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NAVEDTRA 14324A, GUNNERS MATE CHAPT 4-10

Terms in this set (173)

WEAPONS SYSTEMS CONSIST OF HOW MANY MAJOR EQUIPMENT AREAS
4
what is the science that deals with the motion of air and other gases
aerodynamics
what are the principal forces acting on a missile in level flight
drag, thrust, weight, and lift
what is the force that propels the missile forwardat speeds sufficient to sustain flight
thrust
what is the resistance offered by the air to the passage of the missile throught it
drag
what is an upward force the supports the missile in flight
lift
lift is produced by means of what
pressure differences
the airfoil that provides the greatest lift with the least drag in subsonic flight has what shape
curved
what 3 kinds of rotary movements can a missile make
pitch, roll and yaw
what can be defined as a mechanical device containing a spinning mass
gyroscope
guided missiles are equipped with how many types of control surfaces
2
generally, missile in-flight guidance is divided into what 3 phases
boost, midcourse, and terminal
what phase of guidance brings the missile into contact or close proximity with the target
terminal
what type of guidance missiles are those wich are guided on the basis of direct electromagnetic radiation contact with a friendly source
command
how many types of homming guidance systems are used by SMS missiles
3
3 types of navigational guidance systems that may be used by long range missiles are inertial, celestial and what else
terrestial
what is defined as the act of driving forward or onward by means of a force that imparts motion
propulsion
the 3 methods of propulsion include gun/impulse, reaction, and what else
gravity
what type of weapon is one that uses aninternal source of propulsive power to carry it to a target
reaction-propelled
what is a means of locomotion obtained from the momentum of matter ejected from within a body
jet propulsion
what is a substance capable of releasing the oxygen that is necessary to support combustion
oxidizer
what is an air-breathing, thermal jet propulsion system
turbojet engine
the major areas of a turbojet engine are an air intake system, and air compressor, a combustion chamber, and what else
turbine
the turbojet is limmitedto less that what speed
speed of sound
what is a change in either speed or direction of motion
acceleration
a free-falling body is attracted to earth by a force equal to it's weight. as a result, it accelerates at a constant rate of about how many feet per second
32
missile speeds are expressedin what terms
mach number
what region starts at mach 0 and expends to about .75 mach
subsonic
the limits of what region are not sharply defined but range between .75 mach and mach 1.2
transonic
the supersonic region extends from about what speed upward
mach 1.2
speeds on the order of mach 10 and higher define what region
hypersonic
what is the primary element of the warhead
payload
blast-effect warheads are most effective against what type of targets
underwater
fragmentation warheads are most effective against what ytpe of targets
air
in guided missiles what is the fuze generally referred to as
target detection device (TDD)
what type of fuzes are actuated by some characteristic feature, influence, or property of the target or target area
proximity
what type of fuze is activated by some characterstic of the environment surrounding the target
ambient
what type of fuze responds to some form of signal from a remote control point
command
fuze action may be divided into what 2 phases
functioning and S&A
what represents the largest group of guided missiles in the SMS arsenal used primarily against air targets
standard missile
what is a subsonic, low altitude cruise missile for use against surface targets only
harpoon missile
what is a long-range, subsonic, land-attack, and anti-ship missile with a solid propellant booster and a liquid propellant turbofan engine
Tomahawk cruise missile
what missile is a supersonic, multi-platform, multi-target missile system that uses a semi-active laser homing guidance system
AGM-114 Hellfire
what does the navy deploy Hellfire missiles from
SH-60 Sea Hawk helicopters
what is a shore activity whose primary mission is to supply the fleet with all types of ammunition
NWS or WPNSTA
what is the componet of ammunition that, when fired from a gun, carries out the tactical purpose of the weapon
projectile
what is the curved forward portion of a projectile
ogive
what is a smooth, machined area that acts as a bearing to stabilize the projectile during its travel throught the gun bore
bourrelet
what is the main part of the projectile and contains the greatest mass of metal
body
what projectiles are designed to penetrate approx. one-third of their caliber of armor
COM
chemical projectiles may be loaded with a toxic, harassing, or smoke-producing agent. of the smoke agents, what is the most frequently used
white phosphorous (WP)
