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Microbiology Final study guide modified

Terms in this set (310)

1. Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics except they:
a. are multicellular animals
b. have a definitive host where the adult form lives
c. do not exhibit drug resistance
d include roundworms
e include tapeworms
c. Do not exhibit drug resistance
2. What is unique about the respiratory system in terms of microbiology?
a. Microbes cause the most life-threatening diseases in this system
b. More microbes attack the body via entry through this system Based on Ch 22 intro?
c. Microbes that attack this system result in death in the shortest time
d. Microbes that break through the defense of this system, usually remain in this system for one's lifetime
b. More microbes attack the body through respiratory system
3. Closed fecal sanitation systems had directly led to the reduction of all of the following nematode infections EXCEPT:
a. Ascariasis
b. Hookworm disease
c. Strongyloidiasis
d. Trichinosis
d. Trichinosis
4. Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths?
a. Proper sewage disposal
b. Avoiding human feces as fertilizer
c. Freezing foods
d. Thoroughly cooking foods
e. These are all effective ways.
e. These are all effective ways
5. Elephantiasis includes all the following, except:
a. it is caused by filarial nematodes.
b. larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels.
c. the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors.
d. microfilariae are in the blood.
e. severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum.
c. The parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors
6. Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics, except:
a. they have a definitive host
b. where the adult form lives.
c. they include tapeworms.
d. they are multicellular animals.
e. they include roundworms.
f. they have developmental forms that include cysts.
f. They have developmental forms that include cysts
Which of the following relationships is mismatched?
Tsetse fly and African Sleeping sickness
T.brucei rhodesiense and West African sleeping sickness
T. brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping sickness
Black flies and Onchocerca volvulus
Taenia solium and swine
T.brucei rhodesiense and West African sleeping sickness
The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
urinary and reproductive.
respiratory and cutaneous.
blood and wounds.
digestive and respiratory.
None of the choices are correct
Respiratory and cutaneous
The terms used for the four general types of fungal infection include the following, except
bloodborne.
subcutaneous.
cutaneous.
systemic.
superficial.
bloodborne
Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections?
Malnutrition
Cancer
AIDS
Tuberculosis
All of the choices are correct
All of the above
Cryptococcosis can include
septicemia.
pulmonary infection.
meningitis.
bone infection.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the above
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Malassezia furfur
Candida albicans
Pneumocystis
jirovecii.
None of the choices are correct.
jjrovecii
This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
Geotrichum candidum
Aspergillus flavus
Rhizopus species
Fusarium species
aspergillus flavus
Which of the following is a tick-borne viral disease that attacks the nervous system?
Dengue
Rabies
Botulism
Leprosy
Dengue- transmitted through arthropods (mosquitos, ticks lice, flies, and fleas)
The eye's best defense is/are the
Optic nerve
Eyelid
Eyelashes
Tear film
Cornea
Tear film
The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharge of an infected person.
True
False
True
Poliomyelitis (polio) is caused by the poliovirus and is primarily an intestinal disease.
True
False
True
Which of the following defenses is the most important for the nervous system?
It's a closed system
White blood cells
Resident microbes
The meninges
Its a closed system
When the nervous system becomes infected, what is the most common method of entry?
Through the skin
Through the blood
Through lymphatic vessels
Through the respiratory system
Through the respiratory system
Which of the following offers a second defense against microbial infections for the eye?
The choroid layer
The sclera
The conjunctiva
The retinal layer
The conjunctiva
Infections of the GI tract that enter through the mouth are most often
Bacterial
Viral
Fungal
Parasitical
Bacterial
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except one.
It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
It is a colitis that is a superinfection
It often has an endogenous source
It is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials
It is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
Salmonellosis is
not caused by Salmonella 'typhi.
associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.
types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea
treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement
All of the choices are correct
All of the above
Cold viruses are transmitted by
droplet contact and indirect contact
endogenous
direct contact
none of the choices is correct (Droplet and direct contact)
all of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Which microbes given below are the most probable cause for infection in the lower respiratory system?
Staphylococcus
Herpes Zoster
Influenza viruses
Fung
Staphlyococcus
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
Fomites
Direct contact
Mechanical vectors
Blood
Body fluids
Direct contact
Which digestive organ has the most infections:
The mouth
The stomach
The small intestine
The large intestines
The large intestine
What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?
lysozyme
keratin
sweat
sebum
salt
Keratin
What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home?"
Streptococcus
Cornyebacterium
Propionibacterium
yeasts
All of the choices are correct.
Streptococcus
The causative agent of acne is
Staphylococcus aureus.
Micrococcus luteus.
Propionibacterium acnes.
Streptococcus epidermidis.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Propionibacterium acnes.
Necrotizing fasciitis is
also called impetigo.
occurs in response to superantigens.
associated with strains of Neisseria gonorrheae producing destructive enzymes and toxins.
typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis.
Typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
fomites
direct contact
mechanical vectors
blood
body fluids
fomites
Impetigo is caused by
Propionibacterium acnes.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
Which of the following is not true of measles?
it causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytial
its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus
it is transmitted by respiratory droplets
it is a single-stranded non enveloped RNA virus=
It is in the paramyxovirus family
It is a single stranded non-enveloped RNA virus - False. it is enveloped.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding fifth disease?
it is caused by Parvovirus B19
it is a childhood febrile disease characterized by a red rash on the cheeks
the causative agent is capable of crossing the placenta
it is characterized by a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
all of the choices are correct
All of the above
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the MMR vaccine
it is given in early childhood
it contains toxoids
it protects against three different viral diseases
it contains attenuated viruses
it contains toxoids
Measles is also known as:
rubella
shingles
rubeola
fifth disease
varicella
Rubella(German) and Rubeola(American)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about warts?
topical salicylic acid
they are frequently cancerous
they are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
they include deep plantar warts on the soles of the feet
They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
They are frequently cancerous. warts are not cancer and they don't turn into cancer.
