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Biology A & P II ; HW, Quizzes & Tests questions

STUDY
PLAY
Endocrine cells have all of these characteristics
Endocrine cells __________.

1. secrete into extracellular fluid
2. contain secretory vesicles
3. perform intercellular communication
4. Endocrine cells have all of these characteristics
Are composed of amino acids
Peptide hormones ___________.

1. always contain one sugar molecule
2. are lipid soluble
3. usually bind to intranuclear receptors
4. are composed of amino acids
ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)
released in response to a decrease in blood volume, an increase in the osmotic concentration of the plasma or presence of angiotensin II
Which of these is released by the neurohypophysis?

1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. FSH
4. ADH
Thyroid
Which gland is named for a nearby prominent cartilage?

1. adrenal
2. salivary
3. thyroid
4. pituitary
Parathyroid hormone
__________ elevates blood calcium ion levels.

1. Estrogen
2. Thyroid hormone
3. Parathyroid hormone
4. Calcitonin
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
Which hormone stimulates the adrenal gland?

1. ADH
2. TSH
3. ACTH
4. All of these hormones stimulate the adrenal gland.
Pineal
The __________ gland secretes melatonin.

1. pineal
2. pituitary
3. neurohypophysis
4. thymus
Beta cells ; Insulin
Which cells are correctly matched to the hormones they produce?

1. beta cells; glucagon
2. alpha cells; insulin
3. acinar cells; insulin
4. beta cells; insulin
Angiotensin
Which of these regulatory substances does the kidney NOT secrete?

1. renin
2. calcitriol
3. angiotensin
4. erythropoietin
ALL of these hormones are required for normal growth.
Which of these hormones is required for normal growth?

1. growth hormone
2. insulin
3. thyroid hormone
4. All of these hormones are required for normal growth.
ALL of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
Which of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release?

1. elevated blood calcium
2. increased loss of bone minerals
3. osteopenia
4. All of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
Which of these statements about the pineal gland is FALSE?

1. It receives inputs from the retina.
2. It produces melatonin.
3. It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
4. It promotes sleep.
Lowering blood sugar by insulin
Hormones often interact in an integrative way. Examples of this include all of the following EXCEPT __________.

1. resistance to stress
2. lowering blood sugar by insulin
3. regulation of reproduction
4. regulation of growth
ADH, oxytocin and regulartory hormones
* Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
* Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
* Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
* Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
* Somatostatin
* Dopamine
What hormones are produced by the Hypothalamus?
Adenohypophsis (anterior lobe):
ACTH, TSH, GH, PRL, FSH, LH, and MSH.
Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe): release of oxytocin and ADH
What hormones are produced by the Pituitary Gland?
Melatonin
What hormones are produced by the Pineal Gland?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
What hormones are produced by the Parathyroid Glands on posterior surface of thyroid gland?
Natriuretic peptides:
-Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
-Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
What hormones are produced by the Heart?
Thyroxine (T4) (aka tetraiodothyronine)
Triiodothronine (T3)
Calcitonin (CT)
What hormones are produced by the Thyroid Gland?
Thymosins
What hormones are produced by the Thymus (undergoes atrophy during adulthood)?
Each superanel gland is subdivided into:

Supraenal medulla:
- Epinephrine (E) 75% +/-
- Norepinephrine (NE) 25% +/-

Suprarenal cortex:
- Cortisol, Corticosterone,
- Aldosterone, Androgens and dehydroepiandrosterone(DHEA).
Glucocoids are essential for life, they are produced by the adrenal cortex. The main Glucocoids is cortisol.
What hormones are produced by the Suprarenal Glands?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Calcitriol
renin
What hormones are produced by the Kidney?
Leptin
What hormones are produced by the Adipose Tissue?
Numerous hormones
(in Chapter 25) Digestive enzymes are enzymes that break down polymeric macromolecules into their smaller building blocks
What hormones are produced by the digestive Tract?
Alpha Cells - Glucagon
Beta Cells - Insulin
Delta Cells - Somatostatin
Gamma cells - secrete pancreatic polypeptide
What hormones are produced by the Pancreatic Islets (islets of Langerhans)?
secretes/produces Somatostatin

---inhibits the secretion of glucagon and insulin
---keeps blood sugar level as is
What horomes do Delta Cells secrete? What does this hormone do?
secretes Insulin

---converts glucose to glycogen
What hormone do beta cells secrete? What does this hormone do?
Secrete Glucagon

---converts glycogen into glucose
What do the alpha cells secrete? what does this hormone do?
Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system has all of these characteristics.
Compared the endocrine system, the nervous system is __________.

1. more localized in action
2. more rapidly acting
3. briefer in action
4. Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system has all of these characteristics.
Both statements are true.
In paracrine communication a chemical signal acts within the tissue that produced it;
in endocrine communication the signal reaches the target cells by way of the circulation.

Are these two statements true or FALSE?

1. Both statements are true.
2. The first is false; the second is true.
3. Both statements are false.
4. The first is true; the second is false.
Intranuclear
Lipid-soluble hormones usually bind to __________ receptors.

1. G-protein coupled
2. extracellular
3. transmembrane
4. intranuclear
parathyroid hormone
Which of these hormones is NOT derived from an amino acid?

1. thyroid hormone
2. epinephrine
3. parathyroid hormone
4. norepinephrine
hypothalamus
The brain region that exerts the most direct effects on the endocrine system is the __________.

1. mesencephalon
2. thalamus
3. pons
4. hypothalamus
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
Which of these hormones exerts a strong effect on adrenal steroid production?

1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. LH
4. ADH
Patients with hyperthyroidism often exhibit ALL of these signs.
Which of these signs is often seen in patients suffering from hyperthyroid disease?

1. elevated heart rate
2. elevated body temperature
3. elevated oxygen utilization
4. Patients with hyperthyroidism often exhibit all of these signs.
Iodine
Which chemical element is necessary to make thyroid hormone?

1. thorium
2. iron
3. calcium
4. iodine
The hormone release is triggered by a rise in blood calcium.
Which of these statements about the parathyroid gland is FALSE?

1. The hormone release is triggered by a rise in blood calcium.
2. They secrete a peptide hormone.
3. It is posterior to thyroid.
4. There are usually four glands.
ALL of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
Which of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release?

1. elevated blood calcium
2. increased loss of bone minerals
3. osteopenia
4. All of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
zone reticularis; norepinephrine
Which of these is mismatched?

1. adrenal medulla; epinephrine
2. zona fasciculate; cortisol
3. zone reticularis; norepinephrine
4. zona glomerulosa; aldosteron
drowsiness
Excessive secretion by the adrenal medulla can lead to all of these changes EXCEPT __________.

1. elevated heart rate
2. drowsiness
3. elevated blood glucose level
4. elevated blood pressure
pinealocytes
Melatonin is secreted by __________.

1. pinealocytes
2. pituicytes
3. ovaries and testes
4. keratinocytes
It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
Which of these statements about the pineal gland is FALSE?

1. It receives inputs from the retina.
2. It promotes sleep.
3. It produces melatonin.
4. It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
increased epinephrine secretion
A rise in blood glucose level will trigger all these responses EXCEPT __________.

1. storage of glycogen
2. storage of triglycerides
3. increased epinephrine secretion
4. increased beta cell secretion
digestive enzymes
Which of these is NOT produced by pancreatic islet cells?

1. somatostatin
2. digestive enzymes
3. glucagon
4. insulin
cortisol
Which of these is NOT a steroid hormone produced by the gonads?

1. estradiol
2. cortisol
3. progesterone
4. testosterone
leptin
Adipose cells produce a hormone called ___ that acts on the brain to reduce food intake.

1. leptin
2. insulin
3. adipin
4. renin
lowering blood sugar by insulin
Hormones often interact in an integrative way. Examples of this include all of the following EXCEPT __________.

1. regulation of reproduction
2. lowering blood sugar by insulin
3. resistance to stress
4. regulation of growth
The dominant hormone is epinephrine
Which of these statements about the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome is NOT true?

1. It precedes the exhaustion phase.
2. The dominant hormones are
glucocorticoids.
3. It follows the alarm phase.
4. The dominant hormone is epinephrine.
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
Which hormone stimulates the adrenal gland?

1. TSH
2. ACTH
3. ADH
4. All of these hormones stimulate the adrenal gland
angiotensin
Which of these regulatory substances does the kidney NOT secrete?

1. erythropoietin
2. angiotensin
3. calcitriol
4. renin
55% (46% - 63%)
Plasma makes up approximately what percentage of whole blood?

1. 55%
2. 65%
3. 45%
4. 38%
fibrinogen
Serum can't coagulate because the ______ has been removed.

1. albumin
2. protein C
3. immunoglobulin
4. fibrinogen
red bone marrow
The formed elements are largely produced within the __________.

1. liver
2. spleen
3. red bone marrow
4. thymus
erythropoietin
___ stimulates production of red blood cells.

1. calcitriol
2. erythropoietin
3. thymosin
4. renin
O
Which of these is NOT a surface antigen found on red blood cells?

1. O
2. B
3. A
4. Rh
monocyte
The largest white blood cell in circulation is the ____.

1. monocyte
2. eosinophil
3. neutrophil
4. lymphocyte
red bone marrow
Granulocytes are produced in _______.

