Lewis Ch 50 Nursing Management: Endocrine Problems NCLEX
Terms in this set (38)
A patient suspected of having acromegaly has an elevated plasma growth hormone (GH) level. In acromegaly, what would the nurse also expect the patient's diagnostic results to indicate?
b. Plasma glucose of <70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L)
c. Decreased GH levels with an oral glucose challenge test
d. Elevated levels of plasma insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)
d. A normal response to growth hormone (GH) secretion is stimulation of the liver to produce somatomedin C, or insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), which stimulates growth of bones and soft tissues. The increased levels of somatomedin C normally inhibit GH but in acromegaly the pituitary gland secretes GH despite elevated IGF-1 levels. When both GH and IGF-1 levels are increased, overproduction of GH is confirmed. GH also causes elevation of blood glucose and normally GH levels fall during an oral glucose challenge but not in acromegaly.
2. During assessment of the patient with acromegaly, what should the nurse expect the patient to report?
b. Dry, irritated skin
c. Undesirable changes in appearance
d. An increase in height of 2 to 3 inches a year
2. c. The increased production of GH in acromegaly causes an increase in thickness and width of bones and enlargement of soft tissues, resulting in marked changes in facial features, oily and coarse skin, and speech difficulties. Infertility is not a common finding because GH is usually the only pituitary hormone involved in acromegaly. Height is not increased in adults with GH excess because the epiphyses of the bones are closed.
3. A patient with acromegaly is treated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. What should the nurse do postoperatively?
a. Ensure that any clear nasal drainage is tested for glucose.
b. Maintain the patient flat in bed to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage.
c. Assist the patient with toothbrushing every 4 hours to keep the surgical area clean.
d. Encourage deep breathing, coughing, and turning to prevent respiratory complications.
a. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves entry into the sella turcica through an incision in the upper lip and gingiva into the floor of the nose and the sphenoid sinuses. Postoperative clear nasal drainage with glucose content indicates cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from an open connection to the brain, putting the patient at risk for meningitis. After surgery, the patient is positioned with the head elevated to avoid pressure on the sella turcica. Coughing and straining are avoided to prevent increased intracranial pressure and CSF leakage. Although mouth care is required every 4 hours, toothbrushing should not be performed because injury to the suture line may occur.
4. What findings are commonly found in a patient with a prolactinoma?
a. Gynecomastia in men
b. Profuse menstruation in women
c. Excess follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
d. Signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting
4. d. Compression of the optic chiasm can cause visual problems as well as signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, and vomiting. About 30% of prolactinomas will have excess prolactin secretion with manifestations of impotence in men, galactorrhea or amenorrhea in women without relationship to pregnancy, and decreased libido in both men and women. There is decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
5. An African American woman with a history of breast cancer has panhypopituitarism from radiation therapy for primary pituitary tumors. Which medications should the nurse teach her about needing for the rest of her life (select all that apply)?
c. Sex hormones
d. Levothyroxine (Synthyroid)
e. Growth hormone (somatropin [Omnitrope])
f. Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine [Parlodel])
5. a, b, d, e. With panhypopituitarism, lifetime hormone replacement is needed for cortisol, vasopressin, thyroid, and GH. Sex hormones will not be replaced because of the patient's history of breast cancer. Dopamine agonists will not be used because they reduce secretion of GH, which has already been achieved with the radiation.
6. The patient is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
a. Decreased body weight
b. Decreased urinary output
c. Increased plasma osmolality
d. Increased serum sodium levels
6. b. With increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH), the permeability of the renal distal tubules is increased, so water is reabsorbed into circulation. Decreased output of concentrated urine with increased urine osmolality and specific gravity occur. In addition, fluid retention with weight gain, serum hypoosmolality, dilutional hyponatremia, and hypochloremia occur.
7. During care of the patient with SIADH, what should the nurse do?
a. Monitor neurologic status at least every 2 hours.
b. Teach the patient receiving treatment with diuretics to restrict sodium intake.
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to prevent antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release.
d. Notify the health care provider if the patient's blood pressure decreases more than 20 mm Hg from baseline.
