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Meiosis is a process in which primordial germ cells that have _________ chromosomes produce gametes that have __________ chromosomes
Sister chromatids of each chromosome separate and move apart into two daughter cells during _____________
the second meiotic division of gametogenesis
Why does the second meiotic division occur in males?
After puberty in males and continuously thereafter
In the second meiotic division of gametogenesis ________________
no replication of DNA occurs; sister chromatids move apart into two daughter cells.
In females ___________ meiotic division occurs after fertilization of an oocyte by a sperm. Fertilization results in the production of a ____________
Sister chromatids of each chromosome separate and move apart into two daughter cells during ______________
the second meiotic division of gametogenesis
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone directly induces the secretion off what two hormones?
Match the stage during spermatogenesis to the number of chromosomes and chromatids present.
Primary spermatocyte: 46 chromosomes; 2 chromatids per chromosome
Secondary spermatocyte: 23 chromosomes; 2 chromatids per chromosome
Spermatids: 23 chromosomes; 1 chromatid per chromosome
For a sperm, the bulbous head structure is known as the ________ of the sperm, and the __________ covers the tip of the structure.
The walls of the seminiferous tubules made of cells known as ____________ cells
The blood-tested barrier is formed by ____________
In the testes, _____________ cells produce androgens and ____________ cells produce inhibin and support spermatogenesis.
The secretion of testosterone by Leydig cells is primarily stimulated by _____________, and the production of spermatozoa by Sertoli cells is primarily stimulated by ______________
Which protein hormone is secreted by Sertoli cells and acts as a negative feedback controller of FSH secretion?
The blood-testis barrier formed by __________ cells prevents the movement of many chemicals in the blood from entering into the seminiferous tubule.
The ___________ cells have many functions including nourishing developing sperm, phagocytizing defective sperm, and secreting paracrine agents that influence the function of Leydig cells.
In what tissues is progesterone produced as either an intermediate in the synthetic pathway of other steroids or as a final decretory product?
Adrenal glands; ovaries; placenta
Steroid hormone action is mediated mainly by binding to _____________ receptors
The breasts and the duct systems thought which sperm or eggs are transported are categorized as _______________
accessory reproductive organs
GnRH secretion is stimulated by a peptide called ______________ that is released by hypothalamic neurons that synapse onto GnRH-secreting neurons.
Why is GnRH secreted in a pulsatile fashion rather than continuously?
Pulsatile secretion maintains the sensitivity of the pituitary cells that secrete gonadotropins to stimulation by GnRH
Inhibin produced by the _____________ has a negative feedback effect on secretion of hormones from the __________
gonads; anterior pituitary gland
All estrogens are produced from androgens by the enzyme ___________
What steroid hormone is a major secretory product of the ovary and placenta, and is also an intermediate in the synthetic pathway for adrenal steroids, estrogens and androgens?
Which best explains the pattern on GnRH secretion from the hypothalamus?
It is secreted in brief, pulsatile bursts during the reproductive years, which continuously varies the concentration in the portal vein blood.
___________ is a peptide hormone secreted by the gonads that has a negative feedback effect primarily on the secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary gland.
Which of these are gonads?
Which of these are effects of testosterone in males?
Inhibits FSH secretion by the pituitary gland
Acts on the hypothalamus to decrease GnRH secretion
Inhibits LH secretion by the pituitary gland
Acts on Sertoli cells to initiate and maintain spermatogenesis
Stimulates protein anabolism and bone growth
Aromatase converts _________ into _________, which is the active hormone in cells of the male brain
Treatment for prostate cancer often includes _____________, because prostate cancer cells are stimulated by _____________
5 a-reductase inhibitors; dihydrotestosterone
Which term refers to the removal of the testes?
The enzyme that is responsible for the conversion of testosterone into estradiol is ______________
Which is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?
Nourishing developing sperm
Forming a barrier between the blood and developing germ cells
Converting estrogens into testosterone
Phagocytizing defective sperm
Converting estrogens into tetosterone
Lymph flow is aided by:
Contraction of smooth muscle in lymphatic vessels
Skeletal muscle pump
All of these
All of these
If the granulosa cells are deficient in enzymes needed for estrogen production how are they helped during the early and middle follicular phases?
Under the influence of LH the theca cells secrete androgens
These androgens diffuse to the granulosa cells
Under the influence of FSH these granulosa cells can convert the androgens into estrogens
Which is TRUE regarding the immune system cells?
Macrophages are derived from monocytes
refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation
Cytotoxic T cells
require Class I MHC proteins to recognize foreign antigens
Which of these correctly describes a systemic response to infection?
The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal
Beginning on the first day of the menstrual cycle, the order of phases in the uterus is
menstrual, proliferative, secretory
Which applies to the classical complement pathway, but NOT to the alternative complement pathway?
