BU288 Textbook MC

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1) Which statement about leadership is TRUE?
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6) As discussed in the text, ________ are examples of potential leadership traits.B) dominance and intelligence7) Which dimensions of the "Big Five" have been found to be related to leadership emergence and success?E) Agreeableness, conscientiousness, extraversion, openness to experience, and emotional stability8) If you are looking for an effective leader to hire into your organization, which personality dimension(s) should you focus on during the hiring process?D) Extraversion and conscientiousness10) Which of the following is most accurate about leadership effectiveness?B) Leader behaviours have a greater impact than leader traits.11) A recent study found what characteristic of the CEO and top management was related to organizational performance?B) Team conscientiousness12) According to leadership categorization theoryD) people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics of leadership.13) What theory suggests that people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess prototypical characteristics of leadership?B) Leadership categorization theory14) What theory of leadership helps to explain bias and discrimination when evaluating a leader's effectiveness and when making decisions about who should be in a leadership position?B) Leadership categorization theory1) Which of the following is NOT a trait that might be investigated in leadership studies?C) Leader reward behaviour2) A leader who stresses standard procedures, schedules the work to be done, and assigns subordinates to particular tasks is high onA) initiating structure.3) Research shows that consideration on the part of a leaderC) is more effective for follower satisfaction than leader job performance.5) Research on consideration and initiating structure has found thatD) initiating structure is more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance.6) Compared to initiating structure, consideration is more strongly related toA) leader satisfaction, job satisfaction, and motivation.7) If you have a boss who provides you with compliments, tangible benefits, and special attention, then what kind of behaviour does your boss exhibit?D) Leader reward behaviour8) Leader reward and punishment behaviours are related to employee attitudes and behaviours because theyC) lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity.9) What is non-contingent punishment behaviour related to?C) Unfavourable outcomes1) If Mark's job is clear and routine, a leader is most likely to increase Mark's satisfaction byC) being supportive.2) Fiedler's Contingency Theory of leadership is most clearly aD) situational theory.3) The task is unstructured, the group members hate the leader, and the leader has no position power. According to Fiedler, the leader will perform best if he or sheA) is task-oriented.4) Fiedler's Contingency Theory of leadership predicts that relationship-oriented leadership will be most effective inC) situations of medium favourableness.5) According to Fiedler, the most favourable situation for leadership involves good leader-member relations, a(n) ________ task, and ________ position power.C) structured; strong6) In Fiedler's Contingency Theory of leadership, an LPC score measuresA) type of leadership orientation.7) Nellie is a high LPC leader. According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory of leadership, sheC) is more relationship-oriented than task-oriented.8) What is the "contingency" variable in Fiedler's Contingency Theory of leadership?E) Situational favourableness9) Imagine that a military commander who is well liked and admired by his troops is leading them on a highly structured mission. According to Fiedler's Contingency TheoryB) the troops will perform best if the commander is task-oriented (low LPC).10) Directive behaviour is essentially the same asC) initiating structure.11) Path-Goal Theory differs from Fiedler's Contingency Theory in thatD) Path-Goal Theory is concerned with the effects of specific leader behaviour.12) According to Path-Goal Theory, which of the following statements is TRUE?B) Employees who are high need achievers work best under achievement-oriented leadership.13) According to Path-Goal Theory, employee effort can be increased byC) clarifying the path to valued rewards.14) An extremely conscientious and experienced group of labourers is doing a hot, dirty, routine task. What leadership style does House's Path-Goal Theory suggest using here?C) Supportive15) What are the situational factors in House's Path-Goal Theory of leadership?C) Employee characteristics and environmental factors16) Which of the following best represents research on Fiedler's Contingency Theory?B) The explanation for the superior performance of high-LPC leaders in the middle octants is not very convincing.17) What is the major reason for the inconsistent findings regarding research on contingency theory?D) Small sample sizes18) Which of the following predictions by Fiedler's Contingency Theory is contradicted by the research evidence?B) Task leadership in octant II2) One of the problems with participative leadership is that participationC) requires a great deal of time and energy on the part of the leader.4) Which theory or model of leadership discussed in the text explicitly involves a decision tree?B) Vroom and Jago's situational model of participation6) The Vroom and Jago decision tree model of leadershipB) allows for autocratic, consultative, and group decisions.7) According to Vroom and Jago, the leader's goal should be toE) make high quality, acceptable decisions without undue delay.8) Research has found that employees who have the opportunity to participate in work-related decisions report more positive job satisfaction, higher performance, and organizational citizenship behaviour. These results are due in part to a positive effect on which of the following?D) Employee empowerment and trust in one's supervisor1) According to Bernard Bass's theory of transformational leadership, the distinctive qualities of transformational leaders areB) individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, charisma, and intellectual stimulation.2) What is the most important component of transformational leadership?D) Charisma3) An especially effective transactional leader probablyB) rewards employees for good performance.4) Transformational leadership is to transactional leadership asD) change is to exchange.5) Sonya needed to find a transformational leader to deal with the failing division. To shorten her search, she began by looking for someone withA) charisma.6) What role does charisma play in transformational leadership?A) An emotional role7) Which of the following statements about charismatic leaders is least accurate?C) They tend to lack self-confidence and dominance.8) Which of the following is an example of leader-member exchange theory?D) A leader who is concerned about maintaining high-quality social exchange relationships9) The focus of leader-member exchange theory isB) the relationship between a leader and an employee.10) One of the things Jack really likes about his boss is that he monitors his behaviour, anticipates problems, and takes corrective actions before the behaviour creates serious problems. What is this called?C) Management by exception11) What does transactional leadership involve?B) Contingent reward behaviour and management by exception12) What do these leaders have in common: Herb Kelleher, Michael Eisner, and Steven Jobs?B) They are transformational leaders.13) What are the key dimensions of transformational leadership?C) Intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and charisma14) Cory thought all bosses were alike until he began a new job and his manager was interested in his concerns and needs, and made himself available to coach him when necessary. What is Cory's boss displaying?E) Individualized consideration15) What dimension of transformational leadership is also known as idealized influence?D) Charisma16) Comparisons between transformational leadership and contingent reward behaviour indicate thatB) transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower satisfaction with the leader, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to follower job satisfaction.17) What leadership theory is social exchange theory associated with?B) Leader-member exchange (LMX)18) What leadership theory involves a social exchange relationship-based approach to leadership?B) Leader-member exchange (LMX)19) You are surprised to discover that your new boss is very concerned about developing a good relationship with you and your co-workers. What does this tell you about his leadership style?B) He is a high LMX leader.20) How is LMX theory different from other theories of leadership?A) It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee.21) Which of the following best describes transactional leadership?B) It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers.22) Which of the following best describes transformational leadership?C) It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment.23) What has charismatic leadership been found to be strongly related to?C) Follower satisfaction24) Research on transformational leadership has found thatC) the best leaders are transformational and transactional.25) The variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup is calledD) LMX differentiation.26) What does LMX differentiation refer to?B) Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup27) What is the reason for the relationship between LMX and performance and OCB?D) Higher levels of trust28) What can greater LMX differentiation be detrimental to?A) Group harmony and processes1) Authentic leadership consists of four related but distinct dimensions. They are all of the following EXCEPTE) independent rationalization.2) When an executive acts upon her true values, beliefs, and strengths, and she helps others do the same, she is practisingB) authentic leadership.3) If an authentic leader is participating in an objective analysis of a situation and considering others' different points of view before making his decision, he is engaging inB) balanced processing.4) If an authentic leader is presenting one's true or authentic self to others and is open with their sharing of their real feelings and thoughts, he/she is practisingE) relational transparency.5) The experience of psychological empowerment that employees with empowering leaders experience includes all of the following EXCEPT forC) self-leadership.6) What leadership theory emphasizes self-awareness?E) Authentic leadership8) Soon after starting a new job, Lilli was pleased and surprised to learn that her new boss was concerned about her needs and well-being. What does this say about Lilli's boss?E) He/she is a servant leader.9) The relationship between ethical leadership and employee work outcomes is due toC) trust in the leader.11) Which of the following best describes servant leadership?E) It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead.12) Which of the following best describes empowering leadership?D) It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees.13) What do employees who have empowering leaders experience?C) A state of psychological empowerment14) The Stinky Cheese Company has sent all of its managers to a training program so that they learn how to