ESPS1001 Human Physiology for Exercise and Sport

Once the reaction ATP → ADP + Pi + Energy has occurred, ATP can be regenerated from ATP by:
A. aerobic cellular respiration in the mitochondria.
B. anaerobic cellular respiration in the mitochondria.
C. interaction with CP (PC) in the cell cytoplasm.
D. a, b and c are correct
E. a and c are correct
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Once the reaction ATP → ADP + Pi + Energy has occurred, ATP can be regenerated from ATP by:
A. aerobic cellular respiration in the mitochondria.
B. anaerobic cellular respiration in the mitochondria.
C. interaction with CP (PC) in the cell cytoplasm.
D. a, b and c are correct
E. a and c are correct
E. a and c are correct
Rate pressure product is calculated as:
A. SV × Q
B. HR × SBP
C. HR × DBP
D. HR × SV
B. HR x SBP
A slowed heart beat is called:
A. tachycardia
B. murmur
C. bradycardia
D. flutter
C. bradycardia
Carbohydrate is often called the preferred fuel of the body because:
A. it is the only fuel substrate that can be used by certain tissues such as nerves and the brain.
B. it is the only food nutrient that can be used to produce energy anaerobically.
C. carbohydrate requires more oxygen to be metabolized than fat or protein.
D. a and b are correct
D. a and b are correct

Carbohyrdrates are the dominate substrate during high-intensity exercise (70% VO2 max).
They are fast acting and converted to energy as soon as ingested.
Used in anaerobic and aerobic systems
What is ATP?
adenosine triphosphate, cellular energy and a high-energy molecule
What is metabolism?
the chemical processes that occur within a living organism in order to maintain life.
What is anabolism?
metabolic pathways involved in synthesis of complex macromolecules (e.g. proteins) from smaller subunits (e.g. amino acids) - needs energy
What is catabolism?
the breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with the release of energy
What are the 3 energy pathways?
Phosphagen - rapid ATP production, uses CP + ADP, lasts 15 sec, no O2 required
Anaerobic - 2 ATP per glucose + lactic acid, lasts 30 - 40 sec, no O2 required
Aerobic - slow ATP production, uses fat, COH + protein, lasts hours, 32 ATP per glucose, requires O2
An analysis of the energy continuum indicates that:
- ATP-PC, LA, and O2 system are all involved in providing energy for all durations of exercise.
- the ATP-PC portion of anaerobic metabolism predominates in activities lasting 10 sec or less while the LA portion of anaerobic metabolism is most important between 10-30 sec and 2-3 minutes of activity.
- by 5 minutes of exercise the O2 system is clearly dominant; the longer the duration, the more important it becomes.
Metabolism: A. does not follow the first law of thermodynamics, which states that energy is neither created nor destroyed, but only changed in form. B. is the creation of energy to build tissues in the body. C. is the total of all energy transformations that occur in the body. D. is the breakdown of foodstuffs so that energy is available to do work.C. is the total of all energy transformations that occur in the body.VO2max is an important measure because: A. it is an index of muscular fitness B. it has implications for health C. it is related to cardiovascular fitness D. a, b, and c are correct E. b and c are correct.E. b and c are correct.Maximal exercise is defined as: Select one: A. the longest duration of exercise an individual is capable of doing. B. the longest all-out sprint an individual is capable of doing. C. the highest intensity or greatest load an individual is capable of doing. D. the highest frequency of exercise an individual is capable of doing.C. the highest intensity or greatest load an individual is capable of doing.When describing the physiological exercise response, it is important to: Select one: A. establish whether the exercise modality is aerobic endurance or anaerobic resistance. B. use the individual's maximal capacity as the baseline for comparison. C. describe whether the exercise intensity is maximal or submaximal D. all of the above. E. A and CE. A and CWhich energy systems are used in a 100m sprint?ATP-CPWhich energy system is used in a 400m sprint?GlycolysisWhich energy system is used in a 5000m race?Oxidative phosphorylationList the fuel source for each energy systemATP-PC = stored phosphagens Glycolysis = glucose/glycogen Oxidative phosphorylation = glucose, glycogen, fats and proteinWhat are the precentages of fuel contribution at rest?Fats 41-67% CHO 33-42% Protein 17%Complete the following reaction: ADP + Pi+ energy → ATPGlycolysis begins with either glucose or glycogen and ends withpyruvate by aerobic glycolysis or lactate by anaerobic glycolysis.The principle function of glycolysis is to:degrade glucose or glycogen into pyruvic acid or lactic acid and produce ATP.The difference between aerobic or slow glycolysis and anaerobic or fast glycolysis is that:pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is the end product of aerobic glycolysis while lactic acid (Lactate) is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis.Why is glucose the primary energy source for cells?1. Glucose is a small, soluble molecule that is easily distributed through body fluids. 