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218 terms

Bio Final

STUDY
PLAY
What is biology?
the scientific study of life
Which of the following is not a property of life?
Populations of organisms are unable to change over time.
What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?
nutrient cycling and energy flow
Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?
energy
Which of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life?
cells
Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______.
larger and more complex
Humans are composed of ______ cells.
eukaryotic
What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell?
organelles
The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.
nucleus
What are eukaryotic genes composed of?
DNA
What is a gene?
a unit of heredity
The human genome consists of about ______ chemical letters.
3 billion
Which of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element?
iodine
All atoms of an element have the same number of ______.
protons
Beryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?
5
The way Earth moves about the sun is most like ______.
an electron moving around the nucleus of an atom
An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197. This atom has ______ protons, ______ neutrons, and ______ electrons.
79 . . . 118 . . . 79
Isotopes of an element have the same number of ______ and different numbers of ______.
protons . . . neutrons
How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?
Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.
The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).
8
Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron shell.
5
An atom with an electrical charge is a(n) ______.
ion
The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond
ionic
People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ______.
A) lactose
B) lactase
C) water
D) glucose
E) fructose
B
A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).
A) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
E
The following molecule is best described as a ______.
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) hydrocarbon
D) nucleic acid
E) lipid
C
______ is a hydroxyl group.
A) —SH
B) —NH2
C) —OH
D) COOH
E) —H
C
In the following reaction, galactose is a ______.
galactose + glucose → lactose + water
A) polysaccharide
B) monomer
C) lipid
D) polymer
E) protein
B
What name is given to the following reaction?
galactose + glucose → lactose + water
A) hydrolysis
B) hydrogenation
C) glycolysis
D) dehydration reaction
E) gluconeogenesis
D
What name is given to the following reaction?
sucrose + water → glucose + fructose
A) glucogenesis
B) hydrolysis
C) anabolism
D) denaturation
E) dehydration reaction
B
Carbohydrates typically include ______.
A) an NH2 group
B) C, H, and O atoms
C) a hydrocarbon chain
D) a 5-carbon ring
E) a PO4 group
B
Which of the following are isomers?
A) glucose and fructose
B) glucose and sucrose
C) sucrose and glucose
D) sucrose and lactose
E) lactose and maltose
A
Complete the equation:
monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ______ + water
A) disaccharide
B) polypeptide
C) nucleic acid
D) polysaccharide
E) fat
A
In the following equation, lactose is a ______.
galactose + glucose → lactose + water
A) nucleic acid
B) polypeptide
C) fatty acid
D) disaccharide
E) dipeptide
D
Table sugar is ______.
A) glucose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) sucrose
E) fructose
D
The consumption of sugar is a major cause of ______.
A) cancer
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) gout
D) acne
E) tooth decay
E
Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?
A) glucose
B) starch
C) maltose
D) fructose
E) sucrose
B
Animals store carbohydrates as ______.
A) cellulose
B) glycogen
C) glucose
D) starch
E) maltose
b
What theory states that all living things are composed of cells?
A) Hooke's rule
B) cell theory
C) Mendel's law
D) evolutionary theory
E) law of thermodynamics
B
What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?
A) light microscope using living cells
B) transmission electron microscope
C) light microscope using dead whole cells
D) scanning electron microscope
E) both a light microscope and an electron microscope
D
The two basic types of cells are ______ and ______.
A) prokaryotic . . . eukaryotic
B) bacterial . . . animal
C) nerve . . . muscle
D) plant . . . animal
E) bacterial . . . protist
A
When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.
A) animal
B) plant
C) eukaryotic
D) fungal
E) prokaryotic
E
One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic cells.
A) lack the complexity seen in
B) have DNA, which is lacking in
C) have membrane-bound organelles, which are lacking in
D) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in
E) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in
C
In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?
A) cytoplasm
B) gene
C) phospholipid bilayer
D) nucleoid
E) chloroplast
A
You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall. Therefore, you conclude that it must be a ______ cell.