engage in a new style of leadership that will help employees experience meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact. What kind of leaders will they be?C) Empowering15) The Stinky Cheese Company has sent all of its managers to a training program so that they learn how to engage in a new style of leadership that involves the demonstration of normatively appropriate conduct through personal actions and interpersonal relationships. What kind of leaders will they be?E) Ethical16) Which of the following is NOT associated with the state of psychological empowerment?E) Responsibility17) Which of the following best represents the state of psychological empowerment that stems from empowering leadership?B) Meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact18) Ethical leadership is likely to have the greatest effect on employees when it comes fromB) the immediate supervisor.19) What type of leadership has been found to be positively related to the psychological capital of work groups?E) Authentic20) The new CEO of the Bouncy Ball Company gave a speech to the company's employees and the first thing she said was: "I want to serve first and lead second." What kind of leader is she?D) Servant21) Which of the following best represents a servant leader?A) Serve first and lead second24) Which of the following is NOT one of the key characteristics of servant leader behaviour?B) Savvy25) Which of the following is NOT one of the key characteristics of servant leader behaviour?B) Personal character26) Besides authentic leadership, what other type of leadership is authenticity associated with?D) Servant leadership27) Besides empowering leadership, what other type of leadership is empowerment associated with?D) Servant leadership28) What type of leadership is stewardship associated with?D) Servant leadership29) What type of leadership is humility associated with?D) Servant leadership30) When the new CEO of the Bouncy Ball Company was asked by a reporter what the most important thing will be, to him as the new CEO, he said: "The needs of my followers and their well-being." What kind of leader is he?D) Servant leader31) What type of leadership has been found to be associated with service performance behaviours in a study of hairstylists in a Chinese chain of hair salons?D) Servant leadership32) What type of leadership focuses on leader behaviours and interpersonal dynamics that increase followers' confidence and result in positive outcomes, beyond task compliance, such as motivating followers to go beyond expectations, positive self-development, and prosocial beahviours?C) Positive leadership33) Which one of the following is NOT an example of positive leadership?B) LMX leadership1) A review of research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found there areD) some differences in certain situations.2) Which of the following statements is the most appropriate statement concerning leadership styles?B) Women tend towards a more participative leadership style than men.3) Research on the leadership styles of men and women has found thatD) women leaders were more transformational than men and also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership.4) What is laissez-faire leadership?C) The avoidance or absence of leadership5) What is the metaphor suggested by Alice Eagly and Linda Carli to explain why women hold so few senior leadership positions in organizations?B) A labyrinth6) Which of the following best represents the traits of men and women?B) Women are perceived as having more communal traits, and men are perceived as having more agentic traits.7) A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found thatD) men are perceived as more effective in government organizations.8) A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found thatE) women are perceived as more effective in education organizations.9) A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found thatB) women are perceived as more effective in middle management positions.10) A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found thatD) men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by themselves.11) What theory suggests that prejudice against female leaders is the result of a difference between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership?B) Role congruity theory13) The invisible barrier that prevents women from advancing to senior leadership positions in organizations is called a(n)D) glass ceiling.1) What is an implicit leadership theory?C) Individuals hold a set of beliefs about the kinds of attributes, personality characteristics, skills, and behaviours that contribute to or impede outstanding leadership.2) Jack and Clarice have just begun work at ACME Insurance Co. They work for different managers and they have different ideas about what makes someone a good leader. Jack does not respond well to his manager and does not want to accept him as his leader. Clarice responds very well to her manager and believes she has the qualities of a good leader. What does this demonstrate?B) Implicit leadership theory3) What is the meaning of a culturally endorsed implicit leadership theory?D) Belief systems about the characteristics associated with leadership that are shared among individuals in common cultures4) All of the following are global leadership dimensions from the GLOBE project EXCEPT theD) task-oriented leadership dimension.5) Compared to other culture clusters, what global leadership dimensions does Canada and the United States score high on?D) Charismatic/value-based, participative, and humane-oriented6) Compared to other culture clusters, what global leadership dimension does Canada and the United States score low on?B) Self-protective8) On what culture dimensions do Canada and the United States score medium on?D) Team-oriented and autonomous2) What is the most powerful strategy for developing global leaders?D) Transfers and overseas assignments3) Which of the following is a characteristic of global leadership?C) Unbridled inquisitiveness4) The following are characteristics of global leaders EXCEPTC) emphasizing ethical practices.5) The personal character component of global leadership consists of which two components?B) An emotional connection and uncompromising integrity6) Being able to manage uncertainty and balance global and local tensions is an example ofE) duality.8) What do these countries have in common: Canada, Belgium, and Sweden?B) They produce more global leaders than other countries.1) Communication is defined asB) the exchange of information.2) In order for a receiver to understand a communicated message, he or she must first ________ the message.C) decode3) Who is encoding messages?A) Bob, who is writing a technical report5) Effective communication occurs when the right people receive the right information in a ________ manner.A) timely6) Which of the following is an example of encoding?D) Writing a letter7) Which of the following is an example of horizontal communication?C) The vice-president of marketing sends a memo to the vice-president of manufacturing.8) The chain of command does not reflect the number of communication channels that exist in organizations becauseA) it ignores informal communication.9) Which of the following is an example of filtering?B) Bob didn't tell his employees about their impending layoffs.10) Sticking to the strict chain of command can be especially slow for ________ communication.D) horizontal11) The filtering of information pertains to what type of communication?D) Upward and downward communication1) Research suggests thatA) employees with good performance ratings are more likely to be informed of those ratings than employees with bad ratings.2) The toy market has fallen off, and the Zippy Toy Company has to lay off workers. The plant manager must inform all the workers, but he is so upset about his task that he writes a vague, contradictory letter which no one understands. What happened?D) The mum effect caused the workers to have decoding problems.3) Which of the following is an example of the mum effect?E) The young lawyer who lost the court case delayed telling the senior partner of the law firm.4) The constructive expression of disagreement or concern about work unit or organizational policies is known asC) voice.5) The mum effect is a good example ofD) filtering.6) The mum effect means that peopleA) fail to encode bad news.7) Voice refers toC) speaking up.8) The mum effect is one example ofC) how information filtering occurs.9) The constructive expression of disagreement or concern about work unit or organizational practices is known asC) voice.10) What does psychological safety refer to?D) A shared belief that it is safe to take social risks11) Voice can be contrasted withE) silence.12) Silence refers toB) withholding relevant information.13) Voice can be considered a form ofA) organizational citizenship behaviour.14) Voice can be directed toD) teammates, one's boss, or management.15) Who is most likely to exercise voice?C) Those who are conscientious and extraverted16) Who is most likely to exercise voice?A) More satisfied employees who identify more strongly with their work unit or organization17) Which of the following contributes to a positive climate for voice?E) Direct supervisors and higher-level managers18) Which of the following best characterizes high "voicers"?C) They report less work stress than those who remain silent.19) Psychological safety is important forB) voice.20) Which of the following contributes to silence and works against voice?E) The mum effect21) Which of the following will result in a climate of silence?D) Self-censorship22) Myra knows that her organization should not be using certain chemicals in the production process but has decided not to say anything about it. What is this an example of?D) Silence23) Sam has organized a meeting with her teammates to express her concern about the use of chemicals in the production process. What is this an example of?D) Voice2) Who is most likely to pass on grapevine information?C) Extraverts5) Which of the following does NOT explain what motivates people to gossip via the grapevine?E) A way to be accepted by one's peers6) If Lily has a lot of pent-up emotions at work concerning her boss and customers what would be the best way to communicate it?D) The grapevine7) Maurice is bored with his job and is looking for some social and intellectual stimulation at work. What is he likely to do?B) Use the grapevine to gossip8) Which of the following is most likely to build a bond of trust between senders and receivers?D) Grapevine9) Which of the following is NOT a reason why rumours spread fastest and farthest?E) When the sender is anxious2) You want your employees to feel comfortable in your office. Research suggestsD) decorating with plants and posters.3) Jargon is a form ofC) verbal communication.4) Which of the following is an example of jargon?C) The MBA used the word downsizing.5) Which of the following statements about organizational communication is FALSE?C) It is more difficult to regulate non-verbal communication when the sender has low emotional involvement.6) Non-verbal communication does NOT includeC) one's use of jargon.7) Which of the following statements about the decor and arrangement of offices is TRUE?E) An office which is tidy may be seen as more welcoming than one which is messy.8) Which of the following is TRUE?C) The clothing people wear communicates interpretable messages.9) What did middle