1. the lymph nodes
2. white bone marrow
3. red bone marrow
4. the liver and spleen
platelets
Megakaryocytes are the source of _______.

1. most WBCs
2. neutrophils
3. platelets
4. RBCs
erythropoiesis phase
Which of these phases is NOT part of hemostasis?

1. vascular phase
2. platelet phase
3. erythropoiesis phase
4. coagulation phase
coagulation
The complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called ______.

1. syneresis
2. fibrinogenesis
3. platelet adhesion
4. coagulation
lung
Which of these organs is NOT found in the mediastinum?

1. esophagus
2. trachea
3. lung
4. pericardial sac
right atrium
Blood flowing in the vena cava will next enter the ____.

1. right ventricle
2. left ventricle
3. right atrium
4. left atrium
right atrium
Cardiac veins empty their blood into the __________.

1. left atrium
2. right atrium
3. left ventricle
4. right ventricle
calcium
During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, which ion is entering the cardiac muscle cell?

1. potassium
2. calcium
3. sodium
4. hydrogen
R
Which wave is the largest in the electrocardiogram?

1. P
2. R
3. Q
4. S
SA node
The conducting system in the heart begins in the ____.

1. AV bundle
2. AV node
3. Purkinje fibers
4. SA node
closing of the mitral valve
[ventricular systole = the contraction of the heart ventricles. It begins with the first heart sound]
Ventricular systole begins with the __________.

1. closing of the aortic valve
2. opening of the mitral valve
3. opening of the aortic valve
4. closing of the mitral valve
The first is true; the second is false.
The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the right; the left ventricle pumps more blood than the right. Are these two statements true or false?

1. The first is false; the second is true.
2. Both statements are true.
3. The first is true; the second is false.
4. Both statements are false.
blood pressure
Which of these is NOT needed to determine cardiac output?

1. heart rate
2. end systolic volume
3. blood pressure
4. end diastolic volume
increased end-systolic volume
Which of these responses by the heart will sympathetic stimulation NOT cause?

1. increased end-systolic volume
2. increased heart rate
3. increased cardiac output
4. increased stroke volume
capillaries
The only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange with the surrounding cells are _____.

1. capillaries
2. arterioles
3. tunica intima
4. arteries
arterial pressure greater than venous pressure
Which of these helps move blood around the systemic system?

1. right ventricle
2. smooth muscle in the tunica media
3. arterial pressure greater than venous pressure
4. venous pressure greater than arterial pressure
forces more fluid across the endothelium
Elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure ____.

1. raises arterial pressure
2. lowers heart rate
3. raises heart rate
4. forces more fluid across the endothelium
medulla oblongata
Which brain region contains the cardiovascular centers?

1. hypothalamus
2. pons
3. medulla oblongata
4. thalamus
an increase in urine production
Hemorrhage triggers all of these responses EXCEPT __________.


1. release of the venous reserve
2. an increase in urine production
3. an increase in heart rate
4. an increase in erythropoiesis
deoxygenated; to
The pulmonary trunk carries ___________ blood __________ the lung.

1. oxygenated; from
2. oxygenated; to
3. deoxygenated; to
4. deoxygenated; from
coronary
Which of these arteries does NOT originate on the aortic arch?

1. left subclavian
2. left carotid
3. brachiocephalic
4. coronary
femoral
Which of these arteries does NOT originate on the abdominal aorta?

1. iliac
2. femoral
3. splenic
4. renal
ligamentum arteriosum
The remnant of the fetal ductus arteriosus is the _____.


1. fossa ovalis
2. foramen ovale
3. umbilical strand
4. ligamentum arteriosum
decrease in arterial wall stiffness
All of these changes in the cardiovascular system are commonly seen in aging EXCEPT _______.

1. decrease in hematocrit
2. decrease in arterial wall stiffness
3. decrease in cardiac output
4. decrease in valve efficiency
decreased ADH secretion
In the case of hemorrhage, the body mobilizes all these defenses EXCEPT _________.

1. increased peripheral resistance
2. increased heart rate
3. decreased ADH secretion
4. increased thirst
ALL OF THESE are controlled by the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata.
The cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata control __________.

1. heart rate
2. cardiac contractility
3. peripheral resistance
4. All of these are controlled by the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata.
the liver
Most of the plasma proteins required in the coagulation process are produced by __________.


1. the liver
2. lymph nodes
3. platelets
4. megakaryocytes
purified platelets
If a patient has thrombocytopenia, the best therapy is infusion of __________.

1. plasma
2. packed RBCs
3. whole blood
4. purified platelets
Q-T interval
The duration of the ventricular action potential is approximately equal to the __________ interval in the electrocardiogram.

1. QRS duration
2. Q-T interval
3. PR interval
4. ST interval
SA node
The conducting system in the heart begins in the __________.

1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV node
3. SA node
4. AV bundle
left atrium
Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the __________.

1. right atrium
2. pulmonary valve
3. pulmonary trunk
4. left atrium
end-systolic volume
The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle as diastole begins is called the __________.

1. stroke volume
2. cardiac reserve
3. end-systolic volume
4. end-diastolic volume
radial
The brachial artery branches to form the ulnar and __________ arteries.

1. axillary
2. digital
3. palmar
4. radial
transport clotting factors
An important function of thrombocytes is to __________.

1. transport clotting factors
2. transport thrombopoietin
3. transport nutrients
4. transport blood gases
capillaries
The only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange with the surrounding cells are __________.


1. capillaries
2. tunica intima
3. arteries
4. arterioles
aortic
The __________ valve prevents backward flow of blood into the left ventricle.

1. bicuspid
2. aortic
3. tricuspid
4. pulmonic
precapillary sphincters
Vasomotion refers to contraction-relaxation cycles of the __________.

1. precapillary sphincters
2. thoroughfare channels
3. arteriovenous anastomoses
4. venules
They are abundant
Which of these statements about basophils is NOT true?

1. They promote inflammation.
2. They are cytoplasmic granules.
3. They are abundant.
4. They release histamine.
femoral arteries
Which of these arteries does NOT branch directly from the aorta?


1. left coronary artery
2. left carotid artery
3. femoral arteries
4. right coronary artery
hemoglobin
The most abundant protein in blood is __________.

1. hemoglobin
2. albumin
3. fibrinogen
4. immunoglobulin
All of these are formed elements of blood.
The formed elements of blood consist of _________.


1. red blood cells
2. platelets
3. white blood cells
4. All of these are formed elements of blood.
conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
The common pathway in coagulation ends with __________.

1. conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
2. release of PF-3
3. positive feedback of thrombin formation
4. adhesion of platelets to a damaged vessel wall
kidney
Which organ produces renin and erythropoietin to help maintain normal blood pressure and hematocrit?


1. brain
2. kidney
3. liver
4. adrenal
monocyte
The agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) that is capable of phagocytosis is the __________.

1. neutrophil
2. monocyte
3. lymphocyte
4. eosinophil
visceral pericardium
The epicardium is also known as the __________.

1. visceral pericardium
2. myocardium
3. endocardium
4. parietal pericardium
oxygenated; left
The pulmonary veins carry __________ blood to the __________ atrium.

1. deoxygenated; left
2. deoxygenated; right
3. oxygenated; left
4. oxygenated; right
clots slowly dissolve
During fibrinolysis __________.

1. clots slowly dissolve
2. fibrinogen is activated
3. damaged tissue is pulled together
4. emboli form
elastic
Arteries have a tissue in their middle and internal vessel walls that veins lack, called __________ tissue.

1. elastic
2. smooth muscle
3. endothelial
4. adventitial
neutrophils
The white blood cell type that most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection is the __________.

1. lymphocytes
2. eosinophils
3. neutrophils
4. monocytes
The pH is slightly acidic.
EXCEPT for __________, the following statements about blood are true.

1. It contains about 55% plasma.
2. The viscosity is three to five times greater than water.
3. It contains dissolved gases.
4. The pH is slightly acidic.
B positive
A person with a type A positive blood type can safely receive blood from all of these donors EXCEPT __________.

1. B positive
2. O positive
3. A negative
4. A positive
protein
EXCEPT for the amount of __________, plasma and interstitial fluid differ little in composition.

1. protein
2. glucose
3. sodium ion
4. water
Both statements are true.
The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood in the adult circulation; the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood in the fetal circulation. Are these two statements true or false?

1. The first statement is false; the second is true.
2. Both statements are true.
3. The first statement is true; the second is false.
4. Both statements are false.
blood colloid osmotic pressure
Peripheral resistance depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT __________.


1. blood viscosity
2. blood vessel diameter
3. blood vessel length
4. blood colloid osmotic pressure
red blood cells
Reticulocyte is a stage in the development of __________.

1. lymphocytes
2. megakaryocytes
3. red blood cells
4. neutrophil
increased elasticity of the fibrous skeleton
As the heart ages, which of these changes is NOT normally seen?

1. decreased cardiac output
2. coronary arteriosclerosis
3. decreased ejection fraction
4. increased elasticity of the fibrous skeleton
120 days
Red blood cells (RBCs) are removed from the circulation after about __________.