Antibodies activate the first complement protein (C1).
What are the 4 functions of activated complement proteins?
Direct destruction of invading microbes by membrane attack complex
Vasodilation and increased permeability of capillaries and venules to proteins
Enhancement of phagocytosis (opsonization)
List the steps in the destruction of a microbe starting form the formation of the phagosome.
The phagosomes and a lysosome come in contact and fuse membranes to form a phagolysosome.
The lysosome's enzymes break down the microbe.
End products are released inside and outside the phagocyte.
Which is TRUE regarding meiosis in a single germ cell?
It results in 4 cells with 23 chromosomes each
Which is a TRUE statement about events occurring the menstrual cycle?
Progesterone is low during the first half of the cycle, and rises to a peak during the second half
The one large antral follicle that fully matures during a menstrual cycle is known as the _____________ follicle. The other follicles that had started to develop but did not fully mature, go through a degenerative process called ______________
As the dominant follicle enlarges and the antrum expands, the granulosa cell layers surrounding the egg form a mound that projects into the antrum, and is called the ___________
When the walls of an ovarian follicle rupture and the secondary oocyte surrounded by zona pellucida and cumulus is carried out of the antrum, it is referred to as ___________
Which of these are secreted by the corpus luteum?
As the _____________ degenerates, gonadal steroid hormone secretion decreases, causing menstruation
Multiple primary oocytes undergo rapid development during the _____________ phase of the menstrual cycle
How many preantral and early antral follicles typically begin to develop into larger antral follicles at the start of a menstrual cycle?
The ovarian phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between ovulation and menstruation is called the __________ phase.
Match the days of the menstrual cycle with the events occurring on those days.
Days 1-5: Secretion of FSH and LH is released from inhibition, and their concentration increase
Days 7-12: FSH decreases due to inhibin negative feedback
Day 14: Ovulation is mediated by follicular enzymes and prostaglandins
Days 15-25: Secretory endometrium develops
Days 25-28: Plasma estrogen and progesterone concentrations decrease
Place in order the various events of the ovarian cycle, beginning at Day 1 of the female menstrual cycle.
Multiple antral follicles begin to enlarge and secrete estrogen. One follicle becomes dominant and secretes very large amounts of estrogen.
The corpus luteum forms and begins to secrete large amounts of both estrogen and progesterone.
The corpus luteum begins to degenerate and decrease its hormone secretion.
Beginning from the time of ovulation, list these uterine phases in the order that they occur.
Which of these changes in a woman's body occur as a result of reaching menopause?
Thinning and dryness of vaginal epithelium
The decline in bone mass accelerates
Dermal vasodilation and perspiration called hot flashes
Which is a characteristic of endocrine feedback regulation in females during the early and middle follicular phases?
Inhibin has a negative feedback effect on FSH secretion
The release of the ovum from the ovary is called __________
Which of these are secreted in large quantities by the corpus luteum?
Match the days of the menstrual cycle with events occurring on those days:
Days 1-5: Sloughing off the endometrial lining occurs
Day 7: A single follicle becomes dominant
Days 7-12: Plasma estrogen increases and there is endometrial proliferation
Days 12-13: The LH surge is induced by increasing plasma estrogen
Days 15-25: The corpus luteum secretes high levels of progesterone
Days 25-28: The corpus luteum degenerates
The second meiotic division results in one daughter cell of 23, single-chromatid chromosomes that gets all of the cytoplasm, and small, non-functional daughter cell called a second ______________
The cells that surround the granulosa cells of a growing follicle which function with the granulosa cells to produce estrogen are called ___________ cells
The fluid-filled space that forms within the granulosa layers of a primary oocyte is called the _________
Around age 50, women go through ____________, which is a cessation in ovulation and menstruation
During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle, a developing embryo implants in the ____________
The _____________ secretes large quantities of progesterone, estrogen, and inhibin in a non-pregnant female.
Which of the following are part of the sequence of events associated with the time of menstruation?
Decreasing progesterone concentrations
Vasoconstriction of uterine blood vessels
Rhythmic contractions of the uterine myometrium
Prostaglandin secretion by the endometrium
What most directly causes the atresia of non-dominant follicles around the beginning of the second week of the follicular phase?
The plasma concentration of FSH decreases
Myometrium contractions are stimulated by ____________ and inhibited by _______________
Which of these are effects of the LH surge on ovarian function?
Granulosa cells begin releasing progesterone and decreasing estrogen secretion
The primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division
The concentration of FSH ____________ in the early part of the follicular phase, and then steadily ____________ during the rest of the phase.
Approximately how many eggs will be ovulated in a typical women's lifetime?
Interstitial fluid enters the lymphatic capillaries primarily via ____________
The cells of the immune system, which include lymphocytes and macrophages, are collectively called ___________
Monocytes that leave the bloodstream and enter tissues transform into cells called _____________
Macrophage-like cells that phagocytize pathogens and activate T cells, are called ____________
Where are mast cells mostly found?