managers working in the California information technology sector use to "profile" the identity and status of office occupants?B) Office decor10) Which of the following does NOT communicate liking and interest?C) Touching the person on the arm1) Which of the following is NOT cited as a distinguishing factor in the differences between male and female communication styles?E) Gossiping2) Which of the following is most accurate about male and female communication styles?D) Boys view conversations as a way to achieve status and to maintain independence.3) Gender differences in communication revolve around what Tannen refers to as theD) one up, one down position.4) Tannen found that there are a number of key differences in male and female communication styles and rituals that often place women in aC) one-down position.1) In which of the following cases is cross-cultural communication very good?D) Interpreting basic emotions in facial expressions2) You are a member of a Canadian company trying to negotiate with a Chinese firm. Which of the following instructions should you be sure to follow?D) Provide the Chinese with knowledge of yourself and your culture.4) When doing business with people from Arab countries it is wise to avoidE) getting down to business very quickly.5) ________ are one of the few forms of communication that have similar meanings across cultures.B) Facial expressions of basic emotions1) According to the text, which medium can transmit the richest information?B) Face-to-face interaction2) Which statement about media choice and communication is TRUE?B) Less-routine messages require richer media.3) Two important dimensions of information richness areA) the degree to which information is synchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive non-verbal and paraverbal cues.4) Which of the following is an example of high synchronous communication?E) Face-to-face5) Which of the following are high on non-verbal and paraverbal cues?D) Face-to-face interaction and videoconferencing6) The most information rich media areE) highly synchronous and high in non-verbal and paraverbal cues.7) Computer-mediated groups have been found toB) enhance the number of ideas generated.8) People strongly overestimate their skill in both communicating and interpreting sarcasm, humour, and emotions viaC) email.9) Which of the following is a challenge posed by social media?C) Cyberloafing10) Which of the following is a characteristic of cyberloafers?A) Better-educated males11) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cyberloafers?E) Low self-esteem12) A private work-related social media platform that is accessible only by organizational members is calledB) enterprise social media.13) What is the essential feature of enterprise social media?A) The capacity to communicate with specific co-workers or to broadcast messages widely18) What happens when computer-mediated groups that have to make a decision meet for only a single session compared to face-to-face groups?D) They have less satisfied members and make less effective decisions.19) Which of the following is most accurate about enterprise social media platforms?C) They are restricted to organizational members.20) Which of the following is NOT one of the most important features of enterprise social media platforms?C) Opportunity to edit1) Which of the following is NOT a basic principle of effective communication?D) Jargon2) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate active listening technique?D) Responding as soon as possible4) The performance appraisal system that has been adopted by several companies to enhance communication is calledC) 360-degree feedback.5) An employee hotline generallyA) is a means of downward communication.6) Traditionally, employee performance appraisal has been viewed as an exercise inD) downward communication.7) What do these organizations have in common: Air Canada and Bell Canada?D) 360-degree feedback8) 360-degree feedback systems usually focus onB) behavioural competencies.9) 360-degree feedback is usually used forB) employee development.10) After six months on your new job, you were expecting your boss to provide you with a review of your performance. However, to your surprise, your co-workers and clients are also providing information on your performance. What is this an example of?E) 360-degree feedback11) When survey results are fed back to employees, along with management responses and any plans for changes, this feedback should enhanceA) downward communication.12) What are suggestion systems designed to do?D) To enhance upward communication13) Jake has described something to you that you have never heard about. All employees in his organization are allowed to write down and submit ideas for improvements. What is this called?C) Suggestion system14) What is the fundamental challenge that managers face in their communication with employees?B) Balancing social-emotional and task demands15) What factors are critical to the perceived fairness of controversial policies?D) The adequacy of the explanation and the style with which it is delivered16) What effect did an adequate explanation for a policy decision have on employees?D) It reduced their tendency to retaliate.17) The CEO of the Stinky Cheese Company met with all of the company's employees to express his sincere remorse at having to lay off workers and to explain why this was necessary. What is this an example of?B) Provision of explanations18) When providing an explanation for a controversial policy, what should an organization do?D) Use a rich communication medium19) 360-degree feedback is also known asB) multisource feedback.20) What is the goal of employer branding?B) To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer21) Which of the following statements is most accurate about employer branding?D) Branding is first and foremost used to attract new employees.22) Which of the following is NOT an example of a tangible factor associated with effective branding?A) Social responsibility23) Which of the following is NOT an example of a symbolic factor associated with effective branding?B) Prestige24) What is the tool of choice when it comes to employer branding?C) Organization websites25) What is of particular value when it comes to management training?B) Showing how to convey empathy for subordinates when delivering negative feedback26) The condition in which a person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message is calledE) congruence.27) What is the meaning of congruence?B) A person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message.1) Which motive for conformity most clearly involves effect dependence?D) Compliance2) If I conform to my boss's wishes because of identification, I am conforming becauseB) I see myself as similar to her.3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of compliance?A) It occurs because a member subscribes to the beliefs and values underlying the norm.4) When conformity occurs because it is seen as right, it is known asE) internalization.5) What is the most likely motive for mere compliance to a request?C) You are afraid of the person making the request.6) Mario acts in accordance with group norms because he believes that the norms are truly right. He ________ the norms.B) has internalized7) The patriotic soldier truly agreed with the statement "My country, right or wrong." His agreement is indicative ofA) internalization.8) Information dependence can be explained byB) social information processing theory.9) After beginning her new job, Mika wasn't sure how she should think, feel, and act around her co-workers. She felt very dependent on her co-workers. What is this an example of?B) Information dependence10) After beginning her new job, Mika quickly realizes that she'd better listen to what her co-workers want her to do because they could be friendly and helpful or they could ignore her and not ask her to join them for lunch. What is this an example of?C) Effect dependence1) From the first stage to the last stage, which of the following sequences accurately portrays the stages of organizational socialization?E) Anticipatory socialization; encounter; role management2) In his last year of college, even before he took a job with a conservative bank, Randall began wearing three-piece suits regularly. To which stage of socialization does this example refer?D) Anticipatory socialization3) At which stage of socialization is the new organizational member most likely to be information dependent and effect dependent on experienced organizational members?D) Encounter4) Even before he graduated from business school, Stan replaced his knapsack with an expensive leather briefcase. This is an example ofB) anticipatory socialization.5) What do newcomers need to learn about during the socialization process?D) Task, role, group, organization6) Person-organization fit refers toD) the match between an employee's personal values and the values of the organization.7) Which of the following depicts the socialization process?D) Socialization methods -> Proximal outcomes -> Distal outcomes8) Person-job fit refers to theB) match between an employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities, and the requirements of a job.9) At what stage of the socialization process is the organization looking for an acceptable degree of conformity to organizational norms?B) Encounter stage10) All of the following are proximal socialization outcomes EXCEPT forB) organizational identification.11) All of the following are distal socialization outcomes EXCEPT forA) person-job fit.12) Soon after starting a new job, Carman beings to define herself in terms of the organization and what it is perceived to represent. What is this called?D) Organizational identification13) What kinds of fit are important for socialization?D) PJ fit, PO fit, PG fit14) What theory explains the motivation of newcomers during the socialization process?D) Uncertainty reduction theory15) According to uncertainty reduction theory,B) newcomers are motivated to reduce their uncertainty.16) After beginning her job, Mika wanted the work environment to be more predictable and understandable. What theory explains her motivation?D) Uncertainty reduction theory1) A psychological contract isE) the set of beliefs held by employees concerning the reciprocal obligations between them and their employer.2) Research indicates that the expectations people have about organizations before they actually join themB) are amazingly accurate.3) Salma has just started a new job and is explaining the reciprocal obligations and promises between her and her organization. What is she talking about?D) Psychological contract4) Psychological contract breach can occur for the all of the following reasons EXCEPT forB) when newcomers lack sufficient information to form accurate perceptions.5) If a recruiter promises you more than an organization can provide, what might happen after you join the organization?B) Psychological contract breach6) When newcomers enter organizations and they realize that their expectations are not being met what are they experiencing?C) A reality shock7) Organizational changes such as downsizing and restructuring can lead toB) a psychological contract breach.8) When are many of the terms of the psychological contract established?B) During anticipatory socialization1) The first day on his new job, John's experienced workmates sent him to the equipment shed to ask the attendant for a ridiculously