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Basic Nursing Final Study Guide

Terms in this set (399)

Throughout ancient history, nursing care was provided by:
family members and male priests.
Jean Watson developed a theory based on:
caring in 1979.
Clara Barton:
cared for soldiers during the U.S. Civil War.
Who was the first president of the Red Cross Association:
Clara Barton.
The Red Cross Association is now called:
the American Red Cross.
Pastor Theodor Fliedner:
established the first school of nursing in Kaiserworth, Germany.
In what year did Pastor Theodor Fliedner establish the first school of nursing:
1836.
Florence Nightingale:
attended the Kaiserworth School in Germany.
In what year did Florence Nightingale attend the Kaiserworth School in Germany:
1851.
The American Society of Superintendents of Training Schools for Nurses later became:
the National League for Nursing Education.
The National League for Nursing Education was established to:
set standards and rules in nursing education and continues that function today.
The American Journal of Nursing was published to:
keep nurses aware of the newest medical information and newest information about nursing education.
The Nurses Associated Alumnae of the United States was formed in an effort to:
oversee training to protect patients from incompetent nurses.
The Nurses Associated Alumnae of the Unites States was formed in:
Baltimore, Maryland in 1897.
In what year did all states require practical nurses to be licensed:
1955.
Medicaid is a:
federal-state program in which the federal government helps states pay for the health care of those with an income below the poverty level, as well as certain other individuals.
Medicare is the:
federal government's health insurance program for people older than 65 years or those with certain disabilities or conditions.
Social Security is a:
federal insurance program that provides benefits to retired people and those who are unemployed or disabled.
Private insurance is:
provided by a number of companies and purchased by the individual or his or her employer.
The Affordable Care Act was passed to:
address several problems in the existing health-care system in the United States.
The Affordable Care Act was passed to address several problems such as:
the fact that the cost of health care has doubled from 2001 to 2010 and is the fastest growing section of the federal budget.
Medicaid has been expanded to cover:
low-income individuals and families in some states.
Depending on income, individuals may get health insurance tax credits; true or false?
True
The Affordable Care Act was passed to address several problems such as:
people who already had a chronic illness or condition- those who needed insurance the most-were turned down for health insurance or charged exorbitant amounts for very limited coverage.
The Affordable Care Act was passed to address several problems such as:
people with high medical bills, such as those on continuous dialysis or with recurring cancer, could run out of coverage once a fixed dollar amount had been paid. The person could not then purchase other health insurance because of the pre-existing condition and would be left responsible for paying huge bills with no help.
Manage care is defined as:
a system of health-care delivery aimed at managing the cost and quality of access to health care.
Private insurance is insurance that is:
provided by a number of companies and purchased by the individual or his or her employer.
When the economics of care is a foremost consideration, what two factors help guide decisions about patient care:
medical necessity and the appropriate level of care.
A SNF level of care is usually covered by:
Medicare and most private insurances.
Patients may stay in a SNF for:
a few days or as long as 100 days.
Patients that stay in SNF eventually:
move to a rehabilitation facility, nursing home, or home setting.
A SNF consists of:
skilled nursing care and physical, occupational, and speech therapy as needed.
Assault is:
a threat to a person.
Battery is:
touching the patient or performing a treatment without the patient's permission.
Leaving the bed in the lowest position and raising the bed rails are:
common standards of practice.
Failure to take those actions (common standards of practice) is:
negligence.
An example of libel is:
a written statement that is untrue.
The institution may terminate a nurse's employment, but it is improbable that:
the institution will file a lawsuit.
Before the nurse may have her license suspended, the first course of action will be:
a hearing by the board of nursing to determine whether the charges are true.
Some boards of nursing may require CEUs or refresher courses, but:
that will not be the first course of action.
A nurse should never:
discuss an incident with coworkers.
It is the nurse's responsibility to:
report an adverse situation immediately.
