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BIO300 Quiz 2
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Terms in this set (60)
The extension of cancer to distant tissues and organs is called:
Select one:
a. invasion
b. metastasis
c. malignancy
d. apoptosis
b. metastasis
Determining the size of the tumor, the degree of lymph node involvement, and the extent of distant metastasis is called:
Select one:
a. categorizing
b. grading the tumor
c. chemotherapy
d. staging the degree of cancer spread
d. staging the degree of cancer spread
Which of the following cell populations do chemotherapeutic agents primarily target?
Select one:
a. rapidly dividing cells
b. cells that are incapable of mitosis
c. benign tumor cells
d. all cells
a. rapidly dividing cells
A malignancy of the lymphocyte cell line that has a sudden onset and most commonly occurs in children is:
Select one:
a. acute lymphocytic (lymphoblastic) leukemia
b. acute myelocytic (myeloblastic, or myelogenous) leukemia
c. chronic lymphocytic (lymphoblastic) leukemia
d. chronic myelocytic (myeloblastic, or myelogenous) leukemia
a. acute lymphocytic (lymphoblastic) leukemia
Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of malignant plasma cells that aggregate into tumor masses which are primarily located in the:
Select one:
a. bones
b. lung
c. liver
d. brain
a. bones
A patient assessment indicates the presence of lymphadenopathy. Which of the following might have caused this finding?
Select one:
a. leukemia
b. lymphoma
c. leukopenia
d. lymphedema
b. lymphoma
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is often associated with which of the following clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. easy bruising
b. pallor
c. increased susceptibility to infection
d. presence of large numbers of immature and abnormal malignant white cells in the blood.
e. fatigue
a. easy bruising
b. pallor
c. increased susceptibility to infection
d. presence of large numbers of immature and abnormal malignant white cells in the blood.
e. fatigue
Which of the following disorders is a malignancy of plasma cells?
Select one:
a. myelodysplastic syndrome
b. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
c. multiple myeloma
d. chronic myelocytic leukemia
c. multiple myeloma
Chomosomal abnormalities are sometimes associated with malignancies. The Philadelphia chromosome is a chromosomal translocation that is associated with which of the following hematologic malignancies?
Select one:
a. chronic myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
b. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. acute lymphocytic leukemia
d. acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
a. chronic myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
A patient's CBC result indicates a rise in the levels of eosinophils. Which of the following conditions may this finding indicate? (Select all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. bacterial infection
b. allergic reaction
c. parasitic infection
d. monocytosis
b. allergic reaction
c. parasitic infection
In Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia, the administration of the anticoagulant drug heparin causes:
Select one:
a. lysis of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
b. excessive platelet production
c. a drug-induced formation of an antibody against platelets
d. deficiency of von Willebrand factor
c. a drug-induced formation of an antibody against platelets
Thrombocytopenia is a deficiency of:
Select one:
a. platelets
b. thrombin
c. prothrombin
d. fibrinogen
a. platelets
Hypercoagulable states create a risk for:
Select one:
a. excessive bleeding
b. increased oxygen delivery to tissues
c. hyperkalemia
d. thrombus formation
d. thrombus formation
An increase in the patient's prothrombin time would cause the patient's blood to clot:
Select one:
a. more easily
b. Prothrombin time does not influence blood clotting.
c. less easily
c. less easily
Hemophilia A is caused by:
Select one:
a. stem cell dysfunction
b. autoimmune destruction of platelets
c. proliferation of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
d. an inherited deficiency of Factor VIII
d. an inherited deficiency of Factor VIII
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antibodies against specific antigens in body tissues?
Select one:
a. Type I, IgE mediated response
b. Type 2, antibody mediated response
c. Type III, Immune complex mediated response
d. Type IV, cell-mediated response
b. Type 2, antibody mediated response
Which of the following is a cause of an acquired immunodeficiency?