A) prokaryotic
B) liver
C) animal
D) bacterial
E) plant
E
Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
A) control center of the cell
B) protein synthesis
C) lipid synthesis
D) regulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell
E) digestion of organic materials inside the cell
D
______ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.
A) Steroids
B) Membrane proteins
C) Fatty acids
D) Mosaics
E) Phospholipids
E
When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ______.
A) are lipids
B) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water
C) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water
D) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails
E) are both fluid and mosaic
B
The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.
A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
B) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
C) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane
D) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure
E) nucleotides to drift into and out of the membrane structure
A
The extracellular coats of cells ______.
A) protect and support cells
B) provide avenues for the exchange of DNA
C) are warehouses for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates
D) are primarily sites of dead matter and waste materials
E) none of the above
A
______ store the information necessary to produce proteins.
A) Lysosomes
B) Genes
C) Phospholipids
D) Ribosomes
E) Carbohydrates
B
The nuclear envelope is composed of ______.
A) chromatin
B) genes
C) DNA
D) a double membrane
E) carbohydrates
D
The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______.
A) nucleoli
B) nucleoplasm
C) chromatin
D) ribosomes
E) ATP
C
What is energy?
A) the capacity to cause movement
B) the capacity to perform work
C) a measure of calories
D) metabolism
E) a measure of disorder
B
The energy of motion is ______ energy.
A) kinetic
B) conserved
C) created
D) potential
E) stored
A
The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.
A) interconversion
B) conservation of energy
C) conservation of heat
D) potential energy
E) entropy
B
A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.
A) motion
B) potential
C) no
D) kinetic
E) conserved
B
You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped?
A) It was returned to the bicycle.
B) It was converted back to chemical energy.
C) It was released as heat.
D) It was stored as kinetic energy.
E) It was used to chemically break down the tires.
C
Which of the following is a measure of disorder?
A) entropy
B) kinetic energy
C) potential energy
D) respiration
E) conservation of energy
A
Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing ______.
A) chemical energy into kinetic energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) kinetic energy into chemical energy
E) none of the above
A
Humans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
E) 99.9%
B
Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.
A) 0.01
B) 1,000
C) 10,000
D) 0.1
E) 100
C
You have a 2-liter bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to 100°C?
A) 2 Calories
B) 100 Calories
C) 200 Calories
D) 2,000 Calories
E) 10,000 Calories
C
What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C6H12O6
B) sucrose
C) ATP
D) DNA
E) fat
C
Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.
A) adenosine
B) spring
C) heat unit
D) photon
E) phosphate group
E
Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.
A) result in cell death
B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy
C) result in the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy
D) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy
E) have no effect on the cell
A
Usually, enzymes are ______.
A) fats
B) steroids
C) monosaccharides
D) phospholipids
E) proteins
E
The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.
A) summation
B) cellular synthesis
C) replication
D) metabolism
E) inheritance
D
A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.
A) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles
B) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles
C) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP
D) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity
E) none of the above
A
Humans use the calories they obtain from ______ as their source of energy.
A) food
B) water
C) sunlight
D) minerals
E) carbon dioxide
A
Photosynthetic organisms are ______.
A) heterotrophs
B) animals
C) consumers
D) producers
E) decomposers
D
A horse eating some hay is an example of ______.
A) an autotroph eating a producer
B) an autotroph eating a consumer
C) a consumer eating a producer
D) a consumer eating a heterotroph
E) a producer eating a heterotroph
C
Photosynthesis is carried out by ______.
A) chloroplasts
B) consumers
C) the nucleus
D) mitochondria
E) ribosomes
A
The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
A) water only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) glucose only
D) water and carbon dioxide
E) water and glucose
D
Plant cells ______.
A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs
B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria
C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen
D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs
E) do not use cellular respiration
B
The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.