2. Glucose can provide ATP anaerobically through glycolysis. Although only a small amount of ATP is produced, glycolysis is important during peak levels of physical activity, in red blood cells, or when a tissue is temporary deprived of oxygen. 3. Glucose can be stored as glycogen which forms compact, insoluble granuals. 4. Glucose can be easily mobilized because of the breakdown of glycogen occurs very quicklyGlucose predominates as the fuel for _______ glycolysis. Glycogen predominates as the fuel for ______ glycolysis.1. Slow 2. FastWhat happens to lactic acid when produced by anaerobic glycolysis?LA diffuses into the bloodstream. The liver, kidney and heart cells then use it as an energy source. The liver also reconverts it into glucose to be reused by muscles or stored as glycogen.What metabolic pathways make up the aerobic glycolysis pathway?The Kreb's Cycle - complete the oxidation of COH, fats, or proteins using NAD + and FAD as hydrogen (energy) carriers Electron transport chain - NADH + H+ and FADH2 are oxidisedProcess of oxidative phosphorylationStage I: glucose --> pyruvate Stage II: pyruvate --> acetyl CoA (no ATP) Stage III: Acetyl CoA --> Krebs Cycle (2 ATP) Stage IV: electron transport chain Products = water + ~30 ATPWhat is muscle fatigue?When over long periods of exercise, the muscles get tired & stop contracting efficiently. It occurs to prevent complete ATP depletion which would cause muscle cell death.Blood Pressurethe pressure that is exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vesselsCardiac OutputThe volume of blood ejected from the left side of the heart in one minute. HR x SVStroke VolumeThe volume of blood pumped from a ventricle of the heart in one beatMean Arterial Pressure (MAP)pressure forcing blood into tissues, averaged over cardiac cycleCardiovascular Response to exerciseIncreased CO --> increased blood flow to match needs of muscle --> maintain adequate perfusion to other organs --> regulate temperatureFrank-Starling LawThe greater the stretch, the stronger is the heart's contraction. This increased contractility results in an increased volume of blood ejected (Increased SV)What causes the increase in SV during exercise?1. Increase in preload (increased venous return) 2. Increase in contractility 3. Decrease in afterloadBaroreceptors are sensitive to: A. an increase in resistance an decrease in pH B. an increase in MAP C. a decrease in DBP and HR D. a decrease in parasympathetic outflowB. an increase in MAPFactors that provide sensory or afferent information to the cardio accelerator, cardio inhibitory and vasomotorcenters and predominate in achieving the exercise response include: A. stretch receptors responding to increased venous return B. baroreceptors responding to increased mean arterial blood pressure C. mechanoreceptors or proprioceptors responding to muscle movement D. a, b, and c are correct E. a and c are correctE. A and C are correctPlace the following in sequence for a normal cardiac cycle beginning with atrial systole. 1. Atrial systole 2. Isovolumetric relaxation period 3. Ventricular ejection period 4. Atrial and ventricular diastole and filling 5. Isovolumetric contraction period1, 5, 3, 2, 4Stimulation of the accelerator nerve to the heart results in: Select one: A. an increased force of contraction B. a decreased excitability and conductivity C. an increased rate of contraction D. a, b, and c are correct E. a and c are correctE. a and c are correctStimulation of the cardiac accelerator center in the brain would result in which of the following responses? Select one: A. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscle arterioles B. Vasodilation in visceral arterioles C. Increased heart rate D. Increased cardiac contractility E. All of the above except A F. C and D onlyF. C and D onlyPulmonary ventilationmovement of air in and out of the lungsExternal respirationexchange of gases between lungs and bloodTransport of respiratory gasesOxygen and carbon dioxide must be transported between the lungs and tissue cells of the body. This is done by using the cardiovascular system, which uses blood as the transporting fluid.Internal RespirationExchange of gases between cells of the body and the bloodWhat are the 3 roles of the conductive zone?1. Transport air 2. Maintain temperature 3. Filter airWhat is another name for the conductive zone?anatomical dead spaceWhat structures make up the respiratory zone?respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoliWhat structures make up the conductive zone?Trachea, bronchioles, bronchiState Boyle's LawP1V1 = P2V2The respiratory zone: Select one: A. includes the alveoli which are the actual site of gas exchange between the pulmonary and cardiovascular systems. B. includes some alveoli which do not have a capillary supply and this makes up a physiological dead space. C. is very light weight and has a surface area as large as a badminton or tennis court over which diffusion can occur. D. a, b and c are correct.D. a, b and c are correctAccording to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, all of the following statements are true except: Select one: A. A small drop in arterial PO2 will cause a significant reduction in hemoglobin oxygen saturation. B. Under normal resting conditions, hemoglobin is nearly 100% saturated with oxygen in the arteries. C. The saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is dependent on PO2. D. A small change in venous PO2 will have a significant effect on hemoglobin oxygen saturation.A. A small drop in arterial PO2 will cause a significant reduction in hemoglobin oxygen saturation.During inspiration: Select one: A. intrapulmonary pressure decreases and is higher than pressure in the air B. intrapulmonary pressure increases and is higher than pressure in the air C. intrapulmonary pressure increases and is lower than pressure in the air D. intrapulmonary pressure decreases and is lower than pressure in the airD. intrapulmonary pressure decreases and is lower than pressure in the airResidual volume: Select one: A. represents the amount of air left in the lungs following a maximal exhalation. B. allows for a continuous gas exchange between breaths. C. must be mathematically accounted for when body composition is determined by hydrostatic (underwater) weighing. D. a, b, and c are correct.D. a, b and c are correctThe conduction zone: Select one: A. warms, humidifies and filters inspired air. B. makes up the anatomical dead space of the respiratory system. C. is vulnerable to freezing if the ambient temperature is below 00 C. D. a, b, and c are correct. E. a and b are correct.E. a and b are correctTidal VolumeThe change in volume occurring between the beginning and end of inspiration (or expiration)What is the most commonly used test for pulmonary function?Forced vital capacity (FVC) manoeuverPeak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)Maximal flow rate, measured in liters, that can be generated during a forced expiratory maneuver.List the structures of muscle tissue from visible to microscopic1. Fascia 2. Epimysium 3. Perimysium 4. Fascicle 5. Endomysium 6. Muscle Fiber 7.Myofibril 8. Myofilament 9. Contractile ProteinsThick FilamentsmyosinThin Filamentsactin, troponin, tropomyosinSliding filament theorytheory that actin filaments slide toward each other during muscle contraction, while the myosin filaments are stillAll-or-None PrincipleRefers to the fact that the action potential in the axon occurs either full-blown or not at all.Muscle Fibre Typestype 1 - oxidative (slow) - triglycerides type 2a - oxidative/glycolytic (fast) - glycogen type 2b - glycolytic (fast) - glycogenExercise recommendationsModerate intensity: 150min a week Muscle strengthening: 2 days a weekWhat are the roles of skeletal muscle?Maintain posture, assist venous return, thermogenesis, locomotion and manipulation, protect organsWhat processes are involved with the sliding filament theory?1. Myosin head hydrolyzes ATP 2. Myosin head binds to actin to form cross-bridge 3. Myosin head rotates towards centre of sarcomere 4. Cross-bridges detach when myosin binds to ATPPhases of Excitation-Contraction Coupling1. AP in sarcolemma sent inside cells by T tubules. AP causes release of Ca2+ from SR 2. Ca2+ binds to Troponin-C complex, revealing actin active site 3. Myson binds to acitve site, pulling the actin over the myosin and causing contraction 4. Ca2+ uptaken by SR, ceasing contraction and Troponin-C complex blockedMuscle Contraction Summary1. Motor neuron fires AP down its axon, axon terminal release ACh into synaptic cleft, ACh bind recpetors in sarcolemma causing local depolarisation. 