Cutaneous anthrax is:
seen in epidemic proportions in the US
a high mortality disease
found only in humans
transmitted by contact
A high mortality disease.
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
Gastrointestinal
inhalation
cutaneous
muscular
cutaneous
Leishmaniasis is transmitted through the bite of a(n)
Anopheles mosquito
tsetse fly
hard-bodied tick
sand fly
reduviid "kissing bug
sand fly
If a person who has never been infected with human herpesvirus 3 comes in contact with the fluid of shingles lesions, they will come down with
chickenpox
herpes keratitis
herpes labialis
infectious mononucleosis
shingles
chickenpox
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
croup
measles
influenza
rubella
mumps
Measles
Which of the following is mismatched?
human to human
animal to human
soil to human
all of the choices are correct
all of them are correct
Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?
Malassezia
Trichophyton
Microsporum
Epidermophyton
Malassezia
Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?
Epidermophyton
Microsporum
Malassezia
Trichophyton
Malessezia
Your sister cut herself with a knife and within a few days had a severe pus producing infection of the hand. A day later, her skin begins to come off, exposing muscle and other tissue below the skin. Predict what caused the severity of this infection.
The infectious agent is a fungus.
The infectious agent is likely a virus.
The infectious agent produces exotoxins.
This is not an infectious disease; it is an autoimmune disease.
The infectious agent produces exotoxins
Chickenpox
is transmitted by inhalation or respiratory secretions
is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material
has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days
has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops
all of the choices are correct
Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material
Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3)
uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
has humans as its reservoir
causes chickenpox and shingles
all of the choices are correct
All of the above are correct
In a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue. As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain fever and a rash. With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have developed an infection caused by ____
Neisseria
human herpesvirus 3
E. coli
Staphylococcus
Staphlyococcus
Which of the following statements regarding viremia is incorrect?
HHV-3 is disseminated to the skin by viremia
Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia
the variola multiplies in white blood cells, and cell lysis results in viremia
shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chickenpox
Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chickenpox
Considering the diseases and conditions described in this chapter, those transmitted by respiratory droplets are caused by _____
viruses
bacteria
fungi
all of these answers are correct
All of the above are correct
Which of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct?
a child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease
a pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child
administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella
the rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future
The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future.
Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?
Impetigo and ringworm
Impetigo and cellulitis
Impetigo and conjunctivitis
Conjunctivitis and rubella
Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease
impetigo and conjunctivitis
Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture Based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by
the common surface antigens of these two organisms.
the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes.
the fastidious nature of both organisms.
their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C.
The common surface antigens of these two organisms
Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci?
Beta-lactams
Macrolides
Cephalosporins
Ansamycin
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
present when virus is lysogeny
formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
cause of lysis of host cells
occur when temperate phages enter host cells
cause of lysis of the host cells
Viral spikes:
are always present on enveloped viruses
protrude from the envelope
block attachment between virus and host
are derived from host proteins
all of the choices are correct
Are always present on enveloped viruses
Host cells of viruses include:
humans and other animals
plants and fungi
bacteria
protozoa and algae
all of the choices are correct
All of the above are correct
Viruses have all the following except
definite shape
metabolism
genes
the ability to infect host cells
ultramicroscopic size
metabolism
Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
True
False
True
Viruses that specifically infect bacteria are called
Viroids
Prions
Bacteriophages
Satellite viruses
All of the choices infect bacteria
Bacteriophages
All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except
Motility
ectoplasm and endoplasm
heterotrophic nutrition
formation of a cyst stage
cell wall
cell wall
The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
Chloroplasts
Endoplasmic reticulum
endoplasmic reticulum
Filamentous fungi are called
Pseudohyphae
Septa
Molds
Dimorphic
Mycelium
Molds
Which of the following is not a universal precaution for handling patients and body substances?
Mask and gloves
Proper disposal of needles
Health care worker with active lesions handling patients
Hand washing
Sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces
Health care worker with active lesions handling patients.
Which is not a characteristic of fungi?
Have cell walls
Photosynthetic
Include single-celled and filamentous forms
Heterotrophic nutrition
Can use a wide variety of nutrients
Photosynthetic
In humans, helminths generally infect the
Digestive tract
Urinary tract
Nervous system
Muscular system
Skin
Digestive tract
All of the following are helminths except
Pinworms
Flukes
Trypanosomes
Roundworms
Tapeworms
Trypanosomes
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following?
double-stranded DNA
single-stranded DNA
double-stranded RNA
single-stranded RNA
All of the choices are correct
All of the above are correct
The primary purpose of viral cultivation is
to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens.
to prepare viruses for vaccines.
to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the above are correct
t is necessary to culture viruses both in vivo and in vitro so that vaccines can be developed, analysis of viral genomes can be made, and viruses in clinical specimens can be identified.
True
False
True
All bacterial cells have:
One or more chromosomes
One or more fimbriae
The ability to produce endospores
Capsules
Flagella
One or more chomosomes
Which of the following is not classified as a helminth?
Tapeworm
Fluke
Flatworm
Roundworm
All of the choices are helminths
All of them are helminths
The virulence of a pathogen is established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.