1. 1 year
2. 1 day
3. 120 days
4. 30 days
both the right vagus and sympathetic nerves
Heart rate is controlled by __________.

1.the phrenic nerves
2. both the right vagus and sympathetic nerves
3. sympathetic nerves in the cardiac plexus
4. the right vagus nerve
lymphocytes
Which cell type is essential to the immune response?

1. monocytes
2. keratinocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. fibrocytes
plasma
interstitial fluid
The composition of lymph is most similar to __________.
Select all that apply:

1. gastric juice
2. blood
3. plasma
4. interstitial fluid
Y2K
All of these types of cells are lymphocytes EXCEPT ___________.


1. NK
2. Y2K
3. B
4. T
lymphocytes
Which of these defense cells are NOT phagocytic?


1. lymphocytes
2. neutrophils
3. macrophages
4. eosinophils
It must be acquired
Which of these is NOT a property of the immune response?

1. It may be cell-mediated.
2. It must be acquired.
3. It is triggered by an antigen.
4. It may be antibody-mediated.
cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Which defense cells can specifically identify and directly kill disease cells?

1. suppressor T lymphocytes
2. cytotoxic T lymphocytes
3. plasma cells
4. B lymphocytes
helper T cells
Which defense cells secretes lymphokines that regulate immunity?

1. helper T cells
2. CD8 cells
3. memory T cells
4. B lymphocytes
B cells have all of these properties.
B cells are __________.

1. capable of division
2. sensitized by exposure to antigen
3. activated by helper T cells
4. B cells have all of these properties.
Immunoglobulin B
Each of these is a class of immunoglobulins EXCEPT __________.


1. Immunoglobulin A
2. Immunoglobulin M
3. Immunoglobulin G
4. Immunoglobulin B
allergy
Delayed hypersensitivity is a type of __________.

1. allergy
2. skin infection
3. immunodeficiency disease
4. autoimmune disease
epithelial mucus
Particulate matter in the inhaled air is trapped by the __________.

1. epithelial mucus
2. pharyngeal muscles
3. paranasal sinuses
4. tracheal carina
larynx
Which of these structures is part of the lower respiratory system?

1. nasal vestibule
2. paranasal sinuses
3. pharynx
4. larynx
thyroid cartilage
The "Adam's apple" is part of the __________.

1. cricoid cartilage
2. esophagus
3. thyroid cartilage
4. pharynx
esophagus
The posterior tracheal wall contacts the __________.

1. thyroid gland
2. esophagus
3. carina
4. primary bronchus
parietal pleura
Features visible on the surface of the lung include all of these EXCEPT __________.

1. parietal pleura
2. fissures
3. lobes
4. visceral pleura
residual volume
Which of these does NOT contribute to vital capacity?

1. residual volume
2. inspiratory reserve volume
3. expiratory reserve volume
4. tidal volume
All of these properties contribute to effective gas exchange.
Which of these contributes to effective gas exchange?

1. small diffusion distances
2. high gas permeability
3. large surface area
4. All of these properties contribute to effective gas exchange.
bound to hemoglobin
Most oxygen is transported in the blood stream while it is __________.

1. bound to carbon dioxide
2. bound to hemoglobin
3. bound to albumin
4. dissolved in the plasma
both the medulla oblongata and the pons
The respiratory centers are located in __________.

1. the hypothalamus
2. both the medulla oblongata and the pons
3. the medulla oblongata only
4. the pons only
cardiovascular
The respiratory system has very extensive connections with the __________ system.

1. cardiovascular
2. endocrine
3. integumentary
4. lymphoid
liver
Which of these is an accessory organ of digestion?

1. liver
2. esophagus
3. spleen
4. appendix
lamina propria
The epithelium and the __________ make up the mucosa of the digestive tract.

1. adventitia
2. submucosa
3. lamina propria
4. serosa
The first is true; the second is false
Mechanical digestion begins in the oral cavity; enzymatic digestion doesn't begin until food enters the stomach. Are these two statements true or false?


1. Both statements are false.
2. The first is false; the second is true.
3. The first is true; the second is false.
4. Both statements are true.
esophagus and stomach
The cardiac sphincter is found between the __________.

1. small and large intestine
2. esophagus and stomach
3. pharynx and esophagus
4. heart and aorta
pepsin
Which of these is NOT secreted directly into the lumen of the stomach?

1. gastrin
2. pepsin
3. mucus
4. hydrochloric acid
cecum
The three divisions of the small intestine include all of these EXCEPT the __________.

1. duodenum
2. cecum
3. jejunum
4. ileum
hepatic vein
At the corners of a liver lobule are found complexes formed of three tiny tubes. Which of these is NOT present in the complex?

1. hepatic artery
2. bile duct
3. hepatic vein
4. hepatic portal vein
stomach
The epithelium of the large intestine microscopically most resembles that of the __________.

1. esophagus
2. jejunum
3. stomach
4. anal canal
diffusion
Lipid-soluble vitamins cross the digestive epithelium primarily by _________.

1. diffusion
2. channel-mediated diffusion
3. active transport
4. vesicular transport
nervous
The cephalic phase of stomach function is an example of the __________ system interacting with the digestive system.

1. urinary
2. nervous
3. cardiovascular
4. endocrine
heat
About 40% of the energy content of nutrients is captured as ATP. The remainder is lost as __________.

1. perspiration
2. urine
3. feces
4. heat
glycolysis
Through the process of __________, each glucose yields two pyruvate ions.

1. glycolysis
2. nutrition
3. oxidation
4. anabolism
34
36 ATP molecules can be produced during cellular respiration from a single glucose molecule. How many of those require oxygen for their production?

2
34
all of them
none of them
liver cells
Gluconeogenesis is performed by __________.

1. red blood cells
2. liver cells
3. skeletal muscle cells
4. All of these cells perform gluconeogenesis
Lipid molecules are converted into glucose molecules.
Which of these statements is NOT true about beta-oxidation?

1. It yields large amounts of ATP.
2. Two-carbon fragments are formed.
3. Lipid molecules are converted into glucose molecules.
4. It takes place in mitochondria.
urea
The ammonia that is removed from an amino acid during deamination is converted to the less toxic form of __________.

1. ketone bodies
2. nitric oxide
3. urea
4. nitrite ion
bone
Each of these is a metabolic component of the body EXCEPT ___________.

1. bone
2. liver
3. skeletal muscle
4. adipose tissue
The liver produces more glycogen
Which of these is NOT likely to occur during the postabsorptive state?

1. Beta-oxidation increases.
2. Blood glucose levels fall.
3. Gluconeogenesis begins.
4. The liver produces more glycogen
fats and sweets
The basic food groups include all these EXCEPT ___________.

1. fruits
2. vegetables
3. fats and sweets
4. grains
liver
Which of these is NOT a lymphoid organ?

1. spleen
2. lymph node
3. liver
4. thymus
lymphocytes
The lymphoid tissue of the spleen ("white pulp") contains many __________.

1. arteries
2. free macrophages
3. lymphocytes
4. red blood cells
They are smaller than blood capillaries.
Which of these is NOT a property of lymphatic capillaries?

1. They have irregular profiles.
2. Their endothelial cells overlap.
3. They lack basement membrane.
4. They are smaller than blood capillaries
right arm
Which of these organs does NOT drain its lymph into the thoracic duct?

1. right arm
2. left arm
3. left leg
right leg
They are phagocytic.
Which of these statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

1. They are phagocytic.
2. They bind antigens.
3. They occur as B, T, and NK types.
4. They mostly occur in lymphoid tissues
immunoglobulins
Which of these is NOT one of the nonspecific defenses?

1. neutrophils
2. interferons
3. immunoglobulins
4. histamine
NK cells perform all of these roles.
Natural Killer (NK) cells __________.

1. hunt for tumor cells
2. engage in immunological surveillance
3. kill cancer cells
4. NK cells perform all of these roles.
fever
Activated macrophages release endogenous pyrogens that cause __________.

1. fever
2. swelling
3. pain
4. histamine release
induced active
Immunity that results from vaccination against influenza is classified as __________.

1. induced passive
2. naturally acquired passive
3. naturally acquired active
4. induced active
tolerance
Autoimmune illness results from a failure of what aspect of immunity?

1. memory
2. tolerance
3. specificity
4. versatility
cytotoxic T
The lymphocytes that enter tissues and directly attack antigens are __________ cells.

1. cytotoxic T
2. helper T
3. suppressor T
4. NK
helper T
Which class of T lymphocyte is killed by the AIDS virus?

1. suppressor T
2. helper T
3. cytotoxic T
4. NK
Antigen presentation includes all of these steps.
Steps in antigen presentation include which of these?

1. Antigens are digested.
2. Antigen fragments appear on the antigen-presenting cell's surface.
3. Phagocytic antigen-presenting cells engulf pathogens.
4. Antigen presentation includes all of these steps.
T cells secrete immunoglobulins.
Which of these is NOT a step in humoral immune defense?