named, nonexistent tool. John came back very embarrassed, much to their amusement. This is NOT an example ofB) a realistic job preview.2) Given the research findings, an organization would most likely introduce realistic job previews toD) reduce turnover.3) What socialization tactics are also known as debasement or hazing?D) Divestiture4) Which is the best example of collective socialization?C) Marine Corps boot camp5) As normally practised, a realistic job previewB) portrays both the good and bad aspects of the job.6) Collective socialization is NOT used toB) encourage individuality in the way jobs are performed.7) Organizations that handle a substantial proportion of their own socialization rather than rely on external agents to socialize their membersC) wish to foster reliable, stable job behaviour over time.8) Which person least likely experienced collective socialization with regard to her work?E) A novelist9) Which practice is most likely to lead to uniform conformity to a standard set of organizational norms?C) Collective socialization11) Institutionalized socialization involves all of the following tactics EXCEPTE) disjunctive tactics.12) Individualized socialization involves all of the following tactics EXCEPTD) serial tactics.13) Mentoring provides a number of career-enhancing benefits for the apprentice. These includeB) sponsorship, exposure and visibility, and developmental assignments.14) Research on women and mentoring suggests thatD) women who make it to executive positions invariably have had a mentor earlier in their careers.15) There are a number of career functions of mentoring. Which of the following is NOT a mentoring career function?C) Discipline16) Which mentoring relationship is most likely to experience difficulties?D) Female protégé, male mentor17) What is the main content of most orientation programs?A) Health and safety, terms and conditions of employment, information about the organization18) Institutionalized socialization tactics are especially effective inE) inducing uniform behaviour.19) Which of the following is a psychosocial function of mentoring?A) Role modelling20) Research on formal mentoring programs indicates thatD) they are just as beneficial as informal mentoring.21) Research on mentoring indicates that mentoring isD) more critical to women's career success than it is to men's.22) Which of the following best describes cross-race mentoring relationships?D) They focus more on career functions than psychosocial functions of mentoring.23) What kind of information do newcomers tend to seek out the most?D) Task information24) What source do newcomers primarily rely on to acquire information?D) Observation25) During the early period of socialization, what kind of information do newcomers seek from most to least?D) Task, role, group, organization26) If an organization wants to prevent newcomers from experiencing a reality shock when they join the organization, what should they do?C) Provide a realistic job preview27) What does "self-selection" refer to?C) Choosing to withdraw from the selection process28) All of the following are common examples of collective socialization EXCEPT forE) apprenticeships.29) What socialization tactic involves a fixed sequence of steps leading to the assumption of the role?C) Sequential30) Your socialization will require you to attend two days of orientation followed by one week of classroom training, then one month of on-the-job training. You will then be assigned a mentor for the next six months. What is this called?D) Sequential socialization31) Kamal has begun a new job and his boss has told him what he can expect to happen during his first year on the job including when he will attend training, when he will be assigned a mentor, when he will be given various assignments, and so on. What is this called?C) Fixed socialization32) After beginning a new job following graduation, you are surprised to learn that there are so many experienced members of the organization who were once in your situation and are always willing and able to help you. What is this called?D) Serial socialization33) What tactics represent the context of socialization?B) Collective-individual and formal-informal34) What tactics represent the content of socialization?A) Sequential-random and fixed-variable35) What tactics represent the social aspects of socialization?E) Serial-disjunctive and investiture-divestiture36) What socialization tactics have been found to be most strongly related to socialization outcomes?C) Social tactics37) Research on mentoring has found that mentored individuals haveB) higher objective and subjective outcomes.38) Joan and Tabatha started new jobs after graduation. Joan has had a mentor since she began but Tabatha has not been able to find a mentor. What are the likely career consequences of this?D) Joan is more likely to be promoted and to be more satisfied with her job.39) Research on mentoring has found thatA) the psychosocial function is more strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship.40) Research on mentoring has found thatB) the career function is more strongly related to compensation and advancement.41) Formal mentoring programs are most effective whenC) the mentor and protégé have input into the matching process.42) Which of the following is most accurate?C) Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as more honest and more trustworthy.43) Orientation programs that are designed to teach newcomers coping techniques to manage workplace stressors are known asC) realistic orientation program for entry stress.44) What does ROPES stand for?C) Realistic orientation program for entry stress45) What does ROPES teach newcomers?D) Cognitive and behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors46) Which of the following is most accurate?A) Males and females are equally likely to have been a protégé.47) Which of the following is most accurate?B) Female protégés report receiving more psychosocial support.48) Which of the following is most accurate?A) Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive just as much career and psychosocial mentoring as those in same-gender relationships.49) Which of the following is most accurate?B) Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior male mentor in male-dominated industries.50) What is a developmental network?B) A group of people who take an active interest in and actions towards advancing the career of a protégé51) What of the following best represents a developmental network?A) A protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside the organization.52) Two of the most important proactive behaviours areC) information seeking and feedback seeking.53) Research on ROPES has found that itB) lowers expectations, lowers stress, and improves adjustment and retention.54) Research on the effects of ROPES does NOT support which of the following?D) Improves performance55) A study conducted at Corning Inc. concluded that employees who completed a full orientation program were moreD) likely to remain employed with the company.56) Which of the following best represents research on the effects of proactive behaviours?D) A positive effect on proximal outcomes and a positive effect on distal outcomes57) Which of the following does NOT influence newcomers' proactive behaviours?E) Locus of control58) Which of the following is NOT a proactive socialization behaviour?D) Challenging1) The hardware division and the software division had rather different beliefs, values, and assumptions. This illustrates the operation ofD) subcultures.2) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of developing and maintaining a strong organizational culture?E) Resistance to change3) Which of the following is a benefit of developing and maintaining a strong organizational culture?C) Conflict resolution4) Organizational cultures that involve intense and pervasive beliefs, values, and assumptions are called ________ cultures.B) strong5) Which of the following statements about strong organizational cultures is FALSE?C) They always contribute to organizational success.6) Organizations with strong cultures tend NOT toB) merge well with each other.7) What do Enron, WorldCom, and NASA have in common?B) Pathological cultures12) The textbook notes that when HBC acquired 50 Towers department stores, almost every Towers store manager quit. Why?C) Because the cultures differed in terms of how management treats employees1) A meticulous step-by-step socialization process is characteristic of organizations withA) strong cultures.2) Bill Gates's impact on Microsoft illustratesB) how the founder can shape an organizational culture.3) All of the following are part of a careful step-by-step socialization process EXCEPTD) mentoring.4) The Running Room is a good example ofC) the influence of the founder on a company's culture.5) What is the first step in the socialization process of strong cultures?B) Selecting employees1) Stories about events in organizationsB) reflect several common themes across organizational cultures.2) Mary Kay Cosmetics gives top performers pink Cadillacs during sales meetings that have the flavour of a Hollywood premiere. This illustrates howC) rituals can shape an organization's culture.3) What issues underlie organizational stories?B) Equality, security, and control4) All of the following are common themes that underlie organizational stories EXCEPTC) Will I get promoted?5) Flight Centre's monthly parties called "buzz nights" are a good example ofA) rituals.6) What does Disney, Flight Centre, and Mary Kay Cosmetics have in common?C) Rituals7) During the 2011 Stanley Cup playoffs, in what company did staff hold a noon-hour street hockey game in the parking lot?B) Coast Capital Savings Credit Union8) The Rocky Mountain Soap Company is an example ofD) the communication of culture through the use of stories.9) Coast Capital Savings Credit Union is an example ofE) the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to convey a company's culture.1) Power is defined asA) the capacity to influence others who are in a state of dependence.2) Which base of individual power is most closely associated with one's position or job in the organization?B) Legitimate3) Which base of individual power is most consistently associated with employee effectiveness?A) Expert4) A military commander who is well liked and admired by his troops is leading them on a highly structured mission. We can be certain that the commander is high on two bases or power. What are they?A) Legitimate and referent5) Which of the following statements concerning power is FALSE?C) Because the target of power is dependent upon the power holder, a poor relationship necessarily exists between the two.6) Legitimate powerA) is a function of one's formal organizational role.7) Coercive powerA) is often associated with workgroup ineffectiveness.8) A well-liked Nobel Prize winner has considerable influence among the members of his scientific research team. This person is high on which two bases of social power?E) Referent and expert9) Two army officers get into an argument, and one cites his rank in an attempt to settle the matter. To which power base is he resorting?C) Legitimate10) I have referent power over you. This means thatD) you like me.11) Referent power is especially potent becauseA) it stems from identification with the power holder.12) What kind of power is most likely to be ineffective?B) Coercive power13) Expert power corresponds to the difficulty