A) the sun
B) producers
C) ATP
D) consumers
E) plants
A
What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C6H12O6
B) glucose
C) ATP
D) DNA
E) fat
C
An aerobic process requires ______.
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) ATP
D) light
E) carbohydrates
A
Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration ______.
A) also describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air
B) produces ATP
C) produces oxygen
D) produces glucose
E) uses carbon dioxide
B
Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
A) glucose → lactic acid + energy
B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water
C) glucose → ethyl alcohol + carbon dioxide + energy
D) glucose + lactose → galactose + water
E) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy
E
Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?
A) ATP and water
B) carbon dioxide and ATP
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
E) oxygen and glucose
D
During redox reactions, ______.
A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction
B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized
C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance
D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule
E) none of the above
C
During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules. Which of the following is a true statement about this process?
A) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.
B) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another.
D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
E) None of the statements are true.
B
Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) human
B) mushroom
C) pine tree
D) fish
E) porcupine
C
Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.
A) taking in oxygen and making wood
B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates)
C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose
D) converting sugar to oxygen and water
E) releasing the energy in cellulose to make new leaves and roots
B
In which organelle does photosynthesis take place?
A) mitochondrion
B) nucleus
C) chloroplast
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) vacuole
C
What is the function of stomata?
A) fermentation
B) water absorption
C) Calvin cycle
D) location of photosystems
E) gas exchange
E
Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?
A) stems
B) roots
C) interior cells
D) stomata
E) leaves
B
What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
A) stroma
B) cristae
C) reaction centers
D) thylakoids
E) vesicles
D
What are grana?
A) thick fluids inside choloroplasts
B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane
C) stacks of membranous sacs
D) pigments found in choloroplasts
E) sacs that surround the stroma
C
If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of water, which of the following would you expect to occur?
A) increased plant growth
B) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants
C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants
D) increased growth of the plants' leaves
E) increased growth of the plants' roots
C
Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?
A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6
B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2
C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O
D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
E) 6 O2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 CO2
B
In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
A) O2 . . . CO2
B) C6H12O6 . . . O2
C) CO2 . . . O2
D) H2O . . . C6H12O6
E) H2O . . . CO2
E
The light reactions of photosynthesis convert ______ energy to ______ energy.
A) solar . . . chemical
B) chemical . . . electrical
C) electrical . . . solar
D) proton gradient . . . chemical
E) ATP . . . NADPH
A
The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light-dependent reactions in order to operate.
A) glucose . . . carbon dioxide
B) electrons . . . NADH
C) ATP . . . NADPH
D) oxygen . . . carbon dioxide
E) RuBP . . . NADP+
C
The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.
A) ATP and NADH
B) ATP and NAD+
C) ATP and NADPH
D) RuBP and O2
E) ATP and NADP+
C
The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.
A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment
B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object
C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object
D) the wavelengths that have been used and discarded by the pigmented object
E) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight
B
If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected?
A) blue
B) green
C) red
D) yellow
E) orange
A
DNA is found in structures called ______.
A) centrosomes
B) chiasma
C) histones
D) chromosomes
E) centromeres
D
A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can reproduce asexually.
A) cat
B) human
C) amoeba
D) dog
E) mouse
C
The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
A) basal body
B) nucleus
C) centriole
D) Golgi apparatus
E) nucleolus
B
Chromatin consists of ______.
A) RNA only
B) DNA and protein
C) RNA and protein
D) protein only
E) DNA only
B
A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
A) centromeres
B) centrosomes
C) genomes
D) sister chromatids
E) genes
D
Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
A) chromatin
B) centromere
C) spindle
D) centrosome
E) centriole
B
Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
B) Chromosome duplication.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle forms.
E) Cytokinesis occurs
B
The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
E) two cells with different amounts of genetic material
C
Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B) The nuclear envelope forms.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
E) Cytokinesis occurs.
D
Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
A) cytokinesis
B) telophase
C) meiosis
D) interphase
E) DNA synthesis
B
The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase
C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
A
During metaphase ______.
