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Volume1 Self-Test Questions
Terms in this set (115)
AFI Publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for material management?
Seven General duties and responsibilities of a material management specialist as they are outlined in the enlisted classification publication.
1. Perform administrative & management functions.
2. Inspect & evaluate inventory management activities.
3. Inspect & identify property.
4. Provide support to maintenance activities.
5. Perform technical material functions.
6. Issue, ship, & transfer property.
7. Plan & schedule material storage activities.
Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system?
Wholesale Logistics Program
What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broadening program?
TSgt or MSgt with less then 15 years of time-in-service and PCS available
Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field?
(MAJCOM Functional Manager)
Who chairs the Air Force Material Management Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the education and training path of our enlisted force?
(Chief Functional Manager)
What is eLog21?
eLog21 is the AF's transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both current & future threat environment.
What is the goal of Integrated Processes?
Create unified, enterprise-wide processes that cut across organizations & geographies to deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time.
Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF weapon system?
Where are the three ALCs located?
1. Ogden ALC (OO-ALC)
2. Oklahoma City ALC (OC-ALC)
3. Robins ALC (R-ALC)
Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD?
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
Define local manufacture
Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
What is GPC?
An official government credit card for making authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, & nonpersonal services costing up to $2,500.
Define centralize repair facility
CRF gives maintenance options ranging from complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions in a single facility.
What two elements make up the maintenance support section?
MSL & FSC
Class I of supply
Class II of supply
Clothing, individual equipment, tentage, organizational tool sets and tool kits, hand tools, and administrative and housekeeping supplies and equipment.
Class III of supply
POL. Petroleum fuels, lubricants, hydraulic and insulating oils, preservatives, etc.
Class IV of supply
Class V of supply
Class VI of supply
Personal demand items ( nonmilitary sales items).
Class VII of supply
Major end items
Class VIII of supply
Medical material including peculiar repair parts
Class IX of supply
Class X of supply
nonmilitary programs; that is, agricultural and economic development.
Define the SCOR model
It is a commercial based supply chain integration model used to describe business activities associated with all phases of satisfying a customer's demand . It is organized around a five primary management processes of Plan, Source, Make/Maintain, Deliver, and Return.
List the functional flights in LRS.
Deployment & distribution, material management, $ fuels management.
How many organizations make up the AFSC?
List the four material management major processes.
1. Item accounting
2. File maintenance
4. Accounting & finance
Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeable and substitutes.
What four types of transactions activate the due-out release process?
3. New item included in an interchangeable family
4. An inventory adjustment transaction
List the 11 major processes in the file maintenance function.
4. Special level.
5. Equipment in-use.
6. New item record load.
7. Mission change special level.
8. Miscellaneous file maintenance.
11. MRSP and MSK.
What are the five different type of reports?
What major processes are involved in the A&F process?
Requisitioning & status, receipts, order/return, shipments, billings, and file maintenance.
What is the purpose of DOD 4140.1-R?
To implement requirements and procedures for DOD materiel managers and others who need it work within or with the DOD supply system.
What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 Defense Logistics management System Manual prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations?
Supply, acquisition (contract administration), maintenance, and finance.
Which is the first step when research is required in AFI 23-101?
You will first need to go to the Air Force e-publishing website www.e-publishing.af.mil and type in the publication you require in product number/title search menu.
What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122?
Table of contents and find tool.
What research tool allows you to type in the word phrase when researching a document within AFH 23-123?
What is an NSN?
A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item.
What two entities make up the NSN?
The FSC and the NIIN
What are the four major types of computer inquiries?
1. Item record
2. Detail record
3. part number record
4. Other records
What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number?
Detail record is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number.
What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?
What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?
What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output?
Your input image
In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?
What information is provided from a part number inquiry?
The NSN, cage code, and TO associated with that particular number
What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?
What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given stock number?
How far back can users query CTH records?
One year or more
What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?
1. Stock number
2. Transaction serial number
3. Batch miscellaneous option inquiry
What three elements make up a reject phrase?