ofC) replacement.1) Rosabeth Moss Kanter suggests that certain types of activities lead to power. Which of the following activities is NOT likely to lead to power acquisition?C) Charitable activities2) Rosabeth Moss Kanter suggests that ________ activities lead to the acquisition of power.C) extraordinary3) Which of the following represents the best way of obtaining power through cultivating others?D) Relationships with superiors1) Empowerment occurs when people are given ________ to take the initiative and solve organizational problems.B) authority, opportunity, and motivation2) The relationship between performance and empowerment suggests which of the following relationships?C) Sufficient power-effective performance3) Which of the following is NOT an influence tactic?E) Machiavellianism4) Behaviours that are used to convert power into actual influence are calledB) influence tactics.5) An example of empowerment at work is approaching the service desk and hearing:B) "Let me refund your money in full."6) Which of the following is an example of an influence tactic?C) Ingratiation7) What is the relation between the bases of power and influence tactics?A) Coercive power uses assertiveness.8) What influence tactic do people report using very frequently?D) Rationality9) What group(s) is/are most likely to be the recipients of the assertiveness influence tactic?A) Subordinates10) Rationality is most likely to be directed towardsC) superiors.11) What influence tactic is universally employed?D) Self-promotion12) What influence tactics are effective in job search situations?B) Ingratiation and self-promotion13) People who are empowered have a strong sense ofD) self-efficacy.14) When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with coercive power might gravitate towardsA) assertiveness.15) When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with referent power might gravitate towardsB) ingratiation.16) When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with expert power might gravitate towardsC) rationality or self-promotion.17) What influence tactic involves touting one's accomplishments, image enhancement, and name-dropping?D) Self-promotion.18) What influence tactic involves ordering, nagging, setting deadlines, and verbally confronting others?A) Assertiveness19) Mara has just been introduced to a new employee in her organization. She is not sure what to think of this person as she seems to spend a lot of her time touting her accomplishments and name-dropping. What is this person doing?D) Self-promotion.1) According to David McClelland, institutional managersB) have a high need for power.2) According to David McClelland, the most effective managersC) are institutional managers.3) A manager with a high need for personal powerD) will use their power for personal gain.4) ________ managers use their power for self-interest, whereas ________ managers are more concerned with being liked than with exercising power.A) Personal power; affiliative5) According to David McClelland, the most effective managers do NOTC) show a high degree of concern about how much others like them.1) Which of the following statements depicts a subunit controlling strategic contingencies?C) The marketing department's success saved the company from bankruptcy.2) Critical factors that affect organizational effectiveness are known asC) strategic contingencies.3) Which of the following conditions will NOT add to a subunit's power in the organization?A) The work it performs can be contracted out.4) Which subunit controls strategic contingencies?D) The one that can obtain scarce resources.5) If you gain power by controlling strategic contingencies, you are most likelyA) drawing new customers to the firm.6) Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions for controlling strategic contingencies?D) Defensiveness7) What strategic contingency condition is at play when a subunit has an especially crucial impact on the quantity or quality of the organization's key product or service?C) Centrality1) Which of the following statements concerning organizational politics is TRUE?A) Political activity is self-conscious and intentional.2) The text defines organizational politics as theB) pursuit of self-interest.3) Using not-sanctioned means to pursue not-sanctioned ends is an example ofB) organizational politics.4) The manager who agrees to recommend a raise for an employee if she increases her net sales by 30 percent is using ________ means to achieve ________ ends.B) sanctioned; sanctioned5) The most effective strategy for neutralizing a "high Mach" co-worker is toC) interact with him in a formal, structured manner.6) "High Machs" tend to beC) convincing liars.8) "High Machs"C) do not feel guilty about their Machiavellian behaviour.10) Which of the following is a defensive behaviour used to avoid blame for the consequences of some behaviour?C) Buffing11) Which of the following is a defensive behaviour that is used to avoid taking action?B) Overconforming12) The definition of political skills includes what two aspects?B) Comprehending others and translating comprehension into influence13) If you are able to understand your co-workers and to use that knowledge to influence them to act in ways that enhance your personal or organizational objectives, then what do you have?D) Political skill14) Which of the following are facets of political skill?A) Social astuteness and apparent sincerity15) You have a new friend at work who has impressed you. He seems to be very good at observing others and he seems able to tune into their needs and motives. He can "read" people and seems to have emotional intelligence and knows how to present himself to others. What skill does your new friend possess?E) Social astuteness16) If you have political skill, it means you have the following EXCEPTC) assertiveness.17) Political skill is positively related toA) job performance.18) What do general managers do to bolster their political networks?B) Face-to-face encounters and informal small talk19) If you do favours for others and stress the obligations of others to you, what are you doing?A) Bolstering your political network20) The following are aspects to networking EXCEPTE) upward appeal.21) Soon after Liam began his new job, he started to observe his co-workers to learn about the organization and how people get things done. One thing he noticed was that some of his co-workers would try very hard to get high-profile work projects and to also sit on important committees and task forces. What is Liam observing?B) Increasing internal visibility22) Owen is a longtime friend of Simon who has been working for a very prestigious law firm for several years. Simon admires Owen for how successful he has become and asks him how he has managed to become so successful. Owen tells Simon that he always gives his business card out and makes a point of sending gifts and thank you notes to people. What does Owen do?D) Maintain contacts23) What personality types are most likely to engage in networking behaviours?D) High self-esteem and extraversion24) What networking activities are most associated with career success?E) Engaging in professional activities and increasing internal visibility25) You have three friends who are doing the same job in the same company. Jill tries to be assigned to high-profile projects and also sits on important committees and task forces. She also gives workshops and speaking engagements whenever she can. Cara spends time having drinks with co-workers after work, participating in company sports leagues, and she also participates in community activities. Sally takes the time to send gifts and thank you notes to people and gives out her business card whenever she can. Who will have a more successful career?A) Jill26) Which of the following is most accurate?C) Men and women engage in networking equally.27) Highly political climates result in all of the following EXCEPTB) lower job performance for younger workers.28) What is the effect of politics on job performance?C) It has a negative effect on older workers but not younger workers.29) High Machs are unlikely toC) be high performers.30) Which of the following is political skill positively related to?A) Job performance, job satisfaction, career success31) Teams that have members with elevated political skill tend to beB) more cohesive and perform better.1) Which of the following tops the list of research on observed ethical misconduct?C) Abusive behaviour and lying to employees2) Ethical questions usually revolve around the impact of organizational decisions on variousA) stakeholders.3) The text defined ethics asB) systematic thinking about the moral consequences of decisions.4) Behaviour is likely to be most ethical under conditions of ________ competition.C) medium5) Research indicates that among business students,A) undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than MBA students.6) Research indicates thatD) people with strong economic values seem prone to unethical behaviour.7) According to the text, ethical business decisions are more likely to occurB) after some systematic thinking about a decision's moral consequences.9) What is Dr. Jeffrey Wigand known for?B) Whistle-blowing10) What have Canadians been most actively involved in?D) Whistle-blowing11) Which of the following is most accurate?B) Women are marginally more ethical than men.12) Which of the following is most accurate?B) Older people are marginally more ethical than the young.13) There is a point at which goal challenge can be so extreme as to induceD) unethical behaviour.14) What is most likely to deplete people's ethical focus?B) A consecutive series of high or increasing performance goals15) What did the Canadian Federal Court approve in 2017?C) The first-ever gender-based workplace class action sexual harassment settlement16) The psychological process by which people come to engage in behaviour that violates their own ethical standards is calledB) bounded ethicality.17) What does bounded ethicality mean?C) People are prone to ethical blind spots.18) The Bernie Madoff case illustrates which factor associated with unethical behaviour?B) Gain19) What has virtually every Canadian bank CEO denied?E) That there is a culture of unethical sales behaviour in retail banking20) The notion that people are prone to ethical blind spots is known asB) bounded ethicality.21) Which of the following personality types are most prone to making unethical decisions?C) Need for personal power22) What are people who are unfairly underpaid inclined to do?B) Engage in bullying1) What does the deaf ear syndrome refer to?C) Organizational inaction in the face of allegations of sexual harassment2) The most severe forms of sexual harassment are committed byB) supervisors.3) The most frequent perpetrators of sexual harassment areE) co-workers.1) Which of the following is a critical factor associated with intergroup bias?B) Negative affectivity2) What is conflict?B) The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit frustrates the goal attainment of another3) In its classic form, conflict involvesD) antagonistic attitudes and behaviours.4) What factors contribute to organizational conflict?E) Group identification, intergroup bias, and interdependence5) What of the following is NOT one of the causes of organizational conflict?D) Disagreement about goals6) In which of the following conditions is conflict least likely?D) Group A is not dependent on Group B and Group B is not dependent on Group