In connective tissues underlying epithelial tissue
Which leukocytes are classified as myeloid?
Which leukocytes function as phagocytes?
The term "cytokine" refers to a group of chemical messengers ___________
secreted by immune system cells to regulate host cell division and function in both innate and adaptive immune responses
The immune response that is similar no matter what type of microbe is present is the ____________ response. Alternatively, the __________ response recognizes specific types of microbes
Which are body surface defenses that are parts of the first line of immune defense?
Tears; skin; mucous membranes
Mast cells contain many vesicles filled with ___________, which they secrete during certain immune reeactions
Match the lymphocyte with its description.
B cell: Transform into plasma cells
Cytotoxic T cells: Bind to antigens on plasma membrane of target cells and directly destroy the cells
Helper T cells: Secrete cytokines to activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages
What role do ciliated mucosal membranes in the respiratory tract play in immunity?
The cilia sweep mucus to the pharynx, where it is swallowed?
The inflammation response is part of the ___________ immune system
The benefits of a vasodilation during the inflammatory response include ___________
leaky capillaries that allow plasma proteins to seep into wounds
Which event directly causes swelling during inflammation?
The plasma protein seeping into the tissues draws water along with it
The process by which neutrophils migrate from the blood to the tissues, towards inflammatory markers, is called ____________
The first event of chemotaxis, where neutrophils adhere to the blood vessel endothelial cells, is called ______________
Diapedesis is the process of __________
leukocytes passing from the blood into the tissues
Chemokines are cytokines that ___________
Which process does an opsonin stimulate?
Immediately after a phagocyte engulfs a substance, it is contained in a sac within the cell called a ____________
Choose the ways that phagocytes can kill pathogens:
secreting nitric oxide to destroy them extracellularly
Engulfing and destroying them
______________ is a large, diverse family of plasma proteins, some of which circulate in an inactive state. When activate, they bring about the extracellular killing of pathogens without prior phagocytosis through a cascade of events
What effect does the membrane attack complex have on bacteria?
It forms channels in the membrane, flooding the cell with water and solutes
Match the complement pathway with its description
Classical: full pathway; initiated when antibodies activate C1, the first complement protein
Alternative: no antibodies needed for activation
Which are characteristics of interferons?
They are secreted by viral-infected cells
They prevent neighboring cells from synthesizing viral material
They are cytokines
Proteins present on macrophages (and other immune system cells) that bind to pathogen-associated molecular features (PAMPs) are ___________
The major line of defence that human bodies have against extracellular viruses and bacteria is the __________
antibody (or humoral_-mediated response
Allergic reactions are immune responses to substances called ____________
Immediate hypersensitive involve _____________ antibodies
Severe allergic reaction, causing hypotension and bronchoconstriction, is called _______________
Diseases like multiple sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and type I diabetes mellitus are types of _______________ diseases
Massive systemic vasodilation in response to bacterial toxins cause a type of hypotension called ________ shock
A condition which the immune system attacks "self" antigens is called a(n) ________________ disease
Which are the three main types of T lymphocytes?
Put the following events of the immune response in order
B cell binds to antigen
B cell is activated
B cell differentiates into plasma cell
Plasma cells make antibodies
Antibodies disable pathogen
The ____________ is a lymphoid organ that lies in the upper chest, and houses maturing T lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes that reside in lymph nodes encounter pathogens in the ___________
The cell-mediated immune response utilizes lymphocytes called _________ cells
Which describes the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)?
Plasma membrane proteins that bind to antigens before T cells can recognize the antigens
After antibodies bind to an antigen on a foreign microbe, __________
phagocytes kill the microbe
How long does it take the immune system to produce an antibody response the first time it encounters a foreign antigen?
A few weeks
Which form of immunity has memory, and can recognize antigens that it has encountered in the past?
When an immune system comes in contact with an antigen, and produces antibodies against it, it has __________ immunity against it
What is the goal of a vaccine?
To create memory cells that fight a pathogen
The transfer of antibodies through an interjection of from mother to fetus is called ____________ immunity
Lymph flows through lymphatic vessels. Periodically, along this route, lymph flows through ______________. Here, pathogens in the lymph can be destroyed and B and T cells can become activated.
Which best describes the role that antibodies play in pathogen destruction?
They mark the pathogen for destruction
How long does it usually take the immune system to make antibodies against an antigen that is has encountered in the past?
A few seconds
The injection of antigens from a microbe in order to confer active immunity against that pathogen is termed a(n) ____________
Is antibody production more robust the first or second time the immune system is exposed to an antigen?
More antigens are _________
proteins; large polysaccharides
Which blood types can patients with type B blood receive?
type O; type B
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