1. T cells secrete immunoglobulins.
2. The antigen binds specifically to B cell surface.
3. The antigen-specific helper T cells bind to sensitized B cells.
4. Helper T cells secrete cytokines.
IgM
Which class of immunoglobulins contains 10 heavy chains?

1. IgA
2. IgM
3. IgG
4. IgE
IgM
The class of antibody that produced first in the fetus at about four months of development is __________.

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgA
4. IgE
corticosteroids
Stress suppresses the immune response through the action of __________.

1. corticosteroids
2. colony-stimulating factors
3. interferons
4. tumor necrosis factors
improved immunological surveillance
A change in the immune system that rarely accompanies aging is __________.

1. T cells less responsive to antigens
2. improved immunological surveillance
3. fewer cytotoxic T cells
4. fewer helper T cells
All of these are examples of interaction between the nervous system and the immune system
Which of these is an example of interaction between the nervous system and the immune system?

1. Stress suppresses immune function.
2. Cytokines affect the hypothalamus.
3. CNS innervates dendritic cells in the skin.
4. All of these are examples of interaction between the nervous system and the immune system.
plasma
The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.

1. helper T
2. plasma
3. NK
4. liver
5. thymus
1 mm to 25 mm
Lymph nodes range in diameter from

1. 1 nm to 10 nm.
2. 1 cm to 1 inch.
3. 1 inch to 2 inches.
4. 1 mm to 25 mm.
5. 1 cm to 25 cm.
the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct.

1. the left jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
2. the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
3. two great vessels
4. the thoracic and mediastinal ducts
5. superior and inferior lymphatic ducts
complement
Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, EXCEPT

1. secretions.
2. complement.
3. epithelium.
4. basement membranes.
5. body hair.
phagocytes
The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the

1. phagocytes.
2. T cells.
3. NK cells.
4. B cells.
5. plasma cells
Microglia
________ are fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system.
naturally acquired active
Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.

1. naturally acquired active
2. natural passive
3. passive
4. auto
5. innate
naturally acquired passive
Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity.

1. auto
2. innate
3. naturally acquired passive
4. active
5. passive
cytotoxic T
Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

1. plasma
2. suppressor T
3. helper T
4. B
5. cytotoxic T
bind complement
Which of the following statements about MHC proteins is NOT true?

1. are found on all nucleated cells
2. allow the body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells
3. fall into two major classes
4. bind complement
5. function in antigen presentation
exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
T cells and B cells can be activated only by

1. exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
2. interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors.
3. pathogens.
4. cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.
5. disease-causing agents.
IgG
Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are

1. IgD.
2. IgM.
3. IgA.
4. IgE.
5. IgG.
IgA.
Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are

1. IgA.
2. IgE.
3. IgM.
4. IgD.
5. IgG.
IgG
The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are

1. IgA.
2. IgE.
3. IgG.
4. IgD.
5. IgM.
intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids.
Infection with the HIV virus occurs through

1. sharing clothes with an infected individual.
2. airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes.
3. casual contact with an infected individual.
4. eating contaminated food.
5. intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids.
all of the above
Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include

1. decreased numbers of T helper cells.
2. B cells less responsive.
3. T cells becoming less responsive to antigens.
4. fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections.
5. all of the above
larynx
Which of these structures is located OUTSIDE the upper respiratory system?

1 larynx
2 pharynx
3 paranasal sinuses
4 nasal vestibule
transport RBCs (red blood cells) to the tissues
Which of these is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

1 to exchange gases with the atmosphere
2 to protect against environmental hazards
3 transport RBCs (red blood cells) to the tissues
4 to ventilate the air spaces
upper respiratory tract.
Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the

1 upper respiratory tract.
2 alveoli.
3 bronchioles.
4 lower respiratory tract.
5 lungs.
acting as a damping chamber when coughing.
Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, EXCEPT

1. humidifying the air.
2. warming the air.
3. acting as a damping chamber when coughing.
4. acting as a resonating chamber in speech.
5. filtering the air.
all of the above
The respiratory defense system is important because it

1. helps warm the air.
2. helps filter the air.
3. keeps out pathogens.
4. keeps out debris.
5. all of the above
external nares
Air leaving the respiratory system from the nasal cavity passes last through the __________.

1 external nares
2 conchae
3 nasal vestibule
4 internal nares
nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
As air moves from the nasal cavity to the glottis it passes through the pharynx in this order, __________.

1 laryngopharynx, nasopharynx, oropharynx
2 nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
3 oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx
4 laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharyn
oropharynx
The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the

1 oropharynx.
2 aeropharynx.
3 laryngopharynx.
4 nasopharynx.
5 internal pharynx
lips
Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, EXCEPT the

1 paranasal sinuses.
2 nose.
3 nasal cavity.
4 pharynx.
5 lips.
shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
Which of the following is NOT true about the pharynx?

1 shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
2 nasopharynx is superior
3 laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening
4 oropharynx connects to oral cavity
5 solids, liquids, and gases pass through
arytenoid
Which of these is one of the paired cartilages of the larynx?

1 arytenoid
2 cricoid
3 thyroid
4 epiglottis
the pitch of the voice can be raised or lowered
By moving the arytenoid cartilages, __________.

1 the pitch of the voice can be raised or lowered
2 the loudness of the voice can be increased
3 the glottis can be protected
4 All of these effects can be achieved by moving the arytenoid cartilages.
larynx
The vocal folds are located within the

1 nasopharynx.
2 bronchi.
3 oropharynx.
4 trachea.
5 larynx.
arytenoid
The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.

1 arytenoid
2 innominate
3 cuneiform
4 corniculate
5 cricothyroid
primary bronchi
Which airway component begins at about T5?

1 secondary bronchi
2 trachea
3 larynx
4 primary bronchi
trachea
The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the

1 bronchiole.
2 trachea.
3 alveolar duct.
4 laryngopharynx.
5 bronchus.
All of these changes can be expected if the production of surfactant is inadequate
If the production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells (septal cells) is inadequate, which of these changes is expected?

1 respiratory distress syndrome
2 alveolar collapse
3 increased inspiratory effort
4 All of these changes can be expected if the production of surfactant is inadequate.
respiratory bronchiole; alveolar duct; alveolar sac; alveolus
The correct arrangement of gas exchange structures from largest to smallest is __________.

1 respiratory bronchiole; alveolar sac; alveolar duct; alveolus
2 respiratory bronchiole; alveolar duct; alveolar sac; alveolus
3 alveolar duct; alveolar sac; alveolus; respiratory bronchiole
4 alveolus; alveolar sac; alveolar duct; respiratory bronchiole
three lobes; two lobes
The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.

1 two lobes; two lobes
2 two lobes; three lobes
3 three lobes; three lobes
4 three lobes; two lobes
5 none of the above
an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
Asthma is

1 caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
2 characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
3 a collapsed lung.
4 an obstructive tumor.
5 an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
left lung
Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?

1 left primary bronchus
2 left lung
3 right primary bronchus
4 right lung
5 both right lung and left primary bronchus
release of carbon dioxide by tissue cells
External respiration includes all of these processes EXCEPT __________.

1 gas transport
2 gas diffusion across respiratory membrane
3 breathing
4 release of carbon dioxide by tissue cells
if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.
Boyle's Law of Gases states that

1 the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
2 as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
3 if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.
4 the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
5 the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures
internal intercostals
All these muscles participate in inspiration EXCEPT __________.

1 internal intercostals
2 diaphragm
3 external intercostals
4 scalenes
inversely proportional to volume
Boyle's law states gas pressure is __________.

1 inversely proportional to temperature
2 directly proportional to volume
3 independent of temperature
4 inversely proportional to volume
movement of air into and out of the lungs.
Pulmonary ventilation refers to the

1 movement of air into and out of the lungs.
2 movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
3 utilization of oxygen.
4 movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
5 movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
Tidal volume
________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.

1 Residual volume
2 Inspiratory reserve volume
3 Inspiratory capacity
4 Tidal volume
5 Expiratory reserve volume
5 mmHg
he difference in partial pressure of carbon dioxide between venous and arterial blood is about __________.

40 mmHg
5 mmHg
60 mmHg
0.3 mmHg
increased thickness of the respiratory membrane
Which of these changes will decrease the effectiveness of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?

1 increased number of alveoli
2 increased thickness of the respiratory membrane
3 increased difference in partial pressures
4 All of these changes will decrease the effectiveness of gas exchange across the respiratory membranes.
in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
Dalton's law states that

1 gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
2 the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
3 gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
4 in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
5 gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
25%
If the hemoglobin molecules in a blood sample each had a single oxygen molecule bound to it on average, the saturation is __________.

50%
25%
100%
10%
Both statements are true.
As blood flows through a capillary, the pH drops as carbon dioxide enters; this, in turn, leads the hemoglobin to release some of its oxygen. Are these two statements true or false?

1 The first statement is true; the second is false.
2 The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 Both statements are false.
4 Both statements are true.
bound to hemoglobin.
MOST of the oxygen transported by the blood is

1 bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
2 carried by white blood cells.
3 bound to hemoglobin.
4 dissolved in plasma.
5 in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
dorsal respiratory group; medulla oblongata
The basic pattern of breathing is established by the __________ located in the __________.