True
False
False
Which of the following are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
Meats like ground beef and pork
Human tissues such as heart valves and skin
Operating room air
Surgical gloves
All of the choices are correct
All of the above choices are correct
Infectious protein particles are called
Viroids
Phages
Prions
oncogenic viruses
Spikes
Prions
The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
respiratory system
gastrointestinal system
urinary system
genital system
skin
respiratory system
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be
Material would not be able to cross the cell membrane
Protein synthesis would stop
Destruction of the cell's DNA
Formation of glycogen inclusions
Loss of capsule
protein synthesis would stop
The bacterial chromosome
is located in the cell membrane
contains all the cell's plasmids
is part of the nucleoid
forms a single linear strand of DNA
All of the choices are correct
Is part of the nucleoid
The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the
Ribosome
Golgi apparatus
Nucleolus
Nucleus
Lysosome
Nucleolus
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a(n)
Syndrome
Symptom
Sign
Pathology
Inflammation
Symptom
Viruses are not filterable.
True
False
False
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in the cells of bacteria?
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Lysosomes
All of the choices are correct.
All of the above are correct
Lysogeny refers to
altering the host range of a virus.
latent state of herpes infections
virion exiting host cell
viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosomes.
None of the choices is correct.
Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosomes
. Host cells of viruses include
Humans and other animals
Plants and fungi
Bacteria
Protozoa and algae
All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of
Protozoan
Algae
Fungi
Bacteria
All of the choices are correct.
Fungi
An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called
Exogenous
An exotoxin
An enterotoxin
Endogenous
Axenic
Endogenous
Infections occur when
Contaminants are present on the skin
A person swallows microbes in/on food
A person inhales microbes in the air
Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
All of the choices are correct
Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?
Naked viruses
Protozoan cysts
Fungal spores
Bacterial endospores
Yeast
Bacterial endospores
Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
True
False
True
Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
Chloroplasts
endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit for an infectious disease?
Flatulence
urogenital tract and feces
coughing and sneezing
skin
All of these are normal exit portals.
Flatulence
Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except:
Ultraviolet radiation
Boiling water
HEPA filters
Pasteurization
Hydrogen peroxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made?
She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics.
She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.
She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin.
She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up.
She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.
She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.
If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
N. gonorrhoeae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureu
N. gonorrhoeae
All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except:
Humans are the only significant reservoir.
Some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens.
Most strains do not have a capsule.
It can cause impetigo and erysipelas.
Infection is generally through direct contact.
Most strains do not have a capsule
All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except:
it is the coagulase-positive species.
the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response.
carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria.
most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin.
it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses
the bodys most powerful defences aginst it lies in the t-cell response
A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?
Nutrient agar
Blood agar
Chocolate agar
MacConkey agar
Mannitol salt agar
Mannitol salt agar
A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics and globulin. This test is indicative of
Group A streptococci.
Group B streptococci.
S. saprophyticus.
S. epidermidis.
S. aureus.
Group B streptococci
Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"?
Coagulase
Penicillinase
Hemolysin
Hyaluronidase
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Hyaluronidase
Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots?
Coagulase
Penicillinase
Staphylokinase
Hyaluronidase
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Staphlokinase
A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for:
Neisseria meningitidis.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with:
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
Streptococcus agalactiae.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except:
virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
it causes serious meningitis.
the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
it is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia
The installation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by:
Neisseria meningitidis.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is:
the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
the cause of gonorrhea.
called the gonococcus.
virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except:
a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
it is a reportable infectious disease.
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications.
females can have asymptomatic infection.
symptoms include painful urination and discharge.
a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry
People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except:
elderly.
those with underlying lung disease and viral infections.
patients without a spleen.
adolescents and young adults.
young infants.
adolescents and young adults
Meningococcemia is:
common during gonorrhea.
associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.
frequently seen in elderly.
caused by a gram positive diplococcus.
All of the choices are correct.
Associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is:
called the meningococcus.
in the viridans group.
a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.
a pathogen with endotoxin.
All of the choices are correct.
a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule
Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include:
otitis media.
meningitis.
lobar pneumonia.
bronchial pneumonia.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except:
It occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
It is caused by immune system auto-antibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
Necrotizing fasciitis is:
also called impetigo.
possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues.
associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.
typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis.
not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.
Associated with strains of streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins
The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is:
erysipelas.
impetigo
necrotizing fasciitis.
scarlet fever.
None of the choices are correct.
erysipelas
Scarlet fever involves:
high fever.
bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue.
eventual desquamation of epidermis.
septicemia as a complication.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except:
risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis.
development of rheumatic fever.
appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection.
transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore
throat.
e. development of acute glomerulonephritis.
Transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.
All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except:
normal flora of the human large intestine.
increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics.
cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias.
can cause endocarditis.
belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.
belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci
Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the:
Gram stain.
coagulase test.
catalase test.
fermentation of mannitol.
None of the choices are correct
catalase test
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except:
necrotizing fasciitis.
erysipelas.
impetigo.
scarlet fever.
scalded skin syndrome.
Scalded skin syndrome
All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except:
they often come from an endogenous source.
They typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices.
Catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection.
the organism is coagulase negative.
the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.
The organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins
Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except:
fever and muscle pain.
appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
sunburn-like rash.
kidney and liver failure.
Appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except:
folliculitis.
furuncles and carbuncles.
sore throat.
osteomyelitis.
pneumonia.
sore throat
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier.
Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats.
After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours.
Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA?
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophytic-us
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphlycoccus aureus
The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is:
all over the skin.
under the fingernails.
anterior nares (nostrils).
mouth.
intestines.
All over the skin
Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus agalactiae
Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Scarlet fever is caused by strains of:
Staphylococcus aureus.
Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pyogenes
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of:
Staphylococcus aureus.
Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Streptococcus agalactiae.