What is an inappropriate action:
offering to provide care for the nurse's patients temporarily and not reporting the incident immediately.
Should a nurses appear impaired, the nurse is to:
report the coworker's behavior to the nurse supervisor immediately.
In most states, the step-parent:
does not have the legal authority to sign an informed consent.
An informed consent must be signed by:
someone 18 years or older unless he or she has been declared an emancipated minor.
Informed consent for a minor must be obtained from:
the parent with custody.
In most states, the custodial parent, not the noncustodial parent, must sign the informed consent. True or False
True.
Forcing medications on a patient is an example of:
violation of the patient's rights.
Violation of the patient's rights could also constitute:
assault and/or battery charges.
What is an example of a violation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act:
discussing the patient with his family without his permission.
It is important to notify the physician of:
the patient's decision and recognize the patient's right to discontinue his medications.
It is the patient's right to:
refuse any form of treatment.
The nurse can discuss all options with the patient, but telling a patient that:
his decision is unwise is inappropriate.
The nursing process is:
a decision-making framework used by all nurses to determine the needs of their patients and to decide how to care for them.
A care plan is a documented plan for:
giving patient care and includes physician's orders, nursing diagnoses, and nursing orders.
"Pain" is an example of:
a nursing diagnosis.
"Altered sensory perception" is an example of:
a nursing diagnosis.
"Chronic fatigue syndrome" is an example of:
a medical diagnosis not a nursing diagnosis.
"Altered nutrition" is an example of:
a nursing diagnosis.
Critical thinking is:
using skillful reasoning and logical thought.
Critical thinking is used to determine:
the merits of a belief or action.
The nurse needs to speak with:
the physician who ordered the IV antibiotic.
Planning is:
the process of determining priorities and what nursing actions should be performed to help resolve or manage each patient problem.
In addition to planning, the nurse determines:
expected outcomes for the patient to meet for the nursing diagnosis to be resolved, as well as a realistic time frame to occur.
The nurse decides on:
appropriate interventions to resolve each patient problem, nursing diagnosis.
Evaluation is performed when the nurse:
reflects on the interventions that he or she has performed and decides whether they have brought the patient closer to achieving the goals and outcomes set in the planning step.
If the interventions have not brought the patient closer to achieving the goals and outcomes set in the planning step:
then the nurse will revise and change the interventions, and perhaps the goals, to better fit the needs of the patient.
Assessment is:
the gathering of information through signs and symptoms, patient history, and objective findings.
Just as a physician gathers information by:
performing a physical examination and a patient history.
The nurse gathers information about the patient through:
asking questions (interviewing), performing a head-to-toe assessment, and reviewing laboratory and diagnostic tests.
Implementation is:
the process of taking actions to resolve the patient's problems according to the nursing diagnoses.
It is called implementation when the nurse implements the plan to:
help resolve the patient's problems.
Documentation is:
a written account of patient care that will be maintained in chart to serve as a permanent medical record.
Documentation is one of:
the most important tasks that the nurse performs on a daily basis.
Documentation is the act of:
charting or making written notation of all of the things that are pertinent to each patient for which the nurse provides care.
Documentation is evident of:
what transpired during a specific condition or even requiring medical care.
The purpose of written documentation is to:
communicate pertinent data that all health-care team members need to provide continuity of care.
The purpose of a written document is to serve as a record of accountability for quality assurance, accreditation, and reimbursement purposes. True or False:
True.
A written document can serve as a:
legal record for both the patient and the health-care provider.
For patient care to be effective, it must be:
delivered and evaluated continuously (not periodically).
The original written or computerized medical record, even though it is about the patient, is the property of:
the hospital or facility.
All of the information within the chart belongs to:
the patient.
The patient is guaranteed by HIPPA the right to:
view and obtain a copy or the medical record.
The patient does not have the right to:
take the original chart copy itself.
HIPPA ensures the patient's right to:
not only view and copy his or her own medical record, but also to amend his or her own health information.