Select one:
a. Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity
b. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disorder (SCID)
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
d. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
B lymphocytes provide humoral immunity through the process of:
Select one:
a. stimulation of an inflammatory response
b. production of antibodies
c. direct cell lysis
d. secretion of toxic molecules
b. production of antibodies
The most severe Type 1 hypersensitivity response is:
Select one:
a. anaphylaxis
b. Arthus reaction
c. local atopic reaction
d. allergic rhinitis
a. anaphylaxis
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disorder (SCID) is a condition of
Select one:
a. severe T-cell deficiency
b. severe B-cell deficiency
c. severe deficiency of both T-cell and B-cell function
c. severe deficiency of both T-cell and B-cell function
Pathophysiologic consequences of polycythemia vera include:
Select one:
a. decreased oxygen carrying capacity of erythrocytes, leading to tissue hypoxia
b. production of deformed erythrocytes that lyse prematurely
c. decreased platelet count, leading to increased fibrinolysis
d. hypercoagulability, leading to ischemic damage to tissues and organs
d. hypercoagulability, leading to ischemic damage to tissues and organs
Anemia from an acute blood loss usually exhibits a red blood cell morphology that is:
Select one:
a. macrocytic and normochromic
b. microcytic and hypochromic
c. normocytic and normochromic
d. macrocytic and hypochromic
c. normocytic and normochromic
A dietary deficiency of folic acid can result in which of the following problems?
Select one:
a. hemolytic anemia
b. a megaloblastic anemia
c. a microcytic and hypochromic anemia
d. sickle cell disease
b. a megaloblastic anemia
A decrease in plasma volume would be most likely to result in:
Select one:
a. aplastic anemia
b. a dilutional anemia
c. a relative polycythemia
d. thalassemia
c. a relative polycythemia
Which of the following is true about G6PD deficiency
Select one:
a. it is an acquired type of anemia
b. it makes red blood cells more resistant to oxidative stress
c. it is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder
d. it is caused by a deficiency of folic acid
c. it is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder
Which of the following are characteristics of malignant tumors?
select all that apply:
a. grow rapidly
b. invade surrounding tissues
c. be surrounded by a fibrous capsule
d. metastasize to distant tissues
a. grow rapidly
b. invade surrounding tissues
d. metastasize to distant tissues
tumor cells which are described as "less differentiated" or "undifferentiated"
select one.
a. are more likely to be benign tumors
b. are less similar to mature cells of the same tissue type
c. are very similar to normal tissue
d. are never malignant
b. are less similar to mature cells of the same tissue type
the wasting syndrome associated with cancer and cancer treatment is called:
a. cachexia
b. neutropenia
c. anemia
d. thrombocytosis
a. cachexia
A person who takes high doses of aspirin every day is at risk to which of the following?
a. impaired platelet function
b. hypercoagulability
c. thrombocytopenia
d. thrombosis
a. impaired platelet function
which of the following describes the cellular pathogenesis of leukemia?
select one
a. the lymphatic channels have become blocked
b. solid tissue tumor has spread to a distant organ
c. the immune system is responding to a bacterial infection
d. a malignant transformation arisses in the cells of the bone marrow that produce white blood cells
d. a malignant transformation arisses in the cells of the bone marrow that produce white blood cells
In the bone marrow the pluripotent stem cells divide into lymphoid stem cells and eyelid stem cells. A malignant maturation in myeloid stem cells may lead to which of the following disorders?
a. acute lymphocytic leukemia
b. multiple myeloma
c. non-hodgkin's lymphoma
d. acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
d. acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
A patient has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 300. which of the following does this indicate?
a. acute lymphocytic (lymphoblastic) leukemia
b.increased risk for infection
c. pancytopenia
d. hodgkin's lymphoma
b.increased risk for infection
If blood cell counts from an individual with AIDS were analyzed, you would expect to see very low quantities of
a. RBCs
b. T helper cells
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils
b. T helper cells
Which of the following describes the type of illness which an individual might experience during the initial infection with the HIV organism?
a. symptoms of acute infection
b. severe central nervous system symptoms
c. wasting syndrome with weight loss
d. Kaposi sarcoma
a. symptoms of acute infection
Which of the following are routes through which the HIV organism which causes AIDS can be transmitted?
a. airborne transmission
b. blood transfusions
c. heterosexual intercourse
d. breast milk
b. blood transfusions
c. heterosexual intercourse
d. breast milk
Mononucliosis is cause by infection of the B lymphocytes by which of the following microorganisms?
a. staphylococcus aureus
b. HIV
c. Epstein-Barr Virus
d. influenza virus
c. Epstein-Barr Virus
A patient suffering from AIDS has which of the following defects in cellular immunity?
a. CD8 T-cytotoxic cell proliferation
b. CD4 T-helper cell suppression
c. altered antibody production
d. B cell proliferation
b. CD4 T-helper cell suppression
A unique manifestation of hemolytic anemia (i.e. generally absent in other forms of anemia) is
a. decreased oxygen carrying capacity
b. fatigue
c. pallor
d. jaundice
d. jaundice
Which of the following is NOT a common finding en hemolytic anemia?