7. a. The patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has marked dilutional hyponatremia and should be monitored for decreased neurologic function and seizures every 2 hours. Sodium intake is supplemented because of the hyponatremia and sodium loss caused by diuretics. ADH release is reduced by keeping the head of the bed flat to increase left atrial filling pressure. A reduction in blood pressure (BP) indicates a reduction in total fluid volume and is an expected outcome of treatment.
8. A patient with SIADH is treated with water restriction. What does the patient experience when the nurse determines that treatment has been effective?
a. Increased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity
b. Increased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity
c. Decreased urine output, increased serum sodium, and decreased urine specific gravity
d. Decreased urine output, decreased serum sodium, and increased urine specific gravity
8. b. The patient with SIADH has water retention with hyponatremia, decreased urine output, and concentrated urine with high specific gravity. Improvement in the patient's condition is reflected by increased urine output, normalization of serum sodium, and more water in the urine, thus decreasing the specific gravity.
The patient with diabetes insipidus is brought to the emergency department with confusion and dehydration after excretion of a large volume of urine today even though several liters of fluid were drunk. What is a diagnostic test that the nurse should expect to be done to help make a diagnosis?
a. Blood glucose
b. Serum sodium level
c. Urine specific gravity
d. Computed tomography (CT) of the head
9. c. Patients with diabetes insipidus (DI) excrete large amounts of urine with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Blood glucose would be tested to diagnose diabetes mellitus. The serum sodium level is expected to be low with DI but is not diagnostic. To diagnose central DI a water deprivation test is required. Then a CT of the head may be done to determine the cause. Nephrogenic DI is differentiated from central DI with determination of the level of ADH after an analog of ADH is given.
10. In a patient with central diabetes insipidus, what will the administration of ADH during a water deprivation test result in?
a. Decrease in body weight
b. Increase in urinary output
c. Decrease in blood pressure
d. Increase in urine osmolality
10. d. A patient with central diabetes insipidus has a deficiency of ADH with excessive loss of water from the kidney, hypovolemia, hypernatremia, and dilute urine with a low specific gravity. When vasopressin is administered, the symptoms are reversed, with water retention, decreased urinary output that increases urine osmolality, and an increase in BP.
11. A patient with diabetes insipidus is treated with nasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The nurse determines that the drug is not having an adequate therapeutic effect when the patient experiences
a. headache and weight gain.
b. nasal irritation and nausea.
c. a urine specific gravity of 1.002.
d. an oral intake greater than urinary output.
c. Normal urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.025 and urine with a specific gravity of 1.002 is very dilute, indicating that there continues to be excessive loss of water and that treatment of diabetes insipidus is inadequate. Headache, weight gain, and oral intake greater than urinary output are signs of volume excess that occur with overmedication. Nasal irritation and nausea may also indicate overdosage.
12. When caring for a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse expect the treatment to include?
a. Fluid restriction
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. A high-sodium diet
d. Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
12. b. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the kidney is unable to respond to ADH, so vasopressin or hormone analogs are not effective. Thiazide diuretics slow the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the kidney and produce a decrease in urine output. Low-sodium diets (<3 g/day) are also thought to decrease urine output. Fluids are not restricted because the patient could easily become dehydrated.
13. What characteristic is related to Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
a. Enlarged thyroid gland
b. Viral-induced hyperthyroidism
c. Bacterial or fungal infection of thyroid gland
d. Chronic autoimmune thyroiditis with antibody destruction of thyroid tissue
13. d. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, thyroid tissue is destroyed by autoimmune antibodies. An enlarged thyroid gland is a goiter. Viral-induced hyperthyroidism is subacute granulomatous thyroiditis. Acute thyroiditis is caused by bacterial or fungal infection.