1 dorsal respiratory group; pons
2 ventral respiratory group; medulla oblongata
3 dorsal respiratory group; medulla oblongata
4 ventral respiratory group; pons
All of these sensory receptors can modify respiratory reflexes
Which class of sensory receptor can modify respiratory reflexes?

1 mechanoreceptors
2 nociceptors
3 chemoreceptors
4 All of these sensory receptors can modify respiratory reflexes
Both statements are true
As a percentage of a young adult's capacity, smokers lose 25% of their respiratory capacity by age 48; non-smokers don't reach that level of loss until about age 75. Are these two statements true or false?

1 Both statements are false.
2 The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 The first statement is true; the second is false.
4 Both statements are true.
cardiovascular
In order for the respiratory system to maintain homeostatic tissue levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, it must coordinate constantly with the __________ system.

1 cardiovascular
2 urinary
3 digestive
4 integumentary
tonsils
Which of these is NOT an accessory organ of digestion?

1 gall bladder
2 salivary glands
3 tonsils
4 liver
greater omentum
A fatty apron known as the __________ protects the abdominal viscera anteriorly.

1 rectus abdominis
2 greater omentum
3 mucosa
4 lamina propria
Both statements are true.
The epithelium lining the stomach, small intestine, and most of the large intestine is simple columnar; the epithelium in the oral cavity, esophagus, and pharynx is stratified squamous. Are these two statements true or false?

1 The first statement is true; the second is false.
2 The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 Both statements are true.
4 Both statements are false.
decreased acid secretion
Which of these effects on digestion is NOT produced by the parasympathetic nervous system?

1 decreased acid secretion
2 increased peristalsis
3 increased mucus secretion
4 increased production of saliva
pancreas
Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

1 appendix
2 pancreas
3 colon
4 esophagus
5 spleen
all of the above
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity

1 secretes peritoneal fluid.
2 prevents irritation.
3 decreases friction.
4 lubricates the cavity.
5 all of the above
The lining of the cheeks has all of these properties
The lining of the cheeks is __________.

1 called the buccal mucosa
2 a stratified squamous epithelium
3 lines the buccal cavity
4 The lining of the cheeks has all of these properties
pulp cavity.
The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the

1 pulp cavity.
2 enamel.
3 cementum.
4 dentin.
5 periodontium.
vestibule.
The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the

1 pharynx.
2 vestibule.
3 larynx.
4 dip sulcus.
5 fauces.
to secrete enzymes that break down carbohydrates
Which of these is NOT a function of the stomach?

1 to secrete enzymes that break down carbohydrates
2 to mechanically digest food
3 to secrete enzymes that break down proteins
4 to secrete hydrochloric acid
mucus
The cells in the gastric mucosa near the openings of the gastric pits largely specialize in secreting __________.

1 mucus
2 intrinsic factor
3 hydrochloric acid
4 pepsinogen
lacteals
To increase surface area for absorption, the apical surface of the jejunum epithelium has many folds and protrusions. Which of these is NOT one of them?

1 plicae circulares
2 villi
3 lacteals
4 microvilli
vasoactive intestinal peptide; inhibit intestinal blood flow
Which of these gut hormones and actions are mismatched?

1 gastrin; stimulate gastric motility
2 vasoactive intestinal peptide; inhibit intestinal blood flow
3 secretin; stimulate bile secretion
4 cholecystokinin; stimulate gall bladder contraction
jejunum
Most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption is performed in the __________.

1 jejunum
2 duodenum
3 ileum
4 stomach
cecum; transverse colon; sigmoid colon; rectum
Arrange the regions of the large intestine in the correct anatomical sequence.

1 cecum; transverse colon; sigmoid colon; rectum
2 rectum; sigmoid colon; cecum; transverse colon
3 cecum; sigmoid colon; transverse colon; rectum
4 cecum; rectum; sigmoid colon; transverse colon
cecum.
The saclike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the

1 haustra.
2 appendix.
3 cecum.
4 sigmoid colon.
5 rectum.
Both statements are true.
During digestion of triglycerides, fatty acids enter the intestinal mucosa by diffusion; then, they are then re-synthesized into triglycerides that enter the lymph as chylomicrons. Are these two statements true or false?

1 Both statements are false.
2 The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 Both statements are true.
4 The first statement is true; the second is false.
pancreas
The enzyme alpha-amylase that digests polysaccharides is secreted by the __________.

1 brush border
2 duodenum
3 pancreas
4 All of these structures secrete alpha-amylase.
All of these statements are true.
Which of these statements about water balance in the digestive system is true?

1 About 7000 ml/day enters by secretion.
2 About 2000 ml /day enters by mouth.
3 About 150-200 ml/day is lost in the feces.
4 All of these statements are true.
All of these systems are important in the regulation of digestion
Regulation of digestion depends on the __________.

1 enteric nervous system
2 central nervous system
3 endocrine system
4 All of these systems are important in the regulation of digestion
muscle contraction
Which of these is NOT part of anabolism?

1 storage of glycogen
2 hormone synthesis
3 muscle contraction
4 secreting an enzyme
Both statements are true.
Glucose enters cells by facilitated diffusion; it is trapped in the cytoplasm by conversion to glucose-6-phosphate. Are these two statements true or false?

1 Both statements are false.
2The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 The first statement is true; the second is false.
4 Both statements are true.
the TCA cycle
The carbon dioxide released by the lung into the atmosphere was very likely produced within by __________.

1 electron transport
2 the TCA cycle
3 formation of pyruvic acid
4 glycolysis
2
In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose that is catabolized gives a net yield of how many molecules of ATP?

38
30
36
4
2
fatty acids are converted into molecules of acetyl-coA
During beta-oxidation, __________.

1 triglycerides are hydrolyzed to fatty acids and glycerol
2 fatty acids are converted to glucose molecules
3 fatty acids are converted into molecules of acetyl-coA
4 All of these processes occur during beta-oxidation
acetyl-CoA
Synthesis of fatty acids starts with __________.

1 monoglycerides
2 acetyl-CoA
3 amino acids
4 pyruvic acid
B6
The enzyme that removes the amino group from amino acids requires a co-enzyme derived from vitamin __________.

D
B6
A
C
glycogen synthesis
Which of these processes is NOT characteristic of the postabsorptive state?

1 glycogen synthesis
2 gluconeogenesis
3 glycogenolysis
4 lipolysis
Both statements are true.
The postabsorptive state can be maintained for a while; long-term homeostasis, however, requires a balanced diet. Are these two statements true or false?

1 Both statements are false.
2 The first statement is false; the second is true.
3 Both statements are true.
4 The first statement is true; the second is false
ketoacids
Which of the following compounds contains no nitrogen?

1 ketoacids
2 purines
3 creatine
4 amino acids
A balanced diet should provide all of these, to maintain homeostasis
To maintain homeostasis, a balanced diet should provide __________.

1 adequate energy
2 adequate vitamins
3 essential amino acids
4 A balanced diet should provide all of these, to maintain homeostasis
measuring the number of calories in food
A T-4 assay can perform each of these functions EXCEPT __________.

1 obtaining an index of metabolic activity
2 measuring the number of calories in food
3 detecting thyroid malfunction
4 measuring circulating thyroxine levels
inhibition of TRH release
Which of these is NOT expected when the temperature of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus decreases?

1 increased secretion of epinephrine
2 skin vasoconstriction
3 inhibition of TRH release
4 shivering
evaporative cooling
Sweating produces heat loss largely by __________.

1 dripping hot sweat
2 conduction of heat from the body interior
3 radiation of heat from the skin
4 evaporative cooling
myenteric plexus.
Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the

1 mucosa.
2 submucosal plexus.
3 myenteric plexus.
4 muscularis mucosa.
5 submucosa.
peristalsis
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called

1 segmentation.
2 peristalsis.
3 mastication.
4 churning movements.
5 pendular movemen
stomach
The ________ mechanically digests ingested food.

1 large intestine
2 anus
3 esophagus
4 stomach
5 small intestine
mesenteries.
The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called

1 ascites.
2 peritoneal sheets.
3 mesenteries.
4 the diaphragm.
5 the dorsal and ventral frenulums
Bolus
The small, semisolid mass of food formed during mastication is called a(n) ________.
Three
________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.

1 One
2 Two
3 Six to Ten
4 Four
5 Three
enamel.
The crown of a tooth is covered by

1 cementum.
2 periodontium.
3 pulp.
4 enamel.
5 dentin.
all of the above
If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive, an individual

1 has difficulty eating.
2 has a condition called ankyloglossia.
3 cannot speak normally.
4 all of the above
5 has a condition called ankyloglossia and cannot speak normally
pylorus.
The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the

1 pylorus.
2 body.
3 cardia.
4 antrum.
5 fundus.
all of the above
Which of these enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine?

1 the microvilli
2 intestinal movements
3 the villi
4 the plicae circulares
5 all of the above
False
The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin.

True or False ?
True
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

True or False ?
True
The beta cells are the pancreatic islet cells that produce insulin.

True or False ?
True
All the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH.

True or False ?
True
Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.

True or False ?
True
White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.

