The sobriety checkpoint schedule is approved and signed by whom?
People or organizations trying to gain information about military operations are categorized as what type of suspicious activity?
Passes for short term guests will be written for how long?
1 hour after 52 FW Services facilities (i.e. enlisted/officer clubs)
What is a Code-3?
During an ALPHA recall, who must report for duty?
All assigned personnel
In what locations do base curfew rules apply?
Spangdahlem AB and Eifel West Community Housing
If the seals of a U.S. Postal Service vehicle must be cut, it must be under the supervision of who?
What two aircraft should responding patrols block from the front and the rear?
What is the entire process of identifying and gathering evidence to determine whether or not a suspect should be apprehended for a DUI violation?
What number is needed on the Restricted Area Badge for a member to be authorized unescorted access to the Dispersed Aircraft Parking Area?
Open Area #7
What type of jurisdiction exists when both state and federal government have complete legislative authority?
What are the supporting techniques for the single badge entry into a restricted area?
Personal recognition, Signature/Credential check, EAL, Verification with BDOC
When clearing the interior of a vehicle or a building that has been exposed to blood or bodily fluids, what is the ratio of bleach to water solution used to clean?
What number is needed on the Restricted Area Badge for a member to be authorized unescorted access to the Installation Control Center?
Open Area #10
In accordance with the squadron policy statement on blood borne pathogens, all member medical information will be regarded as what?
True or False. During pre-exit tests, you may have the suspect recite the alphabet in reverse if he/she is able to.
Intoxication that is sufficient to impair the rational and full exercise of mental or physical facilities is the definition of what?
Drunk and/or Impaired
What is Code-14?
Any attempt to measure reaction times to security breaches or to penetrate physical security barriers in order to assess strengths and weaknesses is categorized as what type of suspicious activity?
Test of security
What is Code-2?
A person who suffers direct or threatened physical, emotional or financial harm as a result of an offense is a classified as a what?
The last chance to alert authorities before a terrorist attack occurs, occurs during which type of suspicious activity?
EALs must contain what information?
Name, rank, last 6 of SSN, organization, badge number, clearance level, dates of visit, and expiration date
If a PL II aircraft remains overnight, at a minimum, how many lights all units will be used and how will they be positioned?
4 light all units and they will be facing away
On weekends and non-school days, what is the curfew for children 12 years of age and under?
2200 to 0500
What jurisdiction do we use here at Spangdahlem AB and Bitburg Annex?
Who can authenticate crew orders?
Security Forces E-5 or above
What two aircraft should responding SF members not park in front of and the right of respectively?
Actually passing or receiving the duress word will be considered what type of duress?
German nationals requesting entry must produce one of the following?
What form is used to document authorization to search?
The code word for an unauthorized aircraft movement?
It is squadron policy to regard all bodily fluids as what?
What number is needed on the Restricted Area Badge for a member to be authorized unescorted access to the Temporary Dispersed Aircraft Parking Area when PL resources are present?
Open Area #8
What area in the LVIS is used to gather information about the driver and check documentation.
True or False. A person involved in an offense as a co-conspirator, accomplice or principal may be included as a witness.
What is the second task of Phase-1/Vehicle in Motion?
Observe the stopping sequence
What is the single most common source of HBV/HIV in the workplace?
True or False. When disinfecting surfaces, a 1:1000 solution of bleach will be used.
Who is ultimately responsible for your health, when dealing with occupational health hazards?
True or False. During maintenance non-duty hours, pre-announcement to an aircraft hangar/area is not required.
Individuals transporting classified material outside of the installation must have what in their possession?
DD Form 2501/Courier Authorization Card or Courier Authorization Letter
The LVIS will be established in a remote location at least how many feet from any inhabited areas or areas containing PL 1-3 resources.
Who will conduct searches of hand-carried items of an individual that is being escorted into the restricted area?
Yes or No. If the guest to the installation is less than 10 years old, do they need an adult to accompany him/her?
When someone is noncompliant with established procedures, it will be considered what type of duress?
What agency executes the Eagle Eyes program?
The "Count Down Test" requires a person suspected of DUI to count aloud a minimum of how many numbers in reverse sequence?
During an ALPHA recall, personnel must be in route within how many minutes of receiving the notification?
What number is needed on the Restricted Area Badge for a member to be authorized unescorted access to the Non-Nuclear Munitions Storage Area?
Open Area #9
What are the post limits while posted as an Installation Entry Controller?
What type of jurisdiction exists when both State and Federal government have some legislative authority?
What must a SF member have to apprehend an individual for a DUI?
Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks (RIEVC) are random "checks" directed and authorized by whom?
What form is used to release detained persons to appropriate unit personnel?
DD FM 2708
The use of cameras, note taking, drawing diagrams or using binoculars are categorized as what type of suspicious activity?
When SF has security over a hangar/area, how often will random checks be conducted?
True or False. USAFE/IG members are allowed to act as escort officials or two-person concept team members. False
True or False. Children under the age of 13, who are unaccompanied, are permitted to proceed directly to their homes for authorized base activities, such as chapel services, athletic events and youth services.
On summer vacation, what is the curfew for children 13 through 17 years of age?
0030 - 0500
During a BRAVO recall who must report for duty?
Selected personnel in key positions
When transporting contaminated evidence such as blood and bodily fluids, how will they be marked?
The most important and difficult task in the DUI enforcement effort is what?
A person who has information or evidence of a crime and provides that information or evidence to a USAF official called a what?
Based on the fear of being apprehended, this approach is used to reduce the number of intoxicated drivers.
Who is the only agency that can allow a defector access to the installation.
True or False. Passengers are allowed to have open alcohol containers while in a vehicle off base.
Who will determine whether or not to terminate RIEVCs due to inclement weather or for any other issue?
What number is needed on the Restricted Area Badge for a member to be authorized unescorted access to the Air Mobility Command Ramp?
Open Area #13
On school days, curfew for children 13 through 17 years of age is what?
2330 to 0500
True or False. When apprehending an individual, it is not common to be exposed to any bodily fluids.
Asking for two things simultaneously, interrupting or distracting questions and asking random questions are covered under which pre-exit test?
Question and answer test
Via the AF FM 75, how long can qualified long term guests be issued passes?
1 to 3 days
How old must a sponsor be to sign a visitor on the installation?
18 years of age
True or False. When there is an alarm activation containing AA&E, you will close out-bound and filter flow in-bound.
What is the first phase of DUI detection?
Vehicle in motion
What is the second phase of DUI detection?
What three senses do you use to gather evidence during a possible DUI?
Sight, Smell and Hearing
What are the Pre-exit tests?
Question & Answer, Alphabet, Count down, and Finger Touch test
What are the four phases to a major accident?
Notification, Response, Withdrawal and Recovery
During the notification phase of a major accident, what wing level command center will be notified to stand-up and implement operations?
Emergency Operations Center
What will you as an installation entry controller implement upon notification of a barricaded suspect?
Stop, check and pass on outbound lanes and filter flow for inbound traffic
Who has been appointed as the military magistrate?
If hazardous materials are present during a major accident, response elements will withdraw in what direction?
Potentially contaminated vehicles, equipment and personnel should be held at an initial monitoring point no closer than how far from the ECP within the cordon?
SF may obtain verbal search authority and complete the AF FM 1176 within how many hours?
True or False. If a defector refuses to surrender a weapon, they will be allowed to keep it.
What legislation prevents the use of any part of the Federal Armed Forces to execute the laws of the United States except when acting under the authority of an act of Congress or when directed by the President of the United States?
Posse Commitatus Act
What type of martial law exists when military forces exercise police powers until order is restores and civil authorities maintain control over all other functions?
Qualified Martial Law
What type of martial law exists when there is a total replacement of civil authorities by military authority?
Absolute Martial Law
True or False. Spangdahlem Air Base exercises Proprietary Jurisdiction in restricted areas.
What types of jurisdiction are to be found on United States government installations?
Exclusive, Partial, Concurrent, and Proprietary
The DoD has required all victims/witnesses of all crimes be issued what?
Victim Information Advisory letter and a DD Form 2701
A victims rights are outlined under what legislation?
The Federal Crime Victims Bill of Rights (VWAP)
True or False. The 52 FW/CC has designated mission essential daily delivery, contractor or commercial vendor vehicles exempt from search?
For gate runner procedures, how many times will you yell "Runner?
During a gate runner situation, a minimum of how many Security Forces members are required to challenge the vehicle?
In regards to restricted area entry, for personnel recognition to be valid, the EC must know what things about the person?
The individual's rank, first and last name, unit of assignment and duty section
If during a RIEVCs an individual is not in possession of valid credentials to transport classified materials, what should the entry controller do?
Notify the BDOC and detain the individual until authorization is verified
How long are passes issued for short-term guests?