Verbal and nonverbal language should be:
congruent, or in agreement.
Verbal and nonverbal language should be congruent, or in agreement to:
effectively meet the goal of shared meaning in communication.
Proxemics is:
the distance or personal space that people place between themselves and others.
Proxemics reflects:
feelings and attitudes.
Proxemics affects:
communication.
The four personal space-distance zones that have been identified for use in the United States are:
public, intimate, casual-personal, social-consultative.
Public personal space-distance zone is:
12 feet, if possible.
Intimate personal space-distance zone is:
physical contact to 18 inches.
Casual-personal space-distance zone is:
18 inches to 4 feet.
Social-consultative space-distance zone is:
4 feet to 12 feet.
___ and ___ may fluctuate during any given day:
well-being, health.
The continuum does not prove that:
health is constant.
The more positive the physical and mental aspects of a person are:
the higher the rating is on the scale.
Both the mental and the physical health of an individual are:
measured and rated on the continuum.
Dunn's theory of wellness involves how many wellness quadrants:
4.
Fitzpatrick's theory is based on four concepts:
the whole person, health, wellness-illness, and transitions.
According to Fitzpatrick, health:
changes continuously throughout a person's lifetime in response to his or her interaction with the environment.
Fitzpatrick's theory:
teaches that health is a result of an individuals interaction with his or her environment.
Routine medical care is:
encouraged to promote health and wellness.
Emergency and urgent care are used for:
acute care.
Too much ___ impacts health:
stress.
Learning to manage stress:
improves health.
Diet should be:
in moderation, pertaining to food groups and calories.
A balanced diet promotes:
health and should include foods from each food group.
Getting the flu vaccination annually:
does protect against the flue and its complications.
Influenza is:
not a chronic illness.
Eating a well-balanced diet with moderate calories:
protects against diabetes mellitus, gastric cancers, and many other long-term illnesses.
Moderate exercise will help:
protect and individual from developing illnesses or diseases.
Running 4 to 5 miles per day is:
not moderate exercise and will not ensure that a person will not develop diseases.
Smoking can:
harm one's health regardless or whether cigarettes are low in tar and nicotine.
Providing care that does not discriminate among patients is important but:
does not indicate individualization of care for each patient.
Care provided by the nurse should be individualized by ensuring that care includes:
any part of a patient's culture that can have an impact on that patient's health and/or care.
Although showing respect for each patient is essential, it does not:
ensure care is culturally competent.
It is important to discuss the patient's:
thoughts and beliefs about health care.
The nurse should never:
discuss his or her beliefs about a patient's culture.
Culture encompasses:
values, customs, beliefs, rituals, and so on.
Race refers to:
nationality.
Ethnicity is a:
categorization of people by genealogy, race, or nationality.
Heritage is:
part of a patient's culture, but is not all-inclusive.
Acculturation refers to the process of:
adopting another culture's traits.
Ethnocentrism is:
a belief of cultural superiority.
Diversity refers to:
the various ethnic groups found within a larger group.
Ethnicity is:
a race's group identity that is passed from one generation to the next.
Growth is:
the term for the physical changes that occur in the size of human beings.
Spirituality is:
the descriptive term that explains the spirit and the relationship of the spirit to the body, mind, and environment.
Spirituality includes:
the patient's relationship to others.
Regression is:
returning to earlier behaviors.
Regression may occur in:
school-age children when they feel insecure and threatened by treatments.
Development refers to:
the increase in complexity of skills performed by a person.
Moral development is:
the ability to think at higher levels and develop a value system that differentiates right from wrong.
Physical development refers to:
the physical size and functioning of a person.
Cognitive development refers to:
how an individual learns.
Psychosocial development:
occurs throughout one's life in distinct stages.
Each stage of psychosocial development requires that:
specific tasks be mastered.
Acceptance:
indicates resolution of conflicting feelings toward death.