14. Which statement accurately describes Graves' disease?
a. Exophthalmos occurs in Graves' disease.
b. It is an uncommon form of hyperthyroidism.
c. Manifestations of hyperthyroidism occur from tissue desensitization to the sympathetic nervous system.
d. Diagnostic testing in the patient with Graves' disease will reveal an increased thyroid-stimulating hormone
14. a. Exophthalmos or protrusion of the eyeballs may occur in Graves' disease from increased fat deposits and fluid in the orbital tissues and ocular muscles, forcing the eyeballs outward. Graves' disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism. Increased metabolic rate and sensitivity of the sympathetic nervous system lead to the clinical manifestations. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is decreased in Graves' disease.
15. A patient with Graves' disease asks the nurse what caused the disorder. What is the best response by the nurse?
a. "The cause of Graves' disease is not known, although it is thought to be genetic."
b. "It is usually associated with goiter formation from an iodine deficiency over a long period of time."
c. "Antibodies develop against thyroid tissue and destroy it, causing a deficiency of thyroid hormones."
d. "In genetically susceptible persons, antibodies are formed that cause excessive thyroid hormone secretion."
15. d. In Graves' disease, antibodies to the TSH receptor are formed, attach to the receptors, and stimulate the thyroid gland to release triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), or both, creating hyperthyroidism. The disease is not directly genetic but individuals appear to have a genetic susceptibility to develop autoimmune antibodies. Goiter formation from insufficient iodine intake is usually associated with hypothyroidism.
16. A patient is admitted to the hospital with thyrotoxicosis. On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find?
a. Hoarseness and laryngeal stridor
b. Bulging eyeballs and dysrhythmias
c. Elevated temperature and signs of heart failure
d. Lethargy progressing suddenly to impairment of consciousness
16. c. A hyperthyroid crisis results in marked manifestations of hyperthyroidism, with severe tachycardia, heart failure, shock, hyperthermia, restlessness, irritability, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, delirium, and coma. Although exophthalmos may be present in the patient with Graves' disease, it is not a significant factor in hyperthyroid crisis. Hoarseness and laryngeal stridor are characteristic of the tetany of hypoparathyroidism and lethargy progressing to coma is characteristic of myxedema coma, a complication of hypothyroidism.
17. What medication is used with thyrotoxicosis to block the effects of the sympathetic nervous stimulation of the thyroid hormones?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Atenolol (Tenormin)
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
d. Radioactive iodine (RAI)
17. b. The β-adrenergic blocker atenolol is used to block
the sympathetic nervous system stimulation by thyroid
hormones. Potassium iodide is used to prepare the patient for thyroidectomy or for treatment of thyrotoxic crisis to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Antithyroid medications inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine (RAI) therapy destroys thyroid tissue, which limits thyroid hormone secretion.
Which characteristics describe the use of RAI (select all that apply)?
a. Often causes hypothyroidism over time
b. Decreases release of thyroid hormones
c. Blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
d. Treatment of choice in nonpregnant adults
e. Decreases thyroid secretion by damaging thyroid gland
f. Often used with iodine to produce euthyroid before surgery
18. a, d, e. RAI causes hypothyroidism over time by damaging thyroid tissue and is the treatment of choice for nonpregnant adults. Potassium iodide decreases the release of thyroidhormones and decreases the size of the thyroid gland preoperatively. Propylthiouracil (PTU) blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 and may be used with iodine to produce a euthyroid state before surgery.
19. What preoperative instruction should the nurse give to the patient scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy?
a. How to support the head with the hands when turning in bed
b. Coughing should be avoided to prevent pressure on the incision
c. Head and neck will need to remain immobile until the incision heals
d. Any tingling around the lips or in the fingers after surgery is expected and temporary
a. To prevent strain on the suture line postoperatively, the patient's head must be manually supported while turning and moving in bed but range-of-motion exercises for the head and neck are also taught preoperatively to be gradually implemented after surgery. There is no contraindication for coughing and deep breathing and these should be carried out postoperatively. Tingling around the lips or fingers is a sign of hypocalcemia, which may occur if the parathyroid glands are inadvertently removed during surgery. This sign should be reported immediately.