Staphylococcus aureus
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is:
enterotoxin.
hemolysin.
toxic shock syndrome toxin.
exfoliative toxin.
erythrogenic toxin.
exfoliative toxin
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to:
enterotoxins.
hemolysins.
toxic shock syndrome toxin.
exfoliative toxin.
erythrogenic toxin.
Erythrogenic toxin
All species of Staphylococcus:
lack spores.
are motile.
are motile.
produce coagulase.
All of the choices are correct.
lack spores
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is:
catalase.
coagulase.
hyaluronidase.
staphylokinase.
Dnase.
coagulase
Which microbes given below are the most probable cause for infection in the upper respiratory system?
Streptococcus
Herpes Zoster
Polio
Fungi
Streptococcus
Which of the following is a zoonotic viral disease that attacks the nervous system?
Herpes
Rabies
Polio
Botulism
Rabies
Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization boosters of the tetanus toxoid.
True
False
True
In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death.
True
False
True
Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.
True
False
True
There are no infectious agents that can invade intact skin.
True
False
False
All of the following pertain to genital warts except
are not common in North America
are sexually transmitted
often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix
includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate
certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis
Are not common in north america
Of the following items, which one provides the most defense for the urinary & reproductive system?
Closed system
White blood cells
Mucous membrane
Blood barrier
White blood cells
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
Alpha-hemolytic on blood agar
often referred to as pneumococcus
commonly found as part of the normal microbiota of the human respiratory tract
most likely to be treated with antibiotics
all of the choices are correct
All the choices are correct
Bladder infections are more common in women because fecal bacteria can infect the urinary tract more easily.
True
False
True
Malaria may be prevented by
using bed nets sprayed with insecticide
eliminating standing water
taking prophylactic drugs
decreasing the mosquito population
all of the choices are correct
All the choices are correct
Normal biota of the urethra include all of the following except
nonhemolytic Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Corynebacterium
Escherichia coli
Lactobacillus
E.coli
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
flushing action of urine
Lysozyme
IgA
IgG
mucus secretions
igG
The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years is:
Corynebacterium.
Staphylococcus.
Escherichia coli.
Lactobacillus.
Candida albicans.
Lactobacillus
Which of the following diseases involve bacteria that moves from the digestive tract to the nervous system?
Herpes
Dengue
Rabies
Botulism
Botulism
All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except:
red blood cells in urine.
painful urination.
white blood cells in urine.
Nausea.
diarrhea.
Diarrhea
Protective features of the skin include all but
Keratinized surface
Resident biota
Antimicrobial peptides
High pH
Lysozyme
High pH
The reproductive tract of females is further protected against infections due to:
Their acidic environment
Their basic environment
Their neutral environment
Their sterile environment
Their acidic environment
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?:
Vaginal pH is neutral.
Estrogen causes glycogen release.
Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
Secretory IgA provides protection.
Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
hich of the body's systems offers the most protection against microbe infection?
Respiratory system
Cardiovascular (blood) system
integumentary (skin) system
Urinary system
Integumentary system (skin)
All are true of influenza viruses except
Influenza viruses A, B, and C make up three of the five major groups of orthomyxoviruses
The most virulent group is the Influenza A viruses
every year a new influenza vaccine is developed
the ability to provide lifelong immunity
the ability to provide lifelong immunity
Lactobacillis in the female reproductive tract:
is protective.
is indicative of underlying infection.
is the causative agent in common yeast infections.
can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.
can contribute to STDs.
is protective
The expected outcome of an oxidase test performed to identify Neisseria meningitidis is
the amplification of the oxi gene as detected on an agarose gel.
cells colored black when stained and viewed under the microscope.
the appearance of bubbles when cells are mixed with hydrogen peroxide.
a zone of clearing surrounding colonies on chocolate agar.
a color change of a colony from tan to black when oxidase reagent is added.
a color change of a colony from tan to black when oxidase reagent is added
Meningitis can be caused by a number of microbes, and the causative organism is often identified by microscopic observation of the cerebrospinal fluid. Identify the mismatch in the following list of organisms and the description of the microscopic observation.
Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram-positive flattened coccus
Cryptococcus neoformans; fungal cells with a thick capsule
Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella
Enterovirus; no bacteria appear to be present in CSF
Neisseria meningitidis; gram-negative diplococcus
Listeria monctogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella
As a child, you received the OPV vaccine and its boosters. Now you are going on a mission trip to Pakistan, and the vaccine is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. When you go to the health office for the vaccine, they give you the IPV vaccine. When you ask why you are receiving the IPV rather than the OPV, the personnel explain that
there is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccine.
IPV is used as a booster only, and OPV is used exclusively for children's first immunization.
the IPV has fewer active viruses in it than the OPV, so it is safer.
the IPV is preferred by patients because it can be taken orally.
There is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccine
Toxoplasma gondii infects the brain, as do many other pathogens. However, Toxoplasma differs from other pathogens in that it
causes tumor formation in the brain.
causes destruction of brain tissue.
always kills the host.
manifests in behavioral changes in the host.
manifests in behavioral changes in the host
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
debridement.
washing the bite with soap or detergent.
infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).
postexposure vaccination.
All of the choices are correct
post exposure vaccination
Your friend was bitten by an aggressive dog with a history of biting without cause, and it is suspected to have rabies. The city health department recommends the rabies vaccination, even though she has already been exposed to the infectious agent. Which statement best describes why the vaccine can be given post-exposure?
There were few virus particles in the bite, so her immune system has enough time to respond.
Since there is no treatment available, they suggest the vaccine as a last resort.
The virus exhibits a long incubation period, and therefore, in many cases, this provides the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient.
This particular strain of the rabies virus is probably nonpathogenic, so the vaccine is given to boost the immune system's protective functions.
The virus exhibits a long incubation period, and therefore, in many cases, this provides the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient.