Denial:
involves disbelief that one has a terminal illness.
Answering the nurse's question and following with "What would you get me anyway?" suggests:
that the patient is angry.
Bargaining is the stage in which:
a terminally ill patient offers something in exchange for death.
They physician will most likely speak to the patient and family further:
about his request, not giving false hope.
They physician will probably:
wait to write a DNR order until speaking to the family.
A DNR order:
will mostly likely be discussed with the family before writing the order.
In response to a patient's request, the physician will speak to:
the family and probably write a DNR order.
Most likely, a patient's acceptance of death would be demonstrated by:
finalizing a will, telling family everything will be fine, and so forth.
The anger stage is characterized by:
statements that describe frustration and are emotionally charged.
When in denial, the patient is:
attempting to avoid death.
An example of bargaining or bartering is:
a patient stating he will change his eating habits to beat colon cancer.
Holism is:
the relationship among all living things.
Acupressure is:
a blend of acupuncture and pressure.
Acupressure is part of:
traditional Chinese medicine.
All that is said and written about acupuncture is the same for acupressure, except that:
rather than applying needles to parts of the body to affect the meridians' flow of energy, pressure is used.
Meridians are ____:
energy pathways.
Western medicine is _____:
allopathic medicine.
Acupuncture is the ancient practice of:
inserting fine needles into carefully selected points located along meridians in the body.
Western medicine bases its approach to disease and illness on the idea that:
foreign invaders cause illness and must be treated with medications.
Examples of foreign invaders are:
antigens, viruses, and bacteria.
Surgery may be required to:
remove or repair a diseased or malfunctioning organ.
Physical therapy is:
a conventional treatment.
Alternative therapy is:
a therapy used instead of conventional treatment.
Complementary therapy is:
used together with conventional treatment.
A kinesthetic learner learns by:
touching and doing.
Placing medications used to treat COPD in a pill organizer is an appropriate teaching method for:
a kinesthetic learner.
An auditory learner learns by:
hearing and listening.
Listening to an audiotape is more appropriate teaching method for:
an auditory learner.
A visual learner learns by:
seeing, reading, and watching.
Reading a pamphlet is a more appropriate teaching method for:
a visual learner.
What should be foremost in the nurse's mind when caring for any patient:
safety.
DO NO HARM:
is the nurse's credo.
Ensuring the bed alarm is turned on:
helps to ensure patient safety.
The Joint Commission:
establishes a national standard for patient safety.
The organization responsible for evaluating accrediting health-care organizations and programs in the United States is:
The Joint Commission.
It is imperative that call lights be answered:
promptly and that assistance is quickly available to maintain a safe environment for patients.
Patients with English as a second language:
may not grasp safety instructions.
When a patient is told to call for the nurse before getting up, the instruction:
may be unclear. Call on the telephone? Shout out? One must be sure that the instructions are specific.
An example of a specific instruction is:
"Press this button and tell us that you need to get up. Someone will come to help you."
Some patients may attempt to get out of bed and go to the hallway to alert the nurses about an alarm because:
they are frightened by it.
It is imperative that call lights be answered promptly and that is assistance is quickly available to:
maintain a safe environment for patients.
Standard precautions are also known as:
Universal Precautions.
Standard precautions are:
a group of safety measures performed to prevent the transmission of pathogens found in the blood and body fluids.
Standard precautions include:
performing hand hygiene, wearing appropriate protective equipment if exposure is possible, and using cough etiquette.
A nurse must wear appropriate protective equipment if:
exposure is possible.
Standard precautions are performed with:
all patients, regardless of whether an infection has been diagnosed.
It is recommended that a person wash for:
at least 20 seconds (sing "Happy Birthday" twice).
A respirator mask is:
required only with airborne precautions, not contact precautions.
Contact precautions are required; therefore, a:
clean gown and gloves must be worn when any contact is anticipated with the patient or with contaminated items in the room.