A) the nuclear envelope breaks up
B) cytokinesis occurs
C) sister chromatids separate
D) centromeres divide
E) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
E
Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate.
B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
C) Cytokinesis occurs.
D) The nuclear envelope reappears.
E) The nuclear envelope breaks up.
A
During telophase ______.
A) the events of prophase are reversed
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) sister chromatids separate
D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
E) the genetic material doubles
A
A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
A) have less genetic material than it started with
B) not have completed anaphase
C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D) be a prokaryotic cell
E) have two nuclei
E
The best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that ______.
A) cannot be cross-fertilized
B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent
C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized
D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring
E) becomes sterile after three generations
B
A mating between a true-breeding purple-flowered pea plant and a true-breeding white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ______.
A) true-breeding variety
B) inbred organism
C) hybrid
D) P generation
E) F2 generation
C
Alleles are described as ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) environmental factors that affect gene expression
C) alternate versions of a gene
D) Punnett squares
E) alternate phenotypes
C
A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.
B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.
C) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.
D) The alleles are codominant.
E) Yellow is an easier color to produce.
C
A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
A) 1:2:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 9:3:3:1
E) 1:1
C
According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.
A) two alleles segregate into each gamete
B) homologous chromosomes move to the same gamete
C) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele
D) gametes have one copy of each allele
E) gametes are diploid
D
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 2:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 1:1
D) 1:2:1
E) 3:1
C
Mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The allele for purple flowers is ______.
A) segregated
B) monohybrid
C) dominant
D) recessive
E) independent
C
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
C
In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
A) dimples
B) DD
C) Dd
D) dd
E) DI
C
An individual who is homozygous ______.
A) expresses the dominant trait
B) carries two different alleles for a gene
C) is a carrier of a genetic disorder
D) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
E) expresses the recessive trait
D
Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
A) AA × aa
B) AA × Aa
C) Aa × Aa
D) aa × aa
E) Aa × aa
A
What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A) phenotype
B) locus
C) chromaddress
D) genotype
E) allele
B
Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
A) 1:2:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 3:1
D) 6:5:4:1
E) 1:1:1:1
E
An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______.
A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance
B) Mendel's law of independent assortment
C) linkage
D) crossing over
E) Mendel's principle of segregation
B
DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
A) nucleotide
B) carbohydrate
C) fatty acid
D) protein
E) amino acid
A
The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
A) nitrogenous bases
B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
D) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern
E) paired nucleotides
C
The DNA double helix is ______.
A) made up of two polynucleotide strands
B) composed of adenine and thymine
C) a puzzle to geneticists
D) composed of adenine and guanine
E) composed of two chromosomes
A
RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA.
A) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar
B) nucleotides . . . nucleic acids
C) uracil . . . thymine
D) cytosine . . . guanine
E) adenine . . . guanine
C
If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?
A) 80%
B) 60%
C) 40%
D) 20%
E) 30%
E
In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
A) cytosine . . . thymine
B) guanine . . . adenine
C) uracil . . . cytosine
D) thymine . . . cytosine
E) cytosine . . . uracil
D
If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?
A) ACTTGC
B) TGAACG
C) CAGGTA
D) CAGGUA
E) CUGGTU
C
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
A) Pauling
B) Watson and Crick
C) Chase
D) Franklin
E) Hershey and Chase
B
Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.
A) X-ray crystallography studies
B) studies of disease-causing bacteria
C) base rule studies
D) transforming studies
E) bacteriophage studies
A
What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
A) ionic
B) covalent
C) hydrophobic
D) hydrophilic
E) hydrogen
E
After replication, ______.
A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands
B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
C) each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix
D) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
E) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
B
During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together.
A) DNA helicases
B) DNA ligases
C) DNases
D) DNA polymerases
E) DNA gyrases
D
The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."