The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the ______.
tsetse fly
reduviid "kissing" bug
sand fly
hard-bodied tick
Anopheles mosquito
Tsetse fly
What do all of these diseases -- amoebic encephalitis, rabies, Creutzfeld-Jacob disease -- have in common?
They are all caused by protozoans.
They are all transmitted through animal bites.
There is a genetic component to all of these diseases, in addition to the infectious agent.
Mortality rates are all extremely high.
Mortality rates are all extremely high
Which is the exotoxin of botulism?
Factor V
Hemolysin
Botulinum
Tetanospasmin
Peroxidase
Botulinum
African sleeping sickness is caused by ______.
Plasmodium falciparum
Trypanosoma brucei
Leishmania braziliensis
Toxoplasma gondii
Lyssavirus
Trypanosoma brucei
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of ______.
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.
An exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release.
Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms.
They occur when endospore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds.
They are caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen.
Treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of ______.
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is ______.
Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis
botulism
gastrointestinal anthrax
Bacillus cereus intoxication
botulism
Poliovirus initially multiplies in the ______.
lymphoid tissue
central nervous system
nasopharynx
intestine
basal ganglia
intestine
In paralytic polio, which structures are damaged?
Brain stem
Diaphragm
Sensory nerves
Anterior horn cells
Peripheral nerves
brain stem
Which of the following statements about rabies is incorrect?
Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation.
Rabies is a zoonotic disease.
Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.
The average incubation period in human is 1 week.
Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs.
The average incubation period in humans is 1 week
Which of the following statements regarding poliomyelitis is incorrect?
The virus is transmitted by contaminated water.
Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been increasing in frequency.
It is caused by poliovirus (genus Enterovirus).
If the virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed.
It can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been increasing in frequency
Of the following listed below, which one is most likely to be caught in a "third world" country via infection through an arthropod?
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Babesiosis
Chagas disease
Malaria
Normal biota of the ureters and bladder include:
nonhemolytic Streptococcus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Escherichia coli.
None of the choices is correct.
nonhemolytic streptococcus
Although prion infectious agents are more closely related to viruses than any other kind of infectious agents, there are still some major differences between the two. Which statement describes a major difference?
Viruses can be transmitted by animal to human or human to human, but prions are always human to human transmission.
Prions are not destroyed by heat, but viruses can be inactivated by heat.
Viruses do not contain protein, whereas prions do.
Viral infections can always be treated and cured, whereas prion diseases cannot.
Prions are not destroyed by heat, but viruses can be inactivated by heat.
Tetanus differs from botulism in that
tetanus results in flaccid paralysis, while botulism paralysis is rigid.
tetanus results from an exotoxin, botulism from an endotoxin.
there is a vaccine for botulism but not for tetanus.
muscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulism.
All of the choices are correct.
Muscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulism
Prions can be transmitted by all of the following except
ingesting brain material.
ingesting meat from infected animals.
surgical instruments.
cornea transplants.
All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmission
All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmission
Subacute encephalitis may be caused by ______.
Toxoplasma gondii
prions
herpes simplex virus
persistent measles virus
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live ______ post diagnosis.
less than 1 year
1 to 5 years
5 to 10 years
10 to 20 years
greater than 25 years
Less than a year.
What organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii?
Mouse
Mosquito
Cat
Raccoon
Dog
Cat
. Spongiform encephalopathies are
associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain.
chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
caused by prions.
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves the development of
fever, headache, and rash.
coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
myalgia and orbital pain.
muscle aches and joint stiffness.
All of the choices are correct
coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
Each of the following statements is true for Toxoplasma gondii except that
infection is often fatal for AIDS patients.
It has a narrow host range.
it can cause stillbirth.
it is a flagellated parasite
It has a narrow host range
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes ______.
vector control
hygienic precautions
vaccination of humans
vaccination of cats
hygienic precautions
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a ______.
bacterium
protozoan
virus
helminth
virus
What is the likelihood that a patient infected by West Nile virus will develop West Nile encephalitis?
Less than 1%
Between 1% and 10%
Between 10% and 15%
Greater than 20%
Greater than 50%
Less than 1%
The best defense against arboviruses is ______.
prophylactic rifampin
prompt treatment with acyclovir
vector control
vaccination
Vector control
As a nurse, you have to teach your patients about control and management of their diseases as well as the facts of the disease--risk, treatment, symptoms, etc. How might you instruct a patient who has West Nile virus to avoid the infectious agent in the future?
Be sure to treat your dogs and cats with flea medication.
Do not go outside at dusk or dawn, and cover the skin if this is unavoidable.
Do not eat food served from kiosks and food trucks in foreign countries.
Always drink bottled water when outside of the U.S.
Get an annual vaccination if you live in an area where the virus is known to circulate.
Do not go outside at dusk or dawn and cover the skin if this is unavoidable.
Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
Pharyngitis
Tetanus
Kuru
Influenza (flu)
Bacterial meningitis
Bacterial meningitis
Which of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate?
La Crosse encephalitis
Jamestown Canyon encephalitis
Eastern equine encephalitis
West Nile encephalitis
Eastern equine encephalitis
The organism found in contaminated powdered infant formula that can cause meningitis is ______.
Escherichia coli K1
Escherichia coli O157:H7
Cronobacter sakazakii
Cryptococcus neoformans
Streptococcus agalactiae
Cronobacter sakazakii
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
The condition involves infection of both the brain and meninges.
The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets.
The treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is mostly ineffective.
The causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba.