Droplet precautions are used when there is:
airborn contaminants.
Negative-pressure rooms are used with:
airborne organisms.
Bedtime (HS) care includes:
assisting the patient with sleep preparation.
Bedtime (HS) care includes assisting the patient with sleep preparation by:
dimming the lights or turning them off and providing a night-light, according to the patient's preference.
Mottling is:
a purplish blotching of the skin when circulation slows greatly.
Maceration is:
softened skin due to continuous exposure to fluid.
Maceration often occurs in:
skin crevices such as under the breasts and scrotum, in the axilla and groin areas, between toes, and between the buttocks.
Excoriation means:
scrapes on the skin.
Excoriation may be caused by:
scratching or may occur during care.
Evisceration is when the:
internal organs are protruding from a wound.
If the toes are allowed to fall toward the foot of the bed, the:
proper flexion of the ankle is lost and permanent plantar flexion of the foot develops.
Footdrop is when:
the toes are allowed to fall toward the foot of the bed and proper flexion of the ankle is lost and permanent plantar flexion of the foot develops.
Contractures mean:
shortening and tightening of the muscles.
Contractures is due to:
disuse.
Steoporosis is:
a condition that occurs because of loss of bone minerals that leads to an increased risk for skeletal fractures.
When a patient is confined to bed, he or she may develop:
a venous thromboembolism (VTE).
A venous thromboembolism (VTE) is:
the formation of a blood clot that may dislodge and travel through the vein.
A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is:
a clot that develops in the deep veins of the legs.
Effectiveness of pain control is:
not solely measured by changes in vital signs.
Pain does affect vital signs in some cases but is:
not the single reason for affecting vital signs.
In most cases, acute pain will:
increase blood pressure, but not to dangerous levels.
Pain is:
measured as a vital sign because it gives baseline data that serve as a warning that tissues are or can be damaged.
If a nurse gets a "feeling" that something is wrong, that instinct should:
always be acted on.
Vital signs taken before leaving the hospital can be:
delegated in most cases.
A long history of hypertension does not necessarily indicate that:
assessment of the blood pressure cannot be delegated.
The higher the stroke volume:
the higher the cardiac output.
Pain and fatigue do not directly result in:
a lowered cardiac output.
Congestive heart failure alone does not:
result in a low blood volume.
Weakened and damaged heart muscle does result in:
a lowered cardiac output.
Rebound phenomenon may occur:
regardless of whether swelling has decreased.
To prevent rebound phenomenon:
heat therapy is applied no more than 30 minutes every 2 to 3 hours.
Less discomfort is a desired result but does not:
prevent rebound phenomenon.
Heat therapy should be applied no more than ___ minutes every ____ hours.
30, 2 to 3.
Heat to an area results in:
vasodilation.
Vasodilation increases:
white blood cells access to the wound.
Applying moist heat increases:
metabolism of the cells of the body and of any pathogens present.
Applying heat increases:
blood flow, and this increases the body's ability to fight infection.
Applying heat enhances the body's infection-fighting abilities by:
increasing blood flow and thereby delivering more white blood cells to the area.
Warm packs should:
never be prepared in the microwave because heating them this way increases the potential to burn the patient's skin.
Applying a warm pack will not:
affect peripheral pulses.
Before the nurse applies a warm pack:
the skin of the affected area should be assessed for temperature, color, edema, sensation, and integrity.
Unless the area to which the warm pack will be applied is open, there is:
no need for sterile technique.
Cutaneous pain is:
superficial. ex: a paper cut.
Superficial means:
just under the surface.
Deep somatic pain is:
bone, ligament, and tendon pain, phantom limb or neuropathic pain.
Phantom limb or neuropathic pain:
feels as though it is coming from the extremity that has been amputated.
Soft tissue pain or:
visceral pain.
Soft tissue pain is:
experienced after surgery, trauma, or metastatic invasion of soft tissue.