A.7) At the New York Times, the print and digital units engaged in a turf war over the debatable issue of who should control the pricing and distribution of iPad content. What was the cause of this conflict?D) Ambiguity8) At Amazon, competition to retain prime work positions, impress management, and get promoted prompted conflict among employees. What was the cause of this conflict?E) Scarce resources1) Which of the following events is least likely to happen when conflict begins between two groups?B) On each side, conciliatory persons who are skilled at conflict resolution emerge as leaders.2) What is a process conflict?C) Disagreements about how work should be organized and accomplished3) Disagreements about the nature of the work to be done are calledE) task conflicts.4) After a few days on a new job, you find yourself arguing with members of your group over who has authority and responsibility and who should do what. What is this an example of?D) A process conflict5) Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict?C) Relationship and process conflict is detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance.6) Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict?A) Task conflict is beneficial for team performance.7) When does task conflict benefit team performance?D) When the task is non-routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered1) Which of the following statements concerning compromise is FALSE?B) Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power differences.2) Different approaches to managing conflict are a function ofB) assertiveness and cooperativeness.3) A conflict management style characterized by low assertiveness of one's own interests and low cooperation with the other party is calledA) avoiding.4) A conflict management style in which one cooperates with the other party, while not asserting one's own interests is calledB) accommodating.5) A conflict management style that combines intermediate levels of assertiveness and cooperation is calledD) compromise.6) A conflict management style that maximizes assertiveness and minimizes cooperation is calledC) competing.7) A conflict management style that maximizes both assertiveness and cooperation is calledE) collaborating.1) In order to stimulate conflict, a manager mightB) make resources scarcer.2) One way to stimulate conflict is toC) make resources scarce.3) Which of the following is NOT a distributive negotiation tactic?E) Cutting costs5) Superordinate goals areD) goals that can only be achieved by collaboration between conflicting parties.6) A superordinate goal is a goal that requiresB) collaboration.8) Conflict for which the benefits outweigh the costs is calledD) constructive conflict.9) Which of the following best describes constructive conflict?B) The benefits outweigh the costs10) A strategy of increasing conflict in order to motivate change is calledD) conflict stimulation.11) Introducing a superordinate goal is an example ofC) integrative negotiation tactics.12) What narrows gender differences in negotiation outcomes?B) When women gain negotiation experience13) When are persuaders most effective?E) When they are perceived as expert, likeable, and unbiased14) What is the best example of creativity in integrative negotiation?C) Superordinate goals15) Distributive negotiation occurs on the axis betweenB) competition and accommodation.16) Integrative negotiation occurs on the axis betweenD) avoiding and collaborating.18) What strategies were found to be most effective in a study in which new hires who negotiated received a salary premium?D) Collaborating and competing19) When is constructive conflict most likely?B) The tendency to avoid conflict is suppressed.20) If the parties to a conflict engage in open-minded discussion of their differences and are open to evidence that is counter to their current position, what is likely to happen?D) Constructive conflict2) Environmental events or conditions that have the potential to induce stress are calledB) stressors.3) The three stages of a stress episode are, in order,D) stressor, stress, and stress reactions.4) According to a study conducted by the American Psychological Association, work was reported to be a potent source of stress, edging out ________ and ________.E) health; relationships5) Stress reactions can beB) behavioural, psychological, and physiological.6) What are things such as extreme heat, extreme cold, isolation, or hostile people?B) Stressors1) An individual's ________ often determines the extent to which a potential stressor becomes an actual stressor.A) personality2) Type A personalitiesB) have a strong need to control their environment.3) Which aspect of the Type A behaviour pattern is most responsible for adverse physiological reactions that lead to heart disease?A) Hostility4) Extreme hostility and cynicism are the physiologically risky components ofD) Type A behaviour.5) The Type A behaviour pattern is a good example of howB) personality is involved in stress.6) ________ are the key factors that make a Type A individual prone to heart disease.B) Repressed anger and hostility7) People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands ofD) a heavy workload.8) How can personality influence the stress experience?E) It can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of stress reactions that occur.9) Karen has a new job and she never stops complaining about the demanding workload and how stressed she feels about it. What kind of personality does Taren have?D) High negative affectivity10) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress?C) People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment.11) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress?C) Externals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors.12) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress?C) Internals are more likely to confront stressors directly.13) What personality type report heavy workloads, long work hours, and many conflicting work demands?C) Type As14) An addiction to work in which one has an internal compulsion to work, thinks persistently about work, and works excessively is calledD) workaholism.15) Which of the following tend to be achievement-oriented perfectionists?B) Workaholics16) Which of the following types of people tend to be stressed, burned out, dissatisfied, in poor health, and do not perform better than their more laid back colleagues?B) Workaholics17) When are persons with high negative affectivity particularly likely to feel to stress?C) When they have a heavy workload1) Professionals are most likely to experience stress from job insecurity and change for which of the following reasons?C) They tend to be overqualified or too specialized to easily obtain jobs in related industries should social or economic forces change.2) When the goals of one's job or the methods of performing it are unclear to an employee, ________ exists.A) role ambiguity3) Burnout seems especially likely to occur toC) people who occupy organizational boundary roles.4) Jack has so much work to do that he doesn't even know where to begin. We can be sure that JackE) is encountering role overload.5) Role overload is a potential example ofA) stress.6) Angela is a vice-president of public relations while Peter is a telephone installer. Both occupyD) boundary roles.7) People who occupy boundary role positions in organizations are especially likely to experience stress becauseC) their roles as organizational members may be incompatible with the demands made by the public or other organizations.8) Which of the following is NOT a core characteristic of burnout?B) Severe memory loss9) According to the text, which is the most likely order of burnout stages?D) Emotional exhaustion -> Cynicism -> Low self-efficacy10) In everyday language, role overload refers toB) too much work.11) In the realm of job burnout, depersonalization meansB) treating clients like objects.12) Burnout is a form of stress particularly associated withE) boundary role occupancy.13) The job demands-resources model is a model that specifiesC) how job demands cause burnout and job resources cause engagement.14) Which of the following are consequences of an engaged workforce?C) Better financial performance and customer satisfaction15) What seems to be a key factor associated with the occurrence of burnout?C) Dealing with distressed clients19) An essential feature of bullying isA) its persistence.20) Which of the following is an example of bullying?A) Martin's co-workers are always teasing and criticizing him.21) When a group of individuals, usually direct co-workers, "gang up" on a particular employee, it is calledC) mobbing.22) The textbook states that organizations should be striving to foster exactly the opposite of burnout, which is highC) work engagement.23) According to the job demands-resources model, the work environment can be described in terms of demands and resources. Which of the following features would NOT be considered a job demand?E) Academic feature24) According to the job demands-resources model, the work environment can be described in terms of demands and resources. Which of the following examples would NOT qualify as job demands?E) Social relations25) All of the following are examples of job resources EXCEPTE) role ambiguity.26) Wayne just started a new job for a company that distributes swimming pool hardware like brass drain filters, pumps, and flexible heating coils for pool heaters. The warehouse is filled with approximately 400 SKU's or individual products. Wayne has been told that he is responsible for being the final "approver" for all orders before they get loaded on to the truck and sent to the customer. At the same time, his supervisor has asked him to try to manage the labour costs in the warehouse for himself and the dozen or so of other employees in that area. In the middle of double checking a large and very complicated order, Wayne was asked to meet with the warehouse manager, as well as a handful of other managers from the company, to discuss customer service challenges. He is experiencing quite a bit of stress and he is worried it is going to get worse as the role ambiguity he is facing gets more confusing. The stressors Wayne is experiencing are coming from the intenseE) physical working conditions.27) Which of the following is most accurate?D) Gender and personality are related to burnout.28) Which of the following is most accurate?A) Women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion, and men are more likely to report depersonalization.29) Three friends have just graduated from university and are about to begin their first full-time jobs. Jack has high self-esteem, Jill has high conscientiousness, and Bo has an external locus of control. Who is most likely to experience burnout?C) Bo30) Which of the following best represents the relationship between personality and burnout?B) Those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report less burnout.31) What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict?C) Those that require a high degree of teamwork32) What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict?C) Those that require a high degree of responsibilities for others33) What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict?A) Police detectives, firefighters, and family doctors34) When can job scope be a stressor?C) When it is too low or too high35) What employees seem to handle the tension between work and family better