The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by ______.
transplacental infection
breastfeeding
hospital personnel
exposure from other infants
exposure in the birth canal
exposure in the birth canal
Cryptococcus neoformans is a ______.
gram-positive bacterium
prion
fungus
gram-negative bacterium
fungus
Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Coccidioides immitis
Neisseria meningitidis
Coccidioides immitis
Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis.
Cryptococcus neoformans
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Coccidioides immitis
Neisseria meningitidis
Coccidioides immitis
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Listeria monocytogenes?
It is fastidious.
It does not produce a capsule.
It is resistant to salt
It is resistant to cold.
It is resistant to heat
it is fastidious
Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of ______.
intravenous penicillin G
vancomycin
rifampin
oral penicillin G
tetracycline
intravenous penicillin G
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
It is a small, gram-negative coccus.
It is the most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis.
It has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis.
It produces an alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide
Responds well to penicillin
Responds well to penicillin
.Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
develop a biofilm
use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere
include Streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque
include Ladobacilli and Streptococci, which ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries
All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
For the Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems, what is the major defense for blood and lymphatic vessels being infected with microbes?
B cells
T cells
Mucous membranes
Closed system
B cells
The epidermal cells contain the protein _________ which "waterproofs" the skin and protects it from microbial invasion,
Keratin
Omega-3
Actin
Collagen
Cytokine
Keratin
What is the name of the condition where the large intestine becomes inflamed?
Enteritis
Colitis
Gastritis
Diarrhea
Colitis
The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is:
Escherichia coli O157:H7
Escherichia coli.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E. coli
Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) causes
genital lesions
intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals
symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching
infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.
All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Documented transmission of HIV involves
Mosquitoes
unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
respiratory droplets
contaminated food
all of the choices are correct
Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
What is the major line of defense to protect blood from microbes?
Mucous membranes
Chemicals
White blood cells????
The meninges
White blood cells???
Of the following microbes listed below, which ones are the ones most likely to damage your immune system?
Herpes virus
Hepatitis
Human Immunodeficiency virus
Epstein-Barr virus
HIV
Which one of the following is the chief defense for the respiratory system?
It's a closed system
It's mucous membrane
It's respiratory membrane
The white blood cells
The mucous membrane
Ascaris lumbricoides
is an intestinal roundworm
spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food
larvae penetrate into the capillaries around intestines and migrate to the lungs
larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature
All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Meningococci initially colonize the ______.
Eustachian tube
oral mucosa
nasopharynx
lacrimal ducts
nasopharynx
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ______.
an insect vector
sexual contact
fomites
close contact
Close contact
Which of the following does not apply to Neisseria meningitidis?
It can be easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
Its reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
Its virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
It causes serious meningitis.
It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is/are a sign or symptom of meningitis?
Headache
Stiff neck
White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
Fever
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ______.
Listeria monocytogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
Escherichia coli K1
Streptococcus agalactiae
Meningococcemia is
best treated with penicillin G.
associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae.
started from a nasopharyngeal infection.
caused by a gram-negative diplococcus.
All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct.
The normal biota of the central nervous system includes ______.
Neisseria meningitidis
Herpes simplex I
Herpes simplex II
Streptococcus agalactiae
The CNS has no normal biota.
The CNS has no normal biota
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is ______.
cytomegalovirus
enterovirus
arenavirus
herpes simplex
arbovirus
enterovirus
Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?
Macrophages
Neurons
Astrocytes
Schwann cells
Microglial cells
microglial cells
The gut-brain axis refers to
changes in brain chemistry and behavior caused by the gut microbiota.
neurons in the spinal cord that connect the gut and the brain.
the location of dormant viruses that infect both the gut and the brain.
pores in the blood-brain barrier that permit the passage of glucose and other nutrients.
changes in brain chemistry and behavior caused by the gut microbiota
The presence of Neisseria in a sample of cerebrospinal fluid indicates that
the patient is healthy; Neisseria is part of the normal biota.
the patient has an infection with Neisseria.
there is a deficiency in the patient's blood-brain barrier.
the patient has previously had an infection with Neisseria
The patient has an infection with Neisseria
The concept of "immune privilege" explains why the central nervous system has
more MHC markers than other tissues.
a greater immune response than the rest of the body.
a completely different set of immune responses.
a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body.
A reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ______.
pia mater
dura mater
subarachnoid space
arachnoid mater
All of the choices are correct
subarachnoid space
Which brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain via the vascular system?
Meninges
Blood-brain barrier
Macrophages
Microglia
Cranium
Blood-brain barrier
Neonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in that
it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old.
neonates have immune privilege, and are therefore more susceptible to all types of infection.
it cannot be prevented as the causative organisms are normal microbiota for the mother.
neonatal conjunctivitis can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonnorhoeae, or any number of viruses.
It is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old
Many gyms are abundantly supplied with towels and antimicrobial sprays for wiping down equipment after each user. The reason for this is to cut down on the transmission of ______.
athlete's foot fungus
skin microbes like MRSA
measles virus
shingles
skin microbes like MRSA
What is the only way to prevent non-neonatal conjunctivitis?
Screen pregnant women
Good hygiene
Prophylactic antiviral chemotherapy
Vaccine
Insect repellent
Good hygiene
Your child has developed an eye infection with a yellowish discharge. You predict that this is a case of ______.
herpes keratitis
bacterial conjunctivitis
helminth infection
rubella
trachoma
Bacterial conjunctivitis
The causative agent of trachoma is ______.
herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
adenovirus
N. gonorrhoeae
S. aureus
C. trachomatis
C. trachomatis
Keratitis is usually caused by ______.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
Which of the following statements is true of viral conjunctivitis?
It is caused by adenoviruses.
It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
It has a mucopurulent discharge.
It must be treated with both topical and oral antibiotics.
It is caused by adenoviruses
Which eye disease is characterized by a pannus forming over the cornea?