Stimulation of the narrow nerve fibers would:
open the gate.
Stimulation of the narrow nerve fibers would open the gate, and this would:
allow pain impulses to get through.
Exercise stimulates:
the broad nerve fibers.
The broad nerve fibers:
shut the gate.
Stimulation of the broad nerve fibers would shut the gate, and this would:
block pain impulses and decrease pain.
Stimulation of the broad nerve fibers:
shuts, rather than opens, the gate.
Blocking endorphins would:
increase pain.
Massage stimulates the release of:
endorphins.
Endorphins act like:
morphine and block the transmission of pain to the brain.
Endorphins act by:
closing the gate.
Endorphins bind to:
opiate or pain receptors but are not produced by the pain receptors.
The nurse has the ______ to make admission less stressful for patients:
opportunity, ability, and responsibility.
It is during the admission process that the nurse will:
make a first impression on the patient.
The first impression on the patient can:
either improve the patient's stay or make it a negative experience.
The admission process is the time to begin:
establishing rapport and a trusting relationship with the patient.
During the implementation of interventions, the patient will:
continue to form an impression of the nurse.
The patient's impression of the nurse begins to form:
as soon as he or she is admitted and begins to interact with the nurse.
The patient's impression of the nurse:
should be fully determined by the time of discharge.
The nurse should make a conscious effort to avoid letting negativity show in:
speech, facial expression, or body language.
The nurse should ____ to make the patient feel welcome:
smile and speak kindly and respectfully.
The nurse should make a conscious effort to avoid:
complaining about being short-staffed.
If the nurse avoids eye contact with the patient, he or she may come off as:
impersonal and uncaring.
If the nurse uses clipped speech with the patient, he or she can:
appear to be in a hurry.
The nurse should make:
brief eye contact and speak at a rate that does not sound hurried.
The nurse should address the patient by:
his or her last name.
The nurse should avoid using the patient's:
first name unless specifically asked to do so by the patient.
The should avoid using terms:
of endearment such as "honey" and "sweetie".
Using terms of endearment may be considered:
condescending or patronizing.
To decrease the patient's frustration, it is best to:
explain the reason that the patient is being awakened for a focused assessment.
Although the assessment may or may not have been ordered by the physician, it is better:
for the nurse to explain why he or she is doing it.
A head-to-toe assessment is:
the first assessment of the shift.
The head-to-toe assessment give the nurse a:
quick overall picture of the patient.
A focused assessment:
involves the assessment of a system.
A comprehensive health assessment is done:
one each patient on admission.
The nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of nursing interventions to determine:
whether it is necessary to make changes in a patient's plan of care.
It may be necessary to change plans many times during the shift, but this is as a result of:
changes in patients, not the amount of time that the nurse has to provide care.
Learning that the patient may be discharged will require:
changes in the plan of care, possible geared more toward patient education.
Palpation is:
the application of manual pressure to detect abnormalities.
Auscultation is:
listening with a stethoscope to detect certain sounds.
Observation is:
the use of the eyes to visually examine the patient.
Olfaction:
involves smelling.
The nurse should check the container for:
the expiration date.
If the container has been previously opened, he or she will:
follow facility policy for how long it can be used.
Facility policy for how long it can be used after it has been open is:
generally 24 to 48 hours.
The nurse should assess the glove packaging for:
the expiration date and any holes or tears.
Any open areas or wet areas would:
compromise sterility, making the gloves unusable.
Nurses use sterile technique when they:
give injections, start peripheral intravenous (IV) lines, flush intermittent access devices, insert urinary catheters, and suction deep airways.
When contamination occurs, the contaminated object or drape can:
no longer be used.
When contamination occurs, the contaminated object or drape must be:
replaced with new sterile supplies.
When contamination occurs, the procedure should be:
interrupted immediately.
A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is consistent with:
hypoglycemia.