20. As a precaution for vocal cord paralysis from damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve during thyroidectomy surgery, what equipment should be in the room in case it is needed for this emergency situation?
a. Tracheostomy tray
b. Oxygen equipment
c. IV calcium gluconate
d. Paper and pencil for communication
20. a. A tracheostomy tray is in the room to use if vocal cord paralysis occurs from recurrent laryngeal nerve damage or for laryngeal stridor from tetany. The oxygen equipment may be useful but will not improve oxygenation with vocal cord paralysis without a tracheostomy. IV calcium salts will be used if hypocalcemia occurs from parathyroid damage. The paper and pencil for communication may be helpful, especially if a tracheostomy is performed, but will not aid in emergency oxygenation of the patient.
21. When providing discharge instructions to a patient who had a subtotal thyroidectomy for hyperthyroidism, what should the nurse teach the patient?
a. Never miss a daily dose of thyroid replacement therapy.
b. Avoid regular exercise until thyroid function is normalized.
c. Use warm saltwater gargles several times a day to relieve throat pain.
d. Substantially reduce caloric intake compared to what was eaten before surgery.
21. d. With the decrease in thyroid hormone postoperatively, calories need to be reduced substantially to prevent weight gain. When a patient has had a subtotal thyroidectomy, thyroid replacement therapy is not given because exogenous hormone
inhibits pituitary production of TSH and delays or prevents the restoration of thyroid tissue regeneration. Regular exercise stimulates the thyroid gland and is encouraged. Saltwater gargles are used for dryness and irritation of the mouth and throat following radioactive iodine therapy.
22. What is a cause of primary hypothyroidism in adults?
a. Malignant or benign thyroid nodules
b. Surgical removal or failure of the pituitary gland
c. Surgical removal or radiation of the thyroid gland
d. Autoimmune-induced atrophy of the thyroid gland
22. d. Both Graves' disease and Hashimoto's thyroiditis are autoimmune disorders that eventually destroy the thyroid gland, leading to primary hypothyroidism. Thyroid tumors most often result in hyperthyroidism. Secondary hypothyroidism occurs as a result of pituitary failure and iatrogenic hypothyroidism results from thyroidectomy or radiation of the thyroid gland.
23. The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of fatigue for a patient who is hypothyroid. What should the nurse do while caring for this patient?
a. Monitor for changes in orientation, cognition, and behavior.
b. Monitor for vital signs and cardiac rhythm response to activity.
c. Monitor bowel movement frequency, consistency, shape, volume, and color.
d. Assist in developing well-balanced meal plans consistent with level of energy expenditure.
23. b. Cardiorespiratory response to activity is important to monitor in this patient to determine the effect of activities and plan activity increases. Monitoring changes in orientation, cognition, and behavior are interventions for impaired memory. Monitoring bowels is needed to plan care for the patient with constipation. Assisting with meal planning will help the patient with imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements to lose weight if needed.
24. Priority Decision: When replacement therapy is started for a patient with long-standing hypothyroidism, what is most important for the nurse to monitor the patient for?
b. Weight loss
24. d. All these manifestations may occur with treatment of hypothyroidism. However, as a result of the effects of hypothyroidism on the cardiovascular system, when thyroid replacement therapy is started myocardial oxygen consumption is increased and the resultant oxygen demand may cause angina, cardiac dysrhythmias, and heart failure, so monitoring for dysrhythmias is most important.
25. A patient with hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine (Synthroid). What should the nurse include when teaching the patient about this therapy?
a. Explain that alternate-day dosage may be used if side effects occur.
b. Provide written instruction for all information related to the drug therapy.
c. Assure the patient that a return to normal function will occur with replacement therapy.
d. Inform the patient that the drug must be taken until the hormone balance is reestablished.
25. b. Because of the mental sluggishness, inattentiveness, and memory loss that occur with hypothyroidism, it is important to provide written instructions and repeat information when teaching the patient. Replacement therapy must be taken for life and alternate-day dosing is not therapeutic. Although most patients return to a normal state with treatment, cardiovascular conditions and psychoses may persist.