A) enzyme
B) RNA
C) protein
D) nucleotide
E) polypeptide
E
What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A) holotype
B) genotype
C) typology
D) phenotype
E) morphology
D
) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 100
E) 1000
B
At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
A) cleavage
B) morphology
C) regeneration
D) carcinogenesis
E) cellular differentiation
E
The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.
A) phenogenesis
B) transcription
C) gene expression
D) recombination
E) cleavage
C
In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their control sequences?
A) operon
B) activator
C) promoter
D) exon
E) regulatory gene
A
Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.
A) operator
B) proto-oncogene
C) regulatory gene
D) promoter
E) exon
D
In prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______.
A) operon
B) master control gene
C) allele
D) signal transduction pathway
E) homeobox
A
In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
A) operator
B) regulatory gene
C) promoter
D) activator
E) repressor
A
Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?
A) RNA polymerase
B) repressors
C) promoters
D) enzymes
E) lactose
B
Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.
A) promoters
B) DNA polymerase
C) regulatory genes
D) the operon
E) RNA polymerase
E
What would you assume if you found RNA transcripts of lactose-utilizing genes within E. coli?
A) the binding of lactose to the lac operon activator
B) the presence of lactose
C) the absence of amino acids
D) the presence of lac operon activator protein
E) the absence of lac operon repressor protein
B
While examining a human cell that functions normally, you determine that it has 45 functional chromosomes and one chromosome that is almost completely inactive. You immediately decide that it is very likely that this cell ______.
A) is a red blood cell
B) came from a normal human female
C) is lacking a chromosome
D) is a gamete
E) will become cancerous if one or two more genes are mutated
B
What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
A) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to silencer sequences
B) RNA splicing
C) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
D) DNA packing and unpacking
E) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences
D
Male tortoiseshell cats ______.
A) do not have an X chromosome
B) have orange and black patches of fur that reflect the pattern of X chromosome inactivation
C) are usually XYY individuals
D) are likely to be exceedingly rare and very likely to be sterile since normal male cats are XY
E) can only be produced by the mating of a female tortoiseshell cat with another male tortoiseshell cat
D
Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) RNA splicing
B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
C) transcription factors
D) gene operons
E) enhancer sequences
B
In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.
A) silencers
B) operons
C) enhancers
D) regulators
E) operators
A
Introns are ______.
A) noncoding DNA sequences
B) DNA sequences to which activators bind
C) expressed DNA sequences
D) the product of RNA splicing
E) DNA sequences to which silencers bind
A
Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?
A) DNA that is produced as a result of crossing over
B) DNA that results from bacterial conjugation
C) DNA that carries genes from two different sources
D) an alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation
E) DNA that carries a translocation
C
Which of these is a genetically modified organism?
A) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means
B) the first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared
C) an organism carrying genes from two different parents
D) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles
E) an organism that gestated in an artificial womb
A
Which of the following best defines the term transgenic animal?
A) an animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
B) an animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
C) an animal containing a gene from a another species
D) an animal containing genes from both its parents
E) an animal containing genes from three or more species
C
The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______.
A) humulin
B) HGH
C) SCID
D) CF
E) RFLP
A
A vaccine works by ______.
A) inhibiting bacterial reproduction
B) stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses
C) killing cells infected with a virus
D) providing a temporary immunity to a pathogen
E) preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins
B
Transgenic animals are currently used ______.
A) to produce potentially useful proteins
B) as food
C) as vectors for use in cloning human DNA
D) to obtain plasmids
E) all of the above
A
Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
A) humulin
B) GM
C) PCR
D) clones
E) plasmids
E
Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?
A) cloning
B) construction of a genomic library
C) application of a restriction enzyme to a plasmid
D) isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium
E) recombination
D
Of these steps, which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA?
A) Human DNA fragments are mixed with the cut plasmids.
B) The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA.
C) Bacteria bearing the plasmid of interest are treated with antibiotics.
D) The recombinant plasmids are mixed with bacteria.