than others?B) More conscientious employees36) The bullying of subordinates by managers is calledC) abusive supervision.37) Someone who is experiencing stress at work, comes from an abusive family, and feels that they have been treated unfairly is most likely to engage in which of the following?C) Abusive supervision38) Why is abusive supervision especially damaging to employee well-being?B) Because managers control resources of interest to employees39) Which of the following statements about cyberbullying is most accurate?C) It consists of direct and indirect messages.40) Abuse that occurs electronically is calledC) cyberbullying.41) A national Canadian survey found that work-family conflict results inC) decreased work performance and increased absenteeism.42) Research shows that more engaged people areD) better performers and better organizational citizens.43) When resources are high, increased job demands are associated with aA) lower probability of death.44) When resources are low, increased job demands are associated with aB) higher probability of death.45) Which of the following is most accurate about work-family conflict?C) Men and women are equally susceptible.46) Stress emanating from the need for people to use and to master a variety of workplace information and communication technologies is calledD) techno-stressors.47) What is a techno-stressor?B) Stress from having to use and master workplace information and communication technologies48) Which of the following is NOT a dimension of techno-stressors?A) Techno-ambiguity49) The feeling that too many people have access to us, there are too many technology features to master, or we have too much information to process is calledE) techno-overload.50) The feeling that work demands have invaded non-work time, we must be constantly and immediately available, or our behaviour is being monitored is calledD) techno-invasion.51) The perception that technology is changing too often, that policies regarding technology use are unclear, or that text-based messages are prone to misinterpretation is calledB) techno-uncertainty.52) The feeling that new technology introduces complication and hassles to our everyday work is calledC) techno-complexity.53) The fear that others are more adept at adapting to and using new technology than we are or that it could threaten our job is calledC) techno-insecurity.54) What country has legislated the right of workers to ignore after-hours messages?D) France55) Persons who use connectivity to enable them to participate in family affairs (e.g., a short vacation) are known asB) integrators.56) Persons who are inclined to build a firewall between work and family, preventing techno-invasion by limiting connectivity are known asC) separators.59) What are the dimensions of work engagement?D) Absorption, vigour, dedication1) Which stress reaction has the best potential to permanently terminate a stress episode?D) Problem solving2) It was clear to everybody that the advertising campaign designed by Edwin had been a flop—sales had fallen rather than risen. Although under considerable stress and embarrassed, Edwin put up a false front, smiling and speaking positively about the campaign. What defense mechanism was he exhibiting?C) Reaction formation3) Which of the following statements concerning defence mechanisms is FALSE?E) Defence mechanisms actually confront the stressor directly.4) Tanya is a nurse who has been stealing medical supplies from the hospital where she works. To cope with the stress provoked by her guilt, she tells herself that "all the nurses steal supplies." In fact, they don't. Tanya is exhibitingA) projection.5) Diana's first job was as an air traffic controller, a position she found very stressful. Realizing that this wasn't for her, she found another job as a management trainee and resigned from her air traffic controller position. Her reaction to stress was one ofA) problem solving.6) After Alex was fired from his job, he went home and ripped up his small tomato patch. His reaction to stress was one ofD) displacement.7) Many studies of physiological reactions to stress have concentrated onB) the cardiovascular system.8) Clarise's self-esteem was threatened when she lost several court cases in her law practice. To make up for this stressful reality, she concentrated on becoming a competitive amateur sailing champion. Which defense does this illustrate?C) Compensation9) Alexis, a writer, experienced much stress when she could not get her novel published. In response, she resolved to become a superior literature teacher. Which defense mechanism is at work here?B) Compensation10) Which of the following statements about social support and stress is least accurate?B) The family is the best source of social support for dealing with work stress.11) Which of the following is targeted directly at the stressor itself?D) Problem solving12) Bob's boss criticizes him for turning in a report late. The stressed-out Bob responds "I'm not the only one. Everyone else around here turns in late reports too." This is probably an example ofA) projection.13) Which of the following are examples of hindrance stressors?D) Role ambiguity and interpersonal conflict14) Which of the following are examples of challenge stressors?A) Heavy workload and responsibility15) Which of the following represents the relationship between the type of stressor and performance?C) Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance, but only challenge stressors can stimulate performance.16) There is growing evidence that providing more ________ in how service is delivered can alleviate stress and burnout.D) autonomy17) Most formal job redesign efforts have involved enrichingC) operative-level jobs.19) Attending work when ill is calledD) presenteeism.20) What does presenteeism refer to?B) Attending work when ill21) Which of the following can cause presenteeism?E) High job demands and time pressure22) If you have a friend at work who is experiencing high job demands and time pressure, what might you expect from your friend?B) Presenteeism23) Which of the following is a common health problem connected to presenteeism?E) Depression24) Bullying and harassment are related toC) presenteeism.25) Reactions to organizational stress can be divided into what three responses?D) Behavioural, psychological, and physiological26) Which of the following is NOT an example of a problem-solving reaction to stress?A) Rationalization27) Which of the following is NOT an example of a defence mechanism reaction to stress?B) Delegation28) A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present is calledD) mindfulness.29) What is the meaning of mindfulness?E) A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present30) What is the relevance of mindfulness to work stress?C) It makes people less sensitive to stressors.31) What is the relevance of mindfulness to work stress?B) It makes people more resilient.1) Organizations in a(n) ________ environment must generally exhibit more change to be effective than those operating in a more ________ environment.A) dynamic; stable2) UnfreezingB) is the first step in the organizational change process.3) Almost any organizational change effort must consider changes in ________ to be effective.A) people4) Which statement about environmental change, organizational change, and organizational effectiveness is TRUE?C) Dynamic environments require a fairly high degree of organizational change if the organization is to be effective.5) Recent research is showing that some organizations experience constant, unpredictable, non-linear change. These environments are calledB) hyper-turbulent.6) To achieve and maintain seamless change, hyper-turbulent environments need to have the qualities of a ________ organization.C) learning7) What is the main reason reported for the failure of organizational change programs?C) The failure to change the organization's culture8) What effect does the perception of threat have on change?C) Motivator for change and extreme inertia9) The Stinky Cheese Company has begun to behave rigidly and exhibit extreme inertia. What has happened?D) Perceived threat10) When is inertia most likely to occur?D) When there is a lack of resources and routines and processes are not modified11) When a university program was threatened by low enrollment, the faculty spent many hours revising the curriculum. Resources were invested but the revised curriculum looked like the old one. What happened?D) Routines and processes were not modified12) What can cause organizations to unfreeze, scan the environment, and be motivated to change?A) Perception of threat13) In order for change to occur, people must have theD) capability and the opportunity and the motivation to change.14) Some degree of capability, opportunity, and ________ must be present for successful change.A) motivation1) What are the primary methods of organizational learning?D) Knowledge acquisition and knowledge development2) What are the key dimensions of a learning organization?E) Vision/support; culture; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge management/infrastructure3) Which of the following statements is most accurate?C) Learning organizations are almost 50 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability.4) Which of the following statements about organizational learning is most accurate?A) Failure is a more potent determinant of organizational learning than success.1) A change agent isA) an expert in diagnosing and changing organizations by applying behavioural science knowledge.2) DiagnosisC) indicates organizational problems and suggests reasonable changes.3) Those people within an organization who resist change tend to have a character including all of the following EXCEPTD) self-efficacious.4) Which of the following is most conducive to the acceptance of change?C) A moderate identity gap5) What helps to clarify problems, suggest what should be changed, and determine the appropriate strategy for implementing change without resistance?D) Diagnosis6) What do people resist?D) Unfreezing and change7) At what stage are defence mechanisms activated?A) Unfreezing stage8) According to a survey by the American Psychological Association, organizational change is associated with a number of indicators ofD) negative well-being.9) Which of the following statements is most accurate about resistance to change?C) People who identify very strongly with an organization often resist any change.10) Which one of the following is NOT one of the types of people associated with reactions to change over time?D) Believers11) Olivia's organization is undergoing a major change. She welcomes the change and supports it over time. However, her co-worker Mika has resisted the change from the start and has continued to resist it throughout the process. How would you describe Olivia's and Mika's reactions to change?D) Olivia is a champion and Mika is a doubter.12) Olivia's organization is undergoing a major change. She was resistant at first but over time came to see the value in the change. However, her co-worker Mika was at first supportive of the change but became resistant over time. How would you describe Olivia's and Mika's reactions to change?E) Olivia is a convert and Mika is a defector.1) Acme Limited had quality teams for three years, but they gradually lapsed into disuse and were finally abandoned. This is a problem ofD) institutionalization.2) The text pointed out a quality that was 1) useful for overcoming