror?
Indirect vision, transillumination, retraction, indirect illumination
What is the terminal shank?
1/3 portion of the shank closest to the working end
What is the #1 cause of tooth loss in adults?
Perio disease
What type of stroke for the probe?
walking
What are the core values in dental hygiene?
1. respect for others, 2 confidentiality, 3 trust, 4 non-malfiencence, 5 Beneficence, 6 Justice and fairness, 7. Veracity
What is angulation?
Angle formed by the face of the instrument working end and the tooth surface
Modified Pen Grasp?
3 fingers, with tips of the index and middle all in contact with the instrument, ring finger is fulcrum, held at the junction of the shank and handle
What are the parts of the DH process of care?
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
What are the correct right and left handed positions?
right = 8pm to 12am and left = 12pm to 4pm
What is the proper distance a dental hygienst should work from the patient?
your eyes to their mouth should be 15-22"
What are body mechanics?
The field of physiology that studies muscular actions and functions in the maintenance of the posture of the body
Before activation of an instrument ___?
insert first
Who is the founder of Dental Hygiene?
Dr. Alfred C Fones
What is a normal probing depth?
Anterior = 1-2mm, Posterior = 3mm, Over 3mm = pocket
What happens on days 1-2 of biofilm?
Microorganisms form consisting primarily of gram positve cocci
What happens to biofilm on days 2-4?
cocci still dominate but also gram positive filementous forms and slender rods can be seen on the cocci surface
What happens to biofilm on days 4-6?
filaments increase and more mixed flora appears with rods, filamentous forms, fusobacteria. Biofilm near the gingiva thickens and develops a more mature flora with gram negative spirochetes
What happens to biofilm on days 7-14?
Vibrous and spirochetes appear, white blood cells increase, signs of inflammation are visable, gram negative and anaerobic organisms appear
On what day are signs of inflammation observable?
Days 7 - 14
On which day do the # of WBCs increase?
Days 7-14
On which day is gingivitis present?
Days 14-21
What happens to biofilm on days 14-21?
Vibrous and spirochetes are prevalent in older biofilm along with cocci and filamentous forms, Gingivitis is NOW present
What are the stages to biofilm formation?
Biofilm attaches, bacteria attaches to the pellicle, bacteria multiply and colonize, plaque grows and matures, a matrix forms
What is dental biofilm?
Dense non-mineralized complex mass of colonies in a gel like intermicrobial matrix
Where does biofilm adhere?
It adheres to teeth calculus, and fixed and removable appliances
Gingivitis develops in ___ weeks?
2-3 weeks
Gingivitis is usually?
Reversible
What type of organisms are on Subginigival dental biofilm?
gram negative, anaerobic, motile organisms
What 5 things are needed for caries to occur?
Carcinogenic foodstuff, dental biofilm, acid formation, deminerlization, caries
What is attached pellicle?
Lays over the pellicle, layer of microorganisms
What is Unattached pellicle?
between 2 layers of attache plaque
Epithelium pellicle is?
Loosely attached microorganisms with WBCs
What are the ways to detect plaque?
direct vision, explorere or probe, disclosing agent, clinical record
What are the compositional types of dental biofilm?
Inroganic(calcium and phosphors) Organic (carbohydrates, proteins, lipids)
What are some things that influence plaque accumulation?
Crowded teeth, rough surface, difficult to clean, out of occlusion, bacterial multiplication
What are the 2 types of perio infections?
bacteria on healthy gingiva and periodontal biofilm pathogens
What is material alba?
white material, a loosely adherent mass of bacteria and cellular debris that frequently occurs on top of dental biofilm where biofilm is not removed.
What part of the tooth does food generally collect in?
cervical 1/3 and proximal embrasures
What resembles cottage cheese?
Material alba
How do you find subgingival calculus?