a. decrease in hematocrit
b. increase in erythropoiesis
c. increase in hemoglobin
d. increase in rate of red blood cell destruction
c. increase in hemoglobin
The process of triggering new blood vessel formation in a tumor is called
a. hyperoxemia
e. erythropoiesis
c. angiogenesis
d. atherosclerosis
c. angiogenesis
The term "anaplasia" means
a. rapid growth of cells
b. abnormal production of hormones
c. loss of cellular differentiation
d. independence from normal cellular controls
c. loss of cellular differentiation
Neutropenia from cancer of chemotherapy treatment increases an individual's risk for
a. autoimmune disease
b. infection
c. allergi reactions
d. bleeding
b. infection
The presence of petechiae on the skin indicates that the platelet count is likely to be
a. increased
b. decreased
c. normal
b. decreased
Which microcytic anemia is associated with a genetic defect in the global (protein) subunits of hemoglobin and is most prevalent in Asian, Mediterranean and black populations?
a. aplastic anemia
b. iron-deficiency anemia
c. sideroblastic anemia
d. Thalassemia
d. Thalassemia
Which of the following describes a characteristic that is common to all types of anemia? (regardless of the pathophysiology origin of the anemia)
a. decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the RBCs
b. presence of tissue hyperoxia
c. bone marrow failure
d. decreased amount of circulating blood volume
a. decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the RBCs
Iron deficiency anemia usually exhibits a red blood cell morphology that is
a. macrocytic and normochomic
b. normocytic and normochromic
c. macrocytic and hypochromic
d. microcytic and hypochromic
d. microcytic and hypochromic
Immune cells distinguish self form non self by recognizing
a. different types of lipoproteins in a cell membrane
b. major histocompatibility complexes (MHC) or human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
c. nonself enzymes secreted by foreign cells
d. cellular RNA
b. major histocompatibility complexes (MHC) or human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
in contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response
a. is faster
b. has no memory
c. recognizes specific invaders
c. recognizes specific invaders
a bleeding disorder characterized by a decrease in platelets that often occurs in young children following a viral infection is
a. heparin induced thrombocytopenic purpura
b. immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
c. thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
d. disseminated intravascular coagulation
b. immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Which of the following hypersensitivity responses involves the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?
a. type I, IgE mediated response
b. type II, antibody mediated response
c. type III, immune complex response
d. type IV, cell mediated response
c. type III, immune complex response
Which of the following risk factors may lead to the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
select all that apply
a. obstetrical complications
b. malignant neoplasms
c. burns
d. infections
a. obstetrical complications
b. malignant neoplasms
c. burns
d. infections
The CBC differential (WBC diff) of a pt shows an increase in the level of banded neutrophils . What does this indicate?
a. this is a normal finding
b. the bone marrow is releasing immature neutrophils into the blood at a higher rate than usual
c. the pt may have a viral infection
d. the pt may have myelodysplastic syndrome
b. the bone marrow is releasing immature neutrophils into the blood at a higher rate than usual
A hypersensitivity reaction to latex that presents several days after the latex contact is called a
a. type 1, IgE mediated hypersensitivity response
b. Type 2, antibody mediated hypersensitivity response
c. Type 3, immune complex mediated hypersensitivity response
d. Type 4, cell mediated hypersensitivity response
d. Type 4, cell mediated hypersensitivity response
Which of the following hypersensitivity responses is mediated by T-lymphocytes?
a. type I, IgE mediated response
b. Type II, antibody mediated response
c. Type III, immune complex mediated response
d. Type IV, cell mediated response
d. Type IV, cell mediated response
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antibodies against specific antigens in body tissues?
a. type I, IgE mediated response
b. Type II, antibody mediated response
c. Type III, immune complex mediated response
d. Type IV, cell mediated response
b. Type II, antibody mediated response
An decrease in the circulating level of fibrinogen would cause blood to clot:
Select one:
a. less easily
b. more easily
c. Fibrinogen does not influence blood clotting.
a. less easily
The Reed-Sternberg cell is a characteristic finding in the blood of patients with which of the following conditions?
Select one:
a. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
b. lymphocytic (lymphoblastic) leukemia
c. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
d. myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
a. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
Mononucleosis is caused by infection of the B lymphocytes by which of the following microorganisms?
Select one:
a. Influenza virus
b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c. Epstein-Barr Virus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Epstein-Barr Virus
Malignant cancer cells ensure adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients by releasing:
Select one:
a. angiogenic factors
b. immunoglobulins
c. calcium
d. lysosomal enzymes
a. angiogenic factors
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