Trachoma
Keratitis
Stye
River blindness
Simple conjunctivitis
Trachoma
Which of the following statements regarding eye infections is correct?
Immune privilege restricts virtually all microbes from the tissues of the eye.
Inflammation occurs in most eye infections and serves to initiate repair of the damaged tissue.
Lysozyme in tears targets the gram-negative microbes that contact the eye.
Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye.
Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye.
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
It can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae.
Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye.
It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact.
Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic.
Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye.
A higher rate of eye infections can be expected from a person who _____.
is very young
wears glasses
cannot produce tears
has a vitamin deficiency
Cannot produce tears
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
Tears
Conjunctiva
Eyelashes
Eyelids
Lymphocytes
Tears
The two tissues of the eye with exposed surfaces susceptible to contamination are the ______ and the _____.
conjunctiva; cornea
conjunctiva; lens
cornea; lens
conjunctiva; iris
cornea; iris
Conjunctiva; cornea
Among the natural defenses present in tears is the protein lactoferrin. As you can infer from its name, it is also present in milk and other body secretions, and its function involves binding iron ions. The presence of lactoferrin in tears is protective against bacterial infection because
all pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and lactoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is low.
pathogens with magnetosomes will be segregated from the eye tissue and swept away by the tears.
in the presence of lysozyme, as found in tears, the proteins form a protective barrier on the lens.
free iron serves as an immune signal to recruit T cells to the eye.
All pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and latoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is low
Which of the following ocular tissues and infections is mismatched?
Conjunctivitis; milky discharge and infection of eyelid lining
River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber
Keratitis; infection of deep eye tissue
Trachoma; infection of epithelial cells
River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber
Eyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because
they are not covered by keratinized epithelium.
immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunity.
there is scant normal microbiota to serve a protective role.
All of these answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct
To perform the coagulase test on a strain of bacteria that is believed to be S. aureus, the first step is to inoculate a tube of ______ with the strain of interest.
blood plasma
nutrient broth
mannitol salt medium
blood
blood plasma
Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ______.
Gram stain
catalase test
fermentation of mannitol
coagulase test
cellular morphology
catalase test
The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ___
Streptococcus progenies
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus
Mycobacterium leprae
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Clostridium perfringens
Smallpox is a disease in which:
fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons.
recurrent episodes are called shingles.
can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
surgery may be required for treatment
lymphangitis may occur with this infection
it is caused by S. aureus or S. progenies
it affects the epidermis layer of the skin
it causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth
It affects the epidermis layer of the skin
Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
it predominantly affects newborns and babies
it is an exotoxin-mediated disease
the toxins cause bullous lesions
the skin splits between the dermis and epidermis
the skin splits within the epidermis
the skin splits between the dermis and epidermis
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
carbuncles
scalded skin syndrome
chickenpox
meningitis
impetigo
chickenpox
Which of the following statements does not pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes?
it causes gas gangrene
it secretes streptokinase
it is often spread from an endogenous source
it coats itself with host proteins
it causes impetigo
it causes gas gangrene
The organisms that cause ringworm, or tinea, use keratin protein as their growth substrate. This is why these infections
cause a discoloration of the skin by damaging skin pigment protein
produce a rash all over the body during an infection
are restricted to superficial skin layers
have a high mortality rate
are restricted to superficial skin layers
Necrotizing fasciitis is
typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues
also called impetigo
associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins
not treatable with antimicrobial drugs
associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins
Which of the following is a febrile disease characterized by a rash and is caused by a virus that can cross the placenta to cause serious fetal damage?
measles
impetigo
shingles
smallpox
rubella
rubella
Which of the following statements is correct regarding rubella?
it manifests as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia
it is not preventable by a vaccine
it is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant
it is caused by the measles virus
it is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant
Which of the following statements about measles is incorrect?
dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms
humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
it may involve a fatal complication called SSPE
secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash
it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.
macule
bulla
pustular
maculopapular
vesicular
maculopapular
Which microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin?
Corynebacterium diphtheria
Candida albicans
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Malassezia
Streptococcus pyogenes
staphylococcus epidermidis
The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
variola
herpes simplex
human herpes virus
smallpox
vaccinia
vaccination
Which material in skin provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?
salt
lysozyme
keratin
sweat
sebum
keratin
The environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderately _____
alkaline
thermophilic
halophilic
anaerobic
psychrophilic
halophiliac
Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched?
antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes
sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth
lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing
lysozome; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
protective features of the skin include all of the following except _____
high pH
high salt content
lysozyme
a keratinized surface
resident biota
high pH
In the skin, blood vessels are found in the
dermis and subcutaneous layers
dermis
stratum corneum
subcutaneous layer
stratum basale
dermis and subcutaneous layers
Which of the following statements about blisters is correct?
blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer
blisters are confined to the epidermis
blisters originate in the dermis
blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
Microbes are not likely to be found in which of the following locations on human skin?
hair follicle
sebaceous gland
sensory nerve fiber in the dermis
the stratum corneum
sensory nerve fiber in the dermis
The integument includes all of the following except____
skin
hair
sweat glands
surface capillaries
nails
surface capillaries
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a?
bacteria
protozoan
virus
helminth
virus
All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except
cryptosporidiosis
cyclosporiasis
malaria
campylobacter
giardiasis
malaria
Viral meningitis always requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
True
False
false
the best prevention for UTIs is
to avoid contact
hygiene
to flush tract with alcohol
to consume a high carbohydrate diet
none of these are correct
hygiene
Which of the following structures of the skin assists in keeping the skin the most inhospitable?