what are charges used when firing a gun to render honors
saluting
what produces an inertia force accompanying the initial rotation of the projectile in the bore of the gun
angular acceleration
what is used to operate the clockwork in most mechanical time fuzes
centrifugal force
what type of fuzes are energized after the projectile is fired and functionwhen the projectile approaches closely to the taget
proximity
what type of fuze operates in conjunction with other fuzes
auxiliary
what are often used to fire on reverse-slope targets and may beused in target practice to decrease wear on the gun
reduced charges
what are fuzes that are armed only after the projectile leaves the gun muzzle called
boresafe
what is an electro-acoustic devicewhich, during ng transmit operation, converts electrial signals from the transmitter into an acoustic pulses to insonify the water ahead of the torpedo
transducer
the torpedo turns alternatly at 6.5 degrees/second to a max of 45 degrees to each side of the selected course heading during what type of search
snake
what provides the means of communication between fire control systems and the torpedo
TFCM
what is a light-weight, high-speed, antisubmarine torpedo that can be launched by surface vessel torpedo tubes on board surface combantants and from fixed or rotary wing ASW aircraft
Mk 50 torpedo
what class of fire are Lithium fires considered to be
class D
what is a reversable double wrap chocker hitch sling used for single point lifting of lightweight torpedoes
Mk 102 sling
what is an irregularly shaped device used to tansmit motion through a follower
cam
wha tare used to change direction of motion, to increase or decrease the speed of applied motion, and to magnify or reduce applied force
gears
most hydraulic equipment is driven by a how many volt ac constant speed electric motor
440
what are used to overcome big resistances with relatively small effort
levers
what term applies to any device that holds 2 parts together
coupling
what is the resistance to relative motion between 2 bodies in contact
friction
what coats the surfaces of moving parts in contact with one another and seperates them by a fluid film
lubrication
what reduce friction and , in some applications, prevent unwanted mavement
ball bearings
what is concerned with the uses of a fluid-filled system in transmitting applied forces and producing (or controlling) mechanical motion
hydraulics
what may be used to dissipate heat, seperate air from the system, and remove contamination from a hydraulic system
reservoirs
what are the filtering devices used in hydraulic systems most commonly referred to as
strainers and filters
hydraulic pumps can be of several different types, but the most common are the rotary gear pump and what else
axial piston pump
what is an automatic gun designed for future installation onboard an LCS class and Zumwalt class destroyers
Mk 110 gun mount
what is the Mk 38 Mod 2 Gun Weapon System's main operational mode, used for initiating fire upon acquired targets
engagement
what allows shipboard personnel to engage surface and low-flying targests at close in ranges, thus providing a more potent capability than the .50 cal, and 25-mm machine guns currently in use aboard mose US navy surface ships
MK46 GWS
the MK 46 GWS has a magazine capacity of how many rounds of 30-mm x 173 ammunition
400
the 30-mm MK 46 MOD 2 GWS is a 2-axis stabilized GWS that can fire up to how many rounds per min (rpm)
200
what is a defensive system primarily designed to defeat small craft and low-flying aircraft at close in ranges
MK 45 MOD 2 GWS
what is a fully automated, remotely controlled gun mount that stowsm aims, and fires 76-mm, 62-cal ammo
Mk 75 gun
the Mk 75 gun has a variable rate of fire of up to 80 rounds per min with a range of up to 16,459 meters and a max altitude of how many meters
11,519
the ammo handling system for the Mk 75 gun mount holds a max of how many rounds
80
what converts a electrical signal from logic circuts into a hydraulic output, which innitiates a mechanical motion
solenoid units
at about 100 milliampers (0.100 ampere) a shock can e fatal if it lasts for how long or more
1 second
the resistance of the human body is not great enough to prevent fatal shock from a voltage even as low as how many volts
115
the Mk 45 is a fully automatic, dual-purpose, lightweight gun mount capable of firing the full range of 5"/54 and 62 projectiles at a rate of how many rounds per min
16 to 20
because of the danger of a hangfire, you should always wait hwo many secondsbefore opening the breech of a gun that has misfired
30
while firing, the mount captian monitors how many rounds have been fired and notifies his or her crew and CIC when a hot gun condition is reached. On a 5"/54 gun mount, this occurs after 50 rounds have been fired in how many hours or less
4
what is the simplest form of a circut protective device
fuse
what is a device udes for making, breaking, or changing the connections in an electric circut