2. Local depolarization triggers AP in adjacent sarcolemma 3. Excitation-contraction Coupling 4. Cross-bridge cyclingBenefits of exercise- τ circulation, mental health and mood, & sleep - Manages blood sugar and insulin levels - Helps to preserve muscle structure and function - ↓ effects of sarcopenia - Improves quality of life - Falls preventionCV Fitnessthe ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen during sustained physical activityCross trainingThe development or maintenance of cardiovascular fitness by alternating between or concurrently training in two or more modalities.Central Cardiovascular AdaptationsAdaptations that occur in the heart that increase the ability to deliver oxygenPeripheral Cardiovascular AdaptationsAdaptations that occur in the vasculature or muscles that increase the ability to extract oxygen.VO2maxis a measure of cardiorespiratory fitness that describes the body's maximum capacity to take in oxygen from the environment, transport it to the working tissues, and for those working tissues to use the oxygen.Components of health fitnesscardiorespiratory endurance, muscular endurance, muscular strength, flexibility, body compositionComponents of performance fitness1. agility 2. power 3. reaction time 4. balance 5. speed 6. coordinationPrinciples of Exercise Prescription- overload - progression - specificity - reversibilityPrinciple of overloadTo improve, perform exercises that exceed one's normal levelPrinciple of Progressionthe amount and intensity of your exercise should be increased graduallyPrinciple of SpecificityA rule that states that specific types of exercise improve specific parts of fitness or specific muscles.Principle of Reversibilityloss of fitness due to inactivityOverloadCan be achieved by modifying exercise intensity, duration and frequencyProgressionAs exercise capacity increases with training, the degree of overload must also increase to maintain the stimulus for improvementsExercise intensity definitionsLow: <55% HRmax Moderate: 55-75% HRmax High: >75% HRmaxMax HR Formula220 - agecardiorespiratory enduranceFreq: 3-5 times a week Intensity: 55-95% HRmax Time: 20-30 min Type: Aerobic activitiesEffects of Cardiorespiratory Training• Lower heart rate • Larger stroke volume • Lower rise in blood pressure • Slower respiration rate • Lower rate of lactic acid formation • Faster return to "normal" (i.e. recovery)Cardiovascular Adaptations to Aerobic Endurance Training1. Cardiac Structure - hypertrophy of LV 2. Cardiac function - CO, SV, HR, VO2max 3. Vascular Structure - vessel size and density 4. Vascular function - improved endothelial function 5. Haemodynamics - BP, TPR, RPP 6. Blood volume 7. Clot formation and breakdownA warm-up period has the following beneficial effect(s) on cardiovascular function: A. it increases blood flow to the active skeletal muscles and the myocardium. B. it leads to the early onset of sweating which is important for regulation of body temperature. C. it may reduce the incidence of abnormal rhythms in the conduction system of the heart. D. a, b and c are correctD. a, b and c are correctExercise intensity can be prescribed by using: Select one: A. heart rate, either as a percentage of maximal heart rate, or as a percentage of heart rate reserve B. maximal oxygen consumption, using a percentage value C. rate of perceived exertion, either on a scale of 6-20 or 0(1) -10 D. a, b, and c are correctD. a, b and c are correctIn order to maintain VO2max levels the most important factor in the exercise prescription is: Select one: A. frequency B. intensity C. duration D. initial fitness levelB. IntensityThe greatest differences between sedentary and trained individuals are seen in which variable? Select one: A. HR max B. SV C. SBP D. DBPB. SVVentricular hypertrophy with aerobic training: Select one: A. results primarily from a "volume load" B. is when the end diastolic diameter is increased C. is when the ventricular wall becomes thinner D. none of the above E. A and B onlyE. A and B onlyWhen is pre-screening required?- Beginning an exercise program from a sedentary or low baseline physical activity. - Significantly upgrading an exercise program, especially when the intensity is elevated substantially. - When personal health status changes significantly.Why do we pre-screen?To identify individuals: • With medical contraindications to exercise • Who demonstrate signs or symptoms of clinical disease • Who may have risk factors that need to be considered when prescribing exercise • Those with special needs.What parts make up the APSS?Part 1: Stage 1 and 2 Part 2: The algorithms that provide guidance on how to use the information collected.Stage 1 of APSSScreens individuals based on: 1. The presence of signs or symptoms of, and/or known, cardiovascular or metabolic disease, 2. The individual's current level of physical activity and 3. Intended exercise intensity. These variables have been identified as the most important risk modulators of exercise- related cardiovascular events.Stage 2 of APSScollects information on cardiovascular disease risk factors for more appropriate exercise prescription, but not for risk factor profiling.Limitations to APSSRelies on the participant to have the necessary knowledge about their health and/or answer questions truthfullyStopping a testAbsolute indications: ST-segment elevation, Drop in systolic blood pressure >10 mmHg, Moderate-to-severe angina, Central nervous system symptoms (e.g. ataxia, dizziness, near syncope), Signs of poor perfusion (cyanosis or pallor), Sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) or