It will be valid for 1 hour after 52 FW Services facilities (i.e. enlisted/officer clubs) close
To enter the installation, an individual must possess certain credentials. Name five forms of identification to gain authorized access to the installation:
DD Fm 2/CAC (any series) DD Fm 1173/Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card DD Fm 1173-1/DOD Guard and Reserve Military ID Cards (Tan) USAFE Fm 77/USAFE Base Entry Identification USAFE Fm 79/USAFE Contractor Pass AF Fm 75/Visitor Pass (must be supported by some other means of photo ID) AF Fm 354/Civilian Identification Card USAREUR/USAFE Installation Access Control System Pass
USAFE Fm 174/NATO Military ID Card (Luxemburg Police Forces are considered NATO military)
DOD issued ID Cards AFOSI Fm 59A DIENSTAUS WEISS (This ID card is issued to employees of German
government agencies and used in performance of official duties only) when identified as a member of one of the following agencies:
Crew orders may be used as EALs for transient aircraft if supported by what?
Home base AF Form 1199 series RAB and Common Access Card (CAC) with properly authenticated TDY orders or a properly authenticated EAL
Define Protection Level 1 (PL 1) resources.
Assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States
Define Protection Level 2 (PL 2) Resources.
Assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the warfighting capability of the United States
Define Protection Level 3 (PL 3) Resources.
Assets for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage US war fighting technology.
Define Protection Level 4 (PL 4) Resources.
Assets which do not meet the definitions of PL 1, 2, or 3 resources as discussed in the preceding paragraphs, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force
What is the definition of a Physical Security Incident?
An unclassified message relayed by BDOC to the installation command post identifying an unusual incident, possibly hostile, affecting Protection Level 1, 2, or 3 resources at an installation or dispersed site
Upon notification of an unauthorized aircraft landing, what will ISRTs accomplish within the restricted area?
SF will attempt to intercept and block the aircraft as soon as possible
Who identifies an aircraft hijack or unauthorized movement?
Mission Operations Center (MOC)
Who notifies BDOC anytime aircraft will be parked/staged outside of a permanent restricted area?
Mission Operations Center (MOC)
Who is responsible for the security of aircraft during maintenance duty hours?
If owner/user personnel depart the aircraft area/hangar, it must be secured and the mobile patrol will conduct random checks of the PL 3 aircraft parking area/hangar not to exceed how long?
Every four hours
What is the response time for Raven-1 in the 480th and 81st FS area?
Not to exceed 5 minutes
What form is used to document a chain of custody for all personnel who handle evidence such as a mutilated RAB?
AF Form 52
True or False. The decision to use one AF Form 52 per item or to record several items per form is a decision based on the circumstances of the acquisition?
What is a down-channel alerting order which sets in motion an increase in readiness posture?
FPCON Alerting Messages (FPCAMs)
What is a COVERED WAGON?
A report that inform HHQ that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site
Authority to terminate a COVERED WAGON may not be delegated lower than who?
The Defense Force Commander (DFC)
Its the taking of a person into custody
Military suspects are read their rights IAW what?
Article 31 of the UCMJ
Civilian suspects are read their rights IAW what?
5th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution
What is the purpose of RIEVCs?
To protect the security of installation, to protect government property, and to prevent theft.
Why are Installation Entry Controllers considered Air Force Ambassadors?
They are the first point of contact for the public
What does the public often judge an entire installation by?
The Installation Entry Controller's appearance and performance
What types of vehicles are authorized within a restricted area?
Rental vehicles used for official military duties in lieu of government vehicles, and contractor/delivery company vehicles, whom the Installation Commander has authorized entry through established procedures may drive or park in Restricted Areas
How are duress codes used?
They are designed to fit into normal conversation without raising any suspicions
Why are duress codes established?
They are used in maintaining the integrity of restricted areas
Who should know duress codes?
All personnel who work in or who are authorized to enter restricted areas must know the duress codes
What gives you the authority to apprehend military members?
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
What is the purpose of a challenge?
The purpose of challenging an individual is to determine "friend from foe" and make a positive identification.
Once you determine you have reason to challenge someone, what must you do?
Use your radio to notify the BDOC and request backup if deemed necessary
What is the final step in the handcuffing procedure?
How is an Emergency Response Code used to enter a restricted area?
EXAMPLE If the number of the month is 7, the EC will display a portion of the number by either saying or holding up 3 fingers. The responding personnel will reply or display 4 fingers making a total of 7.
Upon notification of an Active Shooter incident, what are your actions at an installation entry control point?
Immediately secure the gate and not let any individual leave or enter
What type of situation is defined as a person or persons who are actively causing serious bodily harm and/or deadly physical force on other person(s) within the confines of SAB or Bitburg Annex and continue to do so while having unrestricted access to additional victims?