A reject code, a descriptive phrase, and an action flag.
When you receive a reject, what should you do first?
Ensure that you put all the data in correctly
What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject?
AFH 23-123, Volume 2, Part 2, Chap. 7
What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?
Management notices do not stop computer processing. Instead transactions are processed and database records are updated.
Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed?
One workday unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction.
What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force delete a reject image?
Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced deletions of rejects are processed for valid reasons only?
Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing?
To determine effectiveness of transaction processing.
What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs?
Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not.
Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights?
What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?
A 301 reject notice.
What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC processing?
D20, part 8.
What document must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings?
Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-122, an approved supplement, or an AF Form 2011.
Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?
By the 15th workday of the same month.
What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?
AF Form 2011.
The personnel in what activity ensure that management reports and listings are complete and accurate?
Computer operations function.
Explain the concept of SMAG-R
A revolving fund (or working capital fund) that finances inventories of military material by generating income through the sales of that material to Air Force activities or to other customers.
Under what operating principle is the SMAG-R designed to operate?
No-profit and no-loss basis.
How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?
What type of items is the CSAG-S primarily responsible for?
Depot-level reparable spares and consumable spares unique to the Air Force.
What information is provided to LRS leadership through the QA program?
An assessment of the unit's ability to perform key logistics processes ensuring standardized, repeatable, technically compliant process execution, while promoting a culture of professional excellence and personal responsibility.
How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?
According to local guidelines and using established checklists for each area.
What is the purpose of a customer support visit?
To determine if customers are receiving quality support; and if not, where support is unsatisfactory.
Who is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?
AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.
List the four DIREP categories.
1. Major impact.
2. Severe problem.
3. Chronic problem.
4. Cosmetic error.
What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?
Category I - Major impact
What personnel are recommended to submit a thoroughly researched and documented DIREP?
The user, ADPE materiel management systems monitor, and DIREP monitor.
What is the analysis program designed to do?
To determine the material management account's effectiveness.
What are the three types of analysis?
Trend analysis, problem analysis, and special studies.
What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement, or to solve a specific problem?
Define the term "management indicator."
A performance measure that represents a key result.
What is mandatory after an assessment and there are deviations or deficiencies due to lack of job proficiency, training, and compliance with technical data or instructions?
Reviewing training requirements.
What program is used to pass analyzed information to the commander?
Materiel management analysis program.
What does the term degraded operation mean?
Describes the procedures used when the materiel management computer is down.
Who is responsible for ensuring that customer support does not end when the computer is down?
What does a separate distribution system accomplish during degraded operations?
Makes certain that all degraded operations documents are available for quality control.
What is the objective of conducting an inventory?
To ensure that materiel management systems records agree with the physical on-hand balance.
What are listings used for during degraded operations?
To account for every item loaded and to maintain integrity of the assets.
Which text code is used on issue request when assets are available during degraded operations?
Why is sequencing important once the computer comes back on-line?
This is done to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed.
How do you perform a QC check?
By comparing the source document with the DCR.
What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?
Document number, stock number, quantity, unit of issue, and system designator
What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed?
If a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listings, what is the first step taken?
Conduct a search in your work space for the document.
What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?
Obtain a duplicate or prepare a replacement.
How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?
What product is used as an historical document showing the status of the materiel management
system database after establishing a new materiel management account?
The Conversion Audit List (R22).
How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?
How is the shipment loss analysis (M16) filed?
By fiscal year.
Within what period must the M10 be filed?
Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.
What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
To ensure that an item has been shipped.
When is a shipment-suspense detail created?
When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.
What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?
To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the
computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.
Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?
How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS
By electronic interface with the traffic management flight.
What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?
What elements are responsible for processing record reversal inputs?
Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service
What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a reverse-post?
The activity finding the error
What is the purpose of processing a freeze code Q to the item record?
Prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and
preparing input for the record reversal action.
What transactions may be reverse-posted using automated RVP procedures?
Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.
What information is required to process an automated RVP?
TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reverse posted.
What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated RVP screen before input?
Review for accuracy.
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