switch
what letters are the designation for a family of rotary switches
JR
what is the most common type of interlock switch
sensitive
transistors and triacs can be used as switches in what type of circuits
solid-state
what is designed to open or close a circuit when the current through its coil is applied and removed, or varied in magnitude
relay
what are used in control circuits to perform switching operations automatically and in the proper sequence
control relays
circuit breakers have two purposes: to perform switching functions and to provide what else
overload protection
thermal- magnetic circuits breakers provide instantaneous protection against current surges up to what percent above the rated value of the circuits breakers
700
what convert electrical inputs from control circuits into mechanical outputs that actuate mechanical linkage or hydraulic valves
solenoids
the symbols presently used to designate electrical/ electronic parts and assemblies in NAVSEA drawings are specified in what
ANSI Y32.2-1975
what is the name given to a wide variety of position-sensing devices used to convert mechanical signals to electrical signals or to convert electrical signals to mechanical signals
synchro
what is used to prevent oscillation or spinning when the torque snychro receiver's rotor turns in response to a sudden change of a recieved signal
inertial damper
the standard position used as the electrical reference point from which all angular displacements are measured is known as what
electrical zero
what are low-resistence paths or shortcuts that cause the current to bypass the load
short circuits
what are the most commonly used types of multimeters
simpson AN/PSM-4A and 260 series
what translates engagement orders into VLS commands for selecting and controlling SM-2 and SM-3 missiles
AEGIS WCS
what functions as an element of the underwater fire control system (UFCS) to support the detection localization and engagement of ASW targets
ASWCS Mkk 116
what provides database management, engagement planning, and launch control of the TLAM and TOMAHAWK BlkIV
TTWCS
the VLS Mk 41 Mod 0 has a total storage capacity (both forward and aft launchers) of up to how many missiles, including missile training canisters
122
the VLS Mk 41 mod 2 has a total storage capacity (both forward and aft launchers) of up to how many missiles
90
the VLS Mk 41 mod 7 and 15 has a total storage capacity (both forward and aft launchers) of up to96 SM-2, VLA, and TOMAKAWK missiles, upto how many ESSMs (if 4 loaded per canister) or a combination of issile types?
384
what is a medium range, supersonic, surface to air and surface to surface nissile with solid-propellant dual thrust rocket motor (DTRM) having pitch over capabilities
SM-2 Blk II
what is a 4 stage theater wide missile interceptor used primarilyto counter ballistic missile threatsinthe exo-atmosphere
SM-2 Blk I/IA
what is the primary shipboard launched standoff ASW weapon employed by the VLS ship combat system
VLA
what are long-renge, subsonic, surfaceto surface missiles with a solid-propellant booster and a liquid-propellant turbofan engine with pitch over capabilities
tomahawk cruise missiles
what is a short-range, surface to air missile with a solid-propellant rocket motor and the ability to attack targets approaching, passing by, or going away (crossing target capability
ESSM
how many configurations of vertical launchers associated with the VLS and onboard CG47 and DDG51 class ships are there
6
what serve as watertight shipping and storage containers for the VLS missiles
canisters
what manages and controls launch operations in the VLS
Launch control system
after a missile launch, restrained firing, or strikedown operation, the blowout system ventilates any remaining toxic fumes from the launcher. the ship blowout system must be operated for a minimum of how many mins. before personnel are allowed to enter the launcher or enviornmentally attached spaces
20
what is the primary surface ship close in anti-submarine waepon delivery system
Mk 32 Surface Vessel Torpedo Tube
there are 4 polyester quadrant assemblies bolted to the interior wall of each basic tube to form a bore diameter of how many inches for accommodation of torpedo Mk 46
12.75
what is a functional integral part of the Mod 14 tubes and provides the capability of selecting either REMOTE or LOCAL operation of te SVTT and firing door
BMCB
what provides for the ease of transport between the torpedo strikedown lift system to the port or starboard torpedo rooms
monorail and dolly
what is used to launch Mk46, Mk50, and Mk54 lightweight torpedos from the weather decks of surface vessels
Mk23 Mod 15 torpedo tube
what surface vessel torpedo tubes are used to launch Mk46, Mk50, and Mk54 lightweight torpedos from the weather decks of fast frigates
Mk 23 mod 17
the Mk7 and Mk8 torpedo loading trays are for use aboard what class of ships
CG-47
what tests the ships ability to program a torpedo
Mk432