resistance to change and 2) a common characteristic of idea or project champions. What is this quality?C) Transformational leadership3) Transformational leaders can be especially effective when it comes toB) overcoming resistance to change and reengineering.4) If misunderstanding, lack of trust, or different assessments are provoking resistance, what is a good strategy to overcome resistance?D) Good communication5) What kind of leader is particularly adept at overcoming resistance to change?B) Transformational6) Which of the following is NOT a variable used for a thorough evaluation of a change program?D) Resistance7) When it comes to evaluating change programs, many evaluation efforts never go beyond the measurement ofA) reactions.8) If the outcome of a change program is evaluated favourably, what will an organization want to do?B) Institutionalize the change9) What does it mean to institutionalize a change program?A) The change becomes a permanent part of the organizational system.1) Which of the following statements concerning organizational development is FALSE?C) OD had its roots in the disciplines of engineering and accounting.2) Which of the following is NOT a value assumption held by most OD change agents?B) Most people must be manipulated to increase their contribution to the achievement of organizational goals.3) In recent years OD practitioners have developed greater concern forA) organizational strategy and effectiveness.5) What kind of culture is fostered by organizational development?B) A culture of organizational self-examination and readiness for change6) What does organizational development place a strong emphasis on?D) Interpersonal and group processes7) What are the traditional values and assumptions of OD change agents?E) Humanistic and democratic1) Which of the following is NOT generally an organizational change component of TQM?B) Incentive pay systems2) Which organizational development strategy focuses on continuous improvement?C) TQM3) Which organizational development technique makes extensive use of questionnaires or interviews as an integral part of its activities?C) Survey feedback4) Which organizational development technique is mainly about achieving small gains over a long period of time?D) Total Quality Management6) Because of your great knowledge of TQM, you have been asked to help coordinate your company's TQM efforts. One of the TQM project teams has come to you with a problem. They would like to clarify the relationship between each of the facets of the problem and how the facets relate to each other. Which tool should you teach them to use?B) Pareto analysis7) What is the data gathered by statistical process control tools about?C) Performance output and variations8) Compared to team building, survey feedback places ________ emphasis on the collection of valid data and ________ emphasis on the interpersonal processes of specific work teams.B) more; less9) Reengineering examines and changes ________ in order to streamline the organization.C) organizational processes10) Who should feed back the results of organizational surveys to employees?D) Local managers11) Research into OD effortsC) shows that many have a positive impact on productivity.12) Unlike some other organizational change initiatives, TQM isB) slow and continuous.13) What organization is considered to be a pioneer in employee surveys?D) IBM14) If the CEO of an organization is asking, "What business are we really in?" what OD strategy is being considered?B) Reengineering15) The CEO of the Smelly Cheese Company felt that the company needed to embark on a major organizational development program. For months he had been walking around the company asking himself and the company's managers, "If we were creating this organization today, what would it look like?" What OD strategy do you think the CEO should consider?E) Reengineering16) Activities or work that the organization must accomplish to create outputs that customers value are referred to asD) processes.17) When will the gains from reengineering be greatest?D) When the process is complex and cuts across a number of jobs and departments18) Which of the following represents a contrast between TQM and reengineering?A) TQM seeks incremental improvements in existing processes; reengineering seeks radical revisions of processes.19) The problem of "creeping bureaucracy" prompted interest in what OD strategy?E) Reengineering25) Team building usually begins withE) a diagnostic session.26) What is the ideal outcome of a team building diagnostic session?C) A list of needed changes to improve team functioning27) With respect to survey feedback, who do change agents prefer to conduct the feedback meeting?D) They prefer that the manager of the working unit conduct the meeting.28) Team building usually begins with a diagnostic session that is usually heldC) away from the workplace.29) When do surveys have the most beneficial effects?E) When the results are reviewed with employees and action is taken in response to the survey32) Which statement is most accurate about the effects of OD efforts?D) OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for blue-collar workers.33) Which statement is most accurate about the effects of OD efforts?E) Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes.34) Research studies on the impact of OD efforts have examined the effects of all of the following except forA) organization system factors.1) The text defined innovation asD) developing and implementing new ideas.2) The text defined creativity asC) the production of novel but potentially useful ideas.3) Louis is a gatekeeper in his organization. This means that heA) communicates technical information to his peers.4) As an idea champion, AliceD) promotes a particular innovation.5) Which variable does NOT differentiate between more and less creative individuals?A) Intelligence6) Which of the following is NOT an example of a process innovation?B) A paint company markets a new nonfading paint.7) A survey of research scientists described in the text found that ________ were most often mentioned as leading to creativity.C) freedom and autonomy8) Although ________ may help promote idea generation, ________ may be better for idea implementation.D) organic structures; more mechanistic structures9) GatekeepersA) import technical information into their organizations.10) Idea championsC) help guide innovative ideas towards implementation.11) Research and development teams that have been together ________ engage in the most effective communication.B) a medium period of time12) The usual sequence of innovation isC) generation, implementation, and diffusion.13) What does innovation depend on?D) Individual factors, social factors, and organizational factors14) What is an example of a creativity-relevant skill?B) Tolerance for ambiguity15) What lies at the core of creativity?B) Intrinsic motivation19) The Stinky Cheese Company is planning to implement a job enrichment program. What kind of innovation is this?D) Managerial innovation20) What are the three types of innovations described in the text?C) Product, process, and managerial21) What is a managerial innovation?C) New forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that facilitate organizational change and adaptation22) What two companies engage in extensive creativity training?A) Frito-Lay and Dupont23) Who is most likely to engage in creative deviance?C) Idea champions24) Defying orders by management to stop working on a creative idea is known asE) creative deviance.25) Jack works at the Stinky Cheese Company and he is working on a project which he believes will result in the world's stinkiest limburger cheese. His manager has told him to stop working on the project and focus on other projects that are more likely to be successful. However, whenever Jack's boss is out of sight, Jack continues to work on the world's stinkiest limburger cheese. How would you describe Jack's behaviour?C) Creative deviance26) When innovative ideas are extracted from the external environment by holding design competitions and/or using crowdsourcing to broadcast design problems to a large audience of potential innovators it is often calledC) open innovation.27) Which of the following best represents open innovation?B) Invite input from a wide variety of external sources28) When an organization invites input from a wide variety of external sources for innovative ideas, what is this called?E) Open innovation29) The Stinky Cheese Company is trying to develop the world's smelliest cheese but has been struggling. As a result, it has decided to invite input from a wide variety of external sources. What is this called?D) Open innovation30) Research evidence indicates that extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied byA) autonomy and feedback.31) The Stinky Cheese Company is trying to develop the world's smelliest cheese but has been struggling. As a result, it has decided to provide employees with extrinsic rewards to increase their creative behaviour. What else do they need to do to increase creative behaviour?E) Provide autonomy and feedback32) What is Deepak Chopra a good example of?B) Idea champion33) To be successful, what does open innovation require?C) An identity shift34) R&D in an organization and creative employees need to become less concerned about secrecy and more involved in intensive collaboration with external parties to be successful when it comes toD) open innovation.35) The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation is calledE) open innovation.36) What is open innovation?A) The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation2) Which factor does NOT stimulate the diffusion of an innovation?C) Complexity3) Diffusion refers toC) the process by which innovations move through an organization.4) Although job enrichment was successfully implemented in a firm's Toronto plant, managers of the plants in San Diego, Tulsa, and Pittsburgh chose not to enrich jobs. This is a problem of ________ change.C) diffusion5) What does the knowing-doing gap refer to?D) Managers know what to do but have trouble implementing knowledge in the form of action.6) Which of the following best represents reasons for the knowing-doing gap?A) Rewards for short-term talk and internal competition7) Which of the following is an example of the knowing-doing gap?C) A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and then did a poor job implementing the system in their own organization.9) Richard Walton came up with a principle that states, if diffusion does not occur, the pilot project and its leaders become more alone. What is this principle called?D) Diffuse or die10) Innovations are especially difficult to diffuse in organizations dominated byD) uneducated workers.11) Diffusion is more likely when the new idea is perceived as truly better than the one it replaces. What is this called?A) Relative advantage12) Diffusion is easier when the innovation is compatible with the values, beliefs, needs, and current practices of potential new adopters. What is this called?B) Compatibility13) Complex innovations that are fairly difficult to comprehend and use are less likely to diffuse. What is this called?C) Complexity14) If an innovation can be given a limited trial run, its chances of diffusion will be improved. What is this called?D) Trialability15) When the consequences of an innovation are more visible, diffusion will be more likely to occur. What is this called?E) Observability