True or False ?
True
Each heme contains an atom of iron and can transport one molecule of oxygen.

True or False ?
True
the myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

True or False ?
True
The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right.

True or False ?
False
Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.
b) thymus gland
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the _____.

a) adrenal medulla
b) thymus gland
c) thyroid gland
d) pancreas
d) second messengers
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ______.

a) nucleotides
b) ions
c) deactivators
d) second messengers
a) is partly contained within the infundibulum
The hypothalamic-hypopyseal tract ____.

a) is partly contained within the infundibulum
b) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
c) conducts aldosterone to the hypopysis
d) is the site of prolactin synthesis
d) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
Oxytocin _______.

a) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
b) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
c) controls milk production
d) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
a) The presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

a) The presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
b) The membrane potential of the cells of the target organ.
c) nothing--all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
d) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
b) enzyme
Which of the following is NOT a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

a) neural
b) enzyme
c) hormonal
d) humoral
d) the heart
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

a) the spleen
b) the kidney
c) the skin
d) the heart
d) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP.
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone actin operates by _______.

a) not responding to a feedback mechanism
b) synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
c) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
d) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP.
a) hypophyseal portal system
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary glad is through the ________.

a) hypophyseal portal system
b) general circulatory system
c) feedback loop
d) hepatic portal system
c) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by________.

a) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
b)exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
c) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
d) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
c) epinephrine
Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone?

a) estrogen
b) cortisone
c) epinephrine
d) aldosterone
c) 7.35 - 7.45
What is the average normal pH range of blood?

a) 4.65 - 4.75
b) 8.35 - 8.45
c) 7.35 - 7.45
d) 7.75 - 7.85
b) O
Which blood type is called the universal donor?

a) AB
b) O
c) A
d) B
c) fibrinolysis
Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis?

a)coagulation
b) platelet plug formation
c) fibrinolysis
d) vascular spasm
c) They are nucleated
Which of the following is chracteristic of all leukocytes?

a) They have cytoplasmic granules
b) They are phagocytic
c) They are nucleated
d) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
d) all of the above
b) suspension
Blood is a ________.

a) homogeneous compound
b) suspension
c) heterogeneous compound
d) colloid
c) left atrium
Blood within) the pulmonary veins returns to the ____.

a) right atrium
b) right ventricle
c) left atrium
d) left ventricle
c) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

a) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
b) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow fo blood into the heart.
c) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
d) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
c) pumps blood against a greater resistance
The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker that the right ventricle reveals that it ____.

a) sends blood through a smaller valve
b) pumps a greater volume of blood
c) pumps blood against a greater resistance
d) expands the thoracic cage
b) papillary muscles
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the ______.

a) trabeculae carneae
b) papillary muscles
c) pectinate muscles
d) venae cavae
b) Ventricles are in diastole
Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?

a) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta
b) Ventricles are in diastole
c) Ventricles are in systole
d) AV valves are closed
c) atrial depolarization
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ______.

a) ventricular
b) ventricular repolarization
c) atrial depolarization
d) atrial repolarization
d) coronary arteries
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the _____.

a) coronary veins
b) fossa ovalis
c) coronary sinus
d) coronary arteries
c) decreased delivery of oxygen
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ____.

a) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
b) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
c) decreased delivery of oxygen
d) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
a) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.

a) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
b) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
c) the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart
d) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
b) pulmonary trunk
Which vessel of the heart receives blood during right ventricular systole?

a) venae cavae
b) pulmonary trunk
c) pulmonary veins
d) aorta
b) nitric acid
Which of the followingchemicals does NOT help regulate blood pressure?

a) ADH
b) nitric acid
c) atrial natriuretic peptide
d) angiotension II
b) capillaries
Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of _______.

a) arterioles
b) capillaries
c) arteries
d) veins
d) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
The pulse pressure is _______.

a) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
b) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
c) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
d) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
c) tunica intima
Histologically, the ______ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.

a) tunica externa
b) tunica adventitia
c) tunica intima
d) tunica media
d) urinary output
Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT ____.

a) pressure changes in the thorax
b) activity of skeletal muscles
c) venous valves
d) urinary output
a) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the _____.

a) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
b) left upper arm
c) left side of the head and neck
d) myocardium of the haert
d) changes in arterial pressure
the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

a) an increase in oxygen levels
b) a decrease in oxygen levels
c) a decrease in carbon dioxide
d) changes in arterial pressure
a) lymph nodes
Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed _____.

a) lymph nodes
b) axillary nodes
c) lymph follicles
d) cisterna chyli
b)
b) pancreas
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphatic structure?

a) tonsils
b) pancreas
c) Peyer's patches of the instestine
d) spleen
a) skeletal muscle contrations and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on ______.

a) skeletal muscle contrations and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
b) contraction of the vessels themselves
c) the pumping action of the heart
d) two-way valves
c) plasma cells
Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ______.

a) lymph nodes
b) medullary cords
c) plasma cells
d) T lymphocytes
d) severe localized edema distal to the blockage
When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ______.

a) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal to the blockage
b) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region
c) shrinkage of tissues distal to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
d) severe localized edema distal to the blockage
d) lingual tonsils
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ____.

a) palatine tonsils
b) pharyngeal tonsils
c) Peyer's tonsils
d) lingual tonsils
c) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
a) exposure to an antigen
b) booster shot of vaccine
c) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
d) infusion of weakened viruses
a) Macrophages
________ predominate at the sites of chronic infections.

a) Macrophages
b) B cells
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
c) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
what is the role of the interferon in defense against disease?

a) activates the complement mechanism
b) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
c) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
d) activates the inflammatory process
a) function in the adaptive immune system activation
Helper T cells _____.

a) function in the adaptive immune system activation
b) often function to decrease the immune response
c) release B7 proteins
d) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
a) natural killer cells
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by _____.

a) natural killer cells
b) T lymphocytes
c) pinocytosis
d) B lymphocytes
d) Antigens only come from microbes
Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

a) antigrens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity.
b) antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.
c) the parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants
d) Antigens only come from microbes
foreman ovule
What structure in the fetal heart allows blood to flow from the right atrium directly to the left atrium?
tri-cuspid
The ____ valve of the heart has three valves with chordae tendineae.
left subclavin
the third major branch of the aortic _____ artery.
pulse
____ pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
aortic value
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle.
mitral valve
Prevents backflow into the left atrium.
Tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the right atrium.
pulmonary semilunar valves
Prevents backflow into the right ventricle.
b) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

a) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure
b) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
c) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere
d) less than the pressure in the atmosphere
b) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by _____.

a) warming the air before it enters
b) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
c) humidifying the air before it enters
d) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
d) increase of carbon dioxide
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in ta healthy person is _______.

a)pH (acidosis)
b) loss of oxygen in tissues
c) pH (alkalosis)
d) increase of carbon dioxide
d) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved from
In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is _____.

a) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
b) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
c) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
d) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved from
c) exchanged during normal breathing
Tidal volume is air _____.

a) forcible expelled after normal expiration
b) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
c) exchanged during normal breathing
d) inhaled after normal inspiration
e) lower respiratory tract
The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli all make up the ______.

a) upper respiratory tract
B0 alveoli of the respiratory tract
c) internal respiratory tract
d) respiratory mucosa
e) lower respiratory tract
c) inspiratory reserve
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ______.

a) vital capacity
b) expiratory reserve
c) inspiratory reserve
d) reserve air
b) oropharynx
the amount of air that can in inspired above the tidal volume is called ______.

a) trachea
b) oropharynx
c) nasal cavity
d) larynx
e) nasopharynx
a) respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

a) respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
b) because the lungs develop later in gestation, fetuses do not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange
c) respiratory exchanges are not necessary
d) respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus
b) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
How is the majority of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

a) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin
b) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
c) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
d) as carbonic acid in the plasma
b) diffusion
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by _____.

a) osmosis
b) diffusino
d) active transport
d) filtration
d) as the initiator of the cough reflex
The nose serves all the following functions EXCEPT ______.

a) cleansing the air
b) as a passageway for air movement
c) warming and humidifying the air
d) as the initiator of the cough reflex
c) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage
The function fo the hepatic portal circulation is to ______.

a) distribute hormones
b) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low
c) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage
d) carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract
a) mesenteries
The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ______.

a) mesenteries
b) mucosal lining
c) lamina propria
d) serosal lining
c) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them order from the lumen.

a) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa
b) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
c) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
d) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa
b) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins
which of the following is NOT true of saliva?

a) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus
b) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins
c) cleanses the mouth
d) dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted
a) stomach
Chyme is created in the _______.

a) stomach
b) small intestine
c) esophagus
d) mouth
d) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion
The function of the goblet cells is to ______.

a) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use
b) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food
c) secrete buffers in the order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral
d) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion
c) catabolism
Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ____.

a)mastication
b) fermentation
c) catabolism
d) anabolism
a) B12
Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

a) B12
b) C
c) K
d) A
b) amylase
You have just eaten a meal high in carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

a) gastrin
b) amylase
c) trypsin
d) cholecystokinin
d) cholecystokinin
Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

a) gastric inhibitor peptide
b) secretin
c) gastrin
d) cholecystokinin
c) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus
Nervous control of gastric secretino is provided by ____.