26. A patient who recently had a calcium oxalate renal stone had a bone density study, which showed a decrease in her bone density. What endocrine problem could this patient have?
c. Cushing syndrome
26. d. The patient with hyperparathyroidism may have calcium nephrolithiasis, skeletal pain, decreased bone density, psychomotor retardation, or cardiac dysrhythmias. The other endocrine problems would not be related to calcium kidney stones or decreased bone density.
What is an appropriate nursing intervention for the patient with hyperparathyroidism?
a. Pad side rails as a seizure precaution.
b. Increase fluid intake to 3000 to 4000 mL daily.
c. Maintain bed rest to prevent pathologic fractures.
d. Monitor the patient for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
b. A high fluid intake is indicated in hyperparathyroidism to dilute the hypercalcemia and flush the kidneys so that calcium stone formation is reduced. Seizures are not associated with hyperparathyroidism. Impending tetany of hypoparathyroidism after parathyroidectomy can be noted with Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. The patient with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for pathologic fractures resulting from decreased bone density but mobility is encouraged to promote bone calcification.
28. A patient has been diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. What manifestations should the nurse expect to observe (select all that apply)?
a. Skeletal pain
b. Dry, scaly skin
c. Personality changes
d. Abdominal cramping
e. Cardiac dysrhythmias
f. Muscle spasms and stiffness
28. b, c, d, e, f. In hypoparathyroidism the patient has
inadequate circulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) that leads to hypocalcemia from the inability to maintain serum calcium levels. With hypocalcemia there is muscle stiffness and spasms, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and abdominal cramps. There can also be personality and visual changes and dry, scaly skin.
29. When the patient with parathyroid disease experiences symptoms of hypocalcemia, what is a measure that can be used to temporarily raise serum calcium levels?
a. Administer IV normal saline.
b. Have patient rebreathe in a paper bag.
c. Administer furosemide (Lasix) as ordered.
d. Administer oral phosphorus supplements.
29. b. Rebreathing in a paper bag promotes carbon dioxide retention in the blood, which lowers pH and creates an acidosis. An acidemia enhances the solubility and ionizationof calcium, increasing the proportion of total body calcium available in physiologically active form and relieving the symptoms of hypocalcemia. Saline promotes calcium excretion, as does furosemide. Phosphate levels in the blood are reciprocal to calcium and an increase in phosphate promotes calcium excretion.
30. A patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting from surgical treatment of hyperparathyroidism is preparing for discharge. What should the nurse teach the patient?
a. Milk and milk products should be increased in the diet.
b. Parenteral replacement of parathyroid hormone will be required for life.
c. Calcium supplements with vitamin D can effectively maintain calcium balance.
d. Bran and whole-grain foods should be used to prevent GI effects of replacement therapy.
30. c. The hypocalcemia that results from PTH deficiency is controlled with calcium and vitamin D supplementation and possibly oral phosphate binders. Replacement with PTH is not used because of antibody formation to PTH, the need for parenteral administration, and cost. Milk products, although good sources of calcium, also have high levels of phosphate,
which reduce calcium absorption. Whole grains and foods containing oxalic acid also impair calcium absorption.
31. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find?
a. Hypertension, peripheral edema, and petechiae
b. Weight loss, buffalo hump, and moon face with acne
c. Abdominal and buttock striae, truncal obesity, and hypotension
d. Anorexia, signs of dehydration, and hyperpigmentation of the skin
31. a. The effects of adrenocortical hormone excess,
especially glucocorticoid excess, include weight gain from accumulation and redistribution of adipose tissue, sodium and water retention, glucose intolerance, protein wasting,loss of bone structure, loss of collagen, and capillary fragility leading to petechiae. Clinical manifestations of adrenocortical hormone deficiency include hypotension, dehydration, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin.
32. A patient is scheduled for a bilateral adrenalectomy. During the postoperative period, what should the nurse expect related to the administration of corticosteroids?
a. Reduced to promote wound healing
b. Withheld until symptoms of hypocortisolism appear
c. Increased to promote an adequate response to the stress of surgery
d. Reduced because excessive hormones are released during surgical manipulation of adrenal glands
32. c. Although the patient with Cushing syndrome has excess corticosteroids, removal of the glands and the stress of surgery require that high doses of corticosteroids (cortisone) be administered postoperatively for several days before weaning the dose. The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs postoperatively to detect whether large amounts of hormones were released during surgical manipulation, obtain morning urine specimens for cortisol measurement to evaluate the effectiveness of the surgery, and provide dressing changes with aseptic technique to avoid infection as usual inflammatory responses are suppressed.