May see a dark line under the gingiva, not a snug fit around the tooth, transillumination, gingival tissue color changes, tactile exam
What is aquired pellicle?
a tenacious membrane that is amorphous , acellular and organic and that forms over teeth, restorations, and calculus
Aquired pellicle forms within ___ ?
minutes
What does aquired pellicle come from?
saliva and subgingival sulcus fluid
3 Types of Pellicle
Surface: clear until disclosed, Surface: stained, takes on color of the extrinsic sourse (ie tea smoking) Sub-Surface: embedded in the tooth (ie dimineralized areas)
What are some functions of pellicle?
provides a barrier against acids, keep the surface moist, participates in plaque formation, allow calculus to attach to it
What is the definition of Dental caries?
a disease of the dental calcified structures that is characterized by deminineralization of the mineral components and dissolution of the organic matrix
The 1st indication of subclinical disease in other parts of the body may show in ___?
the oral tissues
What are the 2 methods of exam?
Direct observation, palpation
What are the types of palpation?
digital = 1 finger (floor of mouth), bidigital = 2 fingers, (lips) Bimanual 1 finger and hand under chin (submental), Bilateral = 2 hands (like for tmj
What is erythema?
red
The intraoral exam consists of ___?
the lips, palate, tongue, and gingiva
What things should you note when completing a documentation of findings?
Record, History, Location & Extent, Physical Characteristics
Name 3 types of lesions?
Elevated(acne), depressed(ulcer), flat(moles)
What is exophytic?
Growing outward
What is papillary?
Nipple shaped
What is punctuate?
different from surrounding tissue?
What is indurated?
Hard
What is petechiae?
Red Dots
What is a psuedomembrane?
lose a layer
What is a polyp?
a tissue mass that projects
What is verrucous?
rough, wartlike appearance
What is torus?
a bony projection
What is leucoplakia?
white areas
What are the signs of early oral cancer?
white areas, red areas, ulcers, masses, pigmentation
What are the ways to test for cancer with a suspicous lesion?
Biopsy - take all of or a chunk of a lesion and send out to test, or Cytologic- take cells
What is Class I caries?
cavities in the proximal surfaces of premolars and molars
How can you find Class I caries?
xrays only
What is the typical dosage for the HEP B immunization?
1 month and 6 month available pre and post exposure and immunity lasts upto 15 years
WHat are some things that prevent HEP B?
Prenatal testing, immunization, blood bank control, sterlization of use of disposable items, use autoclave, and all
How do you get HEP C?
Blood, saliva and aerosols
What is the treatment for Hep C?
Long term dialysis
What are the symptoms of HEP C?
asymptomatic
How do you get HEP D?
Must have HEP B, blood, sexual contact, paranatal, body peircings, and sharing needles
Which HEP is most likely to occur in 3rd world countries?
HEP D and E
How do you get HEP E?
fecal oral and contaminated water
Incubation period for HEP E?
15-64 days
Is there a vaccine for HEP E?
NO
Who is most likely to contract HEP E?
Adults
What are some symtoms of HEP A
Jaundice, flu like symptoms, fatiugue, diarrea and fever
HEP A is common in which groups?
Childcare providers, young adults with children, homosexual men, drug abusers and 3rd world countries.
How long does it take to recover from HEP A?
3 months
How do you contract HEP A ?
Unsanitary conditions
Symptoms of HEP B?
Appetite loss, fatigue, a low grade fever, muscle joint aches, nausea and vomiting and jaundice
What are the modes of transmission of HEP B?
Intravenous, percutanous, needle stick, paranatal, drug use, sexual, blood tranfusion
Does HEP B have a carrier state?
YES
Do carriers of HEP B have symptoms?
NO
Many carriers of HEP B develop what?
Syrrocis or cancer of the live
What percentage of carriers of HEP B die?
15-25%
Can carriers pass HEP B to others?
YES
What is crosscontamination?
person to person or person to object
What is a droplet?
A particle of moisture, spread by sneexing coching or speaking
Is a droplet always visable?
NO
What is a vehicle?
The object that serves the transporatation needs(door knob)
What is a succeptible host?
someone vulnerable to a disease ie. cuton hand
Transmission?
The passage of an infection from one individual to another
What are pathogens?