on a ship what is responsible for the control of 2 signals needed to fire a torpedo
fire control
what is used for sir-launching the Mk 46/54 torpedo/REXTORP from fixed-wing aircraft
Mk28 MOD 3 air stabilizer
what is used for air-launching the Mk 46/54 torpedo/REXTORP from helicopters
Mk 32 mod 1
what is the data concerning the course of the target, speed, bearing, range, identity as friend or foe, and type of target (air, surface, or subsurface) called
target data
what weapon system is the first system designed under the one-system concept
AEGIS
what are short-range, 2-coordinate, narrow-beam radars capable of good discrimination in range and bearing for surface search and low-flying aircraft
radar sets
what type of radars provide precise air searchdata consisting of range, bearing and elevation angle to the NTDS or weapons direction system
3-coordinate
what is a subsystem that issues an electronic challange to aircraft, and depending upon the response or lack of response from the aircraft, the aircraft is determined to be friendly or hostile
IFF
what are the primary means for detection of long-range air targets
2-coordinate radars
what detects electronic emissions and aid in the rapid id of the source platform or weapon
ESM
what functions to schedule, control, and assess the engagement of targets with the weapon systems of the ship
weapons direction system (WDS)
what zones determine at what range, and from which direction, approaching targets are automatically engaged
Quick reaction (QR)
what is any device capable of accepting data, applying mathematical operations to that data and obtaining useful information from those operations
computer
what is the science of projectile motion
ballistics
what is the speed at wich a projectile is traveling at the instant it leaves the gun bore known as
initial velocity
what is a continuous attracting force, acting perpendicular to the surface of the earth, that tends to pull all objects toward the earth
gravity
at ranges over how many yards, the rotation of the earth has a serious affect on fire control
20,000
what is the difference between the LOF and the LOS, measured on the plane perpendicular to the trunnion axis
sight angle
what is the angle that the plane through the gun bore is deflected left or right from the LOS
sight deflection
what are flat surfaces that may extend in all directions to infinity
reference planes
what is the only system in the free world that can detect, track, and engage multipule threats while maintaining continuous surveillance from horizon to zenith
AEGIS
what radar system is the primary search and track radar for AEGIS-equipped ships
AN/SPY-1
what system is a manned computer and display complex that coordinates and controls the AEGIS mission
command and decision
what serves as the primary interface between the GWS and the AEGIS C&D system and combat system sensors
gun console computer
what is a doppler radar system used to measure projectile IV
velocimeter
what are the principal command positions for the Mk86 FCS
COC and WCCs
what is the prime sensor of surface targets for the Mk 86 FCS
AN/SPQ-9A
the Mk 92 fire control system is installed primarily on what class of ships
FFG-7
what computer set to preform all fire control calculations and threat evaluations does the Mk 92 FCS use
AN/UYK-7
what provids a tool to make rapid assessments of ship readiness
OCSOT
what is the plane containing the ship's center line and is perpendicular to the SBP
center-line reference plane
what is used as the machining referenceto establish the foundations of the combat system eqipment
MRP
what are used to verify parallelism between elements of the combat system and the WCRP
star checks
what must be established before any alignment can be accomplished on a new ship
reference plane
what publication defines combat system alignment, why it is needed, and whatit does and does not accomplish
NAVSEA SW225-A0-MMA-010
human eyes are limited to receiving light only in the range of 400- how many nanometers
700
more that what percent of the info processed by the human brain comes form the eyes
80%
there are apx. 7 million cone cells in each eye. located outside the fovea are apx. how many rod cells which are responsible for our night vision
20 million
what is the best unaided eye vision that you can expect to achieve after your eyes become night adjusted
20/200
the physiological process that enables night adaptation is based on the release of what hormone
rhodopsin
the night blind spot is relatively large and of extreme tactical importance in that it can completely hide a man-sized target or significantly block a transport vehicle at distances as short as how many meters
50
the AN/PVS-12A night vision individual weapon sight system is capable of discerning targets from how many meters to infinity
25
the palm IR hand held thermal system displays a clear thermal image to a range of apx. how many meters
2000
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