33. A patient with Addison's disease comes to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. What collaborative care should the nurse expect?
a. IV administration of vasopressors
b. IV administration of hydrocortisone
c. IV administration of D5W with 20 mEq KCl
d. Parenteral injections of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
33. b. Vomiting and diarrhea are early indicators of Addisonian crisis and fever indicates an infection, which is causing additional stress for the patient. Treatment of a crisis requires immediate glucocorticoid replacement and IV hydrocortisone, fluids, sodium, and glucose are necessary for 24 hours. Addison's disease is a primary insufficiency of the adrenal gland and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is not effective, nor would vasopressors be effective with the fluid deficiency of Addison's disease. Potassium levels are increased in Addison's disease and KCl would be contraindicated.
34. During discharge teaching for the patient with Addison's disease, which statement by the patient indicates that the nurse needs to do additional teaching?
a. "I should always call the doctor if I develop vomiting or diarrhea."
b. "If my weight goes down, my dosage of steroid is probably too high."
c. "I should double or triple my steroid dose if I undergo rigorous physical exercise."
d. "I need to carry an emergency kit with injectable hydrocortisone in case I can't take my medication by mouth."
b. A weight reduction in the patient with Addison's disease may indicate a fluid loss and a dose of replacement therapy that is too low rather than too high. Because vomiting and diarrhea are early signs of crisis and because fluid and electrolytes must be replaced, patients should notify their health care provider if these symptoms occur. Patients with Addison's disease are taught to take two to three times their usual dose of steroids if they become ill, have teeth extracted, or engage in rigorous physical activity and should always have injectablehydrocortisone available if oral doses cannot be taken.
35. A patient who is on corticosteroid therapy for treatment of an autoimmune disorder has the following additional drugs ordered. Which one is used to prevent corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis?
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Alendronate (Fosamax)
d. Pantoprazole (Protonix)
35. c. Alendronate (Fosamax) is used to prevent corticosteroidinduced osteoporosis. Potassium is used to prevent the mineralocorticoid effect of hypokalemia. Furosemide (Lasix) is used to decrease sodium and fluid retention from the mineralocorticoid effect. Pantoprazole (Protonix) is used to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) irritation from an increase in secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid.
A patient with mild iatrogenic Cushing syndrome is on an alternate-day regimen of corticosteroid therapy. What does the nurse explain to the patient about this regimen?
a. It maintains normal adrenal hormone balance.
b. It prevents ACTH release from the pituitary gland.
c. It minimizes hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression.
d. It provides a more effective therapeutic effect of the drug.
36. c. Taking corticosteroids on an alternate-day schedule for pharmacologic purposes is less likely to suppress ACTH production from the pituitary and prevent adrenal atrophy. Normal adrenal hormone balance is not maintained during glucocorticoid therapy because excessive exogenous hormone is used.
37. When caring for a patient with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would question a health care provider's prescription for which drug?
a. Furosemide (Lasix)
b. Amiloride (Midamor)
c. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
d. Aminoglutethimide (Cytadren)
37. a. Hyperaldosteronism is an excess of aldosterone, which is manifested by sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that would increase the potassium deficiency. Aminoglutethimide blocks aldosterone synthesis. Spironolactone and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretics.
38. Priority Decision: What is the priority nursing intervention during the management of the patient with pheochromocytoma?
a. Administering IV fluids
b. Monitoring blood pressure
c. Administering β-adrenergic blockers
d. Monitoring intake and output and daily weights
38. b. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor of the adrenal medulla, which may cause severe, episodic hypertension; severe, pounding headache; and profuse sweating. Monitoring for a dangerously high BP before surgery is critical, as is monitoring for BP fluctuations during medical and surgical treatment.