E) Bacteria carrying recombinant plasmids are cloned.
B
When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______.
A) plasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome
B) plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium
C) bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate
D) desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium
E) bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal
D
The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of ______.
A) gene cloning
B) industrial genetic engineering
C) gene amplification
D) gene magnification
E) gene pharming
A
A collection of cloned recombinant plasmids that includes fragments from the entire genome of a cell is called a ______.
A) phenotypic library
B) shotgun
C) gene repository
D) clone collection
E) genomic library
E
Nucleic acid probes are used to ______.
A) find a specific nucleotide sequence
B) isolate bacterial genes
C) create sticky ends
D) destroy clones that do not carry the recombinant plasmid of interest
E) synthesize a DNA strand complementary to a sticky end
A
Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.
A) archaea
B) eukaryotes
C) DNA viruses
D) bacteria
E) retroviruses
D
"Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ______.
A) a clone
B) DNA ligase
C) genomics
D) a restriction enzyme
E) humulin
D
Natural selection can be defined as ______.
A) the accumulation of random mutations
B) changes in gene frequencies attributable to chance
C) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment
D) the relationships among all organisms
E) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than other individuals
E
Natural selection ______.
A) results in evolutionary adaptation
B) is the result of sampling error
C) is a very rare phenomenon
D) does not affect allelic frequencies
E) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment
A
The first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to _____.
A) ancient Greeks about 2,500 years ago
B) Aristotle
C) Lamarck
D) Darwin
E) Buffon
C
Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle ______ is true?
A) Its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean.
B) It lasted almost two years
C) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals
D) It ended sadly with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost four years into its journey
E) none of the above
C
During his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ______.
A) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found
B) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents
C) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today
D) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region
E) none of the above
B
While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ today.
A) old . . . continue
B) old . . . no longer occur
C) young . . . continue
D) young . . . no longer occur
E) none of the above
A
What did Darwin find in South America that suggested that the Andes mountains had been gradually lifted up over millions of years?
A) bird fossils at the top of mountains in Argentina
B) dinosaur bones in the Amazon basin
C) sea snail fossils high up in the Andes mountains
D) impressions of ocean waves at the top of a mountain
E) none of the above
C
In The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was _____.
A) artificial selection
B) natural selection
C) inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) uniformitarianism
E) none of the above
B
Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?
A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia
B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats
C) molecular sequences
D) bones of extinct whales
E) the similarity of the forelimbs of sharks and penguins
D
The oldest known fossils are from about ______ years ago.
A) 3.5 billion
B) 6,000
C) 4.0 million
D) 3.0 trillion
E) 1.0 billion
A
) ______ is the study of fossils.
A) Geology
B) Paleontology
C) Morphology
D) Biogeography
E) Gerontology
B
Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States. As you travel, you notice that the flowers, birds, and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.
A) paleontology
B) anthropology
C) geology
D) biogeography
E) morphology
D
Homology is evidence of ______.
A) directional selection
B) convergent evolution
C) diversifying selection
D) genetic drift
E) common ancestry
E
Which of the following are homologous?
A) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat
B) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat
C) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow
D) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird
E) the wings of a dragonfly and the wings of a hawk
B
The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ______.
A) analogy
B) diversifying selection
C) common ancestry
D) genetic drift
E) convergent evolution
C
Eukaryotes arose about ______ years after the first prokaryotes.
A) 3.0 million
B) 1.5 billion
C) 3.5 billion
D) 4.0 billion
E) 5.5 billion
B
Large amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.
A) 200 million
B) 1.7 billion
C) 2.0 billion
D) 2.7 billion
E) 4.5 billion
D
Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______, which began about ______ million years ago.
A) Permian . . . 290
B) Cambrian . . . 540
C) Carboniferous . . . 363
D) Cenozoic . . . 65
E) Mesozoic . . . 245
B
Which kingdom(s) was(were) the first to colonize land?