a) the rubrospinal tracts
b) somatic neurons in the spinal cord
c) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus
d) the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts
d) sphincters
In the digestive and urinary systems, rings of smooth muscle, called ______, regulate the movement of materials along internal passages.

a) muscularis externa
b) muscularis mucosae
c) circular muscles
d) sphincters
e) longitudinal muscles
b) serosa
The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodes, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the _____.

a) muscularis externa
b) serosa
c) mucosa
d) submucosa
d) fat
Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ______ yields energy the quickest.

a) glycogen
b) glucose
c) protein
d) fat
e) All of the above have the same rate.
c) triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids
During lipolysis ________.

a) lipids are metabolized to yield ATP.
b) lipids are converted into glucose molecules.
c) triglycerides are broken down into glyceol and fatty acids
d) lipids are formed from excess carbohydrates.
e) triglycerides are converted into molecules of acetyl-CoA.
c) the mitochondria
Reactions within ______ provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell.

a) cytoplasm
b) the plasma membrane
c) the mitochondria
d) the endoplasmic reticulum
e) none of the above
a) the citric acid cycle
The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during

a) the citric acid cycle
b) electron transport
c) the formation of pyruvic acid
d) glycolysis
e) the formation of water
c) fats
The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolize are

a) proteins
b) carbohydrates
c) fats
d) vitamins
e) nucleic acids
pancreas
Produces enzymes that break down all categories of foodstuffs.
stomach
Only digestive structure with three muscle layers
Liver
Receives blood via the hepatic portal system.
epiglottis
The cartilaginous flap that closes the trachea during swallowing is called the ______.
jejunum
The longest portion of the small intestine is the _____.
Hepatic artery,
hepatic portal vein,
bile duct
The hepatic triad contains _______.
secreting excess albumin
The kidney does all of these EXCEPT ______

a) regulating plasma electrolytes
b) secreting excess albumin
c) regulating blood volume
d) helping stabilize blood pH
from glomerulus to glomerular capsule
The step in kidney function where fluid is forced out of the blood is ____

a) from afferent arteriole to glomerulus
b) from PCT to DCT
c) from glomerulus to glomerular capsule
d) from glomerular capsule to PCT
minor calyces
Urine flows first from the papilla to the _____

a) renal pelvis
b) urethra
c) major calyces
d) minor calyces
glucose
One of the organic substances NOT normally excreted by the kidney is ________

a) glucose
b) urea
c) creatinine
d) uric acid
cotransport
The reabsorption of glucose from the filtrate is done by ____

a) cotransport
b) counter transport
c) facilitrated diffusion
d) active transport
a decrease in urine volume but a increase in solute concentration
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) causes

a) an increase in both urine volume and solute concentration
b) a decrease in urine volume but a increase in solute concentration
c) an increase in urine volume but a decrease in solute concentration
d) a decrease in both urine volume and solute concentration
renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
TGhe ureters extend from the _______

a) urinary bladder to the urethra
b) renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
c) minor calyces to the major calyces
d) nephrons to the renal pelvis
increased sensitivity to ADH
With advancing years ,the urinary system developes all of these problems EXCEPT _____

a) a decrease if GFR
b) urinary retention
c) increased sensitivity to ADH
d) increased frequency of infection
endocrine system
In addition to the urinary system, bodily wastes are removed by all of theses systems EXCEPT the _______

a) endocrine system
b) respiratory system
c) digestive system
d) integumentary system
nutrient balance
Which of these is NOT part of the maintenance of normal volume of body fluids?

a) acid-base balance
b) electrolyte balance
c) nutrient balance
d) fluid balance
blood cells
Which of these is NOT a component of the extracellular fluid compartment?

a) blood plasma
b) blood cells
c) cerebrospinal fluid
d) interstitial fluid
testosterone
Which of these hormones has little direct effect on water balance?

a) anti-diuretic hormone
b) aldosterone
c) natriretic peptides
d) testosterone
water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will shrink
If the extracellular fluid (ECF) is made hypertonic, _______

a) water will move from the ECF to the ICF and cells will swell
b) water will move from the ECF to the ICF and cells will shrink
c) water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will shrink
d) water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will swell
amount of sodium in the diet
The rate of uptake of sodium ion across the digestive membrane is directly proportional to the ________

a) loss of sodium in the feces
b) loss of sodium in the sweat
c) amount of sodium in the diet
d) loss of sodium in the urine
carbonic acid
Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form ______________

a) sulfuric acid
b) carbonic acid
c) carbon monoxide
d) hydrochloric acid
fall; carbon dioxide
Hyperventilation usually leads to a substantial ______ in the partial pressure of ______ in body fluids.

a) fall; oxygen
b) fall; carbon dioxide
c) rise; oxygen
d) rise; carbon dioxide
metabolic acidosis
Ketone bodies produced during severe diabetes mellitus often leads to ______.

a) respiratory alkalosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) metabolic alkalosis
d) respiratory acidosis
Both will produce a fixed number of gametes.
Which of these is NOT a similarity between the male and female reproductive systems?


a) Both possess erectile tissue.
b) Both will produce a fixed number of gametes.
c) Both secrete mucus.
d) Both produce gametes.
epididymis
The first organ that sperm pass through is the __________.


a) ejaculatory duct
b) ductus deferens
c) epididymis
c) prostate gland
interstitial cells
Which of these are NOT found in the seminiferous tubules?


a) primary spermatocytes
b) interstitial cells
c) spermatogonia
d) nurse cells
interstitial cells
Testosterone is produced by __________.


a) interstitial cells
b) primary spermatocytes
c) nurse cells
d) spermatogonia
vagina
Which of these is NOT part of the vulva?

a) vestibule
b) labia
c) vagina
d) clitoris
estradiol
The dominant ovarian hormone during the follicular phase is __________.


a) inhibin
b) relaxin
c) progesterone
d) estradiol
LH; ovulation
The secretion of the hormone __________ triggers __________.


a) FSH; menstruation
b) FSH; ovulation
c) LH; menstruation
d) LH; ovulation
Sexual arousal and orgasm in males and females are similar in all of these aspects.
Sexual arousal and orgasm in males and females share a number of similarities including __________.


a) rhythmic contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscles
b) control by the autonomic nervous system
c) engorgement of erectile tissue
d) Sexual arousal and orgasm in males and females are similar in all of these aspects.
a decrease in estradiol
The hormonal change most responsible for the tissue changes seen in menopause is _________.


a) a decrease in estradiol
b) an increase in LH
c) a decrease in LH
d) an increase in estradiol
a drop in testosterone but a rise in LH
At about age 50 to 60, men commonly experience __________.


a) a drop in testosterone but a rise in LH
b) a drop in both testosterone and LH
c) a rise in testosterone but a drop in LH
d) a rise in both testosterone and LH
conception to maturity
Development is the gradual modification of body form and function from __________.


a) conception to birth
b) conception to senescence
c) birth to maturity
d) conception to maturity
The contents block polyspermy.
Which of these statements about the contents of the acrosomal cap is FALSE?


a) The contents assist in fertilization.
b) The contents include hydrolases.
c) The contents digest the zona pellucida.
d) The contents block polyspermy.
the male and female pronuclei fuse
The zygote forms when __________.


a) the spermatozoan contacts the oocyte
b) sperm penetrates the oocyte
c) the male and female pronuclei fuse
d) the female pronucleus complete meiosis II
second trimester - embryogenesis
Which of these pairs of terms is mismatched?


a) first trimester - placentation
b) second trimester - embryogenesis
c) third trimester - largest size gain
d) second trimester - organogenesis
blastocyst; ovulation
Implantation of the __________ occurs about 7 days after __________.


a) zygote; fertilization
b) blastocyst; fertilization
c) blastocyst; ovulation
d) zygote; ovulation
All of these hormones are produced by the placenta
Which of these hormones is produced by the placenta?

a) progesterone
b) relaxin
c) human chorionic gonadotropin
d) All of these hormones are produced by the placenta.
progesterone
Which placental hormone keeps the myometrium relaxed during pregnancy?


a) progesterone
b) relaxin
c) placental lactogen
d) estrogen
parturition
The last stage of labor is __________.


a) dilation
b) parturition
c) loss of amniotic fluid
d) gestation
decreased secretion of GnRH
Which of these is NOT commonly observed at puberty?


a) increased secretion of steroids
b) decreased secretion of GnRH
c) initiation of gametogenesis
d) increased secretion of FSH
75 percent
If both mother and father are heterozygous for a trait showing simple dominance, what is the probability that one of their future children will show that trait?


a) 75 percent
b) 100 percent
c) 25 percent
d) zero percent
It moves urine through the urethra by peristalsis.
Which of these statements about the detrusor muscle is FALSE

a) It is composed of smooth muscle.
b) It contracts the wall of the urinary bladder.
c) It is innervated by parasympathetic nerves.
d) It moves urine through the urethra by peristalsis.
tip of the medullary pyramid
Which of the following descriptions best matches the term renal papilla?