A disease causing organism
What are the different kinds of pathogens?
virus or microorganism
What factors alter normal defense to infection?
drugs therapy, prosthesis, abnormal physical conditions, and systemic disease
What causes airbourne infection
dust borne organisms
How do you prevent airborne infection?
Disinfections is cruicial
What are the 2 kinds of airborne particles?
spatter and aerosols
What things influence chances of an infection forming?
Number and duration of organisms, ability to survive, immune status of the host, general physical health
Some details about aerosols?
Can be solid or liquid, larger particles get trapped in the respiratory tree, they are invisable, may contain non-biodegradable organisms, less than 50upm in diameter. Less than 5upm overall
Some details about spatter?
particles are larger than 50upm, they are heavier and larger than aerosols, they drop on objects people and floor, can be visable
Water line process?
Flush line for 2 minutes at the beginning of each day and for 30 seconds in between patients
What are the things that make up a good disinnfectant?
Fungicidal, Viralcidal, Bactericidal, EPA approved and tuberculocidal
What are the 4 types of chemical classifications?
Glutaraldehydes, Chlorine compounds, iodaphors, combination phenolics
Ways to prevent contraction of infectious dx?
clean water, interruption of trasmission, pre-procedural, protection of clinician
What is varicella zoster?
Chicken pox or HHV3
What is karposi's sarcoma?
Related to HIV, related to Homosexual men, age-defined lesion, happens in immunocompromised people
What does Hepatitis mean?
Inflammation of the liver
What type of TB is commonly contracted by HIV + patients?
Multidrug resistant
What are the clinical manifestations of TB?
oral lesions and enlarged lymph nodes
Herpes Simplex I affects what area?
Oral cavity
Herpes Simplex II affects what area?
Genitals
Treatment for Herpes Simplex is?
Acyclovir
What is HHV7?
Human Herpes Virus 7
Who contract HHV7?
Immunocompromised people with bone marrow transplants
Where is HHV7 housed?
In the gingival tissue which can be a reservoir for the virus
What is HHV6?
Herpes Lymphotrophic Virus or HLV
What is Roseola? Signs?
Herpes Lymphotrophic virus, rash, high temp
Who mostly gets Roseola?
Children
Non ABCDEFG is an virus of what area?
stomach and intestines
What must you have to contract non-ABCDEFG?
HEP C
Is there a vaccine for non-ABCDEFG?
NO
Another name for Rubella?
German Measels
Route for Rubella?
Direct contact, airborne droplets,
Incubation, vaccine and communicable for Rubella?
Incubation: 16-23 days, vaccine:yes, comm:1 wk to 4 days after rash appears?
Another name for strep throat?
scarlet fever, streptococcus pyogenes
Route for strep?
direct contact or respiratory?
incubation per, vacc, commu for Strep throat?
Incu: 1-3 days, vaccine: no, commu: 10-21 days if untreated
What is Epstein Barr Virus?
Infectious Mononucleosus
Route for contracting mono is?
Direct contact and saliva - kissing disease
incubation, vacc and comm period for mono?
incu: 4-6 wks, vaccine: no, commu: prolonged 1 yr after infection
Does Syphllis have a vaccine?
NO
What is the route for Syphills?
direct contact, or transplacental
How do you get cytomegalovirus?
perinatal, direct contact, blood transfusion,saliva: no vaccine
How do you get Rubeloa?
direct contact, saliva, or airborne droplets,
AKA for Rubeala?
Measles
Virus for Measles is __?
Morbilli virus - vaccine: YES
AKA for whooping cough is?
bordatella
Herpes Zoster is
Shingles
How long is TB contagious when in the system?
So long as mycobacterium is in the sputum
What is the incubation period for TB?
2-10 weeks
What is the vaccine for TB?
BCG: Bacille Calmette, Guerin
Must have ___ to get Delta Hepatitus?
Hep B
Which Hepatitis can be contracted through shellfish?
HEP A
What 6 things must you have for disease transmission?
Reservoir, port of exit, port of entry, mode of transmission, suceptible host, infectuoius agent.
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