other arrhythmia, Technical difficulties in monitoring the ECG or systolic blood pressure, The subject's request to stop Relative indications: Marked ST displacement, Drop in systolic blood pressure >10 mmHg, Increasing chest pain, Fatigue, shortness of breath, wheezing, leg cramps or claudication, Arrhythmias other than sustained VT, Exaggerated hypertensive response (systolic blood pressure >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure >115 mmHg), Development of bundle branch block that cannot immediately be distinguished from VTAbsolute Contraindications• Acute myocardial infarction (MI), within 2 days • Ongoing unstable angina • Uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia with haemodynamic compromise • Active endocarditis • Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis • Decompensated heart failure • Acute pulmonary embolism, pulmonary infarction or deep vein thrombosis • Acute myocarditis or pericarditis • Acute aortic dissection • Physical disability that precludes safe and adequate testingRelative contraindications• Known obstructive left main coronary artery stenosis • Moderate-to-severe aortic stenosis with uncertain relation to symptoms • Tachyarrhythmia with uncontrolled ventricular rates • Acquired advanced or complete heart block • Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy with severe resting gradient • Recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack • Mental impairment with limited ability to cooperate • Resting hypertension with systolic or diastolic blood pressures >200/110 mmHg • Uncorrected medical conditions, such as significant anaemia, important electrolyte imbalance and hyperthyroidismWhat does the APSS stand for?adult pre-exercise screening systemIf your client answered yes to any of the six questions in stage 1 of the APSS, what would you do?seek guidance from an appropriate allied health professional or GP prior to undertaking an physical exercise.can an exercise scientist give clearance to exercise to someone who has previously had a heart attack?nowhat is a diagnostic test?is performed to diagnose a medical condition or uncover any underlying pathology.Laboratory Techniques for body composition1. Hydrostatic (Underwater) Weighing—Criterion measure for determining body composition through the calculation of body density 2. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) 3. Air displacement (BOD POD)What principle does Underwater weighing rely on?Archimedes' Principle—The principle that a partially or fully submerged object will experience an upward buoyant force equal to the weight or the volume of fluid displaced by the objectField Tests of body composition1. Skin folds 2. Height and weight 3. BMI 4. Wasit to hip ratio/waist circumference 5. Bioelectrical impedenceBMI formulaweight (kg) / height (m^2)Calorie Balance =+ food ingested (kcal) − basal or resting metabolic rate (kcal) − thermogenesis (kcal) − work or exercise metabolism (kcal) − energy excreted in waste products (kcal)BMI Select one: A. has been shown to correlate with %body fat from skinfold or hydrostatic weighing. B. is a measure of height divided by the square of body weight C. is most appropriate to use for athletic populations D. provides an indication of percent body fatA. has been shown to correlate with %body fat from skinfold or hydrostatic weighing.Cellulite: Select one: A. is difficult to mobilize female sex specific fat depots of the thigh and hips. B. appears when enlarged adipocytes cause a bulging between the fibrous connective tissue strands. C. can be detected by its dimply, waffled appearance but is otherwise not physiologically special. D. a, b, and c are correct E. b and c are correctE. b and c are correctHumans distribute fat in three basic patterns: the android, gynoid, and intermediate or cubic.Choose the correct statement below. Select one: A. The android pattern, found primarily in males, is characterized by upper body, internal abdominal storage before subcutaneous sites are loaded. B. The gynoid pattern, found primarily in females, differs from the android only in that the storage occurs primarily in the hip and thigh region. C. The android pattern tends to be hard and misinterpreted as superior musculature while the gynoid storage tends to be soft and jiggly. D. a, b, and c are correct E. a and c are correctE. a and c are correctWhen an adult gains weight: Select one: A. increasing levels of fat are first stored by fat cell hypertrophy and then through hyperplasia. B. (s)he changes his or her basic body shape, i.e. from gynoid to cubic, or android to gynoid, etc. C. hyperplasia is achieved by cell division of existing fat cells which then hypertrophy and fill. D. a, b, and c are correctA. increasing levels of fat are first stored by fat cell hypertrophy and then through hyperplasia.