Eccrine glands
Oil glands
Erector pili
Apocrine glands
oil glands
A mother brings in her unimmunized, otherwise healthy, 7-year-old daughter to the pediatric office where you are the charge nurse. The child has nearly 100 lesions all over her body, mainly localized to her trunk. Most of the lesions are vesicular, but a few have scabbed over. According to the mother, her daughter broke out in this rash about 5 days ago. She never experienced a fever, but the rash seems to be incurably itchy. As the mother is telling you this, you see her daughter itch open one of the vesicles, revealing a clear fluid.
Based on the patient's symptoms, you suspect that she will be diagnosed with
smallpox.
chickenpox.
shingles.
systemic wart syndrome.
chickenpox
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
wear insect repellent
good hygiene
trifluridine or acyclovir treatment
ivermectin treatment
prophylactic antibiotics
good hygiene
The eye's best defense is/are the
optic nerve.
eyelid.
eyelashes.
tear film.
cornea.
tear film
Keratitis is usually caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Staphylococcus aureus.
herpes simplex.
Neisseria gonorrhaeae.
All of the choices are correct.
all of the choices are correct
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
has a mucopurulent discharge
caused by adenoviruses
must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics
caused by Moraxella
caused by adenoviruses
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic
has a clear discharge
can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
has a clear discharge
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
conjunctiva
eyelids
lymphocytes
tears
eyelashes
tears
Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?
Malassezia
Trichophyton
Microsporum
Epidermophyton
None of the choices is correct.
malassezia
Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?
Malassezia
Trichophyton
Microsporum
Epidermophyton
All of the choices are correct.
malassezia
Transmission of tineas include
human to human.
animal to human.
soil to humans.
fomites to humans.
All of the choices are correct.
all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is mismatched?
tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin
tinea corporis - ringworm of the body
tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
Transmission of the pathogen of Leishmaniasis is by the
reduviid "kissing" bug.
tsetse fly.
anopheles mosquito.
sand fly.
hard-bodied tick.
sand fly
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
pulmonary
gastrointestinal
cutaneous
All of the choices are correct.
None of the choices is correct.
cutaneous
Which is incorrect about warts?
caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
include deep plantar warts on soles of the feet
are frequently cancerous
freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
are frequently cancerous
Rubella is
caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus).
a very contagious disease.
associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia.
All of the choices are correct.
associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac mental defects.
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
Croup
Mumps
Influenza
measles (rubeola)
rubella
rubella
Which of the following is not true of rubeola?
causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus
it is a single-stranded, nonenveloped RNA virus
it is in the Paramyxovirus family
causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia
transmitted by respiratory droplet
it is a single-stranded, nonenveloped RNA virus
Measles is also known as
rubella.
shingles.
rubeola.
fifth disease.
varicella.
rubeola
Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.
purpura
bulla
papule
macule
maculopapular
maculopapular
All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except
transmitted by direct contact with the rash.
Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen.
secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur.
involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE).
dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms
transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
croup.
mumps.
influenza.
measles (rubeola).
rubella.
measles (rubeola)
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
contains attenuated virus
contains toxoids
is given in early childhood
protects against three different viral diseases
None of the choices is correct.
contains toxoids
Varicella-zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3)
uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
has humans as its reservoir.
causes chickenpox and shingles.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with
herpes labialis.
shingles.
chickenpox.
infectious mononucleosis.
herpes keratitis.
chicken pox
Smallpox is a disease in which
fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur.
The virus becomes latent in the ganglia of sensory neurons.
recurrent episodes are called shingles.
can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
All of the choices are correct
fever, prostration, rash, possible toxemia and shock occur
Chickenpox
is transmitted by droplet contact.
Lesion distribution is centripetal.
has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
All of the choices are correct.
has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops
Which of the following is not true of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?
affects mostly newborns and babies
an exotoxin-mediated disease
toxin causes bullous lesions
split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis
split in skin occurs within the epidermis
split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis
The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
smallpox
herpes simplex
vaccinia
herpes virus 6
None of the choices is correct.
vaccinia
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
necrotizing fasciitis.
erysipelas.
impetigo.
scarlet fever.
scalded skin syndrome.
scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
occurs in the epidermis
causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth
lymphangitis may occur
treated with cephalexin
occurs in the epidermis
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
meningitis.
furuncles and carbuncles.
impetigo.
scalded skin syndrome.
Acne.
Chickenpox
chickenpox
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except
is often from an endogenous source.
secretes streptokinase.
causes impetigo.
coats itself with host proteins.
causes gas gangrene.
causes gas gangrene
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) is a result of S. aureus producing a superantigen and may occur as a complication of other localized or systemic infections.
True
False
True
Which of the skin's layers offers the most protection from microbes?
Subcutaneous layer
Dermal layer
Epidermal layer
Germinativum layer
epidermal layer
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are
resistant to mupirocin.
responsive to mupirocin.
resistant to penicillin derivatives.
responsive to penicillin derivatives.
related to Streptococcus pyogenes.
resistant to penicillin derivatives
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
enterotoxin.
hemolysin.
toxic shock syndrome toxin.
exfoliative toxin.
erythrogenic toxin.
exfoliative toxin
erythrogenic toxin
Giardiasis involves
a protozoan that does not form cysts
infection by a bacteria
symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea
fimbriae for adherence
All of the choices are correct
symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea
Yellow fever and dengue fever are
caused by arboviruses
caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting
zoonoses
transmitted by a mosquito vector
all of the choices are correct
transmitted by a mosquito vector
Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
Listeria monocytogenes
Neisseria meningitidis
Cryptococcus neoformans
Streptococcus agalactiae
Haemophilus influenzae
Cryptococcus neoformans
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