The 2013 American Diabetic Association guidelines state a range of ____ mg/dL before meals is acceptable for patients with existing diabetes.
70 to 130.
A sedentary, older adult woman needs about ___ calories a day to maintain her body weight.
1600.
An active, older adult make needs about ___ calories a day to maintain his body weight.
2500.
An active 21-year-old male needs about ____ calories a day to maintain his body weight.
3000.
When the white blood cell count is elevated above normal it is termed:
leukocytosis.
When the white blood cell count is below normal it is called:
leucopenia.
Neutrophils ___ with infection.
elevate.
Slightly immature neutrophils are called:
bands.
Left shift is:
when the bands level is elevated, as opposed to the more mature segmented neutrophils.
Left shift generally indicates:
bacterial infection.
Eosinophils elevate in response to:
allergic reactions and parasites.
Lymphocytes increase with:
viral infections and allergic conditions.
Right shift is:
when lymphocytes level is elevated.
Right shift is a typical indication of:
viral infection.
Monocyte levels increase as a:
second line of defense against bacterial infections.
If a patient has too many platelets, the patient has:
thrombocytosis.
Thrombocytosis can result in:
abnormal clotting.
The first phase of healing is the:
inflammatory phase.
During the inflammatory phase the nurse should expect to see:
warmth, edema, and redness around the wound.
During the remodeling phase, the wound is:
retracting and scar tissue is strengthening.
During the reconstruction phase:
scar tissue is developing.
During the maturation phase:
the wound is retracting and scar tissue is strengthening, as in the remodeling phase.
Surgery results in:
a breach in skin integrity.
A breach in skin integrity:
increases the risk for infection.
In a closed wound, the skin:
remains intact and less likely to develop complications such as infection.
A contusion is:
a closed, discolored wound that was caused by blunt trauma.
A surgical wound is:
not a laceration.
A laceration is:
due to accidental cutting or tearing of the skin.
Crackling can be felt because of the gas created by:
the bacteria Clostridia.
A bright red wound can indicate a:
beginning wound infection.
Sersanguineous drainage is:
typically a normal finding.
Purulent drainage:
indicates an infection.
Purulent drainage does not necessarily:
indicate Clostridia.
A wound that appears to be less approximated could:
indicate that an infection is present.
What is not specific for Clostridia:
a wound that appears to be less approximated.
A sprain:
is an injury to a joint that results in damage to muscles and ligaments.
Severe sprains:
may cause ligaments to be completely torn.
A fine crack in the anklebone is:
not involved in a sprain.
Injury to a ____ is not involved in a sprain:
long bone.
Damage to cartilage tissue is not:
involved in a sprain.
A comminuted fracture involves:
multiple bone pieces.
A comminuted fracture should:
heal without amputation.
When a limb is so damaged by trauma that it cannot be saved, it will be:
amputated, or surgically removed.
Osteoarthritis would be treated with:
joint replacement, not amputation.
Amputation may be necessary in patients with:
diabetes, but medical treatment would be instituted first.
The Ilizarov frame is composed of:
metal rings on the outside of the limb with rods and wires that attach to those rings.
Casts are not:
used with an Ilizarov frame.
Weights are:
used for skeletal traction.
An abduction pillow:
is used after hip replacement surgery.
The intercostal muscles relax during:
expiration.
The ribs move ____ during expiration.
inward.
The diaphragm contracts in response to:
stimulus from the phrenic nerves.
When the diaphragm contracts it moves:
downward.
When the diaphragm contracts is moves downward which:
increases the size of the chest cavity, resulting in inspiration/inhalation.
Pressure within the lungs raises above atmospheric pressure during:
expiration.
When carbon dioxide increases above normal amounts, it causes the blood to become:
more acidic.
The chemoreceptors respond by sending the message to:
the medulla.
When the chemoreceptors send the message to the medulla it causes:
the respiratory rate to increase to "blow off"
To "blow off" means:
remove excess carbon dioxide.