a) final urine enters here
b) releases renin
c) creates high interstitial NaCl concentration
d) initial filtrate enters here
e) tip of the medullary pyramid
1200
Typical renal blood flow is about ________ ml/min under resting conditions.

a) 1200
b) 500
c) 2500
d) 1800
e) 800
vagina
Which of these organs is NOT part of the urinary system?

a) urethra
b) urinary bladder
c) vagina
d) ureter
diuretics
Agents that increase urine excretion are known as

a) muscarinic antagonists.
b) diuretics.
c) calcium channel blockers.
d) ADH agonists.
e) alpha-1 antagonists.
the glomerular (Bowman) capsule
The urinary filtrate first enters __________.

a) collecting tubule
b) renal papilla
c) proximal convoluted tubule
d) the glomerular (Bowman) capsule
anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
Which of these hormones is both produced by and acts upon the brain?

a) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
b) anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
c) aldosterone
d) angiotensin II
adjusting the volume of water lost in urine, releasing erythropoietin, and releasing renin.
The urinary system regulates blood volume and pressure by

a) releasing erythropoietin.
b) releasing renin.
c) adjusting the volume of water lost in urine.
d) adjusting the volume of water lost in urine, releasing erythropoietin, and releasing renin.
e) none of the above
bicarbonate ions
Which of these is not an organic waste found in urine?

a) urea
b) creatinine
c) uric acid
d) bicarbonate ions
urethra.
Urine is eliminated through the

a) kidney.
b) urinary bladder.
c) urethra.
d) liver.
e) ureter.
cardiovascular system
Which of these is NOT considered to be part of the excretory system?

a) cardiovascular system
b) respiratory system
c) urinary system
d) digestive system
active transport
A transport mechanism that can move a substance against a concentration gradient by using cellular energy is ________.
hilum
The prominent indentation on the medial surface of the kidney is the

a) pelvis.
b) ureter.
c) hilum.
d) calyx.
e) pyramid.
afferent arterioles
Blood is supplied to a nephron by its __________.

a) renal arteries
b) efferent arterioles
c) cortical radial arteries
d) afferent arterioles
increased sensitivity to aldosterone
Which of these changes is least likely as people age?

a) loss of sphincter tone
b) detrusor muscle weakness
c) loss of functional nephrons
d) increased sensitivity to aldosterone
collecting duct, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
Urine passes, in the order given, through which of the following structures?

a) renal pelvis, collecting duct, bladder, ureter, urethra
b) collecting duct, ureter, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder
c) renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter, collecting duct
d) collecting duct, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter
e) collecting duct, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
the ureters.
Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by

a) blood vessels.
b) the calyces.
c) lymphatics.
d) the ureters.
e) the urethra
aldosterone
Which of these hormones causes the kidney to increase the body's content of sodium?

a) epinephrine
b) aldosterone
c) cortisone
d) ADH
pyramids.
Triangular or conical structures located in the renal medulla are called

a) pyramids.
b) nephrons.
c) calyces.
d) renal columns.
e) renal pelvises.
hilum
The medial indentation on the exterior of the kidney were the ureter exits is called the __________.

a) pelvis
b) pyramid
c) calyx
d) hilum
blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure
The main force(s) opposing glomerular filtration is (are) __________.

a) blood hydrostatic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure
b) blood hydrostatic pressure
c) capsular hydrostatic pressure
d) blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure
proteins.
Each of the following is a normal constituent of urine, EXCEPT

a) hydrogen ions.
b) proteins.
c) urea.
d) amino acids.
e) creatinine.
a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle
A glomerulus is

a) attached to the collecting duct.
b) the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron.
c) the source of erythropoietin.
d) the expanded end of a nephron.
e) a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle.
It is opposed by the vasa recta.
Which of these is NOT a property of the renal counter-current multiplier?

a) It creates a hyperosmotic interstitial fluid in the kidney medulla.
b) It depends on active ion transport to function.
c) It is opposed by the vasa recta.
d) It exploits the structure of the nephron loop.
Both statements are false.
The proximal convoluted tubule recovers sodium from the glomerular filtrate by active transport; then it releases sodium into the peritubular fluid through passive channels. Are these two statements true or false?

a) Both statements are false.
b) The first statement is true; the second is false.
c) Both statements are true.
d) The first statement is false; the second is true.
bundles of tissue that extend between pyramids from the cortex.
Renal columns are

a) the basic functional units of the kidney.
b) expanded ends of the ureters.
c) internal cavities lined by the fibrous capsule.
d) bundles of tissue that extend between pyramids from the cortex.
e) conical structures that are located in the renal medulla.
decreased sensitivity to ADH
Which of these age-related changes most increases the risk of dehydration?

a) weak micturition reflex
b) reduced glomerular filtration
c) weak sphincter tone
d) decreased sensitivity to ADH
nitric oxide
Impotence, common in men as they age, can often be treated successfully by medicines that prolong the action of __________.

a) dihydrogen oxide
b) carbon dioxide
c) nitrous oxide
d) nitric oxide
paired gonads
To function properly, the reproductive system must possess all of these EXCEPT _________.


a) accessory secretions
b) paired gonads
c) external genitalia
d) reception and transport ducts
tertiary follicle
This causes a prominent bulge in the surface of the ovary.

a) theca interna
b) tertiary follicle
c) follicular node
d) seconary follicle
e) cortical gyrus
penis
The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the


penis

urethra

corpus spongiosum

ejaculatory duct

corpus cavernosum
ovulatin
The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of theovarian cycle triggers


ovulation

menstruation

menopause

follicle maturation

atresia
endometrium
The lumen of the uterus is line by the glandular ____.


endometrium

mesometrium

perimetrium

myometrium
tunica albuginea
The _____ is the dense connective tissue that surrounds each testis.

median raphe

tunica vaginalis

spermatic capsule

tunica albuginea
cervix
The inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is the

fundus

isthmus

body

fornix

cervix
luteinizing hormone
A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge in

luteinizing hormone

progesterone

estrogen

oxytocin

follicle-stimulating hormone
menarche
The first menses is called the ______.
oxytocin; adenohypophysis
Which of these reroductive system hormones is mismatched to its source?

LH; adenohypophysis

FSH; adenohypophysis

inhibin; gonads

oxytocin; adenohypophysis
none of these are differences in sexual function between men and women
Differences between men and women in sexual function include ______.

mucus secretion

engorgement of erectile tissues

rhythmic contraction of bulbospongiosus muscles

none of these are differences in sexual function between men and women
Emission of semen requires smooth muscle contraction in all of these organs.
Emission of semen depends on smooth muscle contraction in which of these organs?

seminal vesicle

prostate

ampulla

Emission of semen requires smooth muscle contraction in all of these organs.
estrogen
Many of the changes that accompany menopause are caused by the drop in the circulating levels of _______.

inhibin

estrogen

LH

FSH
circumcision
The surgical removal of the prepuce is called ____.
urinary
The male reproductive system is MOST closely associated with which of the following systems?


urinary

digestive

muscular

integumentary

endocrine
stimulates spermatogenesis and stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.
Follicle-stimulating hormone


stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.

stimulates spermatogenesis

stimulates the thyroid follicles

is important only in females

stimulates spermatogenesis and stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.
mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes ,and uterus
The broad ligament is BEST described as a ____.


mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes ,and uterus

pocket between the uterus and rectum

ligament that connects the lateral aspect of teh ovary to the pelvic peritoneum

mesentery that supports the ovary
all of the above
A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone ( an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After 3 weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe?


decreased levels of LH and FSH

decreased levels of GnRH

increased sex drive

all of the above

decreased levels of GnRH, LH and FSH
all of the above
The reproductive system


stores and transports gametes

nourishes gametes

produces gametes

all of the above

produces, stores and transports gametes
septa
Delicate projection from the tunica albuginea called ______ divide each testis into lobules.


seminiferous tubules

rete testis

straight tubules

septa
labia majora
Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the


fornices

labia majora

ampullae

vestibular arches

mons pubis
spermatogonia
Which of these is the oldest type of cell present in the testis?


spermatids

secondary spermatocytes

primary spermatocytes

spermatogonia
spermatocytes
When spermatogonia divide, the daugher cells are called ______.


spermatids

spermatocytes

spermatogonia

spermatozoa

sertoli cells
all of these are shared characteristics between the male and female reproductive systems
Which of these characteristics is NOT shared between the male and female reproductive systems?


the presence of gonads

the production of gametes

the experience of orgasm

all of these are shared characteristics between the male and female reproductive systems
uterus
The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the


uterus

cervix

vagina

uterine tube

ovary
nitric oxide
Impotence, common in men as they age, can often be treated successfully by medicines that prolong the action of _______.


nitrous oxide

nitric oxide

dihydrogen oxide

carbon dioxide
infundibulum
Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum?

isthmus

posterior segment

infundibulum

anterior segment

ampulla
meiosis
The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called


capacitation

maturation

fertilization

mitosis

meiosis
ovulation
The large and rapid rise of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the blood stream triggers ____.


follicle maturation

estrogen secretion

ovulation

menstruation
fundus
The rounded protion of the body of the uterus superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes is named the _____.


cervix

isthmus

fundus

fornix