A) Monera
B) Plantae and Fungi
C) Monera and Protista
D) Archaea
E) Protista and Fungi
B
Land was first colonized about ______ years ago.
A) 100 million
B) 500 million
C) 570 billion
D) 1.7 billion
E) 2.0 billion
B
The idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ______.
A) polymerization
B) diversification
C) spontaneous generation
D) endosymbiosis
E) biogenesis
C
The absence of ______ in the primitive atmosphere was essential to the origin of life on Earth.
A) N2
B) CO2
C) CH4
D) NH3
E) O2
E
What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?
A) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides
B) origin of self-replicating molecules
C) abiotic synthesis of ribozymes
D) abiotic synthesis of polymers
E) abiotic formation of pre-cells
A
Whose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions on the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously?
A) Miller and Urey
B) Darwin
C) Watson
D) Pauling
E) Margulis
A
Under what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers?
A) in the presence of oxygen gas
B) when ribozymes are present to catalyze the reaction
C) with the addition of water
D) by biogenesis
E) when water evaporates from a hot surface
E
Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?
A) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA.
B) RNA codes for fewer amino acids than does DNA.
C) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not.
D) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not.
E) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.
D
RNAs that can act as enzymes are called ______.
A) ribozymes
B) chromosomes
C) ATPs
D) lysosomes
E) prokaryotes
A
Variation among pre-cells was due to ______.
A) genetic drift
B) artificial selection
C) natural selection
D) the bottleneck effect
E) mutation
E
Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?
A) domain Bacteria
B) kingdom Protista
C) domain Archaea
D) domain Monera
E) kingdom Monera
C
The prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ______.
A) kingdom Monera
B) kingdom Protista
C) domain Archaea
D) domain Monera
E) domain Bacteria
C
Ecology is the study of ______.
A) life
B) relationships among different species
C) human effects on the environment
D) interactions between humans and other species
E) interactions between organisms and their environments
E
Which of the following is abiotic?
A) a protist
B) an animal
C) a plant
D) a fungus
E) a rock
E
Which of these represents the correct hierarchical order?
A) organism, population, community, ecosystem
B) organism, community, ecosystem, population
C) community, population, organism, ecosystem
D) organism, ecosystem, population, community
E) ecosystem, population, organism, community
A
What level of ecology is concerned with the adaptations of individuals?
A) community
B) tissue
C) organismal
D) ecosystem
E) population
C
What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?
A) community
B) tissue
C) organism
D) ecosystem
E) population
E
What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?
A) community
B) tissue
C) organism
D) ecosystem
E) population
A
What is a population?
A) a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area
B) a community living in a particular geographic area
C) a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area
D) a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area
E) all of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time
C
Which of these is a community?
A) all of the Staphlococcus aureus (a species of bacteria) living on your skin
B) all of the organisms living in your home
C) all of the students in your class
D) all of the people living in your neighborhood
E) all of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard
B
What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?
A) community
B) tissue
C) organism
D) ecosystem
E) population
D
What is the primary source of energy for nearly all of Earth's ecosystems?
A) sunlight
B) geothermal vents
C) water
D) wind
E) rocks and soil
A
Aquatic organisms ______.
A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss
B) may experience problems with the solute concentration of the surrounding fluid
C) in freshwater lakes excrete highly concentrated urine
D) have no concerns with regard to water
E) that are photosynthetic never find light to be in short supply
B
Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?
A) water and oxygen
B) nitrogen and phosphorus
C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
D) water and carbon dioxide
E) oxygen only
B
What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?
A) acclimation
B) adaptation
C) cosmosation
D) accreditation
E) astroization
A
Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?
A) migrating to a different location
B) acclimation
C) evolutionary adaptation
D) growing a heavier coat of fur
E) growing to a larger size
A
The temperate zones ______.
A) generally have a climate warmer than the tropics
B) have the coolest climates on Earth
C) are relatively wet
D) are relatively dry
E) are the zones closest to the equator
C