When the respiratory rate increases to remove excess carbon dioxide it returns:
the blood pH to normal levels.
When the patient has dark skin, the color:
may appear more ashen than cyanotic.
When the patient has dark skin, the nurse will depend more on the color:
of the mucous membranes.
The nurse should check the ____ for color changes as well:
palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
Ashen mucous membranes are a late sign of:
hypoxia.
When nurse suspects hypoxia, he or she should:
take action immediately and notify the health-care provider STAT.
Fluid movement is:
most related to water intake.
The volume of fluid is:
directly affected by the amount of water ingested and absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.
The oxygen concentration would be higher in the lung than it is in the blood, causing it to:
diffuse across the alveolar membrane into the bloodstream.
The movement of water into the bloodstream after the injection of radiopaque dye is due to:
osmosis.
The movement of blood into a tube during a blood draw is due to:
a negative pressure.
The movement of fluid out of the bloodstream due to the force of the heart's contractions is due to:
capillary pressure.
Third spacing decreases:
the volume of the blood.
Third spacing can possibly cause:
excessive edema.
Third spacing lowers the blood pressure and increases the volume of fluid in the interstitial spaces, possibly causing ____:
excessive edema.
Third spacing increases the:
volume of fluid in the interstitial spaces.
Third spacing lowers the:
blood pressure.
Large amounts of dilute urine output is generally seen when:
a patient is third spacing.
High blood pressure is usually ____ when a patient is third spacing.
lowered.
It is important that the nurse explains to the patient the effects of general anesthesia on the:
bowel, including how long the patient may expect to be NPO.
Although auscultation of bowel sounds is included in the assessment, the patient should be given:
an accurate explanation of the purpose of listening to bowel sounds.
Telling the patient that the gastrointestinal system might be damaged is:
incorrect and an inappropriate response.
Assessing the abdomen is a ____ and does not require a physician's order:
nursing implementation
Telling the patient that the gastrointestinal system might be damaged could cause the patient to:
question his or her postsurgery status.
Gravity assists ____ to propel food through the GI tract:
peristalsis.
Peristalsis does not:
release enzymes.
Peristalsis is:
the contraction of circular and longitudinal muscles that propels food from the esophagus to the rectum.
Constipation can be a result of:
slow peristalsis.
The pyloric sphincter is a:
ring of smooth muscle that lets food pass slowly into the duodenum.
Enzymes are dumped into the:
small intestine by the pancreas.
Enzymes are not produced in the:
duodenum.
The duodenum is:
part of the small intestine.
The colon is:
the large intestine.
Absorption of nutrients ___ in the duodenum:
begins.
Without the duodenum:
absorption of nutrients would decrease.
Information about the patient's diet is:
not provided.
Urine specific gravity is:
the result of comparing the weight of a substance with an equal amount of water.
Determining the pH of the urine is helpful in:
diagnosis and management of UTIs.
UTIs tend to:
make the urine more alkaline.
Urea is:
a waste product excreted by the kidneys.
Creatinine is:
the waste product of muscle metabolism.
Creatinine is a reflection of:
kidney function.
One treatment for stress incontinence involves teaching the patient to:
perform Kegal exercises.
Kegal exercises:
strengthen and tone the pelvic floor muscles.
There is no need to limit fluids during the treatment of:
stress incontinence.
General exercise is associated with:
the reduced incidence of incontinence.
It is best to teach the patient to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles to:
help reduce stress incontinence.
An indwelling catheter:
remains in the urinary bladder for a designated period.
A three-way catheter:
is only used in one specific situation:after a male patient has had a transurethral resection of the the prostate.
A straight catheter:
is used only for insertion into the urinary bladder to obtain a sterile urine specimen or for a one-time drainage of the urinary bladder.
A coude catheter:
is used specifically to accommodate an enlarged prostate in male patients.
Sets found in the same folder